MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Important Questions

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Maximum number of members in a partnership firm performing banking business is:(MP 2010)
(a) 20
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) 10

Question 2.
In the absence of partnership deed interest on loan will be: (MP 2011,15)
(a) 10% p.a.
(b) 6%
(c) 6% p.a.
(d) 10%.
Answer:
(b) 6%

Question 3.
In the absence of partnership deed profit is divided in:
(a) Capital ratio
(b) Equally
(c) Liability ratio
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Equally

Question 4.
Liabilities of partners is:
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Limited up to capital
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(b) Unlimited

MP Board Solutions

Question 5.
Partnership deed means:
(a) Rules of purchase and sale in business
(b) Rules and conditions of partnership business
(c) Rules of dissolution of partnership
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Rules and conditions of partnership business

Question 6.
The balance of current account of the partner will always have:
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Either of the two
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Either of the two

Question 7.
Preparation of Partnership deed is: (MP 2009 Set B, 13)(MP 2014)
(a) Compulsory
(b) Voluntary
(c) Partly compulsory
(d) Not necessary.
Answer:
(b) Voluntary

Question 8.
When the new partner brings premium (goodwill) in cash, it is transferred to: (MP 2009 Set B)
(a) New partner’s capital A/c
(b) Premium A/c
(c) New partner’s current A/c
(d) Bank A/c
Answer:
(b) Premium A/c

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Question 9.
Interest on drawings is:
(a) Firm’s loss
(b) Partner’s income
(c) Firm’s income
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Firm’s income

Question 10.
On the admission of partnership the profit on revaluation A/c should be en¬ter: (MP2016)
(a) In the capital account of all partners
(b) In the capital account of new partners
(c) In the old partners capital account
(d) In profit sharing account.
Answer:
(c) In the old partners capital account

Question 11.
On dissolution of firm, the balance of partner’s Loan A/c is transferred to:
(a) Realization A/c
(b) Partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Partner’s current A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 12.
Profit on revaluation is distributed in:
(a) Sacrificing ratio
(b) Equally
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) Old profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
(d) Old profit sharing ratio.

MP Board Solutions

Question 13.
Profit on revaluation is transferred to:
(a) All partner’s Capital A/c
(b) New partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c
(d) Profit & Loss A/c.
Answer:
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c

Question 14.
New Ratio – Old Ratio:
(a) Sacrificing ratio
(b) Equal ratio
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Gaining ratio

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

  1. Partnership is the outcome of ………….. between partners.
  2. Indian Partnership Act is of ……………. (MP 2013)
  3. In fixed capital method ………….. account is also made.(MP 2013)
  4. By Product method interest on …………… is calculated. (MP 2010)
  5. In ………….. account method partner’s capital is always fixed. (MP 2009 Set A)
  6. In partnership the liability of the partners is ………….
  7. Preparation of partnership deed is ……………… (MP 2011)
  8. Gaining ratio = New ratio …………… (MP 2011)
  9. The liability of the partners in a firm is ……………
  10. The registration of partnership is …………… (MP 2016)

Answer:

  1. Agreement
  2. 1932
  3. Current account
  4. Drawings
  5. Fixed capital
  6. Unlimited
  7. Not compulsory
  8. Old ratio
  9. Unlimited
  10. Compulsory.

MP Board Solutions

Question 3.
Match the columns:

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Partnership Accounts Basic Concepts -2
Answer:

  1. (b) 10
  2. (c) 6%
  3. (a) 20
  4. (e) 1932
  5. (d) 1956
  6. (f) Loan from partner
  7. (g) Current account.).

Question 4.
Write true or false:

  1. Partnership is an agreement between partners to share profit.
  2. Partnership, a partner can transfer his interest in favor of any other partner without the consent of all other partners.
  3. In absence of partnership deed neither interest is paid on capital nor charged, interest on drawing.
  4. The liability of each partner in partnership is limited. (MP 2013)
  5. In case of insolvency of a partner the deficiency of his capital is borne by all other partners.
  6. Current account is opened in fluctuating capital method. (MP 2009 Set B)
  7. To make partnership deed is compulsory. (MP 2012)
  8. New Ratio – Old Ratio = Profit Receipt Ratio. (MP 2016)
  9. Registration of partnership is not compulsory.
  10. If the deed is silent on interest, then interest on partner’s loan will be paid @ 12% p.a.
  11. Without any written agreement among the partners, a legal partnership can be formed.
  12. Maximum numbers of members in a banking firm may be 20.’
  13. If the deed is silent on interest, then interest on partner’s drawings will be charged @ 6% p.a.
  14. Every partner in the firm beside taking active part in the firm also work as an agent of the other partners.
  15. Disputes among the partners will not be solved as per the provisions of the partnership deed.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True
  6. True
  7. False
  8. True
  9. True
  10. False
  11. True
  12. True
  13. False
  14. True
  15. False.

MP Board Solutions

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

  1. Name the agreement which sets out the terms and conditions for running the partnership business among partners ?
  2. In which account the balance of profit and loss account is transferred in partnership business ?
  3. What is maximum number of members in partnership ?
  4. Whether registration of partnership is compulsory or optional ?(MP 2014)
  5. The persons who have entered into a partnership with one another are collectively called.(MP 2009 B, 16)
  6. In which system the current account is prepared ?(MP 2009 D)
  7. The capital withdrawn by partners for personal use is termed by which name ? (MP 2015)

Answer:

  1. Partnership deed
  2. Profit and loss appropriation account
  3. 20 or 10 (Banking business)
  4. Optional
  5. Partners
  6. Fixed capital system
  7. Drawings.

MP Board Solutions

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Short Answer type Questions

Question 1.
What is partnership deed ?
Answer:
A partnership deed is a document containing the important terms of partnership as agreed between the partners. A partnership deed may be written or verbal.

Question 2.
What are the rules applicable in the absence of partnership deed ?
Answer:
As per the Indian Partnership Act 1932, the rules applicable in the absence of partnership deed are:

  1. Interest on capital: Interest on capital is not allowed to any partner.
  2. Profit/loss distribution: Profit/loss of the firm will be distributed equally among all the partners.
  3. Remuneration: No partner is entitled to get any remuneration like salary, bonus, commission etc.
  4. Interest on partner’s loan: If any partner has given loan to the firm then interest on such loan will be paid @ 6 % p.a.
  5. Interest on drawings: No interest will be charged on the drawings of the partners.

Question 3.
What is partnership deed ? Define it.
Answer:
Partnership deed is an agreement among the partners on the basis of which the firm is formed. The terms and conditions for carrying on partnership are recorded here. The object of preparing this agreement is to conduct the business smoothly. It may be oral or written. “Partnership deep or Partnership agreement” is that document which defines and describe the rules and condition for conducting business of the firm.

Question 4.
Why is it desirable to have a written partnership deed ?
Answer:
For the smooth conduct of the business and to have a healthy relation among the partners. The partnership deed is considered as a base. It is not compulsory to have a written deed. An oral deed is also considered as valid. But for avoiding any conflict among the partners in future, a written partnership deed is considered more relevant.

Question 5.
Why profit and loss adjustment account is prepared ? Explain.
Answer:
Is sole trade, the balance of profit and loss account is transferred to the personal account of the sole trader. But is partnership profit and loss adjustment account is prepared to ascertain the net profit or loss. All the factors effecting the profit and loss of the partners like interest on capital, salary, commission, interest on drawings, drawings of goods etc. are entered and the net profit or loss is ascertained. This profit and loss is distributed among the partners in agreed ratio or equally as mentioned in the deed.

MP Board Solutions

Question 6.
Write any two circumstances when the fixed capital of partners get change.
Answer:
Following are the two conditions when there is change in the fixed capital of partners:

  • When additional capital is introduced by the partners.
  • When drawings are made by the partners.

Question 7.
Explain four characteristics of partnership.
Answer:
Four characteristics of partnership:
1. Two or more person:
For making partnership, the number of persons must not less than two. In the event of death or retirement, if the number of partners become less than two, the firm automatically get dissolved. But the maximum number of members not to exceed more than 20.

2. Agreement between partners:
According to Indian Partnership Act 1932 the partnership must be formed on the basis of an agreement. The agreement among the partners may be oral or written.

3. Legal business:
The existence of a legal business is necessary for the formation of a partnership firm.

4. Unlimited liability:
With reference to the repayment of the firm’s external debts, the liability of each partner of the firm is unlimited.

Question 8.
If a fixed amount is withdrawn on the first day of every quarterly. What period will be considered for calculating the interest on drawings ?
Answer:
If a fixed amount is withdrawn on the first day of every quarterly, then the period for calculating the interest on drawings will be taken as 7\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) months. If the drawings is made in the middle of the quarterly, then the period will be of 6 months. And if the drawings are made on the last day of every quarterly, the period will be of 4\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) months for calculating interest on drawings.

MP Board Solutions

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Long Answer Type Questions

Question I.
Discuss the various methods used for calculating interest on drawings. Ans. Interest on drawings in calculated on the basis of following methods.

1. Product method:
In this method number of months are calculated from the date of drawings up to the date of closing accounts and it is multiplied with the amount of drawings. The following formula interest is calculated.

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Partnership Accounts Basic Concepts -3

2. Average due date method:
To calculate interest in this method, first of all the amount of drawings are added together. Each amount of drawings is multiplied with number of drawings months and the product is obtained. After that average month is calculated and interest is calculated from the following formula
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Partnership Accounts Basic Concepts -4

3. Simple method:
In this method, at first interest is calculated separately on each drawings for their drawing periods. Afterwords amount of interest so obtained are added together to find out the total interest chargeable on drawings.

Question 2.
Differentiate between fixed capital and fluctuating capital method.
(MP 2000 Set C; 01 R Set C; 02 R Set A, B, C; 03 R Set B; 06 Set C; 08 Set B; 09 Set B; 2010 Model paper 12, IS, 17)
Answer:
Differences between fixed and fluctuating capital accounts:

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Partnership Accounts Basic Concepts -1

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Important Questions

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
X Ltd. bought assets worth Rs. 28,80,000. It issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at 4 % discount as purchase consideration. Number of debentures to be issued:
(a) 30,000
(b) 28,800
(c) 32,000
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) 30,000

Question 2.
Convertible debentures cannot be issued at discount if:
(a) They are to be converted immediately
(b) They are not to be converted immediately
(c) None of these.
Answer:
(a) They are to be converted immediately

Question 3.
Discount on issue of debentures will be shown in balance sheet under the heading:
(a) Profit / Loss statement
(b) Other non-current Assets
(c) Debenture Account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Other non-current Assets

Question 4.
Excess of assets over liabilities at the time of purchasing a business is transferred to:
(a) General Reserve
(b) Capital Reserve
(c) Seller’s Account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Capital Reserve

Question 5.
Own debentures means those debentures which the company:
(a) Issue to its promoters
(b) Issue to its director
(c) Purchase in open market as investment
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Purchase in open market as investment

Question 6.
Profit on cancellation of owned debentures is transferred to:
(a) Profit & Loss statement
(b) Debenture Redemption Reserve
(c) Capital Fund
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Capital Fund

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Question 7.
When debentures are redeemed out of profit, then an equal amount is transferred to:
(a) General Reserve
(b) Debenture Redemption Reserve
(c) Capital Fund
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Debenture Redemption Reserve

Question 8.
In Debenture Redemption Reserve, Profit on the sale of Investment is credited to :
(a) Profit & loss statement
(b) Debenture Redemption Reserve Account
(c) General Reserve Account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Profit & loss statement

Question 9.
Debentures can be redeemed by:
(a) Purchase in market
(b) Conversion into shares
(c) Change in Debenture
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 10.
Interest allowed on debenture is:
(a) Fixed
(b) Conversion into shares
(c) Accumulating
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Fixed

Question 11.
Balance of Debenture Redemption Reserve account is transferred after the redemption of all the debentures:
(a) Capital Reserve
(b) General Reserve
(c) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) General Reserve

MP Board Solutions

Question 12.
Debenture holders come under the category of: (MP 2010,13,15)
(a) Owners
(b) Creditors
(c) Debtors
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Creditors

Question 13.
Debentures which may be transferred by more delivery:
(a) Secured
(b) Bearer
(c) Ordinary
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Bearer

Question 14.
The unpaid calls of debentures is called as:
(a) Calls in arrears
(b) Calls in advance
(c) Prepaid calls
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Calls in arrears

Question 15.
The fixed liability of a company is to pay to debenture:
(a) Profit
(b) Interest
(c) rent
(d) Commission.
Answer:
(b) Interest

Question 16.
Income from debentures is:
(a) Fixed
(b) Not fixed
(c) More
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Fixed

Question 17.
For the company, discount on issue of debenture is a: (MP 2009 Set A)
(a) Fictitious asset
(b) Liabilities
(c) Loss
(d) Real asset.
Answer:
(a) Fictitious asset

Question 18.
Kinds of debentures is/are :
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Two
Answer:
(c) Four

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Question 19.
Period of payment of internet on debenture is:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 years
(d) Any time
Answer:
(b) 6 months

Question 20.
The amount of discount on issue of debenture is:
(a) Capital loss
(b) Revenue loss
(c) Capital expenditure
(d) Revenue expenditure.
Answer:
(a) Capital loss

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

  1. Payment to debentures is done in the of company.
  2. The debentures which are redeemed first before paying any other type of debentures
    are called
  3. Debenture holders does not interfere in of company. (MP 2013, IS, 17)
  4. Debentures are generally issued for
  5. Generally interest on debenture is paid after expiry of a period of months. (MP 2009 A)
  6. Redemption of debenture means of the amount of debenture by the company.
  7. Creditors are company’s
  8. Debentures which can be changed into shares are called (MP 2014)
  9. Debentures is a written of debt. (MP 2016)

Answer:

  1. life time
  2. first debentures
  3. management
  4. cash
  5. six
  6. payment or redemption
  7. first debentures
  8. convertible debentures
  9. acknowledgement.

MP Board Solutions

Question 3.
Match the following
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures - 1
Answer:

  1. (e) Registered debentures
  2. (d) Secured debentures (MP 2013)
  3. (c) Convertible debentures (MP 2013)
  4. (b) Redeemable debentures (MP 2014)
  5. (a) Preferred
  6. (f) Debenture. (MP 2011)

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures - 2
Answer:

  1. (e) Creditors of a company (MP 2017)
  2. (g) Fictitions assets.
  3. (b) Capital received
  4. (a) 10%
  5. (c) Secured loan

MP Board Solutions

Question 4.
Write true or false:

  1. A debenture is a written document issued with the company’s seal acknowledging a debt.
  2. Debentures are part of owner’s equity.
  3. Interest paid on debentures is paid out of the company’s profit.
  4. Debentures cannot be issued at discount more than 10% of its face value.
  5. Redeemable debentures are those debentures which are paid after a specific period.
  6. Fixed debentures are also known as irredeemable debentures.
  7.  Debentures cannot be converted into shares.
  8. Debentures cannot be issued at premium.
  9. A pledged security is an assistance security.
  10. Loss on issue of debenture is a revenue loss.
  11. Debenture holders are the owners of a company.
  12. Debenture holders received interest at a fixed rate.
  13.  When calls amount is not received in debentures, then it is forfeited.
  14. Debentures are also issued for other consideration apart from cash. (MP 2013)
  15. Company’s debenture is generally transferable. (MP 2009 Set A)
  16. Debenture holders get dividend at fixed rate. (MP 2010)
  17. Interest is paid on debentures only in case of profit.
  18. Debenture holders are called share holders of a company. (MP 2011,15)
  19. Mortgaged debentures are called secured debentures. (MP 2016)
  20. The nature of debentures is that of short period loan. (MP 2016)
  21. Debenture can be redeemed on premium. (MP 2017)

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. True
  4.  True
  5. True
  6. True
  7. False
  8. False
  9. True
  10. False
  11. False
  12. True
  13. False
  14. True
  15. True
  16. False
  17. False
  18. False
  19. True
  20. False
  21. True.

MP Board Solutions

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

  1. Name the document which either creates a debt or acknowledges it.
  2. Name the debentures which may be redeemed only at the time of winding up. (MP 2010)
  3.  Purchase consideration – Net Assets = ?
  4. Issue of debentures of Rs. 100 at Rs. 125 and the difference 25 is called as.
  5. What are those debentures called whose name are registered in the company’s register? (MP 2009 Set A)
  6. Name the debentures which can be converted into shares. (MP 2010)
  7. What are those debentures called which are transferred by more delivery.
  8. How many debenture will be issued @ Rs. 100 each when a company purchased a building at a cost of 5 lakhs ? (MP 2011)
  9. Issue of debentures of Rs. 100 at Rs. 95 and the differences of Rs. 5 is called as. (MP 2013)
  10. Documents issued for long-term loan are called.

Answer:

  1. Debentures
  2. Irredeemable debentures
  3. Goodwill
  4. Premium
  5. Registered debentures
  6. Convertible debentures
  7. Bearer debentures
  8. 5000 debentures
  9. Discount
  10. Debenture.

MP Board Solutions

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by debenture ?
Answer:
Debenture is a written certificate for taking loan from the public by the company on which the company put its seal and interest is paid at a predetermined rate on a fixed date.

Question 2.
What do you mean by bearer debentures ?
Answer:
The debentures which are transferable by simply delivery are called bearer debentures. The payment of it is made to the holder of it. No provision is maintained for the issue of such debentures.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Redeemable debentures ?
Answer:
The debentures which are repayable after a stipulated period or after a fixed date is called redeemable debentures.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Irredeemable debentures ?
Answer:
The debentures which are not redeemable during the lifetime of the company are called irredeemable debentures.

MP Board Solutions

Question 5.
What do you mean by Secured debentures ?
Answer:
The debentures that are issued against the security, some specific assets or all the assets of the company are known as secured debentures. The assets undercharged cannot be sold without the consent of the debenture holders or till the time such debentures are re¬deemed completely.

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by debentures ? When can debentures be issued ?
Answer:
The word debenture is derived from the Latin word ‘Debere’ which means to owe. The term debenture is used to signify the acknowledgement of a debt given under the seal of the company and containing a contract for the repayment of the principal sum at a specified date and for the payment of interest at a fixed rate until the principal sum is repaid.

Whenever a company needs funds for a long period it can issue, debenture on the security of its assets, as an acknowledgement of debt from the public. It can be done in open market and applications can be invited. The person who buys debentures is called debenture holder.

Question 2.
Explain advantages of debentures to the company.
Answer:
Following are the advantages of issuing debenture :

1. Sufficient funds are raised : At the event of need of additional capital, a company may raise sufficient fund through issuing of debentures to the public.

2. No intervention in management: A debenture holder has no right to intervene in the management of the company since they do not enjoy voting right.

3. Fixed rate of interest: The rate of interest to be allowed on debentures is fixed at the time of issuing debentures. Hence, a company may make appropriate arrangement to pay interest in advance.

4. More dividends to shareholders : Due to issuing of debentures to full fill the need of additional capital, the shareholders may get more dividend since paying of interest to debenture holders costs cheaper than paying dividend, had the company issued additional shares to cater the need of additional capital.

5. Convenience in repayment: A company may conveniently arrange for the repayment of debentures to be made after a specific period of time.

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Question 3.
How many types of debentures are there ? Any four.
Answer:
The following are the types of debentures :

  1. Redeemable debenture
  2. Irredeemable debenture
  3. Bearer debenture
  4. Registered debenture
  5. Mortgaged debenture
  6. Unsecured debenture
  7.  Convertible debenture
  8. Non-convertible debenture.

Question 4.
Differentiate between a shareholder and a debenture holder.
Answer:
The differences between a shareholder and a debenture holder:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures - 3

Question 5.
Explain secured and unsecured debentures.
Answer:
1. Secured debentures:
The debentures that are issued against the security, some specific or all the assets of the company are known as secured debentures. In other words, such debentures create charge on the assets of the company. Sometimes such charge may be a floating charge on all assets of the company. The assets undercharge cannot be sold without the consent of the debenture holders or till the time such debentures are redeemed completely.

2. Simple, naked or unsecured debentures:
Such debentures are not issued against the security of the assets of the company. Since, no security is placed for issuing such debentures, they are known as simple, naked or unsecured debentures. The holders of unsecured debentures come under the category of unsecured creditors. From the point of view of security, such debentures are very risky since on such debentures the company gives mere promise to pay the interest and to repay the principal sum when it is matured.

MP Board Solutions

Question 6.
What do you mean by convertible and non-convertible debentures ?
Answer:
From Convertibility Point of View :
1. Convertible debentures:
The debentures for which the holders are given option to convert them into preference or equity shares within a stipulated period at a prescribed rate of exchange are called convertible debentures. Such debentures are popular among the companies because it may provide a permanent important source of capital.

2. Non-convertible debentures:
The debentures for which the holders have no option to convert into preference or equity shares are known as non convertible debentures. Generally, high rate of interest is allowed on such debentures. Such debentures are entirely redeemed on the date of their maturity.

Question 7.
Explain the methods of redemption of debentures.
Answer:
The method of redemption of debentures are as follows :

  1. Lump sum Payment method
  2. Annual installment payment method
  3. Purchase in the open market.
  4. Conversion method
  5. Under the below mentioned condition, these rules are not applicable.
    • Where the maturity period of debentures is not more than 18 months
    • Where the debentures are issued to the authorized company.

MP Board Solutions

Question 8.
Explain the essential characteristics of debentures.
Answer:
The essential characteristics of debentures are :

  1. A debenture is a certificate of debt.
  2. The company acknowledges the debt to the holders of the debentures by issuing debenture certificate.
  3. Debenture is a convenient means of external borrowings.
  4. A debenture includes debenture, stock, bonds or any of the security.
  5. A debenture contains the provision for payment of interest at regular intervals on fixed dates.
  6. A debenture contains the provision for repayment of the principal sum on due date.

Question 9.
What are the things kept in mind while redemption of debenture.
Answer:
Following things are kept in mind while redeeming the debenture :

  • Redemption fund should be made.
  • The amount of that fund utilize only that way what ever is redemption fund is created for.
  • It is compulsory for each and every company to deposit 50% amount issued amt.
  • Time of redemption amount should be arranged.

Question 10.
State the meaning of ‘Debentures issued as a collateral security’.
Answer:
The term collateral security means additional or secondary security in addition to the primary security. Sometimes, when a company takes loan from a financial institution, then besides the primary security, the company may issue debenture for additional security (as collateral security). The under who receives debenture as collateral security debenture is not entitled for interest on these debentures.

If any default is made by the company in paying back the principal amount or in interest on the loan, then the lender has the right to recover his dues from the amount the sale of primary security. But, if the primary security is not sufficient to recover the amount of the debt, then the debentures issued as collateral may be used for recovery of the remaining amount.

Question 11.
What do you mean by issue of debentures on discount and redemption on premium ?
Answer:
In this situation the company issue debentures at lesser than its face value but redeems them at higher than its face value. In this case company incurs loss both at the time of issue and at the time of redemption. The entries are as follows:

Bank A/c – Dr.
Discount on Issue of Debenture A/c – Dr.
Loss on issue of Debenture A/c
To Debenture A/c
To premium on Redemption of deb. A/c (Being issue of Debenture at discount and repayable at premium).

MP Board Solutions

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State the types of debentures. Explain any five.
Answer:
A company may issue following types of debentures:

  1. Redeemable debentures.
  2. Irredeemable debentures
  3. Registered debentures
  4. Simple debentures
  5. Bearer debentures
  6. Mortgaged or Secured debentures
  7. Convertible debentures
  8. Collateral debentures
  9. Right debentures.

1. Registered Debentures:
The debentures which are entered in the register of the company and are payable only to the registered holders are known as registered debentures. The interest on these debentures is payable to the registered holder. Such debentures cannot be transferred by mere delivery.

2. Bearer Debentures:
Such debentures can be transferred merely by delivery with-out any legal formalities. There are payable to the bearer or holder.

3. Redeemable Debentures:
The debentures which are repayable after a fixed period are called redeemable debentures.

4. Simple or Naked Debentures:
The debentures which have no security of payment of the principal and interest are called simple or naked debentures.

5. Right Debentures:
If a company issues debentures after 2nd August, 1979, first of all the existing shareholders have a right to subscribe. Such debentures are known as right debentures.

MP Board Solutions

Question 2.
Differentiate between debenture and share.
Answer:
Differences between share and debenture:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures - 4

Question 3.
Mention the advantages of issue of debentures to the company.
Answer:
Following are the advantages of issuing debentures:

1. Sufficient funds are raised:
At the event of need of additional capital a company may raise sufficient fund through issuing of debentures to the public.

2. No intervention in management:
A debenture holder has no right to intervene in the management of the company since they do not enjoy voting right.

3. Fixed rate of interest:
The rate of interest to be allowed on debentures is fixed at the time of issuing debentures. Hence, a company may make appropriate management to pay interest in advance.

4. More dividends to shareholders:
Due to issuing of debentures to full fill the need of additional capital, the shareholders may get more dividend since paying of interest to debenture holders costs cheaper than paying dividend, had the company issued additional shares to cater the need of additional capital.

5. Convenience in repayment:
A company may conveniently arrange for the repayment of debentures to be made after a specific period of time.

Question 4.
What is issue of debentures at par, at premium or at discount? Show the journal entries in each case.
Answer:
1. Issue of debentures at par:
When the debentures are issued at the face value of the debenture, it is called issue of debentures at par. For example, debenture of Rs. 100 is issued at the same value.

Journal Entry
Bank Account – Dr.
To Debenture Account
(Being cash received on debenture issue)

2. Issue of debentures at premium:
When the debentures are issued more than its face value, it is said to be issue of debentures at premium. For Example, Debentures of Rs. 100 is issued for Rs. 120. Here, Rs. 20 is premium. Generally the premium amount is collected along with allotment.

Journal Entry
Debenture Allotment A/c – Dr.
To Debenture A/c To Debenture Premium A/c (Being the debenture issued at premium)

3. Issue of debentures at discount:
When the debentures are issued less than its face value is called issue of debentures at a discount, e.g., Debenture of Rs. 100, issued for Rs. 90. Here, Rs. 10 is discount.

Journal Entry
Debenture Allotment A/c – Dr.
Debenture Discount A/c – Dr.
To Debenture A/c
(Being the debenture issued at discount)

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital

Accounting for Share Capital Important Questions

Accounting for Share Capital Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Maximum number of members in a private company is:
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 10
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) 10

Question 2.
Owners of company are:
(a) Shareholders
(b) Debenture holders
(c) Directors
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Shareholders

Question 3.
While issue the shares the rate of discount should not be more than:
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 6%
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 4.
On calls in arrears according to Article A, the interest may be charged per annum:
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 10%
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) 5%

MP Board Solutions

Question 5.
On calls paid in advance interest may be charged annum according to article A:
(a) 5%
(b) 8%
(c) 6%
(d) 7%.
Answer:
(c) 6%

Question 6.
Shares on which interest and repayment of money is paid after preference shares are:
(a) Preference shares
(b) Equity shares
(c) Rights share
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Equity shares

Question 7.
The capital beyond which a company cannot issue shares:
(a) Paid Capital
(b) Called up capital
(c) Authorised capital
(d) Issued capital.
Answer:
(c) Authorised capital

Question 8.
When excess application is received than the shares to be issued:
(a) Under subscription
(b) Over subscription
(c) Incomplete subscription
(d) Complete subscription.
Answer:
(b) Over subscription

Question 9.
Part of issued capital without receipt, a public Ltd. company cannot issue shares:
(a) Over subscription
(b) Minimum subscription
(c) Incomplete subscription
(d) Complete subscription.
Answer:
(b) Minimum subscription

MP Board Solutions

Question 10.
Shares can be forfeited:
(a) For non payment of call amount
(b) Due to absence in meeting
(c) Due to inability of paying bank loan
(d) Due to montage of shares as securities.
Answer:
(a) For non payment of call amount

Question 11.
Balance of share forfeiture account is transferred to:
(a) General Reserve
(b) Capital Redemption Reserve
(c) Capital Reserve
(d) Revenue Reserve.
Answer:
(c) Capital Reserve

Question 12.
Written notice regarding forfeiture of shares should be given to the shareholder before:
(a) 21 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 7 days
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) 14 days

Question 13.
Part of Issued capital called from shareholder only on the liquidation of a company:
(a) Capital Reserve
(b) Authorized capital
(c) Reserve capital
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Reserve capital

MP Board Solutions

Question 14.
Proposal related to forfeiture of shares is passed in:
(a) Share holder’s meeting
(b) Debenture holder’s meeting
(c) Creditor’s meeting
(d) Director’s meeting.
Answer:
(d) Director’s meeting.

Question 15.
Before the forfeiture of shares, company must serve a notice to shareholders before:
(a) 21 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 7 days
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) 14 days

Question 16.
When the company is being liquidated, a part of issued capital is demanded from shareholders, it is called:
(a) Authorized capital
(b) None of these.
(c) Capital gain
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Capital gain

Question 17.
When premium amount is not received in forfeiture of shares, share premium account is:
(a) Debited
(b) Credited
(c) Not written
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Debited

MP Board Solutions

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

  1. …………… get first dividend of a company.
  2. When amount to be paid in calls is paid before it is called ……………
  3. That part of authorized capital issued or offered to public for subscription is ……………
  4. A company is said to be …………… if it receives applications for a large number of shares as compared to the  shares offered to public for subscription.
  5. Minimum subscription is mentioned in ……………
  6. Cancellation of share allotted and forfeiture of amount paid is called ……………
  7. As per company Law Board, a company is regarded as on …………… person.
  8. Shares have …………… value while stock have no …………… value.
  9. When a shareholder voluntarily surrender his share to the company, it is known as ……………
  10. Share forfeiture account is shown in …………… side of Balance sheet.
  11. Notice regarding forfeiture of shares must be given to the shareholders before ……………
    days.
  12. When forfeited shares are re-issued at discount, the …………… account is debited.
  13. When the articles contain no provision related to forfeiture of shares, the company can forfeit shares by passing a …………… resolution.
  14. To the absence of provisions for forfeiture of shares in articles of association a company may forfeit shares by passing a resolution.
  15. When a shareholder find its difficult to pay the amount due on calls shares held by him as such he may …………… the shares at his possession.
  16. Balance of share forfeiture A/c is shown in …………… side of balance sheet.
  17. The balance of …………… is utilized to write off preliminary expenses, discount on debentures, etc.

Answer:

  1. Preference
  2. Advance
  3. Issued capital
  4. Over subscription
  5. Prospectus
  6. Forfeiture of shares
  7. Artificial
  8. Face, Face
  9. Surrender of shares
  10. Liability
  11. 14
  12. Share forfeiture
  13. Special
  14. Special
  15. surrender
  16. liability
  17. capital reserve.

MP Board Solutions

Question 3.
Match the columns:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 1
Answer:

  1. (b) Equity shareholders
  2. (c) Over subscription
  3. (e) Under subscription
  4. (a) Preference shareholders
  5. (d) Unpaid calls account
  6. (f) At time of dissolution. (MP 2015)

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 2
Answer:

  1. (e) Forfeiture of shares.
  2. (c) Shares issued at premium
  3. (b) Shares issued at discount
  4. (a) Surrender of shares
  5. (d) Capital reserve account

Question 4.
Write true or false:

  1. Rate of dividend is fixed in preference shares.
  2. There are more chances of speculation in equity shares.
  3. According to table A, a company cannot call more than 25% of the nominal value of shares at a time.
  4. Between two calls there should be a difference of not less than 15 days.
  5. If shares of Rs. 100 are issued at Rs. 110 then it is said that shares are issued at discount. .
  6. After forfeiture of shares the responsible shareholder becomes free from remaining amount.
    Premium is a type of capital gain.
  7. After reissue of forfeited shares balance of share forfeited A/c is transferred to Reserve capital A/c.
  8. The discount allowed on the reissue of forfeited shares should never exceed the amount actually forfeited on such shares.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. False
  6. False
  7. True
  8. False
  9. True.

MP Board Solutions

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word / sentence:

  1. Name the part of issued capital without the receipt of which share cannot be allotted.
  2. Name the company if at least 51% of its paid up capital is owned by the central or State governments or both.
  3. Name the company which has acquired more than half number of other company’s share. On which shares rate of dividend is not fixed ?
  4. Name the capital which the company does not issues in whole life of company.
  5. When a shareholder fails to pay the amount called by the company on shares held then the process of cancellation is called ?
  6. How are capital losses written off ?
  7. What is the issue of forfeited shares to public for subscription called ?
  8. Who proposes for the forfeiture of shares ?

Answer:

  1. Minimum subscription
  2. Government companies
  3. Holding companies
  4. Equity shares
  5. Reserve capital
  6. Share forfeiture
  7. Capital reserve
  8. Reissue of shares
  9. Board of Directors.

MP Board Solutions

Accounting for Share Capital Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by share capital ?
Answer:
The total capital of a company is divided into small units. One unit is called as share and the total amount of the shares are called as share capital. Normally company issue share certificate and get this amount.

Question 2.
What is share ?
Answer:
The capital of a company can be divided into different units with different value, which are known as shares. They are the part of total capital.

Question 3.
What is share certificate ?
Answer:
Share certificate means the certificate issued by a company to its shareholders in which numbers of shares. Purchased its value is written along with the shareholder’s name.

Question 4.
What is equity shares ?
Answer:
They are also known as ordinary shares or risk shares. They get dividend only after paying the dividend or preference shares. If after paying dividend on preference shares, no profit is left, no dividend will be paid on equity shares.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the term ‘Sweet share’ ?
Answer:
Those shares which are issued by the company to its employees and officers at a discounted rate to encourage them to work devotion ally for the betterment of the company are called ‘sweet shares’. Such shares cannot be sold by the holders for at least one year.

MP Board Solutions

Question 6.
Write two characteristics of equity shares.
Answer:

  • Equity shareholders enjoy voting right over the others.
  • On such shares dividend is not fixed.

Question 7.
Write any two merits of equity shares.
Answer:

  • Equity shareholders are actual s owners of company.
  • Shareholders have a full control over management of company.

Question 8.
Define preference shares.
Answer:
Preference shares are the shares on which a fixed rate of dividend is payable before anything is payable to the equality shareholders.

Question 9.
What do you mean by call in arrear ?
Answer:
The amount which is due on shareholders and which is called up by the company but shareholders could not paid till the fixed date (due date) then, such amount is called calls in Arrear.

Question 10.
What do you mean by authorised capital ?
Answer:
Authorised capital refers, to that capital which is stated in the memorandum of association. This is the maximum amount of capital which the company will have during its lifetime unless it is increased. It must be distinctly shown in the balance sheet of the company under the head ‘Share Capital’. It is also known as nominal capital or registered capital.

Question 11.
What do you mean by ‘Issued capital’ ?
Answer:
Issued capital refers to that part of authorised capital which is issued to public for subscription or sale. Issued capital is generally less than authorised capital or at the most, it may be equal to it but can never be more than authorised capital.

Question 12.
What do you mean by ‘Under subscription’ ?
Answer:
Under subscription means subscription by public for a number of shares which is smaller than the number of shares offered by the company for subscription. For example, when a company offers 20,000 shares of Rs. 10 each for public subscription, but the public applies for 19,000 shares such a situation is called ‘Under subscription’.

Question 13.
What is allotment of share ?
Answer:
After getting application from the specified person and institution then distribution of the shares is done on the basis of Application received this is called as allotment of shares.

MP Board Solutions

Question 14.
What is prorata Allotment ?
Answer:
Prorata allotment:
In case of over subscription of shares, the directors allot small number of shares to the applicants. In other words, the directors accept the applications partially. In such cases the excess of application money is utilized against the amount due to allotment and future calls by the transferring the excess amount from the share application account. Thus, when the company allots shares proportionately or rationally to all the applicants, it is known as prorata allotment.

Question 15.
What is dividend ?
Answer:
When the company distributes a part of its profit on a certain rate to its share-holder, it is called dividend. The rate of dividend is fixed for preference shareholders while this facility is not available for equity shareholders. They get their dividend when the company make profit.

Question 16.
Define Company.
Answer:
Section 1 (i) of Indian Companies Act of 1956, defines a company as “Company formed and registered under this Act or an existing company.” An existing company means a company formed and registered under any of the former companies acts.

Question 17.
What do you mean by issue of shares at par ?
Answer:
When the shares of a company are issued at their nominal value (face value), then those are called issue of shares at par. For example if a share of Rs. 100 is issued for Rs. 100, then it is known as issue of shares at par.

MP Board Solutions

Question 18.
What do you mean by issue of shares at premium ?
Answer:
When the shares are issued at a price higher than its face value, it is called issue at premium. From the issued price, the face value of the share is subtracted and the difference excess amount is the premium.

Question 19.
What do you mean by issue of shares at discount ?
Answer:
When the shares are issued at a price less than its face value, it is called issue at discount. For example : If a share of Rs. 100 is issued at Rs. 90 then it is issued at discount and the difference (Rs. 100 – Rs. 90) is the amount of discount i.e., Rs. 10.

Question 20.
What do you mean by forfeiture of shares ?
Answer:
If any shareholder falls to pay the amount due on allotment or any calls within the specified period, the company may cancel them. This is known as forfeiture of shares. In this condition, the amount already paid is taken over by the company.

Question 21.
What do you mean by reissue of forfeiture shares ?
Answer:
When the company reissues the forfeited shares it is known as ‘Reissue of for-feited shares.’ It can be done at par, at premium or at a discount.

Question 22.
What do you understand by surrender of shares ?
Answer:
When the shareholder voluntarily wants to gaining up the rights of being a share-holder and surrenders all his shares (Share certificates) to the company, then it is known as surrender of shares. The accounting of such surrender is alike forfeiture of shares.

MP Board Solutions

Question 23.
What is ‘Reserve Capital’ ?
Answer:
That part of issued capital which is called from the shareholders on the event of dissolution of the company is called Reserve capital. This capital cannot be issued for issuing Bonus shares or writing off capital losses.

Question 24.
What is ‘Capital Reserve’ ?
Answer:
A Reserve fund created out of capital profit other than normal profit of the business is called capital reserve. It is displayed on the liabilities side of company’s Balance sheet. This fund can be utilized for issuing Bonus shares and writing off capital losses of the company.

Question 25.
Is there any provision of cancellation of forfeiture order ?
Answer:
The Articles of Association provides the Board of Directors, the right to forfeiture the shares of defaulting shareholders. The same article also provides the right to Board of Directors for cancellation of forfeiture order only if the defaulting shareholder pay all his previous dues along with interest and any penalty imposed on him.

Question 26.
Why reissue of forfeited shares are not called allotment ?
Answer:
Allotment is made only for ‘Primary’ and new issue of shares. But forfeited shares are existing shares (old). So, these can be reissued only.

MP Board Solutions

Accounting for Share Capital Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any four characteristics of a company.
Answer:
Following are the four characteristics of a company:

  • Legal, artificial personality: A company is established by the company law and it has independent legal existence.
  • Voluntary association: Any person by purchasing the shares of a company can become its member.
  • Limited liability: The liability of each member is limited to the extent of the paid value of his shares.
  • Representative arrangement: The representatives of the members look after the management of the company, these representatives are called ‘Directors’ of the company.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Shares and Stock. (Three points).
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 3

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of preference shares ?
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of preference shares:

  • The rate of dividend on these type of shares is fixed in advance
  • The dividend on these shares are paid first
  • The shareholders of these shares have no voting right
  • The income on these shares are limited and fixed
  • At the time of winding up a company preference shareholders paid first.

MP Board Solutions

Question 4.
Explain any three types of preference shares. (CG 2005 Set A, Supple 13)
Answer:
1.  Cumulative preference shares:
If on such shares in any year dividend is not paid due to less profit, as such in the next year the unpaid arrears of dividend shall be paid before making payment to the holders of any other class of shares.

2. Non – cumulative preference shares:
On these shares, the dividend is paid at a fixed percentage but the arrears of dividend, the dividend shall not accumulate in the coming years.

3. Convertible preference shares:
The holders of such shares have a right to get their preference shares converted into equity shares within a certain period.

Question 5.
Write any three merits of preference share. (CG 2010 Set C, Imp., Supple 13)
Answer:
Following are the three merits of preference share :

  • Easy in management: These shareholders have no right to take part in company’s management. So, only limited persons are involved in management which is a favor for the company.
  • Good sources of income: It is better for those shareholders who want a fixed and regular income.
  • First preference in profit and payment: On these shares the profit is paid first and in the same way in the case of winding up, the share capital of preference shareholder is paid first.

Question 6.
Write any three demerits of equity shares.
Answer:
The following are the three demerits of equity shares :

  • Uncertainty of dividend: It is not suitable for those person who require regular income, because in this shares the income is irregular and uncertain.
  • Payment of dividend: Payment of dividend is made on these shares only after the payment on preference shares.
  • Final payment: In this the shareholders get the payment only at the time of winding up of the company.

MP Board Solutions

Question 7.
Write three demerits of preference shares.
Answer:
The three demerits of preference shares are:

  • Fixed charge: They receive dividend at fixed rate every year. Hence, the burden on account of preference dividend  is fixed on the company.
  • No right in the management: The preference shareholders do not enjoy the right to participate in the administration or management of the company.
  • Less dividend: In the years of excessive profits, the preference shareholders receive less profit as compared to those of equity shares.

Question 8.
What is calls in advance ?
Answer:
Sometimes the share amount is paid in advance before the call money becomes due, such type of advance is called call paid in advance. Articles ‘A’ of companies act gives permission regarding it, according to this articles interest will be allowed @ 6% p.a.

Question 9.
What is over-subscription ?
Or
What do you understand by over-subscription ?
Answer:
A company according to its own requirement issues shares. Sometimes company receives applications for a large number of shares than offered by it for subscription. In such case, the work of allotment of shares by directors becomes difficult because all the applicants cannot be allotted on the basis of their applications. In this case, the directors will allot only those shares which are issued by the company. Hence, allotment will be made on the basis of terms decided in the meeting of directors.

Question 10.
What is minimum subscription ?
Answer:
Minimum subscription is that minimum part of the issued capital which is necessary to raise by the way of issue of shares to meet the following expenses:

  • To pay-off the necessary assets purchased for the company.
  • To pay-off the preliminary expenses and commission to under-writers for sale of shares.
  • The amount sufficient as working capital.
  • To pay the loan taken for the purchase of necessary assets and for meeting the preliminary expenses.
  • An amount necessary for any other purpose.

MP Board Solutions

Question 11.
Write the difference between Authorized Capital and Issued Capital.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 4

Question 12.
Briefly explain the types of share capital.
Or
Discuss the kinds of capital of a company.
Answer:
Share capital means the capital raised by a company by the issue of shares. From the accounting point of view, the different kinds of share capital are as follows:

1. Authorised capital:
It is the capital which the company can raise from the public by the issue of shares. It is the maximum amount. It is stated in the memorandum of association. It is separately shown in the balance sheet. It is also known as nominal capital or registered capital. It is the capital on which the company is registered.

2. Issued capital:
It is the part of the authorised capital, that the company offered to the public for subscription.

3. Subscribed capital:
It is that portion of capital issued, which has actually subscribed by the public. It may be equal or less than the issued capital but never be more than the issued capital.

4. Called – up capital:
The company doesn’t require the full value of the shares they subscribed for at one instalment. Thus, the portion of the subscribed capital, which the share¬holders are called to pay is known as ‘Called-up Capital’.

5. Uncalled capital:
That part of the capital which is not called by the company from the shareholders is known as ‘Uncalled Capital’.

6. Paid – up capital:
It is that part of called-up capital, which is actually paid by the shareholders, is called ‘Paid-up capital’.

7. Reserve capital:
Sometimes, a company by means of a special resolution, decides that its uncalled capital will not be called-up; during its existence and that would be avail-able as an additional security to its creditors in the event of its liquidation. This capital is termed to be reserve capital.

MP Board Solutions

Question 13.
When a company can issue its shares at a discount, what journal entries are passed in this regard ?
Answer:
Under section 79 of the companies Act of 1956, a company can issue shares at a discount subject to the following conditions:

  1. The company is completed one year of its business.
  2. The issue of shares at a discount has been authorised by the shareholders in a general meeting of the company and also has been sanctioned by the court.
  3. The rate of discount must not exceed 10% of the face value of the shares which is permitted by the Company Law Board. The maximum rate has to be specified by the share holders resolution permitting the issue.
  4. The shares are issued within two months of the date on which the issue is sanctioned by the Company Law Board or within such extended time as the board may allow.
  5. Shares to be issued at a discount must be of a class already issued.

Journal Entry:
When shares are issued at discount
Share Allotment A/c – Dr.
Discount on Issue of Shares A/c – Dr.
To Share Capital A/c

Question 14.
Discuss the procedure of issue of shares.
Answer:
Following steps are taken by a public company for the issue of shares:
1. Issue of prospectus:
The company issues a prospectus by which it invites public to subscribe to its shares. The prospectus describes the profitability and soundness of the business of the company to attract the investing public.

2. Receipt of application:
All application and the amount of share application money must be deposited by the public in a Company’s Scheduled Bank. After the last day for receipt of share applications the bank sends all applications to the company.

3. Allotment of shares:
The directors of the company have the right to accept application wholly or partially or reject it. Those who are allotted shares are sent ‘Letters of Allotment’ and those who are not allotted shares they are sent ‘Letters of Regret’ along with a cheque for the refund of application money.

MP Board Solutions

Question 15.
Differentiate between equity shares and preference shares. (Any 4)
Answer:
Differences between equity shares and preference shares:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 5

Question 16.
Write the difference between over subscription and under subscription.
Answer:
Difference between Over subscription & Under subscription:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 6

Question 17.
What is forfeiture of shares ?
Answer:
If any shareholder fails to pay the amount due on allotment or calls within a specified period, the company may cancel them and the amount paid is taken over by the company. This is called forfeiture of shares.

The following conditions must be satisfied for the forfeiture of shares:

  • The power to forfeit the shares must be given in the Articles of Association
  • If the procedure of forfeiture is not given in the articles, table ‘A’ should be followed
  • There should be default in payment of any allotment or call money by the shareholder
  • Notice must be given to the respective shareholder for 14 days in advance
  • The Board of Directors must pass a resolution for such forfeiture.

MP Board Solutions

Question 18.
Explain the legal procedure of forfeiture of shares.
Answer:
The following are the legal provisions regarding forfeiture of shares:

  • Shares can be forfeited only when the default is made by the shareholders in payments of a valid call
  • Shares can be forfeited only if the power is expressly given by the Articles of the company
  • If provisions are not made in.the Article of the company, then by passing a special resolution company can forfeit the shares
  • The written notice of 14 days mentioning about forfeiture of shares must be given to the shareholders
  • The share can be forfeited on the basis of the resolution passed by the board of directors.

Question 19.
Explain the procedure of forfeiture of shares.
Or
What steps are necessary for forfeiture of shares ?
Answer:
Following are the methods of forfeiture of shares:

1. Preparation of list: Firstly a list of defaulting shareholders is produced by the company secretary in the meeting of the board of directors.

2. Notice for payments: The board of directors orders to serve notice for payment of unpaid calls and interest.

3. Issued reminder: After the issue of above notice if shareholders unable to pay the call money then the board of directors orders again to serve final notice for payment.

4. Passing a resolution for forfeiture of the shares: If the final notice gets no response, the board will then pass a resolution for forfeiture of the shares and the share holders concerned will be intimated of the decision asking them to return to the company the share certificate issued to him on allotment of shares.

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Question 20.
Describe the effects of forfeiture of shares.
Answer:
Rights and duties of defaulter shareholder w hen share is forfeited will be affected in the following way:

  • Cancellation of membership:
    At the time of forfeiture of shares, the membership of defaulter shareholder is cancelled.
  • Responsibility of payment:
    Till the date of forfeiture of shares, the shareholders is responsible for the payment of balance amount.
  • No right on dividend:
    The defaulter shareholder who’s shares are forfeited have no right on dividend.

Question 21.
Explain the reissue of forfeited shares.
Answer:
Company has full right to reissue the forfeited shares at proper time. Issue of forfeited shares to public is called reissue of share. There can be reissued at par, at discount or at premium.

Question 22.
Can the forfeited shares be reissued at discount ? Explain.
Answer:
Forfeited shares can be reissued at discount. Board of directors have the right to reissue the forfeited shares at discount, but the amount of discount on reissue should not exceed the amount forfeited on those shares. Thus, discount on reissue can be given maxi-mum up to the amount forfeited and not more than that.

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Question 23.
Distinguish between Capital Reserve and Reserved Capital.
Answer:
Differences between capital reserve and reserved capital:
Capital Reserve:

  • It can be utilized only in writing-off the capital losses.
  • It is shown in the liability side of balance sheet.
  • It is represents the amount which has already been received.

Reserved Capital:

  1. It can be utilized only at the time of liquidation of that company.
  2. It is not shown in the book of account.
  3. The amount of reserved capital is not received till the time of liquidation.

Question 24.
Differentiate between forfeiture of Shares and Surrender of Shares.
Answer:
Differences between forfeiture of Shares and Surrender of Shares:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 8

Accounting for Share Capital Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Show journal entries for the reissue of forfeited shares.
Answer:
Forfeited shares can be reissued at par, at premium or at discount. Journal entries on all the above cases is given below:

(1) Reissue of Forfeited Shares at Par:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 9

(2) Reissue of Forfeited shares at Discount:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 10

(3) Reissue of Forfeited Shares at Premium:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 11

(4) When the balance of Forfeited Shares A/c is transferred to Capital Reserve:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital - 12

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement

Cash Flow Statement Important Questions

Cash Flow Statement Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Cash flow analysis means:
(a) To disclose the changes in the amount of cash in an organization
(b) To find out embezzlement of cash
(c) To trade in cash
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) To disclose the changes in the amount of cash in an organization

Question 2.
Cash received from operating activities refers to:
(a) Cash flow during a specific period
(b) Cash resulting out of business activities during a specific period
(c) Deposit of cash in the bank
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Cash resulting out of business activities during a specific period

Question 3.
In flow of cash in cash flow statement means:
(a) Transactions that result in the increase of sources of cash and cash balance
(b) Transactions that result in the decrease of sources of cash inflow
(c) Transactions which have no effect on the sources of cash inflow
(d) Transactions that results in increase of fixed assets.
Answer:
(a) Transactions that result in the increase of sources of cash and cash balance

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Question 4.
In how many ways is the cash flow statement prepared:
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 5.
It is compulsory to prepare and present cash flow statement for:
(a) Pvt. company
(b) All listed company
(c) Public Ltd company
(d) Foreign company.
Answer:
(b) All listed company

Question 6.
Cash flow statement is prepared by:
(a) All company
(b) Every commercial organization
(c) Every partnership firm
(d) Every co-operative organization.
Answer:
(a) All company

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Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

  1. The statement which is prepared to know the difference between current assets and current liabilities is known as …………….
  2. The statement in which changes in inflow (receipts) and outflow (payments) of cash are known is called …………….
  3. The situation in which there is decrease in cash balance of business is called …………….
  4. In the condition of ……………. the balance of cash increases in business.
  5. Cash flow statement is prepared in ……………. steps.
  6. If the net profit earned during the year is Rs. 50,000. The initial and final account holders of Debtors are Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 20,000 respectively. Then the cash flow will be equal to ……………. from operarting activities.
  7. At the end of the year prepaid expenses ares ……………. from the earned profit for the
    year.
  8. The accured income of a year is ……………. from the net profit.
  9. For the calculation of cash flow from operating activities, writing off the goodwill is ……………. during the year.
  10. For the calculation of cash flow from operating activities, the provision for bad debts are ……………. to the earned profit the year.
  11. Creditors are the ……………. of a company.
  12. Realization of loan is included in ……………. activities.
  13. Cash flow statement depict the ……………. changes between cash & cash equivalents.
  14. Redemption of preference share is known as ……………. activities.
  15. In a commercial organization, the operating activities are its ……………. activities.

Answer:

  1. Fund flow situation
  2. Cash flow statement
  3. Out flow of cash
  4. Inflow of cash
  5. Three
  6. Rs. 40,000
  7. Deducted
  8. Added
  9. Added
  10. Added
  11. Liabilities
  12. Financial
  13. Historical
  14. Financial
  15. Main / Chief.

Question 3.
Match the columns:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement - 1
Answer:

  1. (b) In flow of cash
  2. (a) Outflow of cash
  3. (d) Fund flow statement
  4. (c) Cash flow analysis
  5. (e) Exclude non operating items

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Question 4.
Write true or false:

  1. Profit earned during the accounting year is called net profit.
  2. Cash flow analysis does not provide information regarding the direction and condition of changes in cash.
  3. The position of working capital of business can be known through cash flow statement.
  4. Cash received from operating activities is the result of cash generated through business activities.
  5. In single column cash flow statement, inflow of cash is added.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. False
  4. True
  5. True.

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Question 5.
Write the answer in one word / sentence:

  1. A statement which shows the financial condition through inflow and outflow of funds.
  2. Statement showing changes in cash positions.
  3. Cash resulting out of business activities is called as
  4. Issue of shares and debentures in consideration other than cash and assets shown in the cash flow statement against issue of shares and debentures are called
  5. Which statement is related to each item of working capital.

Answer:

  1. Fund flow statement
  2. Cash flow statement
  3. Cash from operation
  4. Non current assets
  5. Fund flow statement.

MP Board Solutions

Cash Flow Statement Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by cash flow statement ?
Answer:
Cash flow statement means statement of change in cash position of the enterprise. It analyses the causes of changes in cash position between the two financial statements. It is a statement which shows inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents in an enterprise during a specified period of time. This statement is the summary of sources of cash and application of cash in various fields.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of flow in cash flow statement ?
Answer:
In the cash flow statement, there is a combination of two words ‘Cash’ and ‘Flow’. The meaning of the word ‘Cash’ is cash balance and bank balance. The word ‘Flow’ refers to the change or movement. In this way ‘cash flow statement’ (CFS) means the changes occurred during any period in the cash position business or institution which exhibits the cause and amount of changes and direction.

In this statement he sources of cash, uses of cash and net cash position is included, which is the difference of total sources and uses. This statement is also known by the name statement of sources and uses of cash of statement of sources and application of cash.

Flow of cash:
Cash Flow is created when the net effect of any transaction either bring increase or decrease in the cash amount. That transaction which apart from cash account, affects other current accounts or non-current accounts or both, it creates change in cash position.

Through those transactions by which there is an increase in the cash balances of the business or inflow of cash or by those transactions, there from comes decrease in cash balance of business, they are presumed to be the uses of cash or outflow of cash. In other words, the receipt of cash can be called flow of cash and payment can be called as the use of cash.

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Question 3.
Write the major source of cash.
Answer:
The major source of cash are as under:

  • Issue of equity and preference shares for cash
  • Raising of long term debts – issue of debentures for cash, accepting deposits from public
  • Sale of fixed assets in cash
  • Non-operating incomes-Dividends and interest on investment
  • Cash from operating activities of the business.

Question 4.
Write any four utilities of cash flow statement.
Answer:
Utilities of cash flow statement are as follows:

  • Evaluation of cash position
  • Enable management in planning and control.
  • Disclose failure or success of management by performance evaluation
  • Helps in framing long term planning
  • Helps in determining cash flows from different activities separately.
  • Evaluation of liquidity position of the firm.

Question 5.
What is meant by ‘Cash flow from operating activities’ ?
Answer:
As per AS – 3, operating activities are the principal revenue producing activities of the enterprise, e.g., for a company dealing in manufacturing of garments, purchase of raw materials, payment of manufacturing expenses, sale of garments etc. are the principal revenue producing activities. Cash inflows and outflows from these activities will affect the calculation of profits or loss of the business.

MP Board Solutions

Question 6.
Mention the four objects / importance of cash flow statement.
Or
What are the uses of cash flow statement ?
Answer:
The followings are the objectives of cash flow statement:

  • This is useful in the evaluation of cash of the institution. By this, through budget, the need of the cash of the institution can be estimated,
  • The use of cash can be controlled according to plan
  • This analysis is also helpful in the evaluation of financial policies.
  • By cash flow analysis, the knowledge of redemption capacity of the institution is also possible.

Question 7.
Differentiate between net profit and cash received from operation
Answer:
The differences between net profit and cash from operation:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement - 2

Question 8.
Write the limitations of cash flow statement.
Answer:
The limitations of cash flow statement are as follows:
1. Non – cash transactions are ignored:
Cash flow statement shows only inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalent. It ignores non-cash transactions like conversion of shares into debentures, purchase of building by issue of shares.

2. Lack of Accuracy:
Cash flow statement is prepared on the basis of financial statement. So if financial statement is incorrect, the cash flow statement may be incorrect.

3. Long-term analysis not possible:
Through cash flow statement long-term analysis is not possible. It ascertain only the short-term financial position of the business.

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Question 9.
When does investment is equivalent to cash ?
Answer:
There are two stages are as follows:

  • When invest is for short-period of time like 3 months or less than 3 months
  • When invest can converted into cash without any risk
  • When goods purchased for issuing shares.

Question 10.
Explain operating activities.
Answer:
Operating activities are the main revenue producing activities of the enterprise. This activities comprises of all those transaction and events which determine net profit or loss of the business. Example of cash receipt from operating activities are cash received on sale of goods and rendering of services, cash receipt from royalties, fees, commission etc., cash receipt from sale of securities.

Question 11.
Explain any four objectives of cash flow statements.
Answer:
Objectives of cash flow statements are:
1. Analysis of cash position:
Cash flow statement explains the reason for lower or higher cash balance with the firm. Sometimes a firm may have lower cash balance in spite of higher profits or a higher cash balance in spite of lower net profits. Cash flow statement does help in explaining the causes of such quotation.

2. Short term cash planning and management:
Cash flow statement is very useful for short term financial planning and management. This statement reveals the position of surplus or deficiency of cash so that the management may be able to make plan for proper investment of surplus cash or to tap the sources where from the deficiency is to be met with.

3. Evaluation of liquidity:
Liquidity means ability to meet current obligations at due time i.e., payment to creditors, repayment of bank loan etc. Cash flow statement disclose the position of liquidity in a better way and that is why banks and other financial institutions use cash flow statements for the evaluation of liquidity of any firm.

4. Comparison of operating performance:
Cash flow statement enhances the comparability of the reporting of operating performance by different enterprises because it eliminates the effects of using different accounting treatment of the same transactions and events.

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Question 12.
Give any two methods of financial statement analysis.
Answer:
The two methods of financial statement analysis are as follows :

  1. Comparative statement
  2. Common size statement.

1. Comparative statement:
Comparative financial statements refer to those statement which exhibit the financial position of a business concern at different periods of times. The statements are prepared in comparative form in this comparatively side by side so as draw conclusion about the profit earning capacity of firm.

2. Common size statement:
Common size statement refer to those statement in which figures reported are converted into percentage to some common base like net sales for income statement and total assets for Balance sheet. In this statement net sales assumed as 100 and other figures are expressed as percentage on net sales.

Question 13.
Write the name of any four sources of cash receipts in a business.
Answer:
Sources for Procuring cash are as follows:

  • Sale of fixed assets
  • Interest on investment
  • Increase in share capital
  • Issue of shares and debentures
  • Dividend received.

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Question 14.
By which method cash flow by operating activities can be calculated ?
Answer:
As per accounting standard-3 operating activities are the principal revenue generating activities of the business. All such activities are included in operating activities of the business which are not related to investment and financial activities and generate income. Cash flow from the operating activities indicates that there is sufficient cash generation which helps the business in its smooth operation.

The cash inflow includes cash receipts from sale of goods and services, cash receipts from royalties, fees, commission etc. and cash outflow includes cash payment for purchases of goods and services, cash payments for wages, salaries and other payments to employee, cash payment of taxes etc.

Question 15.
What do you mean by financial activities ?
Answer:
Financing activities are those activities which relates to long term funds or capital of an enterprise, cash received from issue of equity shares, debentures, raising loan (long term) etc.

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Question 16.
What do you mean by non-cash transactions ?
Answer:
The transactions which do not part of Financing or Investing activities are called non-cash items or transaction. For Example : Depreciation, conversion of debenture into shares.

Cash Flow Statement Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write difference between fund flow statement and cash flow statement.
Answer:
The differences between fund flow statement and cash flow statement are:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement - 3

Question 2.
What are the uses of cash flow statement ?
Answer:
The uses of cash flow statement may be studied under following:
1. Analysis of cash position:
Cash flow statement explains the reason for lower or higher cash balances. Since it is prepared on cash basis of accounting, it proves very useful for the evaluation of cash position of a business enterprise.

2. Assessment of liquidity:
Liquidity means ability to meet current obligations on due time, i. e., payment to creditors, repayment of bank loan etc. It can be assessed with the help of cash flow statement.

3. Tool of short-term financial planning:
Cash flow statement is helpful in planning short-term need of cash of the enterprise. This statement reveals the position of surplus or deficiency of cash. It is the most appropriate device for short-term analysis.

4. Helpful in estimating future cash flow:
Historical cash flow information provides useful indicators of the amount, timing and certainty of future cash flows. It is also useful in checking the accuracy of parts assessments of future cash flows.

5. Helpful in the formation of policies:
Cash flow statement help in formation of various policies such as repayment of long-term loans, expansion or replacement of fixed assets declaration of dividend etc. which can be successfully implemented with sufficient cash resources.

6. Knowledge of progress of business:
Cash flow statement determine the inflow and outflow of cash from operating activities which show the progress of the enterprise or otherwise.

7. Useful to external analysis:
It is also useful to external analysis particularly to the bankers investors and creditors because they review the financial position of the concern and such review is greatly facilitated by cash flow statement.

Question 3.
Give the format of cash flow statement
Answer:
Format of cash flow statement: Indirect method:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement - 5

Question 4.
Describe the importance of fund flow statement.
Or
Explain any four objectives of fund flow statement.
Answer:
The objectives of preparing a fund flow statement are as follows:

(1) Helpful in financial analysis:
Financial analysis is facilitated by fund flow statement. The balance sheet do show the financial position but changes in various assets and liabilities is not shown by the balance sheet. The fund flow statement provides information as regard to the changes in various items of assets and liabilities.

(2) Determination of fund from operation:
Fund flow statement provides the information of actual profit earned through operational activities. Fund flow statement determines the fund from operational not activities by re-adjusting those non-trading income, expenses and losses.

(3) Management of working capital:
In fund item statement the word ‘fund’ refers to working capital. Through fund flow statement it can be determined whether there is sufficient amount of working capital within the business or not.

(4) Knowledge of sources and use of fund:
An analysis of various searess of receipt and application of fund can be made through fund flow statement. From the statement the business can determine the various sources and the receipt of as well as sources and quantum of payment.

(5) Knowledge of some important funds:
The fund flow statement provide various significant information to the managers owners and other related parties. These information are:

  • Major heads of income and expenses during a period.
  • Determination of total fund received from various sources.
  • Application of amount on various items.
  • How the profit has been used
  • Dependency of firms on borrowings.
  • Burden of cost of capital etc.

Question 5.
State some differences between cash flow statement and cash budget.
Answer:
The differences between cash flow statement and cash budget:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement - 7

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 10 Analysis of Accounting Ratios

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 10 Analysis of Accounting Ratios

Analysis of Accounting Ratios Important Questions

Analysis of Accounting Ratios Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Ratio analysis means:
(a) To establish mathematical relation between two figures
(b) To establish qualitative relation between two figures
(c) To establish inverse relation between two figures
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) To establish mathematical relation between two figures

Question 2.
Current ratio represents:
(a) Surplus of fixed assets over fixed liabilities
(b) Surplus of current assets over current liabilities
(c) Surplus of artificial assets over current liabilities
(d) Surplus of assets over liabilities.
Answer:
(b) Surplus of current assets over current liabilities

Question 3.
Liquid assets refers to:
(a) The assets which can be converted into cash immediately
(b) The assets which cannot be converted into cash immediately
(c) The assets which can be sold at profit
(d) The assets which can be sold at cost price.
Answer:
(a) The assets which can be converted into cash immediately

Question 4.
Meaning of solvency ratio is:
(a) Capability of paying internal debts
(b) Capability of paying external debts
(c) Capability of acquiring assets
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Capability of paying external debts

MP Board Solutions

Question 5.
Capital turnover ratio establishes relationship between:
(a) Sales and purchase
(b) Net sales and capital employed
(c) Gross sales and capital employed
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Net sales and capital employed

Question 6.
The given below classes of ratio mainly calculate the risks:
(a) Liquidity, Activity and Profitability
(b) Liquidity, Activity and Stock
(c) Liquidity, Activity and Solvency
(d) Liquidity, Solvency and Profitability.
Answer:
(d) Liquidity* Solvency and Profitability.

Question 7.
The ……………. ratio calculates the main and suffix gains:
(a) Liquidity
(b) Activity
(c) Solvency
(d) Profitability.
Answer:
(d) Profitability.

Question 8.
In a commercial firm calculation of …………… is done on the basis of its paying capacities of short term liabilities:
(a) Activeness
(b) Liquidity
(c) Debts
(d) Profitability.
Answer:
(b) Liquidity

Question 9.
………….. ratios are an indicator of the intensity of change in proceeds or cash coming from the practice of diverse account:
(a) Activity
(b) Liquidity
(c) Solvency
(d) Profitability.
Answer:
(a) Activity

MP Board Solutions

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

  1. Liquidity refers to the ability of concerting assets into …………………
  2. The capability of paying external debt is found out through …………………
  3. Current ratio is also called as ………………… ratio.
  4. Gross profit ratio is calculated on ………………… sales.
  5.  ………………… ratio can be found out by dividing cost of goods sold by average stock.

Answer:

  1. Cash
  2. Solvency ratio
  3. Working capital
  4. Net sales
  5. Stock turnover ratio.

Question 3.
Match the columns:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 10 Analysis of Accounting Ratios - 1
Answer:

  1. (b) Capability of paying internal liabilities
  2. (a) Description of relationship between current assets and current liabilities
  3. (d) Relationship between owner’s fund and total assets
  4. (c) Relationship between net sales and capital employed
  5. (e) Description relationship between net sales and working capital.

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Question 4.
Write true or false:

  1. Liquidity ratio refers to the ability of converting assets into cash.
  2. Solvency ratio refers to the ability of paying internal debts.
  3. Working capital is related to current assets and current liabilities.
  4. Debtor’s turnover ratio does not show relationship between net credit sales and average trade debtors.
  5. The main purpose of financial reporting is to inform the directors of the organization about the progress of its functionality.
  6. Analysis of the data provided in the financial statement is known as financial Analysis.
  7. Long term loan of the firm had a deep concern on the Interest and principal sum paying capacity of the firm.
  8. A ratio is always expressed as the product of the division of a second number by a number.
  9. A ratio shows both quantitative and qualitative aspects.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. True
  4. False
  5. False
  6. True
  7. True
  8. False
  9. False.

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Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

  1. The assets which can be converted into cash immediately.
  2. Surplus of current assets over current liabilities.
  3. The ratio which is used to calculate relationship between net sales and capital employed.
  4. Which ratio is related to paying of external debts.
  5. Which ratio is related to cost of goods sold and average stock.

Answer:

  1. Liquid assets
  2. Working capital
  3. Capital ratio
  4. Solvency ratio
  5. Stock turnover ratio.

MP Board Solutions

Analysis of Accounting Ratios Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain liquidity ratio.
Answer:
Liquidity means the ability of an enterprise to meet its current liabilities out of current assets. Liquidity ratios are computed to find out the short-term solvency of the enterprise short-term creditors and managers / directors are interested to know liquidity 1 position of the enterprise. These ratios disclose the sufficiency of working capital. Liquid it is the case where assets may be converted into cash without loss. The following ratios are calculated for liquidity test:

  • Current ratio or working capital ratio
  • Liquid ratio or quick ratio
    MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 10 Analysis of Accounting Ratios - 2

Question 2.
Write differences between current ratio and quick ratio.
Answer:
The difference between current ratio and quick ratio:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 10 Analysis of Accounting Ratios - 3

Question 3.
What is solvency ratio ?
Answer:
Solvency means the ability of an enterprise to meet its long-term obligations and thus solvency ratios reveals an enterprises ability to meet the long-term indebtness. Principally an enterprise should have sufficient funds to meet the long-term liabilities main solvency ratio are:

  • Debt equity ratio
  • Total assets to debt ratio
  • Proprietary ratio.

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Question 4.
What is activity ratio ?
Answer:
Activity ratios are concerned with measuring the efficiency in assets management. It is concerned with employment of assets efficiently and in a profitable way. These ratios are calculated on the basis of sales or cost of goods sold, various assets like stock debtors, bills receivable, fixed assets etc and investments of the concern. These ratios are also known as turnover ratio or performance ratios. Following are important activity ratios:

  • Stock turnover ratio
  • Debtors turnover ratio
  • Creditors turnover ratio
  • Net working capital ratio
  • Fixed assets turnover ratio
  • Current assets turnover ratio
  • Capital turnover ratio.

Question 5.
What is profitability ratio ?
Answer:
Profitability means possibility of earning profit on the fund invested in the business. Profitability of a business can be determined on the basis of sales or investment. Usually it is determined on the basis of safes. The condition of profitability of a business concern depend on the sales volume, costing methods and proper use of various financial resources. Hence calculation of the ratio relating to sales, investments and funds of equity shareholders is called profitability ratio. Some important ratios are as given below:

  • Gross profit ratio
  • Operating ratio
  • Net profit ratio
  • Return on investments
  • Earning per share
  • Dividend per share
  • Price earning ratio.

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Question 6.
What do you mean by current asset in current ratio ?
Answer:
Current ratio establishes relationship between movable assets and movable liabilities. Current ratio includes cash-in-hand, bank, debtors, receivable bills and other properties in current assets.

Question 7.
What is current ratio ? How is it calculated ?
Answer:
Current ratio is used to measure the efficiency of the firm to pay off its short-term liabilities. This ratio establishes the relationship between current assets and current liabilities. This ratio shows whether the current assets of the firm are adequate to meet out its current liabilities or not. This ratio can be calculated by using this following formula:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 10 Analysis of Accounting Ratios - 4

Question 8.
Which items are included in current liabilities ? (any four)
Answer:
Following items are usually included in current liabilities:

  • Creditors
  • Bills payable
  • Outstanding expenses
  • Bank loan
  • Bank overdraft
  • Unearned income
  • Provision for taxation.

MP Board Solutions

Analysis of Accounting Ratios Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the importance of ratio analysis.
Or
Write two objectives of ratio analysis.
Answer:
me importance of ratio analysis for different interest groups is as below:

1. For short-term creditors:
Liquidity ratio i.e., current ratio and quick ratio are computed to find out the short-term solvency of the enterprise. Short-term creditors are interested in liquidity position of the concern. It helps to assess the ability of enterprise to meet its short-term liabilities promptly.

2. For long-term creditors:
Accounting ratios i. e„ solvency ratio discloses an enterprises ability to meet the long-term in debtedness with the help of debt equity ratio and interest ratio, solvency of enterprise can be assessed easily.

3. For managers:
Management takes many decisions in respect of business. Information regarding availability of working capital, compassion with other business unit etc. are received with the help of ratio analysis. With the help of ratio analysis the administrative work can be controlled easily.

4. For investors:
Ratio analysis proves helpful to know the short-term and long-term financial position of a business undertaking which helps investors for investing their money with the expectation of a good return. It enables the investors to study the result of various ratios and to tops proper decision.

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Question 2.
Explain the meaning and purpose of the following ratio:

  • Current ratio
  • Debt equity ratio
  • Proprietary ratio
  • Capital turnover ratio
  • Fixed assets turnover ratio
  • Working capital turnover ratio.

Answer:
Meaning and objective or purpose of the ratios are as follows:
1. Current ratio:
Current ratio refers to the relationship between current assets and current liabilities. It measures the firm’s ability to full fill short-term commitment out of its current assets.

Objective:
The objective of current ratio is to assets the ability of enterprise to meet its short-term liabilities promptly.

2. Debt equity ratio:
This ratio expresses a relationship between debt and the equity. Debt means long-term loans, debentures and equity means shareholder’s fund, preference share capital, equity share capital, reserves less losses and fictitious asset like preliminary expenditure.

Objective:
This ratio judges the long-term financial position and soundness of the enterprise. It indicates the proportion between shareholders fund and long – term debts.

3. Proprietary ratio:
This ratio expresses the relationship between the total amount of owner’s funds and total assets. It shows the extent to which the shareholders own the business.

Objective:
Proprietary ratio expresses the general financial position of the enter-prise. It indicates what percentage of total asset has been financed by the shareholders fund.

4. Capital turnover ratio:
This ratio shows the efficiency of capital employed in the enterprise by how many times it is used to produce the sales. It establishes the relationship between sales and cost of sales and capital employed.

Objective:
Capital turnover ratio indicates the efficiency of capital employed in the enterprise by computing how many times the capital being turned overed.

5. Fixed assets turnover ratio:
The relationship between cost of sales or sales and fixed assets is known as fixed assets turnover ratio.

Objective:
This ratio, indicates how efficiently the fixed assets were used in business.

6. Working capital turnover ratio:
Working capital turnover ratio expresses the relationship between working capital and sales. It shows whether or not the working capital is utilized to increase sales.

Objective:
The objective of the ratio in to assertion whether or not working capital has been effectively utilized in promoting sales

Question 3.
What is average collection period?
Answer:
Debtor turnover ratio is related to average collection period which shows that in how many days the firm is realising its debts from debtors. It also highlights upon the quality of the debtors. The lower the .collection period the good the debtors are which is indicative of the fact that debtors are being realized soon. If this period is high, then it indicates that the fing liberal policy of collection realisation from debtors takes lot of time.

Question 4.
Discuss four limitations of Accounting ratios.
Answer:
limitations of Accounting ratios are:

1. Only quantitative analysis and not qualitative:
Under this, attention is not paid on the qualitative reasons. For example, while selling goods on credit to any customer, the attention is paid on his financial position and not on his character and conduct, which are also important.

2. Do not reflect price level changes:
Usually, in the financial statement, price level change is pot included therefore, it may give confusing and misleading results. The analysis while interpreting should keep in mind, the changes in the price level.

3. Represents only a relative position:
Ratios only exhibit a relative position. Therefore, ratios should be understood as substitution of figures or data. There can be sufficient difference between actual figures and ratios.

4. Limited use of a single ratio:
Only one ratio does not exhibit the whole picture of any position. Therefore, without thinking overall ratios related to the presented problem the conclusions drawn on the basis of only one ratio can present confusing picture. Thus, it is necessary that while drawing conclusions all related ratios be thought over.

MP Board Solutions

Question 5.
What do you understand by profitability ratio and sales ratio ?
Answer:

Profitability ratio:
Business is established for earning profits. Profit is necessary for the progress and the development of the business. All the concerned parties related to business are benefited by the profitability ratio. The owner of the business who has invested capital expect return on his capital in the form of profit, the creditors feel assured about the return of their money by profitability and the salary, bonus etc. of the employees also depend upon the profitability ratio of the business.

Sales ratio:
The analysis of profitability can be done on the basis of the sales. The profitability of the business calculated on the basis of sales is justified. The following ratios are calculated under it.

Gross Profit ratio:
This ratio establishes the relation between gross profit and net sales. The computation of this profit is done by deducting direct expenses related to the cost of the goods sold out of net sales. The contribution of gross profit will be more in the net profit when the gross profit will be high. It is calculated as under:
MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 10 Analysis of Accounting Ratios - 5

If gross profit is not given then it can be calculated as Sales – Cost of goods sold. Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock. Gross profit = Sales + Closing stock – (Opening stock + Purchases + Direct expenses) or Gross profit = Sales – Cost of goods sold.
Net sales is calculated as Net sales = Total sales – Sales returns.

Net profit ratio:
Net profit ratio before tax and after tax establishes the relation between Net profit and Net sales. The objective of computation of this ratio is to determine the efficiency of the whole activities of the institution. In other words to determine the over all profitability. The following point highlight its importance:

  • It is also known as the margin of net profit.
  • This ratio reveals what part of sales is utilized for generating dividend and how many share is utilized as reserves.
  • The financial position of the institution is favorable to face the financial conditions or not.
  • Cost of production is increasing due to sale price, demand is decreasing due to production, then what part of sales could be left to face such situation.
  • High net profit ratio is a symbol of favorable condition of the institution to face any adverse circumstances. If the ratio is low then it is hot fit for such circumstances.

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 Staffing

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 Staffing

Staffing Important Questions

Staffing Objective Type Questions

Questions 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization is said by :
(a) Theo Haimann
(b) Koontz O’ Donnell
(c) George R Terry
(d) Edwin B Fillipo.
Answer:
(a) Theo Haimann

Question 2.
Various sources of recruitment:
(a) Advertisement
(b) Employment office
(c) Reference
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
Aim/objective of interview :
(a) Utility of candidate
(b) To give complete information to candidate about post and organization
(c) Happiness of candidate
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 4.
Employment office is a source of recruitment:
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) (a) and (b) Both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) External

Question 5.
Best option of selection is choosen by :
(a) Prior analysis
(b) Based on procedure
(c) Analysis of evaluation
(d) Policy.
Answer:
(c) Analysis of evaluation

Question 6.
Training emphasis on :
(a) Theoretical knowledge
(b) General knowledge
(c) All round knowledge
(d) Practical/Behavioral knowledge.
Answer:
(c) All round knowledge

Question 7.
Out of the following on job training :
(a) Case study
(b) Inter ship training
(c) training development
(d) seminar and workshop
Answer:
(c) training development

Question 8.
Staffing is related to :
(a) Political aspect .
(b) Economic aspect
(c) Geographical aspect
(d) Human aspect.
Answer:
(d) Human aspect.

Question 9.
From the following which is a monetary motivation :
(a) Bonus
(b) Pension
(c) Earned leave
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 10.
Recruitment is the process of searching :
(a) Senior employees
(b) Retired employees
(c) Future employees
(d) Special employees.
Answer:
(c) Future employees

MP Board Solutions

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

  1. ……………. means reasonable appointment and recruitment of employees for implementations of policies.
  2. There are…………. sources of recruitment in an enterprises.
  3. Reappointment of former employees is an…………. source of recruitment.
  4. …………………. is the process in which candidates for employment are divided into two classes. Those who are to be offered employment and those who are not.
  5. The process of improving the present skills of employees for higher posts in future is called…………

Answers:

  1. Staffing
  2. Two
  3. Internal
  4. Selection
  5. Development.

Question 3.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

  1. Write any one internal sources of recruitment.
  2. Write any one external source of recruitment.
  3. What is the last stage of selection ?
  4. Name the method of training in which the training is imparted to employee by giving various jobs in the organization.
  5. Name the method of training in which training is given with the help of machines and equipment identical to those used in the place of work.
  6. What does training increases morale or work load ?
  7. What is develop among workers by training ?
  8. Where is on the job training imparted ?
  9. What is the modern source of recruitment ?
  10. Transfer is which source of recruitment ?
  11. How many method are there in training ?
  12. By which source of recruitment workers are motivated ?
  13. Write one advantage of training to workers ?
  14. What is staffing ?
  15. Write the name of one external source of recruitment.

Answer:

  1. Transfer
  2. Recruitment through advertisement
  3. Placement
  4. Job rotation
  5. Vestibule training
  6. Morale
  7. Self confidence
  8. Work place
  9. Internet
  10. Internal source
  11. Two
  12. Internal source
  13. By training efficiency and capability of worker increases
  14. Staffing means reasonable appointment and recruitment of employees
  15. Employment exchange.

MP Board Solutions

Question 4.
Write true or false :

  1. By training knowledge, efficiency and capacity of workers increases.
  2. Recruitment is the part of human resource.
  3. Recruitment develops the feeling of owners among the workers.
  4. Recruitment and selection of workers is same.
  5. Expenditure done on recruitment is waste of money.
  6. There is no difference between training and development.
  7. Internship training provides both theoretical and practical training of work.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. False
  6. False
  7. True

Question 5.
Match the coloums:
MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 Staffing image - 1
Answers:

  1. (b)
  2. (c)
  3. (a)
  4. (e)
  5. (d)
  6. (f)

MP Board Solutions

Staffing Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is training ?
Answer:
Training is the workshop of gaining more and high knowledge. Training is the act of increasing the knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a particular job.

Question 2.
What do you mean by ’transfer’ as a form of internal sources ?
Answer:
Transfer involves the shifting of an employee from one job to another. At the time of transfer, it is ensured that the employee to be transferred to the new job is capable of performing the jobs. When transfer is done at the same post then there is not much difference in salary and facility.

Question 3.
What do you mean by orientation in the process of staffing ?
Answer:
Orientation means to acquaint the employees with their work and organization. In order to work as a term new employees are introduced to their subordinates and seniors. The employee is acquainted with the policies, aims and objectives of the organization.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ’Placement’ as a step of staffing ?
Answer:
After the selection of the candidates for the post ‘Placement’ takes place. As per the terms and conditions and date of joining mentioned in the appointment letter the candidate has to join the duty. From the very date of his joining, he is treated as an employee of that office.

Question 5.
What is campus recruitment ? .
Answer:
A business organization may liaise with universities, colleges, vocation or management institutions to recruit newly qualifies students for technical profession or managerial position. Campus recruitment is a well established practice followed by business to appoint fresh talent in the organization.

Question 6.
What are the three important aspects of staffing.
Answer:
The important aspects of staffing are :

  1. Recruitment
  2. Selection
  3. Training

Question 7.
What do you mean by apprenticeship training ?
Answer:
This is one of the oldest method of training. The main purpose of this training is to make the employees well versed in a specific art or technique. This method is used in those cases where long-term training is required to attain proficiency to perform a particular task. In this training stipend is paid to the candidates.

Question 8.
Out of the two, recruitment and selection which process positive and why ?
Answer:
Recruitment is positive process because large number of candidates are invited and motivated to apply for a post.

Question 9.
Why is selection called negative process ?
Answer:
Selection is a negative process because in this process qualifiers are lesser as compared to rejected.

Question 10.
State the difference between work load analysis and work force analysis.
Answer:
Work load analysis assesses the number and type of human resources required to perform jobs in the organization. Work force analysis estimates the number and type of human resources available in the organization.

Question 11.
Internal recruitment is better than external recruitment in many ways. Explain one reason.
Answer:
External recruitment demands expense for advertisement and conduction of examination where we can eliminate these expenses in internal recruitment.

Question 12.
Which source of recruitment motivates the employees ?
Answer:
Internal source of recruitment encourages and motivates the employees as it provides an opportunity to reach to higher posts.

Question 13.
What is meaning of Training ? How is it different from education ?
Answer:
Meaning of Training: Training is a systematic programme to increase the knowledge, skills, abilities and aptitudes of workers to perform specific jobs. The purpose of training is to achieve a change in the behaviour of those trained and to enable them to do their jobs in a better way.

Definitions : According to Jucius, “The term training is used here to indicate only process by which the aptitudes, skills and abilities of employees, to perform specific jobs are increased.”

Training

  1. This enhances the ability and skill of the employee
  2. The teacher new skills and process

Education

  1. This help to ingress the knowledge of employee
  2. This enable the capability to debate and analyze

Question 14.
What are the elements of a good training programme ?
Answer:
Following are the elements of a good training programme :

  1. Training programme should be according to aims and objectives of organization.
  2. More attention should be paid to train the weak employees.
  3. Training programme should go on continuously.
  4. Training programme should be flexible.
  5. Training programme should be given by a specific person.

Question 15.
What is Orientation / Induction ?
Answer:
Orientation / Induction is a method of trainning to familarize the new employee with the surroundings of the organization, provide information about the organization, its rules and regulations.

Question 16.
What do you mean by recruitment ? How many sources of recruitment are there ?
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in organization.

There are two sources of recruitment:

Internal source: An internal source of recruitment means inviting applications from personnel working within the organization.
External source : An external source of recruitment means filling all the vacancies created in the organization which are not filled by internal sources. To fill the vacant positions the business organization may have to rely on external source.

Question 17.
On the job training methods and off the job training methods. Explain.
Answer:
On the job training method : Under this the employees are trained while they are actually performing the job assigned to them. They learn in real work environment and gain practical experience.
Off the job training method : Under this method employees are trained in specially designed training locations which are away from work.

Question 18.
In which source of recruitment employee becomes inactive ?
Answer:
In internal source of recruitment employee becomes inactive because they know that they are going to be promoted to higher posts after a certain period of time.

Question 19.
When is transfer technique important ?
Answer:
Transfer technique means shifting an existing employee within the organization from one job to another, one shift to another or from one department to another. It helps to maintain optimal staff in the organization and trains employee for different types of jobs. It is the horizontal movement of staff.

Question 20.
Write any three characteristics of recruitment.
Answer:
Characteristics:

  1. It is a process of searching employees and there are many sources of it.
  2. Recruitment is positive and it precedes selection.
  3. The number of candidates are maximum in recruitment and it is limited to the extent of calling an application.

Question 21.
What do you mean by recruitment through demotion ?
Answer:
When a person is recruited at a lower post then his current status, it is known as demotion recruitment. In this an incapable person is demoted from a higher position to a lower and a capable person is promoted to the vacant positions.

Question 22.
Why there is lack of favor during recruitment through external sources ?
Answer:
The recruitment through external source lacks favor for the recruitee as the management is unaware about him and has no previous details about him.

Question 23.
What is the expense on training known as ? Expenditure or investment.
Answer:
The expense on training is known as investment.

MP Board Solutions

Question 24.
Why are internal sources considered more economical than external sources ?
Answer:
Internal sources of recruitment are the sources considered available within the organization, they are considered to be more economical for the following reasons :

  1. It saves money as it does not require any kind of formal advertising of vacant position.
  2. It saves time as it shortens the process of recruitment and selection.
  3. It does not require any kind of orientation or induction training.

Question 25.
What do you mean by interview ?
Answer:
After basic screening and written tests, the selected candidate go through the formal interview process. It is the in depth conversation between interviewer and interviewee where interviewer may seek information from interviewee and the interviewee is expected to provide the same.

 Staffing Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in short three internal sources of recruitment.
Answer:

1. Promotion: Competent and experienced persons of the enterprise are promoted to higher post to fill up the vacancy.

2. Transfer: Transfer involves the shifting of an employee from one job to another. At the time of transfer it is ensured that the employee to be transferred to the new job is capable of performing the job.

3. Recommendation of existing staff: Any vacancy can be filled up by appointing the relatives or friend on the basis of recommendation of existing staff.

Question 2.
Explain any four external sources of recruitment.
Answer:
External sources of recruitment are as follows :

1. Re appointment of former employees : Sometimes ex employees are reappointed in an organization. This is beneficial in two ways:

  1. Experienced personnel become available and
  2. Economy is achieved.

2. Direct recruitment in the office: This type of recruitment is done by the personnel department or selection section.

3. Recruitment through employment exchange: Public employment exchanges are also an important source of recruitment.

4. Friends and relatives of present employees: Present employee invite their friends and relatives for recruitment.

Question 3.
Explain the following method of training in brief:

  1. Vestibule training
  2. Internship training.

Answer:

1. Vestibule training: Vestibule training is such type of training which is given with the help of machines and equipment identical to those used in the place of work in specially created laboratories called vestibule laboratories etc. This type of training does not effect the production.

2. Internship training : The main aim of this training is to provide both theoretical and practical type of training with the joint effort of some technical institutes and business I undertakings this type of training is provided to the students to learn theoretical as well as practical aspects of job. For e.g.: In medical colleges medical students are given theoretical knowledge and in hospitals they are provided practical knowledge due to which students get I the practical training of theoretical knowledge.

Question 4.
Why is selection called the Negative process ?
Answer:
Selection is a Negative process because in this process the number of candidates | who are suitable for the jobs are less than the rejected people.

Question 5.
Why is internal source of recruitment more reliable ?
Answer:
Internal source of recruitment is more reliable than external source because the organisation already have full knowledge about the workers. The workers also have full knowledge about the system and working of organisation.

Question 6.
What is recruitment ?
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating [ them to apply for job in the organization. The objectives of recruitment is to provide with the
organization, a large number of eligible people, from whom the most appropriate one may be selected.

Question 7.
Write short note on employment exchange.
Answer:
Employment exchange is an important source for the recruitment of employees. Employment exchange registers the different persons desirous to work in different posts. Institutions may contact employment exchange for suitable employees to fulfil their vacant posts.

Question 8.
Define staffing.
Answer:
Staffing may be defined as the managerial function hiring and developing the required personnel to fill in various positions in the organization.

Question 9.
What is selection ?
Answer:
Selection is the process in which candidates for employment are divided into two classes. Those who are to be offered employment and those who are not.In the present day, this system has become very much popular. Through this test general intelligence of the candidate is measured so that it can be known that how intelligent the candidate and how much he is cautious.

Question 10.
What is aptitude test ?
Answer:
This test is essential for knowing the aptitude towards work and to collect infor-mation about work. This type of test is according to the nature of work and post. Aptitude test is conducted to check the interest of employees towards work.

Question 12.
What do you mean by physical verification ?
Answer:
Physical verification : The complete bio-data of the candidate is called in this test. Side by side, police verification is made for the verification of candidate’s character. Two references, may be called for the candidate for the verification of character. If the candidate has worked somewhere else, then reference may be called from the previous employers.

MP Board Solutions

Question 13.
What is pre test ?
Answer:
When the number of application of applicants are maximum and it is necessary to minimize the incompetent candidates by,

  1. Physical measurement,
  2. Intelligence and skill test,
    e.g., PET, PMT, Pre-PSC etc.

Question 14.
What is interest test ?
Answer:
In this test candidate’s interest, hobby and habit are tested for this some questions relating to interest are given and candidates are asked to solve only 25% of questions. Candidates will solve only those 25% of questions in w hich the candidate is having interest.

Question 15.
Explain the methods of off the training in short ?
Answer:
1. Case study method : This is the modem method of training. This method was developed in Harvard School of America in the year 1920-25. In this method the worker is entrusted with the problem and asked to study its various aspects and suggest the solutions. If the worker does not gives right solution then he is guided how to make right decision. This method is suitable where number of trainee is less. It is an expensive method.

2. Seminar and conference method : In this method 20-30 employees shares their views and opinions. Workers can also get solutions of the problems by asking questions. Through this method out of various alternatives the best alternative is selected various enterprises holds these type of seminars and conferences.

3. Induction training : After selection of employee if he is said to perform the work then he will feel uneasy. Thus while dividing the work, for some days he is introduced with the working environment, subordinates, objectives, seniors so that he can perform the work effectively.

Question 16.
Why are internal sources of recruitment economical ? Give three reasons.
Answer:
The internal sources of recruitment are economical because :

  1. No, expenditure on advertisement and inviting on application form.
  2. There is no expenditure done on training. Even if it is there it is very nominal.
  3. Workers are aware of general rules and regulations of the organization. So no expenditure is done on it.

Question 17.
Do you say that external source of recruitment is more time consuming ?
Answer:
Yes I do agree with it because in external sources application forms are invited. After getting application of candidates they are scrutinized. Some candidates are rejected. The suitable candidates are called for interviews, their medical checkup is done. All these activities take lot of time. So it is said that external sources are time consuming.

Question 18.
How is direct recruitment done in the office ?
Answer:
This type of recruitment is done by the personnel department or selection section. The following process is adopted in this system :

  1. To call applications on the basis of advertisement.
  2. To conduct written examination in the case the number of applicants are maximum as if it is necessary.
  3. To take personal interview of the candidates who pass the written examination.
  4. To take different test, if it is necessary.

MP Board Solutions

Question 19.
Why are employees of an enterprise transferred ?
Answer:
Employees are transferred due to the following reasons :

  1. To expose the person to a variety of jobs.
  2. To avoid monotony associated with the execution of a particular job.
  3. To penalize him, sometimes transfer orders are issued as penalty for an undesirable action.
  4. A request by the employee himself, expressing his desire to work at some other work spot.

Question 20.
Explain the advantages of recruitment through internal sources.
Answer:

1. Knowledge of general rules : Due to years of service, employees know the rules and policies of the organization. So, it is not necessary to give them knowledge like fresh employees. This saves time and money.

2. Minimum cost: Recruitment process requires high expenses. There expenses can be saved.

3. Reduction in training cost: Employees of the organization know well, the working methods and techniques. So, they don’t require training for general work.

4. Increase in efficiency: Employees are aware of the fact that they will get promotion in future if they perform their work sincerely and with full dedication. This improves their
efficiency

Question 21.
Write in short about the various tests for selection,
Answer:
Following are the tests of selection :

1. Main test: The main basis of selection is main test. This test is generally taken in the written form. In this test, the following tests are taken :

(i) Ability test: The general ability of the candidate is highlighted in this test

(ii) Trade-test: This test is very important because through this test it is known that whether the candidate is competent for the work or not. As test is taken for the post of Draftsman by making drawings, for the post of operator by driving machines etc.

(iii) Interest test: In this test, candidate’s interest, hobby and habit are tested. For this, some questions relating to interest are given and candidates are asked to solve only 25% of questions. Candidates will solve only those 25% of questions, in which the candidate is having interest.

(iv) Personality test : In this test, candidate’s family, social, intellectual and emotional status are measured.

(v) Intelligence test: In the present day, this system has become very much popular. Through this test general intelligence of the candidate is measured so that it can be known that how intelligent the candidate is and how much he is cautious.

(vi) Language ability : Language ability has also great importance, because for work, the knowledge of local language is very important. If a person does not know English and is appointed at Air Port, then he can not perform his duty satisfactorily.

(vii) Aptitude test: For knowing the aptitude towards work, this test is important.

MP Board Solutions

Question 22.
What do you mean by training on job ? Explain its type.
Answer:

On the job training : In this method of training workers learn by doing. On the job training aims at learning and earning simultaneously. Trainees work under the guidance and supervision of experts. The trainees follow the orders and instructions of experts. This method is less expensive. The trainee gets practical training more but lacks in theoretical training.

1. Apprenticeship training : This is one of the older method of training. It is still prevalent nowadays also. The main purpose of this training is to make the employees well versed in a specific art or technique. This method is used in those cases where long term training is required to attain proficiency to perform a particular task. In this method work is entrusted to each trainee according to prescribed programme and training is managed. Generally stipend is paid to the candidates. This training provides theoretical as well as practical knowledge to employees.

2. Job rotation method : In an enterprise when training is given to employee of various jobs, it is called as job rotation method. The main demerit of this method is that due to this method the employees lack specialization in one field. This type of method is very popular in banks. .

3. Training on training centres : First of all according to the necessity training centres are established in this method. These training centres are established by government or commercial enterprises. More stress is given on practical training than on theoretical training. Since training is given in training centres thus it does not effects the production.

4. Training by experienced workmen : Training by experienced workmen will be important and useful in that condition when experienced workmen requires helpers. The object of the training is to make the employee aware and believe in the ideologies of the working.

5. Training by supervisors : This type of training is provided by supervisors or experienced officers. These officers or supervisors are close to the trainee thus it helps the trainee to make communication with officers. This method helps in determining the abilities and efficiency of trainee during the work performed in training.

6. Internship training : The main aim of this training is to provide both theoretical and practical type of training with the joint effort of some technical institutes and business undertakings this type of training is provided to the students to learn theoretical as well as practical aspects of job. e.g., In medical colleges medical students are given theoretical knowledge and in hospitals they are provided practical knowledge due to which students gets the practical training of theoretical knowledge.

Question 23.
What is web publishing as external source of recruitment ?
Answer:
Internet is one of the most used source of recruitment. There are various websites like naukri.com, monster.com, career builder.com etc. specially designed and dedicated to
provide information about job seekers and job openings. Prospective employees and organization looking for desirable candidates may visit these websites to select the right person for the right job. The companies may have information about positions vacant on their own websites as well.

Question 24.
The functions of staffing should be done by all organizations and management efficiently.
Answer:
The work of staffing should be done by all managers effectively because if the suitable and efficient candidates are not selected then there will be wastage of time, material and efforts. Due to it the production will be reduced and cost of production will be increased. The manufactures will not be able to sell the product by profit. So it is essential that capable persons should be appointed for the work and they should be provided proper training.

Question 25.
What information is given to the workers under induction orientation programme ?
Answer:
Under induction orientation programme the following information can be given :

  1. Short history of the company,
  2. Policies of the company
  3. Functional structure of the company
  4. Location of the departments
  5. Facilities provided to workers
  6. Rights and duties of the new employees
  7. Working hours
  8. Rules of leaves
  9. Rules related to discipline.

Question 26.
Distinguish between on the job and off the job training methods.
Answer:
Difference between On the job training and Off the training :

On the job training

  1. By it we mean those methods which training is given on working places
  2. In it during the working period the principle of learning through work is adopted
  3. On the job training aims at learning and earning simultaneously
  4. Trainees work under the guidance and supervision of experts during the work

Off the job training

  1. By it we mean those methods by which training is given out side the working place
  2. In it principles of learning are adopted before doing work
  3. Off the job training aims at learning and earning separately
  4. Employees work under the guidance of experts but they are already trained before the job.

MP Board Solutions

Question 27.
Write the import acceptance of stalling.
Answer:

  1. It helps in .achieving targets
  2. It reduces cost of production
  3. It helps in job satisfaction
  4. It promotes individual growth
  5. It helps in obtaining corporate recognition
  6. Reduces labour turnover
  7. Maximum productivity.

Question 28.
Explain the advantages of training to organization.
Answer:
Advantages of training to organization : Training is a process which aims to incorporate or improve the attitude, skills and abilities amongst employees to perform specific jobs.
Advantages of training to organization :

  1. Systematic learning process
  2. Enhances productivity
  3. Develops future managers
  4. Higher profits
  5. Less wastage and reduced risks of accidents
  6. Reduce absenteeism and employee turnover
  7. Helps to adapt changes in business environment.

Question 29.
What is the advantage of training to employees ?
Answer:
Advantages to employee :

  1. Growth opportunities
  2. Higher income
  3. Increases efficiency and reduces risks
  4. High morale and job satisfaction
  5. Makes new employees comfortable in new environment.

Question 30.
Throw light on reappointment of former employees in recruitment process as external source.
Answer:
Reappointment of former employees : Sometimes, employees are reappointed in an organization after a break in their service. Many a time, retiring personnel are also given an option to continue in the same firm, but at a lower remuneration. This proves beneficial to organization in two ways:

  1. Experienced personnel become available,
  2. Economy is achieved.

Question 31.
What do you understand by checking of reference ?
Answer:
In application form the candidates have to give two names of reference. If the candidate passes the interview then organization tries to find out about the characters of the candidates. For getting the information he gives preferences to references. Organization gets information about the characters of the candidates through other people or names of people given as references.
Physical verification : The complete bio-data of the candidate is called in this test. Side by side, police verification is made for the verification of candidate’s character. Two references, may be called for the candidate for the verification of character. If the candidate has worked somewhere else, then reference may be called from the previous employers.

Question 32.
What is the role of friends and relatives in recruitment ?
Answer:
Friends and relatives of present employees : Present employees invite their friends and relative for recruitment. This system is also beneficial for the organization, because recruitment of employees from acquainted persons, gives a fair chance to recruit good employees. Besides, for any error, done by the new employee, the present employee becomes responsible for such error.

Question 33.
Write the role of advertisement in recruitment.
Answer:
Advertisement is an important source of recruitment. It is an effective method of searching workers outside organization. Through advertisement large No. of people are attracted to words organization for middle level and lower level posts advertisement is done through newspapers, televisions employment news and other magazines. In advertisement information is given about nature of work, remuneration time of working etc.

Staffing Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain internal and external sources of recruitment.
Answer:
(a) Internal sources : Internal source of recruitment refers to recruitment from within the enterprise. There are two important internal sources :

1. Promotion : Competent and experienced persons of the enterprise are promoted to higher post on the basis of their qualifications and seniority to fill up the vacancy. This system is almost applied by all the enterprises. Some posts, where experience is important in filled up by promotion only. For e.g., the post of the Principal in school or college, the post of Vice-Chancellor in a University.

2. Transfer: Transfer involves the shifting of an employee from one job to another. At the time of transfer, it is ensured that the employee to be transferred to the new job is capable of performing the jobs. Transfers become essential due to the following reasons :

  1. To expose the person to a variety of jobs.
  2. To avoid the monotony associated with the execution of a particular job.
  3. To penalize him, sometimes transfer orders are issued as a penalty for an undesirable action.
  4. A request by the employee himself, expressing his desire to work at some other work spot.
  5. To.accommodate the excess staff at hand.

(b) External Sources: If the organization feels that the needed human resources are not available within the enterprise, it will have to depend on outside sources. The following are the external sources for recruitment:

1. Reappointment of former employees: Sometimes, ex-employees are reappointed in an organization after a break in their service. Many a time, retiring personnel are also
given an option to continue in the same firm, but at a lower remuneration. This proves beneficial to the organization in two ways :

  1. Experienced personnel become available
  2. Economy is achieved.

2. Friends and relatives of present employees: Present employees invite their friends and relatives for recruitment. This system is also beneficial for the organization, because
recruitment of employees from acquainted persons, gives a fair chance to recruit good employees. Besides, for any error, done by the hew employee, the present employee becomes responsible for such error.

3. Direct Recruitment in the office: This type of recruitment is done by the personnel department or selection section. For external appointment, information is affixed in the notice board of the office relating to vacant post, conditions, etc. Side by side, advertisement is also given in the daily newspaper, so that the best selection can be made.

4. Recruitment through employment exchange : Public employment exchanges are also an important source of recruitment of personnel. Job seekers register their names with these exchanges and the names of these persons will be supplied to business concerns on the basis of their requisition.

5. By advertisement: This system is very popular nowadays. Advertisement is made in newspapers, journals and trade and professional periodicals stating the available job, duties and responsibilities, emoluments, qualification and experience required for the job. This is one of the popular method used by business concerns to recruit personnel from external sources.

6. By trade unions : In some areas, trade unions are very influential and they think it correct to recruit labour through them so that trade union may be much stronger. Some producers, to reduce their burdens direct trade unions for recruitment. While making recruitment ‘through this system care should be taken that incompetent and inefficient person may not get appointment and from trade union there should be no pressure for recruiting such type of personnel.

7. Through educational and vocational institutes : Today, employment bureau has been opened in colleges and universities. In this, information related to employment are given to the desired people. Similarly, some commercial organizations are also in existence which help to get employment to unemployed persons.

8. Through other undertaking: In some commercial organizations, there is a system of exchange of employees. Its object is to exchange the art and talent in each other business. This recruitment is done for one or two persons. Sometimes when the promotional prospects become nil in one company and if promotional prospects are high in other company, a recruitment from the first company is done.

9. Retired defense personnel: The defense personnel retires at the age of 35 to 45 years. These personnel show great interest to get employment elsewhere. These personnel always remain disciplined, honest and laborious. Central and State Govt, also appoint defense personnel to some post (as Chancellor, Vice-Chancellor) which needs the quality of discipline. Hence, this is also an external source.

Question 2.
Distinguish between internal and external source of recruitment.
Answer:
Differences between Internal Sources and External Sources

Internal Sources

  1. Vacant posts are filled with employees available within the organization in case of internal sources.
  2. It is the most economical source because the organization does not have to spend any amount on search for sources of recruitment.
  3. There is no risk for selection in high post as the organization has full information about the employees working there.
  4. The major demerit of internal recruitment is that it stops the entry of young blood in the organization.
  5. It is fastest and time saving process.
  6. This recruitment system linders the entry of better qualified employees which hampers the sense of competition.
  7. This process of recruitment encourages other works for improving their skills.

External Sources

  1. It means inviting applications for filling up the vacancies from candidates outside the organization.
  2. It is an expensive process as it involves . advertisement and at long selection process and training.
  3. There is always a possibility of wrong selection as there is no complete information about the external candidates.
  4. It helps the young and fresh talents to enter the company or organisation.
  5. It is very lengthy and time consuming process.
  6. Through this process new employees are recruited which develops competitive sport among existing and new employees.
  7. When new employees are selected through this process a feeling of frustration and dissatisfaction develop. New organizations have to make use of the external source.

MP Board Solutions

Question 3.
What advantages employees and organization get through training
Answer:
Advantages of training to organization : Training is a process which aims to incorporate or improve the attitude, skills and abilities among employees to perform specific jobs.

Advantages of training to organization :

  1. Systematic learning process
  2.  Enhances productivity
  3. Develops future managers
  4. Higher profits
  5. Less wastage and reduced risks of accidents
  6. Reduce absenteeism and employee turnover
  7. Helps to adapt changes in business environment.

Advantages to employee :

  1. Growth opportunities
  2. Higher income
  3. Increases efficiency and reduces risks
  4. High morale and job satisfaction
  5. Makes new employees comfortable in new environment.

Question 4.
Explain the source of recruitment through chart
MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 Staffing image - 2
Question 5.
Distinguish between recruitment and selection.
Answer:

Recruitment

  1. There are many sources of recruitment.
  2. It is a process of searching employees.
  3. Recruitment is positive.
  4. Recruitment precedes selection.
  5. Recruitment word is used generally for lower level employees.
  6. The number of candidates are maxi-mum in recruitment.
  7. The ultimate object of recruitment is to search employees.
  8. Recruitment is limited to the extent of calling an application.
  9. Recruitment is a means.
  10. Recruitment is the first portion of a coin.

Selection

  1. There is a specific process of selection of employees.
  2. Selection and appointment are given for the present.
  3. It is a negative process.
  4. Appointment letter is issued after selection.
  5. Selection word is used for all levels.
  6. The number of candidates are minimum in comparison to recruitment.
  7. The ultimate object of selection is to select employees and to appoint.
  8. Selection is related with screening of applications, conducting different tests and to make final appointment for work.
  9. Selection is itself a device.
  10. Selection is the second portion of a coin.

Question 6.
What are various methods of training ?
Answer:
Following are the tests of selection :

1. Main test: The main basis of selection is main test. This test is generally taken in the written form. In this test, the following tests are taken :

(i) Ability test: The general ability of the candidate is highlighted in this test.

(ii) Trade-test: This test is very important because through this test it is known that whether the candidate is competent for the work or not. As test is taken for the post of Draftsman by making drawings, for the post of operator by driving machines etc.

(iii) Interest test: In this test, candidate’s interest, hobby and habit are tested. For this, some questions relating to interest are given and candidates are asked to solve only 25% of questions. Candidates will solve only those 25% of questions, in which the candidate is having interest.

(iv) Personality test : In this test, candidate’s family, social, intellectual and emotional status are measured.

(v) Intelligence test: In the present day, this system has become very much popular. Through this test general intelligence of the candidate is measured so that it can be known that how intelligent the candidate is and how much he is cautious.

(vi) Language ability : Language ability has also great importance, because for work, the knowledge of local language is very important. If a person does not know English and is appointed at Air Port, then he can not perform his duty satisfactorily.

(vii) Aptitude test: For knowing the aptitude towards work, this test is important.

Question 7.
What do you mean by web publishing as external source of recruitment ?
Answer:
On the job training : In this method of training workers learn by doing. On the job training aims at learning and earning simultaneously. Trainees work under the guidance and supervision of experts. The trainees follow the orders and instructions of experts. This method is less expensive. The trainee gets practical training more but lacks in theoretical training.

1. Apprenticeship training : This is one of the older method of training. It is still prevalent nowadays also. The main purpose of this training is to make the employees well versed in a specific art or technique. This method is used in those cases where long term training is required to attain proficiency to perform a particular task. In this method work is entrusted to each trainee according to prescribed programme and training is managed. Generally stipend is paid to the candidates. This training provides theoretical as well as practical knowledge to employees.

2. Job rotation method : In an enterprise when training is given to employee of various jobs, it is called as job rotation method. The main demerit of this method is that due to this method the employees lack specialization in one field. This type of method is very popular in banks. .

3. Training on training centres : First of all according to the necessity training cen-tres are established in this method. These training centres are established by government or commercial enterprises. More stress is given on practical training than on theoretical training. Since training is given in training centres thus it does not effects the production.

4. Training by experienced workmen : Training by experienced workmen will be important and useful in that condition when experienced workmen requires helpers. The object of the training is to make the employee aware and believe in the ideologies of the working.

5. Training by supervisors : This type of training is provided by supervisors or experienced officers. These officers or supervisors are close to the trainee thus it helps the trainee to make communication with officers. This method helps in determining the abilities and efficiency of trainee during the work performed in training.

6. Internship training : The main aim of this training is to provide both theoretical and practical type of training with the joint effort of some technical institutes and business undertakings this type of training is provided to the students to learn theoretical as well as practical aspects of job. e.g., In medical colleges medical students are given theoretical knowledge and in hospitals they are provided practical knowledge due to which students gets the practical training of theoretical knowledge.

MP Board Solutions

Question 8.
What are internal sources of recruitment better than external sources ? Explain by giving reasons.
Answer:

Internal sources of recruitment are better than external sources because of the following reasons: ,

1. Knowledge of general rules : Due to service for many years, these employees know the rules and policies of the organization. So, it is not necessary to give them knowledge like a fresh employee. This saves time and money.

2. Morale is increased : Transparent policies help the employees in knowing as to when their promotions fall due and hence they strive hard for it. Thus, their morale increases.

3. Minimum cost: Expenses in this type of recruitment are kept to a minimum, as filling of jobs internally is cheaper as compared to getting candidate from external sources.

4. Increase in efficiency : In this system, all employees know that they will get promotion in future and side by side efficient and dedicated employee will be promoted shortly. With this hope, they work with full interest and dedication. Through this, their efficiency increases.

5. Reduction in training cost: Employees of the organization, know well the working methods and techniques of work. So, they don’t require training for general work. Training is imparted only to update them with the new technologies and working methods.

Question 9.
Differentiate between Training and Development.
Answer:
Differences between Training and Development:
MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 Staffing image - 3
MP Board Solutions

Question 10.
What is the importance of training ?
Or
Explain the need of training.
Answer:
1. Increase in productivity : The objective of training is to complete the work speedily and effectively. If a work is done speedily and effectively in an enterprise than production will increase which will bring profits to enterprise. Training boosts the morale of employees which increases the efficiency of employees’. This increases the production and productivity of enterprise.

2. Lesser accidents: Training provides complete knowledge about working of plants and machines to employees which increases the operational efficiency and chances of accidents are reduced.

3. Lesser supervision and direction : Supervision and direction is required for the effective completion of work. But after getting training employees have the knowledge about their work and equipment so lesser supervision and direction is needed.

4. Proper use of machines and equipment: Trained employees uses machines and equipment properly and minimizes wastage. A trained employee has the knowledge of operating machines and equipment methodically.

5. Boosts the morale of employees : Training provides self confidence and develops creativity of employees. Training helps in boosting the morale of employees which creates interest towards job.

6. Reduction in supervision cost: Trained employees become more disciplined and take more interest in their job. Employees do not require supervision and direction which reduces the supervision cost.

7. Quality goods : Training provides knowledge about use of machines and equipment which enables the employees to handle machinery and equipment in a better way by minimizing wastage. This helps in production of high quality goods at minimum cost.

8. Better chances of promotion : Trained employees can be promoted to higher posts or grades easily as compared to untrained employees since they have requisite qualification and training.

9. Adaptibility : Training makes the employees keen to Team new things. The trained employees can easily adapt to modem methods, techniques, etc. since training stimulates mental development of employees.

10. Helpful for new employees : Training is necessary for new employees because there is a lot of differences between theoretical and practical knowledge. Training provides practical knowledge to employees about work.

11. Helpful in facing competition: Through training the information about new methods is given and it also provides the knowledge about increasing the production in less time. Thin helps in reducing the cost of production which help in facing competition.

12. Industrial peace : After training each employee is indulged in the activities (Commercial) of enterprise which helps in maintaining industrial peace in enterprise. Training helps in establishing and maintaining harmonious industrial relation.
Above points make it clear that training has advantages both for the enterprise and the employees. Without training the entrepreneurs cannot reach the peak of success.

Question 11.
Write procedure of selection in short.
Or
Discuss the process of selection.
Answer:
“Selection is the process in which candidates for employment are divided into two classes. Those who are to be offered employment and those who are not.”
Selection involves choosing personnel to fill specific jobs in the organization on the basis of educational qualifications, training, skill, abilities and personality of the persons available for the jobs.
Selection process

1. Pretest: When the number of application of applicants are maximum and it is necessary to minimize the incompetent candidates by

  1. Physical measurement
  2. Intelligence and skill test, etc.

2. Blank application form : After pretest form a blank application is sent to those candidates who have qualified in the pretest. This form is prepared in a most scientific and technical manner. Mainly three types of informations are demanded :

  1. Personal informations
  2. Psychological informations
  3. Working competency information.

3. Main test: This test is generally taken in the written form. In this test the following tests are taken:

  1. Ability test
  2. Trade test
  3. Interest test
  4. Personality test
  5. Intelligence test
  6. Language ability
  7. Aptitude test.

4. Interview : No appointment is possible without interview. Interview is the best and most popular method. Interview has a great importance for the post of upper level. In this method, the team of selection and candidate, sit together and discuss with each other. The candidate is evaluated through this discussion.

5. Physical verification : The complete bio data of the candidate is called in this test. Side by side, police verification is made for the verification of candidate’s character. Two references may be called for the candidate for the verification. If the candidate is having any serious disease then his name is cancelled from the selection list.

6. Physical test : Physical test is done of those candidates, who have been finally selected. This is done about the general health of the candidate. Side by side, it is known whether the candidate is having any serious diseases as T.B., AIDS, etc. or not. If the candidate is having any serious disease, then his name is cancelled from the selection list.

MP Board Solutions

Question 12.
Explain any five principles of selection.
Answer:
The principles of selection are :

1. Selection through competent persons : While selecting employees the selector must be a competent person so that an efficient employee can be selected.

2. Fixed standards: Standards should be fixed for selecting employees so that efficient employees can be selected.

3. Impartial : Selection should be fair and impartial. Selector should be far from pride and prejudice.

4. Flexibility : Selection process must be flexible in nature. According to needs of the enterprise and situation necessary changes can be made in selection process.

5. Rules and Laws : Selection process must be according to the rules of enterprise and laws of country.

Question 13.
Explain the methods of recruitment
Answer:
Following are the methods of recruitment:

1. employment of former employees : Employees who have already worked in the organization and have retired or have left the services for some reason posses sufficient experience and skill. Therefore, such employees are re-employed. The governments are also availing the services of retired employees by offering them re-employment. The expenditure for training of such employees is comparatively lesser because they are reliable and possess vast experience. They are especially useful for some technical posts. Often, such posts are filled for vacancies in higher grades.

2. Friends and relatives of present employees : The organization has full confidence in the employees and, therefore, through these employees their friends and relatives who are reliable and competent are employed, the present employees stand guarantee to new employees so recruited. Although the organization gets an opportunity to secure most suitable candidates because they are known to the present employees, sometime favoritism creeps in and incompetent candidate is selected.

3. Direct recruitment in the office : Such recruitment is often done by the Personnel or Services Department of the enterprise. A notice is displayed on the office notice board for such recruitment specifying the number of vacancies and terms and conditions of recruitment. Such notice is published in the daily newspapers also.

4. Recruitment through employment exchange : The employment exchanges are an important source of recruitment. They are established in every district place. They possess list of unemployed candidates with their address, qualification etc. Enterprise or the employers call for applications from such employment exchanges are make direct recruitment.

5. Recruitment through advertisement: Nowadays recruitment through advertisement is very popular and adopted by majority of enterprise. Transparency can be maintained through such recruitment. Organization where technically qualified candidates are needed, recruitment through advertisement is considered to be a better option. Today, recruitment in government or non-government organization through advertisement is considered as the best source. By advertising in newspapers, applications from suitable candidates can be procured in a large number.

6. Recruitment by trade unions : The trade unions also play an important role in recruitment. The recognized trade unions maintained a list of unemployed candidates and they arrange for suitable candidates at the time of recruitment. Reliable candidates may be available by recruitment through trade unions. The trade unions should, on their part, be careful and ensure that no incompetent candidate is recommended by them.

Question 14.
Describe the internal sources of recruitment. What are the advantages of it ?
Answer:
Internal sources of recruitment refers to recruitment from within the enterprise. There are two important internal sources :

1. Promotion : Competent and experienced persons of the enterprises are promoted to higher post on the basis of their qualification and seniority to fill up the vacancy. This system is almost applied by all the enterprise. Some posts where experience is important filling up by promotion only. For e.g. the post of principal in school or college, the post of Vice Chancellor in university.

2. Transfer : It involves the sifting of an employee from one job to another. At the time of transfer it is ensured that the employee to be transferred to the new job is capable of performing the jobs. Transfer becomes essential due to following reasons :

  1. To expose the person to variety of jobs.
  2. To avoid monotony associated with the execution of a particular job.
  3. To penalize employees.
  4. A request by employee himself, expressing his desire to work at some other work spot.
  5. To accommodate the excess staff at hand.

Advantages : This source of recruitment has certain merits. They are :

1. Knowledge of general rules : Due to service for many years, these employees know the rules and policies of the organization. So, it is not necessary to give them knowledge like a fresh employee. This saves time and money.

2. Morale is increased : Transparent policies help the employees in knowing as to when their promotions fall due and hence they strive hard for it. Thus, their morale increases.

3. Minimum cost : Expenses in this type of recruitment are kept to a minimum, as filling of jobs internally is cheaper as compared to getting candidate from external sources.

4. Increase in efficiency : In this system, all employees know that they will get promotion in future and side by side efficient and dedicated employee will be promoted shortly. With this hope, they work with full interest and dedication. Through this, their efficiency increases.

5. Reduction in training cost: Employees of the organization, know well the working methods and techniques of work. So, they don’t require training for general work. Training is imparted only to update them with the new technologies and working methods.

MP Board Solutions

Question 15.
What is meaning of Training ? What are its chief characteristics ?
Answer:
Meaning of Training : Training is a systematic programme to increase the knowledge, skills, abilities and aptitudes of workers to perform specific jobs. The purpose of training is to achieve a change in the behaviour of those trained and to enable them to do their jobs in a better way. Training is the act of improving or updating the knowledge and skill of an employee for performing a particular job. It is a two-way process because there must be someone to learn and someone to teach. The purpose of training is to mould the behaviour of people so that they can do their jobs in a better way.
Definitions :

1. According to Jucius, “The term training is used here to indicate only process by which the aptitudes, skills and abilities of employees , to perform specific jobs, are increased.”

2. According to Dale, S. Beach, “Training is the organized procedure in which people team knowledge and/or skill for definite purpose.”

3. According to Flippo, “Training is the act of increasing the knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a particular job.”
Characteristics of Training : On the basis of meaning and definitions of training, following are the characteristics :

  1. Training is a countinu us process of development of employees.
  2. Training is necessary for all the managerial levels.
  3. Training is essential for both the old and new employees.
  4. Training increases the efficiency of employees.
  5. Training and education are different.
  6. Training is that expenses incurred on it constitute investment and not wastage.
  7. It helps in achieving the objectives of organization.
  8. Training provides self satisfaction to employees.
  9. All round development of employees is possible through training.

MP Board Solutions

Question 16.
Write the objectives of training.
Answer:

Objectives of training :

1. To make labour force useful: Training familiarises the employee with the object of the organization and work, he has to perform. Workers leam to operate equipments efficiently and increase their utility in the organization.

2. Increasing the efficiency of employees : Workers are acquainted with the real situations of works, its tools, equipments and environment. They have to work pracitically.

3. Familiarity with the working condition : Workers leam to work properly in the real situations of work. Labour force employed in the factory belongs to different parts of the country. They are unfamiliar with each other.

4. To increase in productivity : The objective of training is to complete the work speedily and effectively. If a work is done speedily and effectively in an enterprise than production will increase which will bring profits to enterprise. Training boosts the morale of employees which increase the efficiency of employees. This increases the production and productivity of enterprise.

5. Boosts the morale of employees : Training provides self confidence and develops creativity of employees. Training helps in boosting the morale of employees which creates interest to-words job.

Question 17.
Write the steps of staffing or process of staffing.
Answer:

1. Manpower planning: The first step of staffing process is to estimate manpower requirements. It is ensured that able employees are available in an organization to be placed in right position at the correct time. Manpower planning includes determining the employees to be required in future, which type of qualities are required in employees etc.

2. Recruitment: Edwin B. Fillipo said, explaining the recruitment of labours, “Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization.” The need for employees is perennial in organization. Dale S. Beael has defined recruitment in this way, “Recruitment is the development and maintenance of adequate manpower resources. It involves the creation of a pool of available labour from where the organization can draw when it needs additional employees.” In a big organization, a separate branch or personnel department assesses the manpower requirements and recruits them. This department is also called Recruitment Section. It is the second step in the process of staffing.

3. Selection : Selection is the third important step of staffing. Selection involves choosing personnel to fill specific jobs in the organization on the basis of educational qualifications, training, skill, abilities and personality of the persons available for the jobs. The selection process involves screening and testing of candidates who have applied for the jobs in the enterprises. Selection is necessary because some of the candidates who have applied may not be suitable for the jobs in the enterprise. Further, the number of candidates who are suitable for the jobs may be more than the vacant jobs to be filled.Dale Yoder has defined the word ‘selection’ in this way, “Selection is the process in which candidates for employment are divided into two classes : those who are to be offered employment and those who are not.”

4. Placement and Orientation : As per the terms and conditions and date of joining mentioned in the appointment letter, the candidate has to join the duty. From the very date of his joining, he is treated as an employee of that office. This newly appointed employee works with the senior employee. So that he may be well acquainted with the working methods.
Orientation means to acquaint the employees with their work and organization. In order to work as a team new employees are introduced to their subordinates and seniors.

5. Training and Development: In order to increase the efficiency and effectiveness of employees training and development facilities are imparted to the employees. Training benefits both the organization and employees. For different categories of employees suitable method of training should be adopted.

6. Determination of remuneration: The remuneration of selected employees should be determined according to the work performed by them. Remuneration may be paid in the form of wages, salaries, fees, allowances, etc.

7. Performance appraisal: The standards are established by the organization. The performance of employees are compared with the standards set. On the basis of their performance. The wages of employees are determined. Thus performance appraisal is an important activity in staffing process.

8. Promotion and Transfer : Competent and experienced persons of the enterprise are promoted to higher posts and shifting of an employee from one job to another are also
the major steps of staffing process.If the employees do not work according to standards set, they are also demoted from their job. Thus in process of staffing promotion, demotion, transfer, retirement, etc. are also included.

Question 18.
Write the characteristics of staffing.
Answer:
Characteristics :

1. Human nature: Staffing is the work done by man for man. In an enterprise though a certain work may be done by livestock, but staffing involves only recruitment, promotion and development of human being. Thus, staffing is concerned with human nature only.

2. Managerial function : Staffing is exclusively a managerial function. It is also called human resource management. In large organization, there is a separate personnel department for staffing which performs the functions from recruitment to development of personnel. Thus staffing is exclusively a managerial function.

3. Continuous activity : Staffing is a continuous activity. This involves continuous recruitment, placement, promotion, transfer, development etc.

4. A process : Staffing is a process in itself. It is concerned with organization structure and its various plans and policies.

5. Social nature : Staffing is exclusively the function of the society for the society. Management is in itself a social function therefore staffing exists within the society.

6. Recruitment at all levels : Staffing is done at all level stop management, middle management and lower level management. Through the method of recruitment may differ, but this is done at all levels of management.

7. Recruitment at present and future vacancies: With fulfilling the present vacancies, the vacancies likely to arise in future are also determined and the work relating to future vacancies is also completed in advance so that the vacancies may be filled as and when needed.

8. Staffing in broader sense : Staffing involves recruitment, promotion, demotion, retirement, transfer, training development, evaluation. Hence staffing has a broader meaning.

9. Complicated : Staffing work is very complicated because in this we have to face with people, personal pressure and tradition.

10. Policy fixation : In staffing apart from selection of employees policies related with their promotion, transfer, retirement, compensation etc is also framed.

Question 19.
Distinguish between education and training.
Answer:
Generally it is assumed that education and training are same but there are some differences between education and training. They are as follows :

  1. Education is imparted according to a specific syllabus while in training the technique of performing work is important.
  2. Education is a long term plan which is imparted every year while training is for short period.
  3. In education there is a relationship between teacher and student which is a symbol of respect between both of them while in training between experts and trainee and both of them have formal relationship.
  4. Education is related to general knowledge while training is related to knowledge of specific work.
  5. Education is related with overall development of persons while training is related with the knowledge of specific area for persons.
  6. Scope of education is wide while scope of training is narrow.
  7. Education is related with school, colleges etc. which training is related with training centres.
  8. Cost of education is borne by the person himself or the government while cost of training is borne by employer. .
  9. Education is a symbol of increase in knowledge while training is a symbol of performing work artistically.

MP Board Solutions

Question 20.
Write the principles of recruitment or policy of recruitment.
Answer:
Following are the principles of recruitment:

1. Recruitment work is a managerial prerogative : Every function relating to recruitment should be done by the top management, so that no conflict arises in the process of recruitment.

2. Information of vacant post from different departments: Top management should call for the information of vacant posts from different departments from time to time, so that recruitment may be done in accordance with the information.

3. Separate department for recruitment : Recruitment is very important. So, for this, experienced and efficient recruitment personnel should be appointed and a separate department or branch should be opened, which may be defined as a personnel department or recruitment branch.

4. Approval of new posts : If work increases and the need for additional posts is felt, then approval for creation of new posts should be obtained from the employers, as due to the creation of additional posts, economic burden increases.

5. Recruitment work by a competent officer : Employees are the backbone of any business. So, their selection should be made after deep thinking and by a competent officer. Recruitment experts from outside may be invited in case of need.

6. Recruitment as per work: Before recruitment, the nature and kind of work should be kept in mind and recruitment should be done accordingly and a competent and efficient person should be selected. For example, if any work is to be done by hand, then a selection of person, maimed by hand will be void.

7. Without partiality: Recruitment should always be impartial. Discrimination should not be present in the recruitment process.

8. Weight age to qualification : In recruitment, qualification should be taken into mind at first. In qualification, along with educational qualifications, sports, work experience etc.should be given weight age.

9. Suggestions from different sources : It is not wrong to call suggestions from competent and acquainted persons for recruitment and subsequently, selection can be made from these recruiters.

10. Different tests : Different tests such as physical test, intelligence test, work test, nature test etc. should be conducted before recruitment to facilitate selection.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय

व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय Important Questions

व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

प्रश्न (a)
भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था है –
(a) केन्द्रीकृत योजनाबद्ध अर्थव्यवस्था
(b) बाजार अर्थव्यवस्था
(c) मिश्रित अर्थव्यवस्था
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(c) मिश्रित अर्थव्यवस्था

प्रश्न (b)
सबसे पहले ‘माइक्रो’ शब्द का प्रयोग करने वाले अर्थशास्त्री हैं –
(a) मार्शल
(b) बोल्डिंग
(c) कीन्स
(d) रेग्नर फिश
उत्तर:
(d) रेग्नर फिश

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प्रश्न (c)
किसने कहा अर्थशास्त्र, धन का विज्ञान है –
(a) प्रो. रॉबिन्स ने
(b) प्रो. जे. के मेहता ने
(c) प्रो. मार्शल ने
(d) प्रो. एडम स्मिथ ने
उत्तर:
(d) प्रो. एडम स्मिथ ने

प्रश्न (d)
उत्पादन सम्भावना वक्र का आकार कैसा होता है –
(a) मूल बिन्दु की ओर अवनतोदर
(b) नतोदर
(c) सीधी रेखा
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(a) मूल बिन्दु की ओर अवनतोदर

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प्रश्न (e)
उत्पादन संभावना वक्र के अवनतोदर आकार का कारण है –
(a) बढ़ती अवसर लागत
(b) घटती अवसर लागत
(c) समान अवसर लागत
(d) ऋणात्मक अवसर लागत
उत्तर:
(b) घटती अवसर लागत

प्रश्न (f)
संसाधनों के पूर्ण उपयोग वाला बिन्दु उत्पादन संभावना वक्र के किस ओर पाया जाता है –
(a) बायीं ओर
(b) दायीं ओर
(c) अन्दर की ओर
(d) ऊपर
उत्तर:
(d) ऊपर

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प्रश्न 2.
रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए –

  1. प्रत्येक व्यक्ति के पास …………………………… वस्तुओं की कुछ ही मात्रा होती है।
  2. ………………………. में व्यक्तिगत आर्थिक इकाइयों के व्यवहार का अध्ययन किया जाता है।
  3. अवसर लागत उत्पादन सूची में ……………. को स्पष्ट करती हैं।
  4. व्यष्टि तथा समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र दोनों एक दूसरे के …………….. हैं।
  5. आर्थिक वृद्धि का संबंध …………….. अर्थशास्त्र से होता है।
  6. अर्थव्यवस्था …………….. इकाइयों का समूह होती है।
  7. मिश्रित अर्थव्यवस्था …………….. और …………….. को मिलाकर बनती है।
  8. उत्पादित वे वस्तुएँ अथवा सेवाएँ जो अन्य वस्तुओं अथवा सेवाओं के उत्पादन में काम आती हैं …………….. वस्तु कहलाती हैं।

उत्तर:

  1. कुछ
  2. व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र
  3. परिवर्तनों
  4. पूरक
  5. समष्टि
  6. उत्पादन
  7. समाजवाद, पूँजीवाद
  8. मध्यवर्ती.

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प्रश्न 3.
सत्य/असत्य का चयन कीजिए –

  1. उत्पादन सम्भावना वक्र मूल बिन्दु की ओर उन्नतोदर होता है?
  2. कीमत – यंत्र पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था में केन्द्रीय समस्याओं को हल करता है?
  3. अर्थव्यवस्था पूँजीवादी, समाजवादी या अवसरवादी हो सकती है?
  4. आजकल विश्व की सभी अर्थव्यवस्थाएँ लगभग मिश्रित अर्थव्यवस्थाएँ हैं?
  5. आदर्शात्मक अर्थशास्त्र में यह अध्ययन किया जाता है कि किसी तंत्र को किस प्रकार से कार्य करना चाहिए?
  6. समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में बेरोजगारी, मुद्रास्फीति आदि समस्याओं का अध्ययन किया जाता है?
  7. समाजवाद में निजी लाभ की भावना प्रमुख है?

उत्तर:

  1. असत्य
  2. सत्य
  3. असत्य
  4. सत्य
  5. सत्य
  6. सत्य
  7. असत्य

प्रश्न 4.
सही जोड़ी बनाइएखण्ड –
MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय img 9

  1. (c)
  2. (d)
  3. (a)
  4. (e)
  5. (b).

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 5.
एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए –

  1. भारत में किस अर्थव्यवस्था को अपनाया गया है?
  2. उत्पादन संभावना वक्र मूल बिन्दु की ओर कैसा होता है?
  3. शोषण का सरकारीकरण किस अर्थव्यवस्था का दोष है?
  4. चुनावों की सूची बनाने वाला वक्र कौन – सा है?
  5. वर्ग संघर्ष किस अर्थव्यवस्था की विशेषता है?
  6. किस अर्थव्यवस्था में निजी क्षेत्र को सीमित कर दिया जाता है?
  7. पूँजीवाद की सभी संस्थाओं का हृदय किसे कहा जाता है?
  8. अर्थव्यवस्था की केन्द्रीय समस्याएँ क्या कहलाती हैं?
  9. प्राथमिकताओं के आधार पर उत्पादन क्षेत्र एवं उत्पादन की मात्रा का निर्धारण कौन करता है?

उत्तर:

  1. मिश्रित अर्थव्यवस्था
  2. नतोदर
  3. समाजवाद
  4. उत्पादन संभावना वक्र
  5. पूँजीवाद
  6. समाजवादी
  7. लाभ को
  8. आधारभूत कार्य
  9. केन्द्रीय नियोजन सत्ता.

व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र से क्या आशय है? इसकी दो विशेषताएँ लिखिए?
उत्तर:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र से आशय:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र, आर्थिक ज्ञान की वह शाखा है, जो संपूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था एवं अर्थव्यवस्था से संबंधित बड़े योगों व औसतों का, उनके व्यवहार एवं पारस्परिक संबंधों का अध्ययन करती है। समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की विशेषताएँ – समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की निम्नलिखित दो विशेषताएँ हैं –

1. समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की धारणा विस्तृत:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की धारणा विस्तृत है। इसमें छोटी इकाइयों को महत्व नहीं दिया जाता, बल्कि इसकी सहायता से राष्ट्रीय एवं अंतर्राष्ट्रीय समस्या का हल निकाला जाता है। अतः समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र प्रावैगिक अर्थव्यवस्था को महत्व देता है।

2. विस्तृत विश्लेषण:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में विस्तृत विश्लेषण को सर्वाधिक महत्व दिया जाता है। उदाहरण के लिए, समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में सरकार की मौद्रिक एवं राजस्व की नीतियों का अध्ययन किया जाता है जो कि सामान्य प्रभावों को स्पष्ट करता है तथा इस तथ्य को नजर अंदाज कर दिया जाता है कि इन नीतियों का व्यक्तियों अथवा उद्योगों पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ेगा? यदि सार्वजनिक आय तथा सार्वजनिक व्यय का परस्पर प्रभाव समाज पर अच्छा पड़ रहा है, तो निष्कर्ष के रूप में यह कहा जा सकता है कि समाज में रहने वाले व्यक्ति पर इसका अच्छा प्रभाव पड़ेगा।

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प्रश्न 2.
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के प्रकारों को स्पष्ट कीजिए?
उत्तर:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के प्रमुख प्रकार निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. समष्टि आर्थिक स्थैतिकी:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अंतर्गत संपूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था का अध्ययन किया जाता है; लेकिन समष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण इस तथ्य का विश्लेषण नहीं करता कि अर्थव्यवस्था संतुलन के बिन्दु पर किस प्रकार पहुँचती है। समष्टि स्थैतिक में जिस अंतिम संतुलन का अध्ययन किया जाता है, उसे प्रो. कीन्स के अनुसार, निम्नलिखित समीकरण की सहायता से स्पष्ट किया जा सकता है Y = C + I यहाँ, Y = कुल आय, C = कुल उपभोग व्यय एवं I = कुल विनियोग व्यय है।

2. तुलनात्मक समष्टि आर्थिक स्थैतिकी:
इसके अंतर्गत स्थैतिकी रीति द्वारा प्रावैगिक प्रक्रिया का अध्ययन किया जाता है। एक अर्थव्यवस्था के विभिन्न ‘समष्टि चर’ जैसे – कुल आय एवं कुल रोजगार आदि परिवर्तित होते रहते हैं। इसके परिणामस्वरूप अर्थव्यवस्था के साम्य बिन्दु भी परिवर्तित होते रहते हैं।

3. समष्टि आर्थिक प्रावैगिकी:
आर्थिक विश्लेषण की यह नवीनतम प्रणाली है। इसके अंतर्गत एक साम्य से दूसरे साम्य तक पहुँचने की संपूर्ण प्रक्रिया का अध्ययन किया जाता है। हालाँकि उच्च गणितीय प्रयोग के कारण यह जटिल प्रणाली है, किन्तु यह संपूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था के प्रावैगिक चित्र को यथार्थ रूप में प्रस्तुत करती है।

प्रश्न 3.
आर्थिक समस्या क्या है? यह क्यों उत्पन्न होती है?
उत्तर:
अर्थव्यवस्था की आर्थिक समस्याओं का संबंध आबंटन की समस्या से है। साधन सीमित हैं एवं आवश्यकताएँ असीमित, यही कारण है कि दुर्लभ संसाधनों के उपयोगों में चुनाव की समस्या जन्म लेती है जिसमें साधनों के वैकल्पिक उपयोग से संसाधनों का कुशलतम एवं अधिकतम उपयोग किया जा सके आर्थिक समस्याएँ इसलिए उत्पन्न होती हैं क्योंकि प्रो. रॉबिन्स के अनुसार, मानव की इच्छाएँ एवं आवश्यकताएँ अनंत एवं असीमित होती हैं।

सभी आवश्यकताएँ पूर्ण हो जायें यह भी संभव नहीं होता है। इन आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के साधन अर्थात् धन सीमित होता है। इसीलिए साधनों के वैकल्पिक उपयोग किए जाते हैं ताकि इनका कुशलतम उपयोग किया जा सके। अतएव दुर्लभ साधनों का कुशलतम एवं सर्वोत्तम उपयोग करना आवश्यक है क्योंकि संसाधनों की दुर्लभता आर्थिक समस्या को जन्म देती है।

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प्रश्न 4.
‘दुर्लभता ही केन्द्रीय समस्याओं की जननी है’, स्पष्ट कीजिए?
उत्तर:
यह कथन अक्षरशः
सही है कि साधनों की दुर्लभता है परन्तु इन दुर्लभ साधनों में से किनका चयन किया जाए यह समस्या जन्म लेती है। दुर्लभता ही चयन की समस्या का मूल कारण है। ये संसाधन दुर्लभ हैं परन्तु इनका वैकल्पिक उपयोग किया जा सकता है। इन संसाधनों से अधिकतम संतुष्टि प्राप्त करने के लिए व्यक्ति एवं समाज को संसाधनों के प्रयोग का चयन करना पड़ता है। इसीलिए ऐसा कहा जाता है कि दुर्लभता ही केन्द्रीय समस्याओं की जननी है।

प्रश्न 5.
सकारात्मक आर्थिक विश्लेषण क्या है? समझाइये?
उत्तर:
इस आर्थिक विश्लेषण के अन्तर्गत यह देखा जाता है कि मूल्य एवं माँग के सिद्धान्त के व्यवहार में क्रियाशीलता दिखाई दे रही है या नहीं अर्थात् मूल्य के बढ़ने से माँग की मात्रा कम हो रही है या नहीं तथा मूल्य के घटने से माँग की मात्रा में वृद्धि होती है या नहीं। यही सकारात्मक आर्थिक विश्लेषण कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 6.
आदर्शात्मक आर्थिक विश्लेषण से आप क्या समझते हैं?
उत्तर:
इस आर्थिक विश्लेषण में यह देखा जाता है कि जिन विधियों एवं तकनीकों का प्रयोग किया जाता है उसका प्रभाव समाज या अर्थव्यवस्था पर अच्छा पड़ रहा है या बुरा । उदाहरण के लिए, मादक पदार्थों की माँग को समाज हित में कम करने के लिए इन वस्तुओं पर करारोपण अधिक किया जा सकता है। आदर्शात्मक आर्थिक विश्लेषण सत्य – असत्य, उचित – अनुचित पर आधारित होता है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 7.
उत्पादन संभावना वक्र की मान्यताएँ लिखिए?
उत्तर:
उत्पादन संभावना वक्र की प्रमुख मान्यताएँ निम्न प्रकार है –

  1. अर्थव्यवस्था में उपलब्ध संसाधनों की मात्रा निश्चित होती है।
  2. संसाधनों का पूर्ण एवं कुशलतम प्रयोग आवश्यक है।
  3. उत्पादन की तकनीक अर्थव्यवस्था में दी हुई होती है।
  4. अर्थव्यवस्था में केवल दो वस्तुओं का ही उत्पादन हो रहा है ऐसा यह नियम मानता है।
  5. उपलब्ध संसाधनों की कुशलता सभी वस्तुओं के उत्पादन में एक समान नहीं होती है।

प्रश्न 8.
अर्थव्यवस्था की उत्पादन संभावनाओं से आपका क्या अभिप्राय है?
उत्तर:
किसी अर्थव्यवस्था में आवश्यकता के अनुरूप एवं उपलब्ध संसाधनों के आधार पर संयोगों को निर्धारित करना होता है। जिन दो वस्तुओं के संयोग को चुना जाता है वही अर्थव्यवस्था के उत्पादन की संभावनाएँ कहलाती हैं। यह उत्पादन संभावना वक्र से निर्धारित की जाती है।

प्रश्न 9.
सीमान्त उत्पादन संभावना किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
सीमान्त उत्पादन संभावना से अभिप्राय उस लागत से है जो एक अतिरिक्त इकाई उत्पादित करने की अवसर लागत है। अंतिम वस्तु की लागत की संभावना सीमान्त कहलाती है।

प्रश्न 10.
किसी विद्यालय में कार्यरत् शिक्षक विश्वविद्यालय से डॉक्टर ऑफ फिलॉसफी की उपाधि प्राप्त करने के लिए दो वर्षों के अध्ययन अवकाश पर जाता है। उस शिक्षक की मासिक आय ₹35,200 है। शोध उपाधि शुल्क ₹40,000 है। उस शिक्षक की डॉक्टरेट डिग्री प्राप्त करने की अवसर लागत क्या होगी?
उत्तर:
अवसर लागत = (35,200  x  12  x  2) + 40,000 = (35,200 x 24) + 40,000 = ₹ 8,84,800

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प्रश्न 11.
उत्पादन संभावना वक्र नीचे की ओर ढाल क्यों होता है?
उत्तर:
किसी अर्थव्यवस्था में पूर्ण रोजगार की दशा में संसाधनों का कुशलतम उपयोग किसी एक वस्तु के उत्पादन की मात्रा को बढ़ाता है तो दूसरी वस्तु की उत्पादन मात्रा को कम करता. है। जब अर्थव्यवस्था के सभी संसाधनों का कुशलतम एवं पूर्ण उपयोग किया जा रहा हो तो दोनों वस्तुओं के उत्पादन में एक साथ वृद्धि करना संभव नहीं होता है। एक वस्तु के उत्पादन की मात्रा को घटाकर ही दूसरी वस्तु के उत्पादन में वृद्धि की जा सकती है। यही कारण है कि उत्पादन संभावना वक्र का झुकाव बाएँ से दाहिने ओर ढाल होता है। यह इस चित्र से और अधिक स्पष्ट किया जा सकता है।
MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय img 2

प्रश्न 12.
उत्पादन संभावना वक्र नतोदर क्यों होता है?
उत्तर:
सामान्यतया उत्पादन संभावना वक्र मूल बिन्दु के नतोदर होता है। यह स्थिति उसके ढलान बढ़ने के कारण निर्मित होती है। ढलान के बढ़ने का अर्थ है सीमांत अवसर लागत में वृद्धि। जैसे – जैसे संसाधनों को एक वस्तु के उत्पादन से दूसरे वस्तु के उत्पादन में स्थानांतरित किया जाता है। इसकी वजह से Y वस्तु के उत्पादन को हानि के रूप में X वस्तु की प्रत्येक अतिरिक्त इकाई के उत्पादन की अवसर लागत में वृद्धि की प्रवृत्ति होती है। ऐसा इस कारण होता है कि संसाधनों का प्रयोग विशिष्ट तौर पर ही किया जा सकता है।

उदाहरण के लिए, यदि किसी राज्य में आम की उत्पादकता अधिक होती है तो जरूरी नहीं कि किसी अन्य राज्य में भी आम की खेती अधिक हो। हो सकता है दूसरे राज्य में Y, गन्ने की खेती एवं उसका उत्पादन अधिक हो। अत: यह आवश्यक नहीं है कि जो AY व्यक्ति चावल उत्पादन में सक्षम हो वह व्यक्ति मशीन उत्पादन में भी निपुण होगा।

चित्र से स्पष्ट हो रहा है कि प्रत्येक स्तर पर सीमांत अवसर लागत या बढ़ती रूपांतरण की सीमांत दर अर्थात् \(\frac { \triangle Y }{ \triangle X } \) लगातार बढ़ रही है। यही कारण है कि बढ़ती हुई सीमांत अवसर लागत की वजह से उत्पादन संभावना वक्र मूल बिन्दु के नतोदर होता है।
MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय img 3

प्रश्न 13.
अर्थशास्त्र में किस वस्तु का अध्ययन किया जाता है?
उत्तर:
किसी अर्थव्यवस्था में विषय-वस्तु क्या हो यह अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्न है। वास्तव में यह विषयवस्तु इतनी अधिक व्यापक होती है कि अर्थव्यवस्था को यह निर्णय करना होता है कि उपलब्ध संसाधनों का अधिकतम एवं कुशलतम उपयोग हो। दुर्लभ संसाधनों का विवेकपूर्ण उपयोग पर आधारित होता है किसी अर्थव्यवस्था का अध्ययन। किसी भी अर्थव्यवस्था का अंतिम लक्ष्य अधिकतम आर्थिक कल्याण होता है। किसी भी अर्थव्यवस्था में जिन आर्थिक प्रणालियों के द्वारा अध्ययन किया जाता है वे व्यष्टि एवं समष्टि पर आधारित होती हैं।

व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अंतर्गत उपभोक्ता सिद्धान्त, उत्पादक व्यवहार सिद्धान्त, कीमत निर्धारण, कल्याणकारी अर्थशास्त्र तथा समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अंतर्गत राष्ट्रीय आय तथा रोजगार, राजकोषीय और मौद्रिक नीतियाँ, मुद्रास्फीति एवं अपस्फीति, सरकारी बजट, विनिमय दर एवं भुगतान संतुलन का अध्ययन किया जाता है।

व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
व्यष्टि एवं समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए?
उत्तर:
व्यष्टि एवं समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में अंतर:
MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय img 4

प्रश्न 2.
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र का अर्थ बताते हुए इसकी विशेषताएँ लिखिए?
उत्तर:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र का अर्थ:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र अंग्रेजी भाषा के शब्द ‘माइक्रो’ (micro), ग्रीक भाषा के शब्द ‘माइक्रोस’ (micros) का हिन्दी रूपान्तरण है। व्यष्टि से अभिप्राय है – अत्यंत छोटी इकाई, दस लाखवाँ भाग, अर्थात व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र का संबंध अध्ययन की सबसे छोटी इकाई से है।

इस प्रकार, व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अंतर्गत वैयक्तिक इकाइयों जैसे – व्यक्ति, परिवार, उत्पादक फर्म उद्योग आदि का अध्ययन किया जाता है। प्रो. चेम्बरलिन के अनुसार, “व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र पूर्णरूप से व्यक्तिगत व्याख्या पर आधारित है और इसका संबंध अंतर – वैयक्तिक संबंधों से भी होता है।” व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की विशेषताएँ:

व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की निम्नलिखित विशेषताएँ हैं –

1. वैयक्तिक इकाइयों का अध्ययन:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में वैयक्तिक इकाइयों का ही अध्ययन किया जाता है। व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र वैयक्तिक आय, वैयक्तिक उत्पादन एवं वैयक्तिक उपभोग आदि की व्याख्या करने में सहायता करता है। यह प्रणाली अपना संबंध समूहों से न रखकर इकाइयों से रखती है। इस प्रकार व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र वैयक्तिक समस्याओं का अध्ययन करते हुए समस्त अर्थव्यवस्था के विश्लेषण में सहायता प्रदान करता है।

2. सूक्ष्म चरों का अध्ययन:
सूक्ष्म अर्थशास्त्र की दूसरी विशेषता के रूप में यह छोटे – छोटे चरों का अध्ययन करती है। इसके चरों का प्रभाव इतना कम है कि इसके परिवर्तनों का प्रभाव संपूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था पर नहीं पड़ता है। उदाहरण के लिए – एक उपभोक्ता अपने उपभोग, एक उत्पादक अपने उत्पादन से संपूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था की माँग पूर्ति को प्रभावित नहीं कर सकता है।

3. व्यक्तिगत मूल्य का निर्धारण:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र को कीमत सिद्धांत अथवा मूल्य सिद्धांत के नाम से भी जाना जाता है। इसके अंतर्गत वस्तु की माँग एवं पूर्ति की घटनाओं का अध्ययन किया जाता है। इसके साथ-साथ माँग एवं पूर्ति के द्वारा विभिन्न वस्तुओं के व्यक्तिगत मूल्य – निर्धारण भी किये जाते हैं।

4. पूर्ण रोजगार की मान्यता पर आधारित:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र पूर्ण रोजगार की मान्यता को लेकर चलता है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 3.
सूक्ष्म अर्थशास्त्र (व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र) के पाँच महत्व बताइए?
उत्तर:
सूक्ष्म अर्थशास्त्र के महत्व निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. संपूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था के लिए आवश्यक:
यदि हम संपूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था के स्वरूप की जानकारी प्राप्त करना चाहते हैं तो हमें व्यक्तिगत इकाइयों की जानकारी हासिल करना आवश्यक है, क्योंकि व्यक्तिगत माँग, व्यक्तिगत उत्पादन के संयोग से ही सामूहिक माँग और सामूहिक पूर्ति से संबंधित जानकारी हासिल की जा सकती है।

जैसे कि सूती वस्त्र उद्योग की क्या स्थिति है, इससे संबंधित जानकारी ज्ञात करनी है तो हमें सबसे पहले सूती वस्त्र की फर्मों की जानकारी हासिल करनी होगी तभी हमें सती वस्त्र उद्योग की स्थिति के बारे में जानकारी मिलेगी। इस प्रकार व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की सहायता से समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की समस्याओं का अध्ययन किया जाता है।

2. आर्थिक समस्याओं के निर्णय में सहायक:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र आर्थिक समस्याओं के निर्णय में सहायक होता है। आर्थिक समस्याओं में मूल्य निर्धारण एवं वितरण की समस्या प्रमुख होती है। उत्पत्ति का प्रत्येक साधन अधिकाधिक पारिश्रमिक प्राप्त करना चाहता है। इसी तरह वस्तु के मूल्य निर्धारण की समस्या भी है। इन समस्त समस्याओं के निर्णय के लिए व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र उपयोगी रहा है।

3. आर्थिक नीति के निर्धारण में सहायक:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र का आर्थिक नीतियों के निर्धारण में महत्वपूर्ण स्थान है। व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अंतर्गत सरकार की आर्थिक नीतियों का अध्ययन इस आधार पर किया जाता है, कि उनका व्यक्तिगत इकाइयों के कार्यकरण पर कैसा प्रभाव पड़ता है।

4. आर्थिक कल्याण की पूर्ति का निरीक्षण:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में जहाँ व्यक्तिगत उपभोग, व्यक्तिगत रहन-सहन के स्तर की जानकारी प्राप्त की जाती है, वहीं सार्वजनिक व्यय एवं सार्वजनिक आय के प्रभावों की भी जानकारी प्राप्त की जाती है।

5. व्यक्तिगत इकाइयों के आर्थिक निर्णय में सहायक:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र, व्यक्तिगत इकाइयों (जैसेफर्म, परिवार, व्यक्तिगत आय, व्यक्तिगत बचत आदि) की समस्याओं पर उचित निर्णय लेने में सहायता प्रदान करता है।

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प्रश्न 4.
व्यापक अर्थशास्त्र की क्या सीमाएँ हैं? अथवा समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के दोष लिखिए?
उत्तर:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की सीमाएँ या दोष निम्नानुसार हैं –

1. समूह की संरचना को महत्व न देना:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अन्तर्गत, समूह के आकार – प्रकार का ही अध्ययन किया जाता है, न कि समूह की संरचना का। अत: समूह के आधार पर भविष्यवाणियाँ करना अथवा सुझाव देना, तब तक सही नहीं है जब तक समूह की बनावट एवं उसके अंगों के स्वभाव तथा परस्पर सम्बन्ध की समस्त जानकारी हासिल न कर ली जाये।

2. वैयक्तिक इकाई महत्वहीन:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अन्तर्गत, वैयक्तिक इकाइयों की तलना में सम्पूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था का अध्ययन किया जाता है लेकिन ऐसा करने से एक दोष उत्पन्न हो जाता है कि जिन छोटी-छोटी आर्थिक इकाइयों के योग से सम्पूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था की दीवार खड़ी की गयी है, उनके महत्व एवं अस्तित्व की उपेक्षा कर दी जाती है जो सर्वथा अनुचित है।

3. निष्कर्षों का व्यावहारिक न होना:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में सम्पूर्ण मात्राओं का अध्ययन किया जाता है, लेकिन समूह के आर्थिक विश्लेषण के आधार पर निर्मित नीतियाँ कभी – कभी गलत परिणाम दे देती हैं।

4. समूह की इकाइयाँ, वैयक्तिक इकाइयों का सही प्रतिनिधित्व नहीं कर सकती हैं:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की अंतिम सीमा यह है कि समूह की इकाइयाँ वैयक्तिक इकाइयों का सही प्रतिनिधित्व नहीं कर सकती हैं।

5. जटिल विश्लेषण:
सैद्धांतिक दृष्टिकोण से समष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण सरल लगता है किन्तु व्यावहारिक दृष्टिकोण से यह विश्लेषण बहुत जटिल होता है। सम्पूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था के समूहों अथवा योगों का अध्ययन एवं विश्लेषण बहुत जटिल कार्य होता है।

प्रश्न 5.
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के महत्व के कोई पाँच बिन्दु स्पष्ट कीजिए?
अथवा
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के कोई पाँच गुण लिखिए?
उत्तर:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के महत्व या गुण निम्नानुसार हैं –

1. जटिल समस्याओं के अध्ययन में सहायक:
आधुनिक अर्थव्यवस्था अत्यन्त जटिल है। अनेक आर्थिक तत्व एक-दूसरे पर आश्रित रहते हैं। समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के विश्लेषण की सहायता से पूर्ण रोजगार, व्यापार चक्र आदि जटिल समस्याओं का अध्ययन हो जाता है।

2. आर्थिक नीतियों के निर्माण में सहायक:
सरकार का प्रमुख कार्य कुल रोजगार, कुल आय, कीमत स्तर, व्यापार के सामान्य स्तर आदि पर नियंत्रण करना होता है। समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र सरकार को आर्थिक नीतियों के निर्माण में सहायता पहँचाता है।

3. व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अध्ययन में सहायक:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र का अध्ययन व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अध्ययन में सहायक है क्योंकि व्यक्तिगत इकाइयाँ अपने विश्लेषण में समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की सहायता लेती हैं।

4. आर्थिक विकास का अध्ययन:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अन्तर्गत अर्थव्यवस्था के आर्थिक विकास के संसाधनों एवं क्षमताओं का मूल्यांकन किया जाता है। राष्ट्रीय आय उत्पादन एवं रोजगार के स्तर में वृद्धि करने के लिए योजनाएँ बनायी तथा कार्यान्वित की जाती हैं ताकि अर्थव्यवस्था का बहुमुखी विकास हो सके।

5. मुद्रा – मूल्य के निर्धारण में सहायक:
मुद्रा के मूल्य निर्धारण के सिद्धान्त की व्याख्या समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में ही की जाती है क्योंकि इसमें मुद्रा – मूल्य के परिवर्तनों के सम्पूर्ण समाज पर पड़ने वाले प्रभावों की व्याख्या की जाती है।

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प्रश्न 6.
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की कोई पाँच सीमाएँ लिखिए?
अथवा
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के पाँच दोष लिखिए?
उत्तर:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की सीमाएँ या दोष निम्नानुसार हैं –

1. केवल व्यक्तिगत इकाइयों का अध्ययन:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में केवल व्यक्तिगत इकाइयों का ही अध्ययन किया जाता है। इस विश्लेषण में राष्ट्रीय अथवा विश्वव्यापी अर्थव्यवस्था का सही – सही ज्ञान प्राप्त नहीं हो पाता।

2. अवास्तविक मान्यताएँ:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र अवास्तविक मान्यताओं जैसे – पूर्ण रोजगार, पूर्ण प्रतियोगिता व दीर्घकाल पर आधारित है। इसलिए काल्पनिक भी कहा जाता है।

3. व्यष्टि निष्कर्ष समग्र अर्थव्यवस्था के लिए अनुपयुक्त:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र व्यक्तिगत इकाइयों के अध्ययन के आधार पर निर्णय लेता है, लेकिन व्यवहार में कुछ धारणाएँ ऐसी होती हैं जिन्हें समूहों पर लागू करने से गलत निष्कर्ष निकलता है।

4. संकुचित अध्ययन:
कुछ आर्थिक समस्याएँ ऐसी होती हैं जिसका अध्ययन व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में नहीं हो सकता है, जैसे – मौद्रिक नीति, राष्ट्रीय आय, रोजगार, राजकीय नीति, विदेशी विनिमय आदि।

5. अव्यावहारिक:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अधिकांश नियम एवं सिद्धान्त पूर्ण रोजगार की मान्यता पर आधारित है, लेकिन जब पूर्ण रोजगार की मान्यता ही अव्यावहारिक है, तो इस पर बने समस्त नियम एवं सिद्धान्त भी अव्यावहारिक ही कहे जायेंगे।

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प्रश्न 7.
अवसर लागत क्या है? उदाहरण सहित समझाइये?
उत्तर:
अवसर लागत दो अवसरों में दूसरे अवसर की हानि के रूप में पहले अवसर का लाभ उठाने की लागत है। अवसर लागत वास्तव में किसी साधन के उसके दूसरे सर्वश्रेष्ठ प्रयोग मूल्य को कहा जाता है। उदाहरण के लिए, एक ड्राइवर ट्रक भी चला सकता है एवं कार भी चला सकता है। इनमें से वर्तमान ट्रक ड्राइवर को बनाए रखने के लिए यदि वह कार ड्राइवरी की नौकरी का परित्याग करता है तो इसे अवसर लागत कहते हैं। वास्तव में अवसर लागत, साधन लागत के ऊपर एक बचत है।

एक अन्य उदाहरण के अनुसार, हाई स्कूल परीक्षा पास करने के बाद कक्षा 11वीं में विषय चयन के समय वाणिज्य विषय को चुनता है तो विज्ञान तथा कला विषयों का उसे त्याग करना पड़ेगा। यहाँ पर विज्ञान तथा कला विषय, वाणिज्य विषय चुनने की अवसर लागत है।

एक अन्य उदाहरणानुसार, एक उच्च शिक्षित व्यक्ति एम.कॉम. उत्तीर्ण करने के बाद शिक्षक बनकर ₹ 50,000, पुस्तकों का लेखन कार्य करके ₹ 60,000 एवं अर्थशास्त्री बनकर ₹ 80,000 अर्जित कर सकता है। यदि वह अर्थशास्त्री बनना चाहता है तो उसे शिक्षक बनने के अवसर का परित्याग करना पड़ेगा। उसकी अवसर लागत ₹ 60,000 है क्योंकि यही दूसरा सर्वश्रेष्ठ विकल्प उसके पास उपलब्ध है। उदाहरण के लिए, विद्यार्थी का C.A. के लिए बी.कॉम. छोड़ना।

प्रश्न 8.
उत्पादन संभावना वक्र क्या है? एक उदाहरण देकर समझाइए?
उत्तर:
दो वस्तुओं के उन सभी संभव संयोगों को जिनका उपयोग किसी अर्थव्यवस्था में उपलब्ध तकनीक एवं संसाधनों के पूर्ण एवं कुशलतम उपयोग पर निर्भर करता है, उत्पादन संभावना वक्र कहलाता है। उदाहरणसीमित संसाधनों एवं उपलब्ध तकनीकों के आधार पर काल्पनिक उदाहरण द्वारा उत्पादन संभावना को प्रदर्शित किया जा सकता है।
MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय img 5
संसाधनों की सीमितता के कारण अर्थव्यवस्था में संसाधनों का पूर्ण उपयोग तभी संभव है जब एक वस्तु का उत्पादन बढ़ाने के लिए दूसरी वस्तु का उत्पादन कम किया जाए। सारणी से स्पष्ट है कि यदि मशीनों का उत्पादन शून्य है तो चावल का उत्पादन 500 टन होगा।

जैसे ही मशीनों का उत्पादन 1 से बढ़कर 2 किया जाएगा। चावल का उत्पादन 500 टन से घटाकर 450 टन हो जाएगा। यदि सभी संसाधनों को मशीनों के उत्पादन पर लगा दिया जाय तो इससे मशीनों का उत्पादन तो 4 हो जाएगा किन्तु चावल का उत्पादन शून्य हो जाएगा। अत: उचित संयोग बनाकर उत्पादन किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 9.
सीमान्त अवसर लागत से आप क्या समझते हैं? एक काल्पनिक अनुसूची की सहायता से समझाइये?
उत्तर:
सीमान्त अवसर लागत का आशय X एवं Y वस्तुओं में X की प्रत्येक अतिरिक्त इकाई के लिए Y वस्तु के उत्पादन का परित्याग है। सीमान्त अवसर लागत को रूपान्तरण की सीमान्त दर भी कहा जाता है। बीजगणितीय समीकरण की सहायता से इसे निम्न प्रकार स्पष्ट किया जा सकता है –
सीमान्त अवसर लागत = \(\frac { -\triangle Y }{ \triangle X } \)
यहाँ पर,
∆Y = वस्तु के उत्पादन में वृद्धि
∆X = X वस्तु के उत्पादन में वृद्धि
उपर्युक्त को निम्न अनुसूची से अधिक स्पष्ट किया जा सकता है:
MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय img 6
उपर्युक्त अनुसूची से स्पष्ट है कि A से B पर जाने के लिए उसे वस्तु ‘ख’ की पाँचों इकाइयों का परित्याग करके वस्तु ‘क’ की एक इकाई उत्पादित करनी पड़ रही है। इसी प्रकार B से C जाने के लिए उसे वस्तु “ख” की दस इकाइयों का परित्याग करके “क” वस्तु की एक इकाई का उत्पादन करना पड़ेगा। संयोग E के पश्चात Fतक पहुँचने के लिए यह दर 25:0 हो गई है। इससे सिद्ध होता है कि उत्पादन संभावना वक्र को रूपांतरण वक्र या सीमान्त अवसर लागत या रूपांतरण की सीमान्त दर भी कहा जा सकता है।

प्रश्न 10.
“व्यष्टि एवं समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र एक – दूसरे के प्रतियोगी नहीं बल्कि पूरक हैं।” इस कथन को तर्क देकर सिद्ध कीजिए?
उत्तर:
व्यष्टि एवं समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र एक – दूसरे के पूरक हैं, क्योंकि:

(I) समष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण में व्यष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण की आवश्यकता:
समष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण के लिए व्यष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण अतिआवश्यक है क्योंकि

1. सम्पूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था का अध्ययन करने के लिए उसके संबंध में नीति का निर्धारण करने के लिए हमें व्यक्तिगत इकाइयों का विश्लेषण करना पड़ता है। जब तक व्यक्तिगत इकाइयों के बारे में सही – सही जानकारी प्राप्त नहीं होती है, तब तक समष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण सही नहीं हो सकते।

2. यदि समाज में रहने वाले लोगों द्वारा अधिकाधिक वस्तुओं की माँग की जाती है तो यह समझा जाता है कि फर्म माँग बढ़ने के कारण उत्पादन बढ़ायेगी, किन्तु जिन फर्मों की उत्पादन लागत में वृद्धि हो रही हो, उन फर्मों के लिए अधिक कीमत पर भी उत्पादन में वृद्धि करना संभव नहीं होगा।

3. सम्पूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था की सामान्य प्रवृत्ति की सही-सही जानकारी तभी प्राप्त हो सकती है जब हमें तथ्यों एवं सिद्धान्तों का ज्ञान हो।

(II) व्यष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण में समष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण की आवश्यकता:
व्यष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण के लिए समष्टि आर्थिक विश्लेषण अति आवश्यक है क्योंकि:

  1. किसी भी फर्म को अपने उत्पादन की मात्रा निश्चित करते समय समाज की सम्पूर्ण माँग, समाज की क्रयशक्ति, रोजगार स्तर एवं आय के स्तर जैसी बातों को ध्यान में रखना पड़ता है।
  2. कोई फर्म कितना माल विक्रय कर सकेगी, यह इस बात पर निर्भर करेगा कि समाज में लोगों की क्रयशक्ति कितनी है।
  3. प्रायः एक व्यक्तिगत उत्पादन के उत्पत्ति के साधनों की मजदूरी का निर्धारण व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अन्तर्गत किया जाना चाहिए, किन्तु व्यवहार में ऐसा नहीं होता। इसके लिए अन्य संबंधित तथ्यों को अध्ययन करना आवश्यक होगा।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 11.
एक अर्थव्यवस्था में बेरोजगारी के कारण उत्पादन, क्षमता से कम हो रहा है। सरकार रोजगारोन्मुखी योजनाएँ प्रारंभ करती है। उत्पादन संभावना वक्र की सहायता से इसके प्रभाव की व्याख्या कीजिए?
उत्तर:
सरकार द्वारा रोजगारोन्मुखी योजनाएँ प्रारंभ करने के पूर्व अर्थव्यवस्था उत्पादन संभावना वक्र से नीचे थी। सरकारी योजनाओं के लागू होने के बाद यदि श्रमिकों को रोजगार उपलब्ध कराया जाता है और मजदूरों को X वस्तु के उत्पादन में लगाया जाता है तो उत्पादन संभावना वक्र चित्रानुसार U से A की ओर जायेगा।

परन्तु यदि इन्हीं श्रमिकों को Y वस्तु के उत्पादन पर लगाया जाता है तो यही वक्र U से B पर चला जाएगा। अब सरकार दोनों वस्तुओं के उत्पादन पर श्रमिकों को कार्य पर लगाती है तो उत्पादन संभावना वक्र A से B के मध्य दिखाई – देगा जैसा कि चित्र में बिन्दु C को दर्शाया गया है।
MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय img 7

प्रश्न 12.
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की विषय-सामग्री को समझाइये?
अथवा
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के क्षेत्रों का वर्णन कीजिए?
उत्तर:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की विषय सामग्री-इसकी विषय – सामग्री निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. आय तथा रोजगार का निर्धारण:
आय तथा रोजगार का निर्धारण समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की मुख्य विषय सामग्री है। आय एवं रोजगार का स्तर प्रभावपूर्ण माँग पर निर्भर करता है। प्रभावपूर्ण माँग कुल व्यय (उपभोग व्यय, विनियोग व्यय एवं सरकारी व्यय) द्वारा निर्धारित होती है।

2. सामान्य कीमत स्तर एवं स्फीति का विश्लेषण:
मुद्रा – स्फीति के कारण उत्पन्न स्फीतिक कीमत वृद्धि वर्तमान विश्व की सबसे कष्टदायक आर्थिक बीमारी है। विकसित एवं अर्द्ध – विकसित दोनों तरह की अर्थव्यवस्थाएँ इससे पीड़ित हैं। प्रो. कीन्स के आर्थिक विश्लेषण के बाद स्फीतिक कीमत वृद्धि का अध्ययन समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र का महत्वपूर्ण अंग बन गया है।

3. आर्थिक विकास के सिद्धांत:
आर्थिक विकास का अर्थशास्त्र, समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की एक महत्वपूर्ण शाखा है। द्वितीय महायुद्ध के पश्चात् विश्व के अनेक देशों को गुलामी से स्वतंत्रता प्राप्त हुई। इन नवोदित राष्ट्रों में आर्थिक विकास की समस्या को आर्थिक नियोजन की सहायता से हल करने का प्रयत्न किया जा रहा है।

4. वितरण का समष्टि सिद्धांत:
वितरण की अनेक समस्याओं जैसे – कुल राष्ट्रीय आय में उत्पादन के विभिन्न साधनों का पारिश्रमिक कितना है तथा उनमें कुल आय का वितरण किस प्रकार किया जाता है, यह समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के सिद्धांतों का मुख्य विषय है।

5. राजस्व का सिद्धांत:
राजस्व के अनेक सिद्धांत जैसे – अंतर्राष्ट्रीय व्यापार के सिद्धांत एवं आर्थिक नियोजन के सिद्धांत भी समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के विषय हैं।

प्रश्न 13.
बाजार अर्थव्यवस्था एवं केन्द्रीयकृत योजनाबद्ध अर्थव्यवस्था में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए?
उत्तर:
बाजार अर्थव्यवस्था एवं केन्द्रीयकृत योजनाबद्ध अर्थव्यवस्था में अंतर –
MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 1 व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र परिचय img 8

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन

पृष्ठ रसायन NCERT पाठ्यनिहित प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
जलीय विलयनों के वैद्युत अपघटन में प्रायः प्लैटिनम एवं पैलेडियम जैसे पदार्थ क्यों प्रयुक्त किये जाते हैं ?
उत्तर
प्लैटिनम एवं पैलेडियम जैसी धातु कम क्रियाशील धातु हैं, इसलिए सामान्यत: ये क्रिया नहीं करती उत्पाद के साथ जब जलीय विलयनों का वैद्युत अपघटन किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
ताप बढ़ने पर भौतिक अधिशोषण क्यों घटता है ?
उत्तर
भैतिक अधिशोषण एक ऊष्मा अपक्षेपी प्रक्रम है तथा यह उत्क्रमणीय भी ठोस + गैस ⇌ अधिशोषण + ऊष्मा भौतिक अधिशोषण कम ताप पर सम्पन्न होता है तथा तापमान बढ़ाने पर यह ली-चेटलियर नियम के अनुसार कम होता है।

प्रश्न 3.
अपने क्रिस्टलीय रूपों की तुलना में चूर्णित पदार्थ अधिक प्रभावी अधिशोषक क्यों होते हैं ?
उत्तर
अधिशोषक के पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल बढ़ने के साथ अधिशोषण बढ़ता जाता है। अत: चूर्ण अवस्था में या छिद्र युक्त अवस्था में धातुओं का पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल अधिक होता है। इसलिए इन अवस्थाओं में अधिशोषण अधिक होता है।

प्रश्न 4.
अमोनिया प्राप्त करने के लिए हॉबर प्रक्रम में CO को हटाना क्यों आवश्यक है ?
उत्तर
हॉबर प्रक्रम से अमोनिया बनाने के लिए ठोस उत्प्रेरक का प्रयोग होता है। उत्पन्न CO को हटाना इसलिए आवश्यक है क्योंकि CO लोहे से क्रिया कर Fe(CO)5 बनाती है जो कक्ष ताप पर द्रव अवस्था में होता है तथा NH3 उत्पादन में बाधा उत्पन्न करता है क्योंकि उच्च ताप पर CO तथा H2 क्रिया करते हैं जिससे उत्पादन घटता है।

प्रश्न 5.
एस्टर का जल अपघटन प्रारंभ में धीमा एवं कुछ समय पश्चात् तीव्र क्यों हो जाता है ?
उत्तर
एस्टर के जलयोजन के दौरान एक उत्पाद कार्बनिक अम्ल बनता है जो उत्प्रेरक की भाँति व्यवहार करता है तथा अभिक्रिया को सक्रिय बनाता है। अतः एस्टर का जलयोजन आरंभ में मंद व बाद में तीव्र हो जाता है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 6.
उत्प्रेरण के प्रक्रम में विअधिशोषण की क्या भूमिका है ?
उत्तर
ठोस उत्प्रेरक द्वारा गैसीय अभिकारकों को अधिशोषित करने के बाद मध्य अवस्था ग्रहण करता है। इसके बाद विअधिशोषण होता है जिसमें अणु अलग होते हैं । अतः ठोस उत्प्रेरकों के पृष्ठ बार-बार उपलब्ध होते रहते हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
आप हार्डी शुल्जे नियम में संशोधन के लिए क्या सुझाव दे सकते हैं ?
उत्तर
हार्डी शुल्जे के नियम को निम्न रूप से वर्णित किया जा सकता है। स्कंदन या अवक्षेपण क्षमता स्कंदन या अवक्षेपण मान के व्युत्क्रमानुपाती होता है। दो वैद्युत अपघट्यों की स्कंदन क्षमता की तुलना निम्न रूप से की जाती है –
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 1
अत: AlCl3, 559 गुना अधिक स्कंदन क्षमता रखता है NaCl की तुलना में।

प्रश्न 8.
अवक्षेप का मात्रात्मक आकलन करने से पूर्व उसे जल से धोना आवश्यक क्यों है ?
उत्तर
गुणात्मक मान ज्ञात करने के लिए यह आवश्यक है कि अवयवों को पहले धो लेना चाहिए ताकि अशुद्धीय कोलॉइड उत्पन्न होने पर अवक्षेप उत्पन्न न करे। हम जानते हैं कि छानक पेपर से कोलॉइड आर-पार हो जाते हैं।

पृष्ठ रसायन NCERT पाठ्य-पुस्तक प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
अधिशोषण एवं अवशोषण शब्दों (पदों) के तात्पर्य में विभेद कीजिए। प्रत्येक का एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 2

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 2.
भौतिक अधिशोषण एवं रासायनिक अधिशोषण में क्या अन्तर है?
उत्तर-
भौतिक अधिशोषण- भौतिक अधिशोषण में अधिशोषित पदार्थ के अणु अधिशोषक की सतह से दुर्बल आकर्षण बल द्वारा बँधे रहते हैं।
रासायनिक अधिशोषण – रासायनिक अधिशोषण में अधिशोषित पदार्थ अधिशोषक से सामान्य रासायनिक बन्धों द्वारा जुड़े रहते हैं।
भौतिक अधिशोषण और रासायनिक अधिशोषण में अन्तर –
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 3

प्रश्न 3.
कारण बताइए कि सूक्ष्म विभाजित पदार्थ अधिक प्रभावी अधिशोषक क्यों होता है ?
उत्तर
चूर्ण अवस्था में पदार्थ का पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल अधिक होता है। पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल जितना अधिक होगा अधिशोषित गैस का आयतन भी उतना अधिक होगा।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 4

प्रश्न 4.
किसी ठोस पर गैस के अधिशोषण को प्रभावित करने वाले कारक कौन-से हैं ?
उत्तर
किसी ठोस या गैस के अधिशोषण को प्रभावित करने वाले कारक इस प्रकार है –

  • गैस की प्रकृति
  • अधिशोषक का पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल
  • दाब
  • ताप
  • अधिशोषक की सक्रियता।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 5.
अधिशोषण समतापी वक्र क्या है ? फ्रेण्डलिक अधिशोषण समतापी वक्र का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर
अधिशोषक द्वारा अधिशोषित गैस की मात्रा में स्थिर ताप पर दाब के साथ परिवर्तन एक वक्र के माध्यम से व्यक्त किया जा सकता है, जिसे अधिशोषण समतापी वक्र कहते हैं। अधिशोषण समतापी वक्र दो प्रकार के होते हैं
(i) फ्रॉयन्डलिक समतापी वक्र,
(ii) लैंगमूर समतापी वक्र।

(i) फ्रॉयन्डलिक समतापी वक्र-फ्रॉयन्डलिक ने ठोस अधिशोषक के इकाई द्रव्यमान द्वारा एक निश्चित ताप पर अधिशोषित गैस की मात्रा तथा दाब के मध्य एक प्रयोगाश्रित संबंध दिया। इस संबंध को निम्न समीकरण द्वारा व्यक्त किया जा सकता है –
\(\frac{x}{m}\) = k.p1/n(n>a)………..(1)

जहाँ, x अधिशोषक के m द्रव्यमान द्वारा p दाब पर अधिशोषित गैस का द्रव्यमान है। k एवं n स्थिरांक हैं जो किसी निश्चित ताप पर अधिशोषक एवं गैस की प्रकृति पर निर्भर करते हैं।
ये वक्र इंगित करते हैं कि एक निश्चित दाब पर, ताप बढ़ाने से भौतिक अधिशोषण घटता है। समीकरण (1) का लघुगणक लेने पर

log\(\frac{x}{m}\) = = logk + \(\frac{1}{n}\) log p ………….(2)

जब log\(\frac{x}{m}\) को y-अक्ष तथा log p को x-अक्ष पर लेकर वक्र खींचते हैं, तो एक सीधी रेखा प्राप्त होती
है। यह फ्रॉयन्डलिक समतापी वक्र की वैधता को इंगित करती है।
ढाल = \(\frac{1}{n}\) = और y-अक्ष पर अन्त: खण्ड = log k
गुणक \(\frac{1}{n}\) का मान 0 एवं 1 के मध्य हो सकता है अतः समीकरण (2) दाब के सीमित विस्तार तक ही
लागू होती है।
(i) जब \(\frac{1}{n}\) =0,\(\frac{x}{m}\) = स्थिरांक, तब अधिशोषण दाब से स्वतंत्र होता है।
(ii) जब \(\frac{1}{n}\) =1 \(\frac{x}{m}\) = kp अर्थात , तब अधिशोषण में परिवर्तन दाब के अनुक्रमानुपाती होता है।

प्रश्न 6.
अधिशोषक के सक्रियण से आप क्या समझते हैं ? यह कैसे प्राप्त किया जाता है ?
उत्तर
अधिशोषक के सक्रियण का अर्थ है, अधिशोषक की अधिशोषण क्षमता। अतः अधिशोषक की सक्रियता को बढ़ाने के लिए निम्न क्रियाकलाप किये जाते हैं
(i) धात्विक अधिशोषक को यांत्रिक या रासायनिक विधि द्वारा खुरदरा करके।
(ii) अधिशोषक को छोटे टुकड़ों में तोड़कर।
(iii) कुछ अधिशोषकों की अधिशोषण क्षमता उच्च ताप पर गर्म करके बढ़ाई जा सकती है।

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प्रश्न 7.
विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण में अधिशोषण की क्या भूमिका है ?
उत्तर
सामान्यतः विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण में, अभिक्रिया गैसीय जबकि उत्प्रेरक ठोस अवस्था में होते हैं। अभिक्रियक अणुओं का ठोस उत्प्रेरक के पृष्ठ पर भौतिक या रासायनिक अधिशोषण द्वारा अधिशोषण हो जाता है। अभिक्रियत अणुओं की सान्द्रता बढ़ने से या ठोस उत्प्रेरक के पृष्ठ पर अभिक्रियक अणुओं में टूटकर सक्रिय स्पीशिज बनने से जो कि तीव्रता से अभिक्रिया करती है। अभिक्रिया की गति बढ़ जाती है। उत्पाद अणुओं का विशोषण हो जाता है और अब उत्प्रेरक सतह दोबारा अधिक अभिक्रियक अणुओं को अधिशोषित करने के लिए उपलब्ध हो जाती है। यह सिद्धान्त विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण का अधिशोषण कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 8.
अधिशोषण हमेशा ऊष्माक्षेपी क्यों होता है ?
उत्तर
अधिशोषण से अव्यवस्था कम होती है अर्थात् ΔS = + होता है। प्रक्रम को सम्पन्न करने के लिए ΔG का मान ऋणात्मक होना आवश्यक है। अतः समीकरण ΔG = ΔH – TΔS में ΔG तभी ऋणात्मक होगा, जब ΔH का मान ऋणात्मक होगा अर्थात् ऊष्माक्षेपी। अत: अधिशोषण प्रक्रम ऊष्माक्षेपी होता है।

‘प्रश्न 9.
कोलॉइडी विलयनों को परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था एवं परिक्षेपण माध्यम की भौतिक अवस्थाओं के आधार पर कैसे वर्गीकृत किया जाता है ?
उत्तर
परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था तथा परिक्षेपण माध्यम की भौतिक अवस्थाओं (ठोस, द्रव अथवा गैस) के आधार पर निम्नलिखित आठ प्रकार के कोलॉइडी निकाय बनते हैं।
3 परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था x 3 परिक्षेपण माध्यम -1 = 8 कोलॉइड
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 6

प्रश्न 10.
ठोसों द्वारा गैसों के अधिशोषण पर दाब एवं ताप के प्रभाव की विवेचना कीजिए।
उत्तर
अधिशोष्य गैस का दाब – साम्यावस्था पर अधिशोषक पर अधिशोष्य गैस के दाब का मान बढ़ाने से अधिशोषण बढ़ जाता है। कम ताप पर गैस में वृद्धि करने से अधिशोषण की मात्रा तेजी से बढ़ती है, किन्तु उच्च दाब पर अधिशोषण एक अधिकतम मान प्राप्त कर लेता है।
ताप (Temperature) – अधिशोषण एक ऊष्माक्षेपी प्रक्रम है। अतः लीशातेलिए सिद्धान्त से, ताप बढ़ाने पर अधिशोषण कम हो जाता है।

प्रश्न 11.
द्रवरागी एवं द्रवविरागी सॉल क्या होते हैं ? प्रत्येक का एक-एक उदाहरण दीजिए। द्रवविरोधी सॉल आसानी से स्कंदित क्यों हो जाते हैं ?
उत्तर
द्रवरागी कोलॉइड (द्रव से स्नेह करने वाला) उन कोलॉइडी सॉल को जिन्हें परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था तथा उचित परिक्षेपण माध्यम को सम्पर्क में लाने मात्र से प्राप्त किया जाता है, द्रवरागी (द्रव-स्नेही) कोलॉइडी सॉल कहते हैं । यह स्थायी होते हैं। इन्हें उत्क्रमणीय कोलॉइडी सॉल भी कहते हैं, क्योंकि कोलॉइडी विलयन में से परिक्षेपण माध्यम को भौतिक विधियों जैसे वाष्पीकरण द्वारा अलग किया जा सकता है।
उदाहरण-गोंद, जिलेटिन, स्टार्च, रबड़ आदि।

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द्रवविरागी कोलॉइड (द्रव से घृणा करने वाला) इस प्रकार के सॉल केवल पदार्थों (परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था) को परिक्षेपण माध्यम में मिश्रित करने से नहीं बनते है। ये स्थायी नहीं होते है। ऐसे सॉल को वैद्युत-अपघट्य की थोड़ी सी मात्रा मिलाकर, गर्म करके या हिलाकर आसानी से अवक्षेपित या स्कंदित किया जा सकता है। द्रवविरागी सॉल के परिरक्षण के लिए स्थायी कारकों की आवश्यकता होती है। ।
उदाहरण-गोल्ड सॉल, As2O3 सॉल, Fe(OH)3 सॉल आदि।

द्रवविरागी सॉल के स्कंदन का कारण-सॉल के कणों पर उपस्थित आवेश को हटाकर या आवेश को … उदासीन करके दवविरागी सॉल का स्कंदन या अवक्षेपण हो जाता है अर्थात् ये कण एक-दूसरे के समीप आकर पुंजित हो जाते हैं एवं गुरुत्व बल के कारण नीचे बैठ जाते हैं (दूसरे शब्दों में, स्कंदन या अवक्षेपण हो जाते हैं)। वैद्युत-अपघट्य की थोड़ी सी मात्रा मिलाकर ऐसा किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 12.
बहुअणुक एवं वृहदाणुक कोलॉइड में क्या अन्तर है ? प्रत्येक का एक-एक उदाहरण दीजिए। संगुणित या सहचारी कोलॉइड (Micelle) इन दोनों प्रकार के कोलॉइडों से कैसे भिन्न हैं ?
उत्तर
बहुआण्विक, वृहत् आण्विक एवं संगुणित कोलॉइड में अंतर
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 7

प्रश्न 13.
एन्जाइम क्या होते हैं ? एन्जाइम उत्प्रेरण की क्रिया विधि को संक्षेप में लिखिए।
उत्तर
एन्जाइम, जीवित स्पीशीज में पाये जाने वाले नाइट्रोजन युक्त कार्बनिक संकुल यौगिक हैं। एन्जाइम, मानव शरीर में होने वाली बहुत-सी बायो रासायनिक अभिक्रियाओं को उत्प्रेरित करते हैं जैसे पाचन क्रिया। एन्जाइमों को इसी कारण जैव उत्प्रेरक (Bio-catalyst) भी कहा जाता है।
उदाहरणार्थ –
(i) केन सुगर (शर्करा) का व्युत्क्रमण, इन्वर्टेज के द्वारा उत्प्रेरित होता है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 8
ग्लूकोज फ्रक्टोज एन्जाइम उत्प्रेरण की क्रियाविधि (Mechanism of enzyme catalysis)-एन्जाइम की सतह पर अभिलाक्षणिक आकृति युक्त विभिन्न कोटर या रिक्तियाँ उपस्थित होती हैं। अभिकारक के अणु (सब्सट्रेट) जिनकी आकृति इनकी पूरक होती हैं, वे इन रिक्तियों या कोटर में व्यवस्थित हो जाते हैं या फिट हो जाते हैं। यह उसी प्रकार से सम्पन्न होता है जैसे उपयुक्त चाबी, ताले में फिट हो जाती है। इस तरह सक्रिय एन्जाइम पदार्थ (सब्सट्रेट) संकुल बन जाता है जो कि बाद में उत्पाद में विघटित हो जाता है। इसमें निम्न पद होते हैं –

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MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 9
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 10

प्रश्न 14.
कोलॉइडी को निम्न आधार पर कैसे वर्गीकृत किया गया है ?
(i) घटकों की भौतिक अवस्था
(ii) परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था की प्रकृति
(iii) परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था एवं परिक्षेपण माध्यम के मध्य अन्योन्य क्रिया।
उत्तर
कोलॉइड का वर्गीकरण (Classification of colloid)-कोलॉइड विलयन को निम्न आधारों पर वर्गीकृत किया जा सकता है –

  • परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था व परिक्षेपण माध्यम की भौतिक अवस्था के आधार पर ।
  • परिक्षेपण माध्यम की प्रकृति के आधार पर।
  • प्रावस्थाओं की अन्तःक्रिया के आधार पर।

1. परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था व परिक्षेपण माध्यम की भौतिक अवस्था के आधार पर वर्गीकरणपरिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था (Dispersed phase) व परिक्षेपण माध्यम की भौतिक अवस्था जो कि क्रमशः ठोस, द्रव या गैस हो सकते हैं, कुल आठ प्रकार के कोलॉइडी तंत्र सम्भव है। इसके उदाहरण तथा विशिष्ट नाम नीचे तालिका में दिया गया है। यहाँ यह ध्यान देने योग्य है, एक गैस को दूसरी गैस में मिलाने पर पूरी तरह से समांग मिश्रण बनता है अतः यह कोलॉइडी तंत्र नहीं हो सकता।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 11
विभिन्न प्रकार के कोलॉइडी तंत्र में से सॉल जेल व पायस अधिक महत्वपूर्ण हैं।

2. परिक्षेपण माध्यम की प्रकृति के आधार पर वर्गीकरण-इस प्रकार का वर्गीकरण परिक्षेपण माध्यम पर आधारित होता है जिसमें कोलॉइडी कण धंसे रहते हैं। परिक्षेपण माध्यम के आधार पर कोलॉइडी निकायों को कुछ विशिष्ट नाम प्रदान किये जाते हैं।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 12

3. परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था तथा परिक्षेपण माध्यम के बीच अन्तःक्रिया की प्रकृति के आधार पर वर्गीकरण-परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था तथा परिक्षेपण माध्यम के बीच की क्रिया की प्रकृति के आधार पर कोलॉइडी विलयनों को दो वर्गों में वर्गीकृत किया जा सकता है –

  • द्रवस्नेही (Lyophilic solutions)
  • garanteit (Lyophobic solutions)

(i) द्रवस्नेही कोलॉइड (Lyophilic colloids) – ये इस प्रकार के कोलॉइडी विलयन होते हैं जिसमें परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था के कणों की परिक्षेपण माध्यम से बन्धुता या लगाव रहता है। ये प्रायः कोलॉइडी विलयन स्थायित्व युक्त होते हैं। ये विलयन दोनों प्रावस्थाओं के बीच प्रबल आकर्षण बलों के कारण स्वयं ही स्थायित्व युक्त होते हैं । इस प्रकार के कोलॉइडी विलयन उत्क्रमणीय प्रकृति के होते हैं । वाष्पन करने के पश्चात् प्राप्त ठोस को सरलतापूर्वक परिक्षेपण माध्यम से मिलाने पर पुनः कोलॉइडी विलयन प्राप्त हो जाता है। उदाहरण-गोंद, जिलेटिन, स्टार्च आदि।

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(ii) द्रवविरोधी कोलॉइड (Lyophobic colloids) – इस प्रकार के कोलॉइडी विलयन में परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था के कणों की, परिक्षेपण माध्यम के साथ किसी प्रकार की बन्धुता या आकर्षण नहीं होता। इस प्रकार के विलयन कम स्थायी होते हैं तथा आसानी से बनाये भी नहीं जा सकते। इस प्रकार के कोलॉइडी विलयन में अल्प मात्रा में विद्युत्-अपघट्य मिलाने पर या गर्म करने पर आसानी से अवक्षेपण या स्कन्दन हो जाता है। ये अनुत्क्रमणीय प्रकृति के होते हैं। विलयन के वाष्पन के बाद प्राप्त ठोस को पुनः परिक्षेपण माध्यम से मिलाने पर कोलॉइडी विलयन प्राप्त नहीं होता है।
उदाहरण-स्वर्ण, रजत के कोलॉइडी विलयन, Fe(OH)3, As2S3 आदि।

प्रश्न 15.
निम्नलिखित परिस्थितियों में क्या प्रेक्षण होंगे –
(i) जब प्रकाश किरण पुंज कोलॉइडी सॉल में से गमन करता है?
(ii) जलयोजित फेरिक ऑक्साइड सॉल में NaCl वैद्युत अपघट्य मिलाया जाता है।
(iii) कोलॉइडी सॉल में से विद्युत् धारा प्रवाहित की जाती है ?
उत्तर
(i) जब प्रकाश किरण पुंज कोलॉइडी सॉल में गमन करता है तो प्रकाश का प्रकीर्णन होता है और किरण का पथ प्रदीप्त हो जाता है।
(ii) जब जलयोजित फेरिक ऑक्साइड सॉल में NaCl वैद्युत अपघट्य मिलाया जाता है तो फेरिक हाइड्रॉक्साइड सॉल के कणों पर उपस्थित धनावेश Cl आयनों पर उपस्थित ऋणावेश से उदासीन हो जाता है जिससे स्कंदन हो जाता है।
(iii) जब कोलॉइडी सॉल में वैद्युत धारा प्रवाहित की जाती है तो कोलॉइडी कण विपरीत आवेश युक्त इलेक्ट्रोड की ओर गमन करते हैं । यह परिघटना वैद्युत कण संचलन कहलाती है।

प्रश्न 16.
इमल्सन क्या है ? इनके विभिन्न प्रकार क्या हैं ? प्रत्येक प्रकार का उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर
“ऐसा कोलॉइडी तन्त्र जिसमें परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था तथा परिक्षेपण माध्यम दोनों द्रव हों, पायस कहलाता है।”
पायस दो प्रकार के होते हैं –

  • जल में तेल (O/w) – जब किसी परिक्षेपण माध्यम जल में तेल की छोटी-छोटी कोलॉइडी आकार की बूंदें परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था के रूप में होती हैं तो इस प्रकार के पायस को जल में तेल प्रकार के पायस कहते हैं। उदाहरण—मक्खन, कोल्ड-क्रीम। .
  • तेल में जल (W/O) – जब जल की थोड़ी-सी मात्रा को तेल की अधिक मात्रा में परिक्षिप्त किया जाता है तो इस प्रकार बनने वाला पायस तेल में जल प्रकार का पायस कहलाता है।
    MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 13

प्रश्न 17.
पायसीकर्मक पायस को स्थायित्व कैसे देते हैं ? दो पायसीकर्मकों के नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर
पायसीकर्मक पायस-पायस के स्थायित्व के लिये इसमें पायसीकारक मिलाया जाता है। पायसीकारक माध्यम एवं निलंबित कणों के मध्य एक अंतरापृष्ठीय फिल्म बनाता है।
तेल/जल पायस के लिए प्रोटीन, गोंद पायसीकारक है। तथा जल/तेल पायस के लिए वसीय अम्लों के, भारी धातुओं के लवण प्रमुख पायसीकारक हैं।

प्रश्न 18.
“साबुन की क्रिया पायसीकरण एवं मिसेल बनने के कारण होती है,” इस पर टिप्पणी कीजिए।
उत्तर-
साबुन की कार्यविधि (Action of Soap)-साबुन की कार्यविधि उसके मिसेल के समान कार्य करने की प्रवृत्ति पर आधारित है । साबुन में मैले कपड़े को साफ करने की क्षमता है सिर्फ जल यह कार्य नहीं कर सकता। हमारे द्वारा पहने गये कपड़ों के मैले हो जाने का कारण यह है कि हमारे शरीर से जो पसीना निकलता है उसके कारण कपड़ा तेलयुक्त हो जाता है। वायुमण्डल से धूल के कण तेल में चिपक जाते हैं और हमारा कपड़ा मैला हो जाता है। कपड़े को साफ करने के लिए उसे पानी में डुबाकर उसमें साबुन लगाते हैं । जलीय विलयन में साबुन के वियोजन से कार्बोक्सिलेट आयन (RCOO) तथा सोडियम आयन (Na+) प्राप्त होते हैं। कार्बोक्सिलेट आयन के ऐल्किल भाग में लम्बी हाइड्रोकार्बन श्रृंखला रहती है। वह कार्बोक्सिलेट आयन की पूँछ बनाता है जो तेल की बूंद की ओर निर्देशित रहती है। कार्बोक्सिलेट आयन का COO भाग सिर (head) बनाता है जो जल की ओर निर्देशित रहती है। डिटरजेण्ट में So42- भाग सिर बनाता है (चित्र देखिए)

चित्र को देखने से यह स्पष्ट है कि साबुन, तेल का जल में स्थायी पायस बनने में सहायक है। साबुन दोनों के बीच सेतु का कार्य कर रहा है, अत: पायसीकारक है। तेल की बूँद के धूल के कणों सहित कपड़े से निकल जाती है तथा पायस बना लेती है। इस प्रकार कपड़ा धूल के कण से मुक्त हो जाता है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 14

प्रश्न 19.
विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण के चार उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर
विषमांग उत्प्रेरण (Heterogeneous catalysis)-यदि अभिकारक व उत्प्रेरक अलग-अलग प्रावस्था में रहते हैं तो इसे विषमांग उत्प्रेरण कहा जाता है।
उदाहरण
(i) N2व H2 के संयोग से अमोनिया बनने की क्रिया (हैबर विधि) में आयरन ठोस उत्प्रेरक के रूप में होते हैं।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 15
(ii) H2SO4 निर्माण की सम्पर्क विधि में SO2(g) का ऑक्सीकरण SO3 में Pt उत्प्रेरक की उपस्थिति में होता है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 16
(iii) प्लेटिनम उत्प्रेरक की उपस्थिति में अमोनिया का नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड में ऑक्सीकरण। (नाइट्रिक एसिड बनाने की ओस्टवाल्ड विधि)
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 17
(iv) हाइड्रोजनीकरण अभिक्रिया
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 18

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प्रश्न 20.
उत्प्रेरक की सक्रियता एवं वरणक्षमता का क्या अर्थ है ?
उत्तर
सक्रियता (Activity)-उत्प्रेरक की सक्रियता का आशय है, रासायनिक अभिक्रिया की गति बढ़ाने की इसकी क्षमता। कुछ उदाहरणों में अभिक्रिया का वेग लगभग 10 गुना तक बढ़ जाता है। उदाहरणार्थ शुद्ध हाइड्रोजन व शुद्ध ऑक्सीजन का आपस का मिश्रण उत्प्रेरक की अनुपस्थिति में आपस में कोई अभिक्रिया नहीं करता । उत्प्रेरक के रूप में प्लैटिनम की उपस्थिति में मिश्रण में अभिक्रिया अत्यन्त तेज गति से सम्पन्न होकर जल बनता है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 19
रासायनिक अधिशोषण की मात्रा के ऊपर सक्रियता निर्भर करती है। अधिशोषण को निश्चित रूप से मजबूत होना चाहिए परन्तु इतना भी अधिक सामर्थ्य युक्त न हो कि अधिशोषित पदार्थ की गतिशीलता बिल्कुल समाप्त हो जाये या दूसरे अभिकारक के अधिशोषित होने के लिये स्थान ही उपलब्ध न हो।

(ii) वरणक्षमता या चयनात्मकता (Selectivity)-उत्प्रेरक की चयनात्मकता का अर्थ है अभिक्रिया अन्य को छोड़कर किसी उत्पाद विशेष को बनाने हेतु दिशा प्रदान करना। अर्थात कोई उत्प्रेरक किसी विशेष अभिक्रिया को ही उत्प्रेरित करता है सभी को नहीं।
उदाहरणार्थ –
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 20

प्रश्न 21.
जिओलाइटों द्वारा उत्प्रेरण के कुछ लक्षणों का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर
जिओलाइट महीन छिद्रयुक्त सिलिकेट्स के त्रिविमीय नेटवर्क वाले सूक्ष्म-रन्ध्री ऐलुमिनोसिलीकेट होते हैं। जिओ-लाइट का सामान्य सूत्र –
Mx/n [(AlO2)x (SiO)2y] mH2O
जहाँ n धातु आयन Mn+ की संयोजकता है । त्रिविमीय संरचना के कारण जिओलाइट अत्यधिक छिद्रयुक्त संरचना का होता है। इसमें कुछ सिलिकन परमाणु ऐलुमिनियम के परमाणुओं द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित होकर Al – 0 – Si ढाँचा बनाते हैं।

जिओलाइट पेट्रो रसायन उद्योग में हाइड्रोकार्बनों के भंजन एवं समावयवन में उत्प्रेरक के रूप में व्यापक रूप से प्रयुक्त किये जा रहे हैं। ZMS-5 पेट्रोलियम उद्योग में प्रयुक्त होने वाला एक महत्वपूर्ण जिओलाइट उत्प्रेरक है। यह ऐल्कोहॉल का निर्जलीकरण करके हाइड्रो-कार्बनों का मिश्रण बनाता है और उन्हें सीधे ही गैसोलीन में परिवर्तित कर देता है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 22.
आकृति वरणात्मक उत्प्रेरण क्या है ?
उत्तर
आकृति वरणात्मक उत्प्रेरक या जिओलाइट (Shape selective catalysts or Zeolites)उत्प्रेरक की क्रिया अति विशिष्ट होती है। यह अति विशिष्ट प्रकृति उत्प्रेरक की रन्ध्र या छिद्र संरचना तथा अभिकारक एवं उत्पाद के अणुओं के आकार पर निर्भर करती है। इस प्रकार के उत्प्रेरकों को आकृति चयन करने वाला उत्प्रेरक कहा जाता है। जैसे-जिओलाइट। .

जिओलाइट उत्प्रेरकों का सर्वाधिक दिलचस्प पहलू इनका आकृति चयनात्मक होना है। उत्प्रेरक की आकृति चयनात्मकता, उत्प्रेरक की कोटर संरचना या छिद्र संरचना पर आधारित होती है। जिओलाइट में कोटर का आकार सामान्यतया 260 pm से 740 pm के मध्य होता है। अभिकारक व उत्पाद में अणुओं के आकार के आधार तथा जिओलाइट के पिंजड़ों (Cage) या कोटर के आकार पर रासायनिक क्रिया विशिष्ट ढंग से सम्पन्न होती है। यह इसलिये महत्वपूर्ण है क्योंकि किसी विशेष आकार व आकृति के अणु ही इन कोटरों में घुसकर अधिशोषित हो पाते हैं। यदि अणु इनके आकार से बड़े होते हैं तो ये छिद्रों में नहीं घुस पाते और यदि ये आकार में छोटे होते हैं तो ये उत्प्रेरक के छेद में से निकल जाते हैं। अभिक्रिया जल के अणुओं के निष्कासन तथा बहुलीकरण के द्वारा आगे बढ़ती है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 21
प्रश्न 23.
निम्न पदों (शब्दों) को समझाइए-
(i) वैद्युत कण संचलन
(ii) स्कंदन
(iii) अपोहन
(iv) टिण्डल प्रभाव।
उत्तर
(i) विद्युत् कण संचलन (Electrophoresis)—कोलॉइड कणों पर धन अथवा ऋण विद्युत् आवेश रहता है। अतः जब कोलॉइड विद्युत्-क्षेत्र में रखा जाता है तो ये कण विपरीत आवेश वाले इलेक्ट्रोड की ओर चलने लगते हैं और उन पर पहुँचकर उदासीन होकर अवक्षेपित हो जाते हैं । जैसे-As2S3 के कण जो ऋण आवेशयुक्त होते हैं, ऐनोड की ओर चलकर वहाँ अवक्षेपित हो जाते हैं । कोलॉइड कणों का विद्युत्-प्रभाव से इस प्रकार का अभिगमन विद्युत् कण संचलन कहलाता है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 22

(ii) स्कन्दन (Coagulation)—कोलॉइड कण धनात्मक या ऋणात्मक विद्युत् आवेश युक्त होते हैं। यह देखा गया है कि कोलॉइड में उन पर आवेश से विरुद्ध आवेश वाले विद्युत्-अपघट्य उचित मात्रा में मिला दें तो उनका आवेश नष्ट हो जाता है और वे आपस में इकट्ठा होकर अवक्षेप बना देते हैं। कोलॉइडी कणों का विद्युत्-अपघट्यों द्वारा अवक्षेपित हो जाना स्कन्दन कहलाता है।

(iii) अपोहन (Dialysis)—कोलॉइडी विलयन से उसमें उपस्थित घुले हुए पदार्थों (क्रिस्टलाभों) को पार्चमेंट झिल्ली द्वारा निष्कासित करने की विधि अपोहन कहलाती है।

कोलॉइडी विलयन को पार्चमेण्ट पेपर से बने थैले में भरकर आसुत जल में लटका देते हैं। क्रिस्टलीय पदार्थ के कण थैले से बाहर निकलकर जल में वितरित हो जाते हैं, इस क्रिया को अपोहन कहते हैं।

(iv) टिण्डल प्रभाव (Tyndall Effect)—“यदि प्रकाश पुंज को कोलॉइडी विलयन में से गुजारा जाये तो प्रकाश मार्ग . एक चमकते हुए शंकु के रूप में दिखायी देता है। इसका अध्ययन सबसे पहले टिण्डल ने किया था अतः इसे टिण्डल प्रभाव व
कोलॉइडी चमकीले शंकु को टिण्डल शंकु कहते हैं।” टिण्डल ने यह बताया कि कोलॉइडी कण प्रकाश को बिखेर देते हैं जिसके
चित्र-टिण्डल प्रभाव कारण ये चमकने लगते हैं। प्रकाश का यह प्रकीर्णन साधारण प्रकीर्णन से भिन्न होता है। वास्तविक विलयन के कण अति सूक्ष्म आकार के कारण प्रकाश का प्रकीर्णन नहीं करते हैं जिससे उनमें प्रकाश का मार्ग अदृश्य रहता है। कोलॉइडी कण प्रकाश ऊर्जा को अवशोषित करके स्वयं दीप्त हो जाते हैं और फिर अवशोषित प्रकाश छोटी तरंगदैर्घ्य की किरणों के रूप में प्रकीर्णित होने लगता है। चूंकि अधिकतम प्रकीर्णन प्रकाश के मार्ग के लम्बवत् होता है इसलिए प्रकाश के मार्ग को समकोण पर देखने पर एक चमकीला शंकु दिखायी देता है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 23

प्रश्न 24.
इमल्सनों (पायस) के चार उपयोग लिखिए।
उत्तर
पायसों के अनुप्रयोग –

  • साबुन तथा अपमार्जकों की क्रियाविधि पायसीकरण पर आधारित है।
  • औषधि के रूप में कॉड लिवर ऑयल, हैली बुट यकृत तेल आदि के रूप में पायस का उपयोग किया जाता है।
  • संक्रमणहारी (Disinfectants) जैसे—फिनाइल, डेटॉल और लाइसॉल जल में मिलाने पर जल में तेल के समान पायस बनाते हैं।
  • धातु अयस्क के सान्द्रण की झाग उत्प्लावन विधि भी पायसीकरण के सिद्धान्त पर आधारित है।
  • वसा का आँतों द्वारा पाचन पायसीकरण के कारण सरलता से होता है।

प्रश्न 25.
मिसेल क्या है ? मिसेल निकाय का एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर
बहुआण्विक, वृहत् आण्विक एवं संगुणित कोलॉइड में अंतर –
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 24

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 26.
निम्न पदों को उचित उदाहरण सहित समझाइए –
(i) एल्कोसॉल
(ii) एरोसॉल
(iii) हाइड्रोसॉल।।
उत्तर
(i) एल्कोसॉल-एल्कोसॉल वह कोलॉइडी सॉल होता है जिसमें परिक्षेपण माध्यम ऐल्कोहॉल होता है। जैसे-बहुलक सॉल। .
(ii) ऐरोसॉल-कोलॉइडी का वह प्रक्रम जिसमें परिक्षेपण माध्यम वायु होती है। जैसे-धुआँ, धूल, कोहरा आदि।
(iii) हाइड्रोसॉल-वह कोलॉइडी प्रक्रम जिसमें परिक्षेपण माध्यम जल होता है। जैसे-स्टॉर्च, साबुन झाग आदि।

प्रश्न 27.
“कोलॉइड एक पदार्थ नहीं पदार्थ की एक अवस्था है। इस कथन पर टिप्पणी कीजिए।
उत्तर
दिया गया कथन यह है कि कोलॉइड एक पदार्थ नहीं पदार्थ की अवस्था है सत्य कथन है। क्योंकि कोई पदार्थ कुछ शर्तों पर कोलॉइड अवस्था ग्रहण करता है जबकि अन्य शर्तों पर वह क्रिस्टल के रूप में हो सकता है।
उदाहरण-जल में NaCl क्रिस्टलन की भाँति कार्य करता है और एक वास्तविक विलयन बनाता है, जबकि बेंजीन में कोलॉइड की भाँति व्यवहार करता है। इसी प्रकार साबुन कम सान्द्रता पर क्रिस्टल की भाँति व्यवहार करता है तथा उच्च सान्द्रता पर कोलॉइड की भाँति । अत: यह पदार्थ के आकार पर निर्भर करता है। यदि अवयव का आकार 1 nm से 100 nm के मध्य है तो यह कोलॉइडी अवस्था है। दूसरी ओर यदि अवयव का आकार 100 nm से अधिक है तो अवक्षेप के रूप में और यदि 1 nm से कम हो तब यह वास्तविक विलयन के रूप में व्यवहार करता है। इसलिए हम कह सकते हैं कि कोलॉइडी अवस्था वास्तविक विलयन और अवक्षेप के मध्य की अवस्था है।

पृष्ठ रसायन अन्य महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्नोत्तर

पृष्ठ रसायन वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

1. सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए –

प्रश्न 1.
सक्रिय चारकोल में ऐसीटिक अम्ल की अधिशोषण प्रक्रिया में ऐसीटिक अम्ल है –
(a) ऐडजॉर्बर (अवशोषक)
(b) ऐबजॉर्बर (अवशोष्य)
(c) ऐडजॉर्बेट (अधिशोषक)
(d) ऐडजॉर्बेट (अधिशोष्य)।
उत्तर
(d) ऐडजॉर्बेट (अधिशोष्य)।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 2.
द्रवविरोधी सॉल के स्थायित्व का कारण होता है –
(a) ब्राउनी गति
(b) टिण्डल प्रभाव
(c) विद्युत् आवेश
(d) ब्राउनी गति तथा विद्युत् आवेश।
उत्तर
(d) ब्राउनी गति तथा विद्युत् आवेश।

प्रश्न 3.
As2S3 कोलॉइडी विलयन को स्कंदित करने में निम्नलिखित में किसका स्कन्दन मान न्यूनतम
होगा
(a) NaCl
(b) KCI
(c) BaCl2
(d) AICI3
उत्तर
(d) AICI3

प्रश्न 4.
अधिशोषण क्रिया है –
(a) ऊष्माशोषी
(b) ऊष्माक्षेपी
(c) ऊष्मा का परिवर्तन नहीं होता
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर
(b) ऊष्माक्षेपी

प्रश्न 5.
कोलॉइडी कणों का आकार होता है –
(a) 10-7 – 10-9सेमी के मध्य
(b) 10-7 – 10-11 सेमी के मध्य
(c) 10-5 – 10-7 सेमी के मध्य
(d) 10-2 – 10-3 सेमी के मध्य ।
उत्तर
(c) 10-5 – 10-7 सेमी के मध्य

प्रश्न 6.
निम्न में से किसका प्रयोग द्रवस्नेही कोलॉइड बनाने में नहीं होता है –
(a) स्टार्च
(b) गोन्द
(c) जिलेटिन
(d) धातु सल्फाइड।
उत्तर
(d) धातु सल्फाइड।

प्रश्न 7.
रक्षी कोलॉइड की तरह कार्य करने वाला सॉल है –
(a) AS2S3
(b) जिलेटिन
(c)Au
(d) Fe (OH)3.
उत्तर
(b) जिलेटिन

प्रश्न 8.
कोहरा (Fog) एक कोलॉइडी तंत्र का उदाहरण है –
(a) गैस में परिक्षिप्त द्रव
(b) गैस में गैस का परिक्षेपण
(c) ठोस का गैस में परिक्षेपण
(d) ठोस का द्रव में परिक्षेपण।
उत्तर
(a) गैस में परिक्षिप्त द्रव

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 9.
जिलेटिन का उपयोग बहुधा आइसक्रीम बनाने में होता है क्योंकि यह
(a) कोलॉइडी विलयन बनने से रोकता है
(b) खुशबू बढ़ाता है
(c) क्रिस्टलन होने से रोकता है एवं मिश्रण को स्थायित्व प्रदान करता है
(d) स्वाद बढ़ाता है।
उत्तर
(c) क्रिस्टलन होने से रोकता है एवं मिश्रण को स्थायित्व प्रदान करता है

प्रश्न 10.
अभिक्रिया
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 25
(a) स्व-उत्प्रेरक
(b) विष
(c) ऋणात्मक उत्प्रेरक
(d) धन उत्प्रेरक। .
उत्तर
(b) विष

प्रश्न 11.
कोलॉइडी कणों का अभिगमन विद्युत् क्षेत्र के प्रभाव द्वारा होने का नाम है –
(a) धन-कण संचलन
(b) अपोहन
(c) वैद्युत-कण संचलन
(d) विद्युत् परिक्षेपण।
उत्तर
(c) वैद्युत-कण संचलन

प्रश्न 12.
हार्डी-शूल्जे नियम सम्बन्धित है
(a) विलयन से
(b) स्कन्दन से
(c) ठोसों से
(d) गैसों से।
उत्तर
(b) स्कन्दन से

प्रश्न 13.
कोलॉइडी विलयन में कितनी अवस्थाएँ पायी जाती हैं –
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
उत्तर
(b) 2

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से पायस है –
(a) मक्खन
(b) वायु
(c) लकड़ी
(d) दूध।
उत्तर
(d) दूध।

प्रश्न 15.
मक्खन एक है –
(a) जेल
(b) पायस
(c) सॉल
(d) कोलॉइड।
उत्तर
(a) जेल

प्रश्न 16.
ब्राउनी गति का कारण है –
(a) कोलॉइडी कणों तथा विकिरण माध्यम के अणुओं के बीच आकर्षण बल
(b) संवहन धाराएँ
(c) परिक्षेपण माध्यम के अणुओं का कोलॉइडी कणों पर प्रहार
(d) द्रव अवस्था में ऊष्मा परिवर्तन।
उत्तर
(c) परिक्षेपण माध्यम के अणुओं का कोलॉइडी कणों पर प्रहार

प्रश्न 17.
रक्षी कोलॉइड की तरह कार्य करने वाला सॉल है –
(a) जिलेटिन
(b) Au
(c) Fe(OH)2
(d) As2S3.
उत्तर
(a) जिलेटिन

प्रश्न 18.
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा भौतिक अधिशोषण के लिए गलत कथन है
(a) यह एक उत्क्रमणीय प्रक्रम है
(b) इसे कम अधिशोषण की ऊष्मा की आवश्यकता होती है
(c) इसे सक्रियण ऊर्जा की आवश्यकता होती है
(d) यह कम ताप पर होता है।
उत्तर
(c) इसे सक्रियण ऊर्जा की आवश्यकता होती है

प्रश्न 19.
निम्न में से किसमें टिण्डल प्रभाव नहीं है
(a) निलम्बन
(b) पायस
(c) शर्करा विलयन
(d) स्वर्ण सॉल।
उत्तर
(c) शर्करा विलयन

2. रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए –

  1. भौतिक अधिशोषण की दर ताप बढ़ाने के साथ ………….. है।
  2. As2S3के सॉल के कणों में …………… होता है।
  3. सम्पर्क विधि द्वारा H2SO4 के निर्माण में ………….. Pt उत्प्रेरक के लिए ………..का कार्य करता है।
  4. KMnO4 द्वारा ऑक्जेलिक अम्ल का ऑक्सीकरण …………….का उदाहरण है।
  5. जैविक उत्प्रेरक आवश्यक रूप से …………….. होता है।
  6. वैद्युत क्षेत्र के प्रभाव में कोलॉइडी कणों की गति ……………. कहलाती है।
  7. कोलॉइडी कणों द्वारा प्रकाश का प्रकीर्णन …………… प्रभाव कहलाता है।
  8. माध्यमिक यौगिक सिद्धान्त ……………. उत्प्रेरकों के लिए लागू होता है।
  9. जिस पदार्थ की सतह पर अधिशोषण होता है, उसे … ……… कहते हैं।
  10. दूध एक ……………. का उदाहरण है।
  11. रक्त एक …………… आवेशित सॉल है।
  12. अधिशोषण एक ………….. प्रक्रिया है।
  13. द्रव का ठोस में कोलॉइडी विलयन …………….. कहलाता है।
  14. उत्प्रेरक वर्धक पदार्थ ………………… है।
  15. विद्युत्-अपघट्य मिलाने से कोलॉइडी कणों का अवक्षेपण … कहलाता है।
  16. हार्डी-शुल्जे नियम के अनुसार, आयनों की स्कन्दन क्षमता आयनों की ……………….. पर निर्भर करती है।

उत्तर

  1. घटती
  2. ऋणावेश
  3. As2O3
  4. विष,
  5. स्व-उत्प्रेरण,
  6. ‘एन्जाइम,
  7. धन-कण संचलन,
  8. टिण्डल प्रभाव,
  9. समांगी,
  10. अधिशोषक,
  11. पायस,
  12. ऋणात्मक,
  13. ऊष्माक्षेपी,
  14. जेल,
  15. मॉलिब्डेनम,
  16. स्कंदन,
  17. आवेश संख्या।

3. उचित संबंध जोड़िए –
I.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 26
उत्तर
1. (1), 2. (d), 3. (a), 4. (c), 5. (g), 6. (e), 7. (b).

MP Board Solutions

II.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 27
उत्तर
1. (d), 2. (a), 3. (b), 4. (e), 5. (c), 6. (1), 7. (g).

4. एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए –

  1. क्या होता है, जब गोल्ड के कोलॉइडी विलयन में जिलेटिन मिलाया जाता है ?
  2. वे पदार्थ जो उत्प्रेरक के उत्प्रेरण शक्ति को बढ़ा देते हैं लेकिन स्वयं उत्प्रेरक का कार्य नहीं करते वे – कहलाते हैं।
  3. किसी पायस का अपने अवयवी द्रवों में विघटित हो जाना कहलाता है।
  4. तेलों के हाइड्रोजनीकरण में प्रयुक्त किये जाने वाले उत्प्रेरक का नाम लिखिए।
  5. H2O2 के अपघटन में फॉस्फोरिक अम्ल किस प्रकार के उत्प्रेरक का कार्य करता है ?
  6. ग्लूकोज को ऐल्कोहॉल में बदलने के लिए प्रयुक्त किये जाने वाले उत्प्रेरक का नाम लिखिए।
  7. Na+, Ba2+, Al3+, Sn4+ आयनों में से किसकी स्कंदन शक्ति सर्वाधिक होगी?
  8. Cl2 गैस मास्क का उपयोग किस सिद्धांत पर आधारित है ?
  9. किसी अवक्षेप को कोलॉइडी कणों में बदलना क्या कहलाता है ?
  10. साबुन की प्रक्षालन क्रिया किस सिद्धांत पर आधारित है ?
  11. उत्प्रेरण शब्द का प्रथम बार प्रयोग किसने किया था ?
  12. कोलॉइडी कणों का आकार लिखिए।
  13. KMnO4 द्वारा ऑक्जेलिक अम्ल के ऑक्सीकरण में प्रयुक्त उत्प्रेरक की प्रकृति लिखिए।
  14. उत्प्रेरक विष का एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
  15. कोलॉइडी कणों की गति को क्या कहते हैं ?
  16. शर्करा का जल-अपघटन करने के लिए कौन-से उत्प्रेरक का प्रयोग किया जाता है ?

उत्तर

  1. रक्षण
  2. उत्प्रेरक वर्धक
  3. विपायसीकरण
  4. निकिल
  5. ऋणात्मक
  6. जाइमेस
  7. Sn4+
  8. अधिशोषण
  9. पेप्टीकरण
  10. पायसीकरण
  11. वर्जीलिथिम
  12. 10-5 सेमी से 10-7 सेमी, “
  13. स्व-उत्प्रेरक,
  14. H2SO4 बनाने की संपर्क विधि में Al2O3,
  15. ब्राउनी गति,
  16. इन्वर्टेज ।

पृष्ठ रसायन अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
कौन-सी अक्रिय गैस चारकोल की सतह पर
(i) सबसे कम मात्रा में
(ii) सबसे ज्यादा मात्रा में अधिशोषित होगी और क्यों ?
उत्तर
(i) हीलियम अपने कम आण्विक द्रव्यमान एवं अणुओं के बीच न्यूनतम वाण्डर वॉल्स बल के कारण चारकोल की सतह पर सबसे कम मात्रा में अधिशोषित होगी।
(ii) जीनॉन अपने उच्च आण्विक द्रव्यमान एवं अणुओं के बीच अधिकतम वाण्डर वॉल्स बल के कारण चारकोल की सतह पर सबसे ज्यादा अधिशोषित होगी।

प्रश्न 2.
आकाश का रंग नीला क्यों दिखाई देता है ?
उत्तर
वायुमण्डल में उपस्थित धूल के कण एक कोलॉइडी विलयन का निर्माण करते हैं । इन धूल के कोलॉइडी कणों द्वारा प्रकाश का प्रकीर्णन (टिण्डल प्रभाव) के कारण आकाश का रंग नीला दिखाई देता है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 3.
ऑक्जेलिक अम्ल में KMnO4 मिलाने से उसका रंग पहले धीरे-धीरे विलुप्त होता है किन्तु बाद में तेजी से गायब होने लगता है, क्यों?
उत्तर
ऑक्जेलिक अम्ल में KMnO4 मिलाने पर ऑक्जेलिक अम्ल का ऑक्सीकरण होता है। इस अभिक्रिया में बनने वाला Mn2+ आयन स्व-उत्प्रेरक का कार्य करता है जिससे अभिक्रिया तेजी से होने लगती है और KMnO4 का रंग तेजी से विलुप्त होने लगता है।
2MnO4 +5C2O4 + 16H+ → 2Mn+2 + 10CO2 + 8H2O

प्रश्न 4.
कोलॉइडी विलयन के बारे में लिखिए।
उत्तर
कोलॉइडी विलयन के कणों का आकार वास्तविक विलयन से बड़ा तथा निलंबन से छोटा होता है। यह एक विषमांग मिश्रण है जिसमें परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था के कणों का आकार 10-5 से 10-7 cm के बीच एवं परिक्षेपण माध्यम के कणों का आकार लगभग 10-7cm होता है। उदाहरण-कोहरा, रक्त, धुंआ।

प्रश्न 5.
अधिशोषक किसे कहते हैं ? दो उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर
अधिशोषक-अधिशोषक ठोस जो गैस, वाष्प या किसी विलयन में विलेय को अधिशोषित करते हैं, अधिशोषक कहलाते हैं।
उदाहरण-जन्तु चारकोल, सिलिका इत्यादि।

प्रश्न 6.
अधिशोष्य क्या है ?
उत्तर
गैस या वाष्प या विलेय के अणु जो ठोस की सतह पर अधिशोषित होते हैं, अधिशोष्य कहलाते हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
नदियों के समुद्र में मिलने से डेल्टा बनता है। समझाइए।।
उत्तर
नदियों के जल में मिट्टी के ऋण आवेशित कण होते हैं, जो समुद्र के जल में उपस्थित Na+ , K+ या Mg+2 आयनों से स्कन्दित हो जाते हैं, जिससे डेल्टा का निर्माण होता है।

प्रश्न 8.
बादलों पर सिल्वर आयोडाइड का स्प्रे करने पर वर्षा का होना कैसे संभव है ?
उत्तर
बादलों की प्रकृति कोलॉइडी होने के कारण इन पर आवेश होता है। सिल्वर आयोडाइड एक वैद्युत-अपघट्य है बादलों पर इसका स्प्रे करने के परिणामस्वरूप स्कंदन होता है, जिससे वर्षा होती है।

प्रश्न 9.
किसी गैस का अधिशोषण क्रान्तिक ताप से किस प्रकार संबंधित है ?
उत्तर
किसी गैस के लिये क्रान्तिक ताप उच्च होने पर उसका द्रवीकरण उतना ही आसान होता है एवं उसके अणुओं के बीच में उच्च वाण्डर वॉल्स आकर्षण बल लगता है। फलस्वरूप ऐसी गैसों का अधिशोषण उच्च मात्रा में होता है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 10.
क्या होता है, जब ताजे अवक्षेपित Fe(OH)3 को थोड़े से तनु FeCl3 विलयन के साथ हिलाया जाता है ?
उत्तर
ताजे अवक्षेपित Fe(OH)3 को तनु FeCl3 विलयन के साथ हिलाने पर Fe(OH)3 लाल-भूरे रंग के कोलॉइडी विलयन में परिवर्तित हो जाता है। इस प्रक्रम को पेप्टीकरण कहते हैं। इसमें FeCl3 विलयन से प्राप्त Fe+3 आयन Fe(OH)3 अवक्षेप के कणों पर अधिशोषित होकर धनावेशित कोलॉइडी विलयन बनाते हैं।

पृष्ठ रसायन लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
कोलॉइडी विलयन किसे कहते हैं ? डायलिसिस क्या है ? इसका सामान्य सिद्धान्त क्या है?
उत्तर
वे विलयन जिनमें विलेय के कणों का व्यास 10-4 सेमी से 10-7 सेमी होता है तथा विलायक के कणों का व्यास 10-7 सेमी से 10-8 सेमी होता है, कोलॉइडी विलयन कहलाते हैं। इस प्रकार के विलयन आँख से देखने पर समांग दिखाई देते हैं जबकि सूक्ष्मदर्शी द्वारा देखने पर समांग नहीं दिखायी देते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
सॉल, जेल और पायस को उदाहरण सहित स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
सॉल (Sol)—जब कोई ठोस पदार्थ किसी द्रव में परिक्षिप्त (disperse) होकर कोलॉइडी विलयन बनाता है तो वह सॉल कहलाता है। जैसे—फेरिक हाइड्रॉक्साइड, गोल्ड आदि के जल में बने कोलॉइडी विलयन।
जेल (Gel)—जब कोई द्रव किसी ठोस में परिक्षेपित होकर कोलॉइडी विलयन बनाता है तब इसे जेल कहते हैं। उदाहरणार्थ-जेली, पनीर, मक्खन आदि।
पायस (Emulsion)—जब एक द्रव दूसरे अमिश्रणीय द्रव में परिक्षेपित कोलॉइडी विलयन बनाता है तब इसे पायस कहते हैं। जैसे—क्रीम, दूध आदि।

प्रश्न 3.
समांगी तथा विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण को उदाहरण देकर समझाइए।
उत्तर
समांगी उत्प्रेरण–वे रासायनिक अभिक्रियाएँ जिनमें क्रियाकारक पदार्थ और उत्प्रेरक एक ही प्रावस्था में हों, समांगी उत्प्रेरण अभिक्रियाएँ कहलाती हैं।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 28
विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण—जब क्रियाकारक पदार्थ और उत्प्रेरक की प्रावस्थाएँ अलग-अलग हों, तो ऐसे उत्प्रेरण विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण कहलाते हैं।
अमोनिया निर्माण की हैबर विधि में,
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 29

प्रश्न 4.
स्वर्ण संख्या किसे कहते हैं ? उदाहरण सहित स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
स्वर्ण संख्या-जिगमोण्डी ने आपेक्षिक रक्षण शक्ति ज्ञात करने के लिए एक संख्या निर्धारित की जो स्वर्ण संख्या (Gold Number) कहलाती है। इसके अनुसार
“यह मिलीग्रामों में रक्षी कोलॉइडों की वह मात्रा है, जो दिये हुए स्वर्ण कोलॉइडी विलयन में 10 मिलीलीटर में उपस्थित होने पर उसका एक मिलीलीटर 10% NaCl विलयन द्वारा स्कन्दन होने से रोकती है।” स्वर्ण संख्या अधिक होने पर रक्षण शक्ति कम होती है।
जिलेटिन की रक्षण शक्ति सर्वाधिक एवं डेक्सट्रीन की रक्षण शक्ति सबसे कम होती है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 5.
पायसीकरण में पायसीकारक का क्या महत्त्व है ? ।
उत्तर
पायस बनाने की क्रिया पायसीकरण कहलाती है। उपयुक्त द्रवों को मिलाकर तेजी से हिलाने पर पायस बनते हैं परन्तु इस प्रकार से बना हुआ पायस स्थायी नहीं होता। पायस को स्थायी बनाने के लिए एक तीसरे पदार्थ को,मिलाना अनिवार्य है जिसे पायसीकारक कहते हैं। साबुन, गोंद, स्टार्च आदि पायसीकारक का कार्य करते हैं। पायसीकारक की अनुपस्थिति में द्रव की परिक्षिप्त बूंदें आपस में मिल जाने से पायस नष्ट हो जाता है।

प्रश्न 6.
अधिशोषण क्या है ? इसके दो उदाहरण तथा इसकी क्रियाविधि समझाइए।
उत्तर
जब गैस या द्रव के अणु किसी वृहत क्षेत्रफल वाले ठोस के सम्पर्क में आते हैं तो कभी-कभी गैस या द्रव के अणुओं की ठोस की सतह पर सान्द्रता बढ़ जाती है। इस घटना को अधिशोषण कहते हैं।
अधिशोषण के उदाहरण – (i) चीनी उद्योग में जन्तु चारकोल रंगीन पदार्थों का अधिशोषण कर लेता है।
(ii) परम्यूटिट विधि में Ca2+,Mg2+ आयन अधिशोषित हो जाते हैं तथा Na+ आयन मुक्त हो जाते हैं जिससे जल की कठोरता दूर हो जाती है।
अधिशोषण की क्रियाविधि – ठोस के पृष्ठ पर उपस्थित परमाणुओं या अणुओं में मुक्त संयोजकताएँ रहती हैं। ये मुक्त संयोजकताएँ अधिशोष्य अणुओं को अपनी ओर आकर्षित करती हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
विद्युत्-अपोहन पर एक टिप्पणी लिखिए।
उत्तर
विद्युत्-अपोहन (Electro-dialysis) यदि कोलॉइडी विलयन में वैद्युत-अपघटन की अशुद्धियाँ होती हैं तो अपोहन की दर बढ़ाने के लिए द्रोणिका में दो विपरीत आवेश के इलेक्ट्रोड लगाये जाते हैं। आयनिक अशुद्धियाँ विपरीत आवेश के इलेक्ट्रोड की ओर तेजी से गति करती हैं। इस विधि को विद्युत्-अपोहन (Electro-dialysis) कहते हैं।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 30

प्रश्न 8.
रक्षी कोलॉइड किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर
रक्षी कोलॉइड-द्रव-विरोधी कोलॉइडी विलयन में थोड़ा-सा विद्युत्-अपघट्य मिलाने पर उसका स्कन्दन शीघ्र ही हो जाता है, परन्तु यदि विद्युत्-अपघट्य मिलाने से पहले द्रव विरोधी कोलॉइडों में कोई जल-स्नेही कोलॉइड जैसे—जिलेटिन, अगर-अगर, ऐल्ब्यूमिन आदि की थोड़ी-सी मात्रा मिला दी जाय तो विद्युत्-अपघट्य का प्रभाव बहुत कम हो जाता है और स्कन्दन बहुत धीमा हो जाता है या बिल्कुल नहीं होता। इस घटना को कोलॉइडी रक्षण कहते हैं तथा रक्षण के लिए मिलाये गये जल-स्नेही कोलॉइड को रक्षी कोलॉइड (Protective colloid) कहते हैं।
उदाहरण—किसी सोडियम सॉल में थोड़ा जिलेटिन मिला देने पर सोडियम क्लोराइड विलयन द्वारा उसका स्कन्दन नहीं होता।

प्रश्न 9.
फेरिक हाइड्रॉक्साइड एवं सल्फर की जल में कोलॉइडी विलयन बनाने की विधि दीजिए।
उत्तर
फेरिक हाइड्रॉक्साइड का सॉल बनाने के लिए FeCl3 विलयन को उबलते जल में बूंद-बूंद करके हिलाते हुए डालते हैं। FeCI3 की अतिरिक्त मात्रा व HCl को विद्युत्-अपोहन द्वारा पृथक् कर देते हैं जिससे विलयन स्थायी रह सके।
FeCl3 +3H2O → Fe(OH)3 +3HCl
नाइट्रिक अम्ल (ऑक्सीकारक) के विलयन में H,S गैस प्रवाहित करने पर सल्फर कोलॉइडी विलयन बनता है।
2HNO3 +H2S → S+2H2O+2NO2

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 10.
भौतिक अधिशोषण और रासायनिक अधिशोषण को समझाइए।
उत्तर:
यदि अधिशोष्य, अधिशोषक की सतह पर अत्यन्त दुर्बल वाण्डरवाल्स आकर्षण बल द्वारा बँधा रहता है तो उस अधिशोषण प्रक्रम को भौतिक अधिशोषण (Physical Adsorption or Physisorption) कहते हैं । यदि अधिशोष्य को बाँधे रहने वाले बल रासायनिक बन्ध में कार्य करने वाले बल के समान ही प्रबल हों तो इस प्रकार के अधिशोषण को रासायनिक अधिशोषण (Chemical Adsorption or Chemisorption) कहते हैं। रासायनिक अधिशोषण में अधिशोष्य के अणु अधिशोषक के पृष्ठ-तल पर रासायनिक बन्ध द्वारा जुड़े रहते हैं। अधिशोषण प्रक्रम में सामान्यतः ऊर्जा मुक्त होती है अतः यह एक ऊष्माक्षेपी प्रक्रम है।

प्रश्न 11.
अधिशोषण की एन्थैल्पी से आप क्या समझते हैं ?
उत्तर
अधिशोषण की एन्थैल्पी (Enthalpy of Adsorption) या अधिशोषण ऊष्मा (Heat of Adsorption)— “अधिशोषण प्रक्रम में एक मोल अधिशोष्य के अधिशोषक सतह पर अधिशोषण होने पर होने वाला एन्थैल्पी परिवर्तन अधिशोषण की एन्थैल्पी या अधिशोषण ऊष्मा कहलाता है।”

रासायनिक अधिशोषण की अधिशोषण ऊष्मा का मान भौतिक अधिशोषण की अधिशोषण ऊष्मा के मान से अधिक होता है। रासायनिक अधिशोषणों के लिए अधिशोषण ऊष्मा का मान लगभग 400 kJ per mol तथा भौतिक अधिशोषणों के लिए अधिशोषण ऊष्मा का मान लगभग 40 kJ per mol होता है।

प्रश्न 12.
उत्प्रेरण क्या है ? प्रेरित उत्प्रेरण के एक उदाहरण देकर समझाइए।
उत्तर
वह पदार्थ जो अपनी उपस्थिति मात्र से किसी रासायनिक क्रिया के वेग को घटा या बढ़ा देता है और स्वयं क्रिया के अन्त में भार व रासायनिक संघटन की दृष्टि से अपरिवर्तित रहता है, उत्प्रेरक कहलाता है तथा इस प्रकार की क्रिया उत्प्रेरण (Catalysis) कहलाती है।
उदाहरण – H2O2 अपघटित होकर सरलता से H2O व O2 देता है किन्तु फॉस्फोरिक अम्ल की उपस्थिति में अपघटन की क्रिया मन्द हो जाती है। यह वेग को घटाता है।

प्रेरित या उपपादित उत्प्रेरण (Induced catalysis)-जब कोई एक रासायनिक अभिक्रिया दूसरी रासायनिक अभिक्रिया के लिए उत्प्रेरक का कार्य करती है तो पहली अभिक्रिया प्रेरित उत्प्रेरक कहलाती है। इस घटना को प्रेरित उत्प्रेरण कहते हैं।
उदाहरण-सोडियम सल्फाइट वायु में रखने से ऑक्सीकृत हो जाता है परन्तु सोडियम आर्सेनाइट वायु में ऑक्सीकृत नहीं होता। सोडियम सल्फाइट और सोडियम आर्सेनाइट को मिलाकर हवा में रखने पर दोनों का ऑक्सीकरण हो जाता है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 13.
धनात्मक एवं ऋणात्मक उत्प्रेरण को उदाहरण देकर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
धनात्मक उत्प्रेरण—जब उत्प्रेरक रासायनिक क्रिया के वेग को बढ़ाता है, तो उसे धनात्मक उत्प्रेरक तथा इस प्रक्रम को धनात्मक उत्प्रेरण कहते हैं।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 31
यहाँ आयरन चूर्ण एक धनात्मक उत्प्रेरक का कार्य करता है।
ऋणात्मक उत्प्रेरण—जब कोई उत्प्रेरक रासायनिक अभिक्रिया की गति को कम कर देता है, तो उसे ऋणात्मक उत्प्रेरक तथा इस प्रक्रम को ऋणात्मक उत्प्रेरण कहते हैं।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 32
फॉस्फोरिक अम्ल यहाँ ऋणात्मक उत्प्रेरक का कार्य करता है।

प्रश्न 14.
पेप्टीकरण की क्रिया को सचित्र समझाइए।
उत्तर
पेप्टीकरण (Peptisation)-इस विधि में जिस पदार्थ का कोलॉइडी विलयन बनाना है उसका ताजा अवक्षेप लेते हैं। इस अवक्षेप में एक अन्य उपयुक्त अभिकर्मक मिलाते हैं जो पेप्टीकारक कहलाता है। यह पेप्टीकारक बहुधा समान आयन (common ion) वाले विद्युत्-अपघट्य का तनु विलयन होता है। पेप्टीकरण स्कन्दन । का विपरीत है। उदाहरण—ऐल्युमिनियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड के कोलॉइडी कण के ताजे अवक्षेप को कुछ तनु HCl मिले जल के साथ उबालने से AI(OH)3 का कोलॉइडी विलयन प्राप्त होता है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 33
जब किसी ताजे अवक्षेपित पदार्थ में विद्युत्-अपघट्य मिलाते हैं तो अवक्षेप के कण विद्युत्-अपघट्य के किसी एक आयन को वर्णात्मक अधिशोषण (preferential adsorption) करके स्थिर विद्युतीय प्रतिकर्षण (electrostatic repulsion) के कारण कोलॉइडी अवस्था में चले जाते हैं । इसे फेरिक हाइड्रॉक्साइड के अवक्षेप में विद्युत्-अपघट्य फेरिक क्लोराइड मिलाने पर प्राप्त फेरिक हाइड्रॉक्साइड सॉल के द्वारा समझा सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 15.
कोलॉइडी कणों पर विद्युतीय आवेश की उत्पत्ति की विवेचना कीजिए।
उत्तर
कोलॉइडी कणों पर विद्युत्-आवेश होता है। किसी कोलॉइडी विलयन में उपस्थित सभी कोलॉइडी कणों पर समान आवेश होता है। प्रतिकर्षण के कारण समान आवेश कणों को परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था में रखता है। कोलॉइडी कणों पर विद्युतीय आवेश की उत्पत्ति निम्नलिखित कारणों से होती है –

  • घर्षण द्वारा आवेश की उत्पत्ति—परिक्षेपण माध्यम और परिक्षिप्त प्रावस्था में परस्पर घर्षण के कारण कणों पर आवेश की उत्पत्ति होती है।
  • सतह के समूहों के आयनीकरण द्वारा–कोलॉइडी कणों पर आवेश पृष्ठ पर उपस्थित समूहों के आयनीकरण से उत्पन्न होता है, ये समूह या तो कोलॉइडी पदार्थों के कण हो सकते हैं अथवा स्कंदन रोकने हेतु मिलाया गया कोई विद्युत्-अपघट्य हो सकता है।
  • वैद्युत् द्विपरत सिद्धान्त (Electric Double Layer Theory)—इस धारणा के अनुसार कोलॉइडी कणों पर आवेश की द्वि-स्तर परत होती है। एक परत अधिशोषित आयनों की होती है और दूसरी परत परिक्षेपण माध्यम में विपरीत आवेश वाले आयनों की होती है जिसे विसरित परत (diffused layer) कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 16.
कारण स्पष्ट कीजिए –
(i) दूध में खटाई डालने पर वह फट जाता है।
(ii) जल को साफ करने के लिए फिटकरी मिलाते हैं।
(iii) जहाँ नदी अपना पानी समुद्र में मिलाती है वहाँ डेल्टा बन जाता है।
उत्तर
(i) दूध वसा का जल में पायस है जिसमें ऐल्ब्यूमिन तथा केसिन पायसीकारक हैं, जब इसमें खटाई मिलाई जाती है तो उसका स्कन्दन हो जाता है और थक्का जम जाता है। इस प्रकार दूध में खटाई डालने पर वह फट जाता है।
(ii) अशुद्ध जल में मिट्टी के कण, बैक्टीरिया तथा अन्य विलेय अशुद्धियाँ रहती हैं। उनमें ऋण आवेश रहता है। अशुद्ध जल को टंकियों में लेकर उसमें फिटकरी मिलाते हैं। फिटकरी में Al3+ आयन अशुद्धि के ऋण आवेश को नष्ट कर देते हैं। इससे अशुद्धियाँ स्कन्दित होकर नीचे बैठ जाती हैं।
(iii) नदियों के जल में मिट्टी तथा रेत के ऋणावेशित कोलॉइडी कण पाये जाते हैं । जब नदी का जल समुद्र में मिलता है तो समुद्र के जल में पाये जाने वाले अनेक लवणों की स्कन्दन क्रिया के फलस्वरूप मिट्टी आदि के कण नदी के मुहाने पर नीचे एकत्रित होते रहते हैं तथा डेल्टा का निर्माण धीरे-धीरे हो जाता है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न.17.
उत्प्रेरकों के पाँच गुणधर्म लिखिए।
उत्तर
उत्प्रेरकों के गुणधर्म –

  • रासायनिक क्रिया के फलस्वरूप उत्प्रेरकों के अन्य मान व रासायनिक संघटन पर कोई प्रभाव नहीं पड़ता केवल भौतिक अवस्था में कुछ परिवर्तन हो सकता है।
  • उत्प्रेरक की रासायनिक अभिक्रिया में सूक्ष्म मात्रा की ही आवश्यकता होती है।
  • उत्प्रेरक किसी अभिक्रिया को प्रारम्भ नहीं करते बल्कि ये अभिक्रिया के वेग को प्रभावित करते हैं।
  • उत्प्रेरक किसी रासायनिक अभिक्रिया के साम्य को प्रभावित नहीं करते क्योंकि ये अग्र व प्रतीप दोनों अभिक्रियाओं को समान ढंग से प्रभावित करते हैं।
  • उत्प्रेरक विशिष्ट स्वभाव युक्त होते हैं। अलग-अलग अभिक्रियाओं के लिये अलग-अलग उत्प्रेरक प्रयुक्त होते हैं । उत्प्रेरक किसी निश्चित अनुकूल ताप पर सर्वाधिक प्रभावी होते हैं । इस ताप से कम तथा अधिक ताप होने पर उत्प्रेरक की क्रियाशीलता प्रभावित होती है।

प्रश्न 18.
रंगीन काँच, धुआँ, दूध, क्रीम, कोहरा, जेली, झाँबा पत्थर, साबुन का झाग, कौन-से कोलॉइडी तन्त्र के उदाहरण हैं, उनके नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 34

प्रश्न 19.
वास्तविक विलयन, कोलॉइडी विलयन एवं निलम्बन में विभेद कीजिए। · उत्तरवास्तविक विलयन (Real Solution), कोलॉइडी विलयन (Colloidal Solution) एवं निलम्बन (Suspension) में विभेद –
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 36

प्रश्न 20.
अधिशोषक के सक्रियण से आप क्या समझते हैं ? यह कैसे प्राप्त किया जाता है ?
उत्तर
अधिशोषक के सक्रियण का अर्थ है, अधिशोषक की अधिशोषण शक्ति को बढ़ाना। यह अधिशोषक के पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल को बढ़ाकर किया जा सकता है जिसे निम्न प्रकार प्राप्त किया जा सकता है –

  • अधिशोषित गैसों को हटाकर अर्थात् लकड़ी के चारकोल को निर्वात में या अति उच्च तापीय भाप में 650 K से 1330 K ताप के मध्य गर्म करके सक्रिय किया जा सकता है।
  • अधिशोषक को छोटे टुकड़ों में तोड़कर।
  • अधिशोषक के पृष्ठ को रफ (ऊबड़-खाबड़) बनाकर।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 21.
विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण में, अधिशोषक की क्या भूमिका है ?
उत्तर
सामान्यतः विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण में, अभिक्रियक गैसीय जबकि उत्प्रेरक ठोस अवस्था में होते हैं। अभिक्रियक अणुओं का ठोस उत्प्रेरक के पृष्ठ पर भौतिक या रासायनिक अधिशोषण द्वारा अधिशोषित हो जाता है। अभिक्रियत अणुओं की सान्द्रता बढ़ने से या ठोस उत्प्रेरक के पृष्ठ पर अभिक्रियक अणुओं के टूटकर स्पीशीज बनने से जोकि तीव्रता से अभिक्रिया करती है, अभिक्रिया की गति बढ़ जाती है। उत्पाद अणुओं का विशोषण हो जाता है और अब उत्प्रेरक सतह दोबारा अधिक अभिक्रियक अणुओं को अधिशोषित करने के लिए उपलब्ध हो जाती है। यह सिद्धान्त विषमांगी उत्प्रेरण का अधिशोषण कहलाता है।

पृष्ठ रसायन दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणियाँ लिखिए – (i) ब्राउनी गति, (ii) स्व-उत्प्रेरण।
उत्तर
(i) ब्राउनी गति (Brownian Movement)-कोलॉइडी विलयन का सूक्ष्मदर्शी से निरीक्षण करने पर ज्ञात होता है कि कोलॉइडी कण सदैव टेढ़े-मेढ़े (Zig-Zag) तरीके से सभी दिशाओं में गति करते रहते हैं। इस प्रकार की गति को सबसे पहले रॉबर्ट ब्राउन ने सन् 1827 में देखा था इसलिए इसे ब्राउनी गति कहते . हैं। इस गति का प्रयोग किसी अँधेरे कमरे में एक छिद्र द्वारा प्रकाश की किरणों को देखने से भी किया जा सकता है। धूल के कण वायु में इधर-उधर घूमते हुए दिखाई पड़ते हैं। वीनर (Weiner) के अनुसार वह गति कोलॉइडी कण के परिक्षेपण माध्यम के अणुओं के साथ असमान रूप से टकराने से उत्पन्न होती है। जैसे-जैसे कणों का आकार बढ़ता जाता है यह गति कम होती जाती है और निलम्बन में पूर्णतः समाप्त हो जाती है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 37

(ii) स्व-उत्प्रेरण (Autocatalysis)-जब क्रिया से उत्पन्न पदार्थों में से कोई पदार्थ उत्प्रेरक का कार्य करने लगता है तो वह स्व-उत्प्रेरक कहलाता है तथा अभिक्रिया को स्व-उत्प्रेरण कहते हैं।
उदाहरण-एथिल ऐसीटेट के जल-अपघटन से ऐसीटिक अम्ल बनता है, जो स्व-उत्प्रेरक का कार्य करता है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 38

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 2.
द्रव-स्नेही और द्रव-विरोधी कोलॉइड में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
द्रव-स्नेही (Lyophillic) व द्रव-विरोधी (Lyophobic) कोलॉइड में अन्तर –
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 39

प्रश्न 3.
हार्डी-शूल्जे का नियम क्या है ?
उत्तर
हार्डी-शूल्जे का नियम-धन आवेश वाले कोलॉइड कण जैसे कोलॉइड Fe(OH), का स्कन्दन SO2-4,PO3-4 आदि आयनों से तथा As2S3 जैसे ऋणावेश वाले कोलॉइड Ba2+, Al3+ आदि आयनों द्वारा स्कन्दित होते हैं। विभिन्न आयनों की स्कन्दन क्षमता हार्डी शूल्जे नियम द्वारा प्रतिपादित की गई है जिसके अनुसार, “किसी आयन की स्कन्दन शक्ति उसकी संयोजकता पर निर्भर है, जितनी अधिक संयोजकता होगी उतनी ही अधिक स्कन्दन शक्ति होगी।”
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 40

प्रश्न 4.
उत्प्रेरक के माध्यमिक यौगिक सिद्धान्त को उदाहरण देकर समझाइए।
उत्तर
माध्यमिक यौगिक सिद्धान्त इस सिद्धान्त के अनुसार उत्प्रेरक किसी एक अभिकारक के साथ संयोग करके एक माध्यमिक यौगिक बनाता है। माध्यमिक यौगिक फिर दूसरे अभिकारक के साथ क्रिया करके अभीष्ट यौगिक बनाता है तथा उत्प्रेरक मुक्त हो जाता है जो उपर्युक्त अनुसार पुनः कार्य करता है। यदि पदार्थ A व B संयोग करके यौगिक AB बनाते हैं तब प्रयुक्त उत्प्रेरक X का कार्य इस सिद्धान्त के अनुसार निम्न प्रकार से समझाया जा सकता है –
A + X → AX माध्यमिक यौगिक
AX + B → AB + X
इस प्रकार मुक्त हुआ उत्प्रेरक बार-बार क्रिया में भाग लेता रहता है। अभिक्रिया में लगा समय, A व B के मध्य सीधी अभिक्रिया में लगने वाले समय से कम होगा।
उदाहरण-सीस-कक्ष विधि द्वारा सल्फ्यूरिक अम्ल (H2SO4) के निर्माण में नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड (NO) उत्प्रेरक का कार्य करता है। यह पहले ऑक्सीजन से संयोग करके NO2 (नाइट्रोजन परॉक्साइड) (माध्यमिक यौगिक) बनाता है। NO2 फिर सल्फर डाइ-ऑक्साइड (SO2) से क्रिया करके SO3 (सल्फर ट्राइ-ऑक्साइड) बनाता है तथा उत्प्रेरक NO मुक्त हो जाता है, जो अभिक्रिया को श्रृंखला के रूप में बढ़ाता रहता है।
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 41

प्रश्न 5.
एन्जाइम उत्प्रेरक व सामान्य उत्प्रेरक में कोई पाँच अन्तर लिखिए।
उत्तर
एन्जाइम उत्प्रेरक और सामान्य उत्प्रेरक में अन्तर-
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 पृष्ठ रसायन - 42

प्रश्न 6.
अधिशोषण क्या है ? इसे प्रभावित करने वाले कारकों का वर्णन कीजिए।
अथवा
(a) ठोसों के द्वारा गैसों की अधिशोषण की मात्रा किन कारकों पर निर्भर करती है ? (छः कारक)
(b) अधिशोषण के पाँच अनुप्रयोग लिखिए।
उत्तर
जब किसी पदार्थ (गैस या द्रव) की किसी ठोस की सतह पर संलग्न सान्द्रता उसके स्थूल (Bulk) में उपस्थित सान्द्रता की अपेक्षा अधिक होती है तब इस घटना को अधिशोषण (Adsorption) कहते हैं। यह एक पृष्ठ घटना है जो कि किसी ठोस की सतह पर असन्तुलित बलों की उपस्थिति के कारण होती है।
(a) किसी गैस का ठोस पर अधिशोषण निम्नलिखित कारकों पर निर्भर करती है –
1. अधिशोषक की प्रकृति-कठोर तथा रन्ध्रहीन (Non-porous) पदार्थों की तुलना में रन्ध्रयुक्त (Porous) तथा महीन चूर्ण के रूप में ठोस पदार्थ जैसे चारकोल आदि में अधिशोषण अधिक होता है। इसी गुण के कारण गैस मॉस्क में चारकोल पाउडर का उपयोग होता है। इसका कारण है, रन्ध्रयुक्त या चूर्ण रूप में होने पर ठोस का पृष्ठ क्षेत्रफल बहुत अधिक बढ़ जाता है।

2. ठोस अधिशोष्य के पृष्ठ का क्षेत्रफल-अधिशोषण का कम या अधिक होना अधिशोष्य के पृष्ठ के क्षेत्रफल पर निर्भर करता है। अधिशोष्य के पृष्ठ का क्षेत्रफल जितना अधिक होगा, अधिशोषण उतना ही अधिक होगा। सूक्ष्म वितरित (Finely divided) ठोस में अधिक अधिशोषण होने का यही कारण है।

3. अधिशोष्य गैस का दाब-साम्यावस्था पर अधिशोषक पर अधिशोष्य गैस के दाब का मान बढ़ाने से अधिशोषण बढ़ जाता है। कम ताप पर गैस में वृद्धि करने से अधिशोषण की मात्रा तेजी से बढ़ती है, किन्तु उच्च दाब पर अधिशोषण एक अधिकतम मान प्राप्त कर लेता है।
4. ताप (Temperature)—अधिशोषण एक ऊष्माक्षेपी प्रक्रम है। अतः लीशातेलिए सिद्धान्त से, ताप बढ़ाने पर अधिशोषण कम हो जाता है।
5.अधिशोषक का सक्रियण-यह किसी अधिशोषक की अधिशोषण शक्ति को बढ़ाने की विधि है, जैसे-अधिशोषक को यान्त्रिक विधियों द्वारा खुरदुरा बनाया जाता है या अधिशोषक को दानेदार बनाकर पृष्ठ क्षेत्रफल में वृद्धि की जाती है।
6.गैस की प्रकृति-अधिशोषक अधिशोषण की प्रवृत्ति वाले गैसों की प्रकृति पर निर्भर करती है। H2, O2, N2, की तुलना में CO2, NH3, Cl2 आदि का अधिशोषण अधिक होता है। .

(b) हमारे दैनिक जीवन में अधिशोषण के अनेक उपयोग हैं, उनमें से कुछ निम्नलिखित हैं –

  • गैस मॉस्क में-विषैली गैसें, जैसे-CO, CH4 आदि को दूर करने के लिए गैस मॉस्क में सक्रियित चारकोल प्रयुक्त होता है, जो वायुमण्डल में उपस्थित विषैली गैसों को अधिशोषित कर लेते हैं। ..
  • चीनी के निर्माण में-चीनी के निर्माण में जन्तु चारकोल का प्रयोग, इसे रंगहीन करने में करते हैं।
  • नमी दूर करने में-सिलिका जेल का उपयोग नमी को दूर करने में किया जाता है।
  • क्रोमैटोग्राफी में-क्रोमैटोग्राफी द्वारा यौगिकों का शुद्धिकरण भी अधिशोषण सिद्धान्त पर आधारित
  • उत्प्रेरण में-विषमांग उत्प्रेरक प्रक्रिया में अधिशोषण प्रक्रम की महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका होती है।

MP Board Solutions

प्रश्न 7.
कोलॉइड रसायन के कोई पाँच अनुप्रयोग लिखिए। उत्तर-कोलॉइड रसायन के पाँच अनुप्रयोग निम्नलिखित हैं

  • औषधियों में अनेक औषधियों का उपयोग कोलॉइड के रूप में ही होता है, क्योंकि कोलॉइड अवस्था में होने के कारण शरीर द्वारा इनका शोषण एवं पाचन आसानी से हो जाता है। जैसे-कोलॉइडी गोल्ड तथा कैल्सियम बल वर्धक औषधियों के रूप में काम आता है।
  • जल को शुद्ध करना-अशुद्ध जल में धूल, मिट्टी के कण, बैक्टीरिया आदि की अशुद्धियाँ कोलॉइडी रूप में रहती है और इन अशुद्धियों पर ऋण आवेश होता है। जब इस जल में फिटकरी डालते हैं तो उससे AI+ आयन इस ऋणावेशित कणों आदि की अशुद्धियों को उदासीन कर देते हैं तथा अवक्षेप के रूप में नीचे बैठ जाते हैं और शुद्ध जल को निकालकर पृथक् कर लेते हैं।
  • नदियों के डेल्टा बनाने में-नदी के जल में मिट्टी के कण कोलॉइडी अवस्था में होते हैं जिन पर ऋण आवेश होता है। जब नदी समुद्र में गिरती है तो उसमें उपस्थित विद्युत्-अपघट्य इन ऋणावेशित मिट्टी के कणों का स्कन्दन कर देते हैं जो डेल्टा के रूप में बन जाता है।
  • चमड़ा उद्योग में-चमड़े में प्रोटीन कोलॉइडी अवस्था में रहता है। इन कणों पर धनावेश होता है। पेड़ों की छाल से प्राप्त ऋणावेशित टेनिन का कोलॉइडी विलयन चमड़े पर डाले जाते हैं जिससे वे परस्पर स्कंदित हो जाते हैं और चमड़ा कड़ा हो जाता है और सड़ने नहीं पाता।।
  • साबुन की क्रिया में-साबुन पानी के साथ कोलॉइडी विलयन देता है। कोलॉइडी विलयन का गुण अधिशोषण करने का होता है। कपड़ों में उपस्थित धूल के कणों का कोलॉइडी साबुन द्वारा उसकी सतह पर अधिशोषण हो जाता है और सतह से ये धूल के कण पानी द्वारा धोने पर दूर हो जाते हैं।

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Write the structures of the following compounds:
(i) a-Methoxypropionaldehyde
(ii) 3-HydroxybutanaI
(iii) 2-Hydroxycyclopentane carbaldehyde
(iv) 4-Oxopentanal
(v) Di -sec. butyl ketone
(vi) 4-Fluoroacetophenone.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 1
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 2

Question 2.
Write the structures of products of the following reactions :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 3
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids 4

MP Board Solutions

Question 3.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:
CH3CHO,CH3CH2OH, CH3OCH3, CH3CH2CH3.
Answer:
CH3CH2CH3 < CH3OCH3 < CH3CHO < CH3CH2OH
The molecular masses of all these compounds are comparable.
CH3CHO(44), CH3CH2OH (46), CH3COCH3(46), CH3CH2CH3(44)

  • (i) CH3CH2OH has intermolecular hydrogen bonding and has the highest boiling point (351 K).
  • (ii) CH3CHO is more polar than CH3OCH3 and hence there are strong dipole-dipole interactions and hence the boiling point of CH3CHO (293 K) is higher than CH3OCH3 (249 K).
  • (iii) CH3CH2CH3 has only very weak van der Waal’s forces while CH3OCH3 has strong dipole-dipole interactions. Thus the boiling point of CH3OCH3 (249 K) is higher than CH3CH2CH3 (231K)

Question 4.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic addition reactions :
(i) Ethanal, Propanal, Propanone, Butanone.
(ii) Benzaldehyde, p-Tolualdehyde, p-Nitrobenzaldehyde, Acetophenone.
Hint: Consider steric effect and electronic effect.
Answer:
(i) Butanone < Propanone < Propanal < Ethanal.
This order is predicted on the basis of two factors: (a) + I effect (Electron releasing effect) and (b) Steric effect.

(ii) Acetophenone < p-tolualdehyde < Benzaldehyde < p-nitrobenzaldehyde.
This order is predicted on the basis of inductive, resonance, and hyperconjugation effects.

Question 5.
Predict the products of the following reactions:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 5
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 6

Question 6.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 7
Answer:
(i) 3-Phenylpropanoic acid
(ii) 3-Methylbut-2-en-l-oic acid
(iii) 2-Methylcyclopentanecarboxylic acid
(iv) 2,4,6-Trinitrobenzoic acid or 2,4,6-Trinitrobenzenecarboxylic acid.

MP Board Solutions

Question 7.
Show how each of the following compounds can be converted to benzoic acid:
(i) Ethylbenzene
(ii) Acetophenone
(iii) Bromobenzene and
(iv) Phenylethene (Styrene).
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 8

Question 8.
Which acid of each pair shown here would you expect to be stronger?
(i) CH3CO2H or CH2FCO2H
(ii) CH2FCO2H or CH2ClCO2H
(iii) CH2FCH2CH2CO2H or CH3CHFCH2CO2H
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 9
Answer:
(i) CH2FCO2H (Electron withdrawing F increases acidity)
(ii) CH2FCOOH (F has more electron-withdrawing power than Cl due to high electronegativity)
(iii) CH3CHFCH2COOH (AS the electron-withdrawing group is away from – COOH group, acidic character decreases.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 10

MP Board Solutions

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
What is meant by the following terms ? Give an example of the reaction in each case:
(i) Cyanohydrin
(ii) Acetal
(iii) Semicarbazone
(iv) Aldol
(v) Hemiacetal
(vi) Oxime
(vii) Ketal
(vii) Imine
(ix) 2,4-DNP-derivative
(x) Schiff’s base.
Answer:
(i) Cyanohydrin: Cyanohydrins are organic compounds having the formula RR’C(OH)CN, where R and R’ can be alkyl or aryl groups.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 11
Aldehydes and ketones react with hydrogen cyanide (HCN) in the presence of excess sodium cyanide (NaCN) as a catalyst to field cyanohydrin. These reactions are known as cyanohydrin reactions.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 12
Cyanohydrins are useful synthetic intermediates.

(ii) Acetal: Acetals are gem-dialkoxy alkanes two alkoxy groups are present on the terminal carbon atom. One bond is connected to an alky l General structure group while the other is connected to a hydrogen atom.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 13
When aldehydes are treated with two equivalents of a monohydric alcohol in the presence of dry HCl gas, hemiacetals are produced that further react with one more molecule of alcohol to yield acetal.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 14

(iii) Semicarbazone : Semicarbazones are derivatives of aldehydes and ketones pro¬duced by the condensation reaction between a ketone or aldehyde and semicarbazide.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 15
Semicabazones are useful for identification and characterisation of aldehydes and ktones.

(iv) Aldol condensation : Two same or different molecules of carbonyl compounds containing a-hydrogen atom in presence of dilute alkali like NaOH, Ba(OH)2, combined to form an addition compound which exhibits properties of aldehyde and ketone both. This reaction is called aldol condensation.

For example, in presence of dilute alkali NaOH or potassium carbonate, two molecules of acetaldehyde condensed and form β-hydroxybutanaldehyde or ‘aldol’.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 16

(v) Hemiacetal: Hemiacetals are a-alkoxyalcohols.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 17
Aldehyde reacts with one molecule of a monohydric alcohol in the presence of dry HCl gas.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 18

(vi) Oxime: Oximes are a class of organic compounds having the general formula RR’CNOH, where R is an organic side chain and R’ is either hydrogen or an organic side chain, If R’ is H, then it is known as aldoxime and if R’ is an organic side chain, it is known as ketoxime.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 19

On treatment with hydroxylamine in a weakly acidic medium, aldehydes or ketones formaximes.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 20

(vii) Ketal: Ketals are gem-dialkoxyalkanes in which two alkoxy groups are present on the same carbon atom within the chain. The other two bonds of the carbon atom are connected to two alkyl groups.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 21
Ketones react with ethylene glycol in the presence of dry HCl gas to give a cyclic product known as ethylene glycol ketals.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 22

(viii) Inline : Imines are chemical compounds containing a carbon nitrogen double bond.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 23
Imines are produced when aldehydes and ketones react with ammonia and its derivatives.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 24

(ix) 2,4-DNP-derivative: 2,4-dinitrophenyIhydrazones are 2,4- DNP- derivatives, which are produced when aldehydes or ketones react with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine in a weakly acidic medium.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 25
To identify and characterize aldehydes and ketones, 2,4-DNP derivatives are used.

(x) Schiff’s base : SchifFs base (or azomethine) is a chemical compound containing a carbon-nitrogen double bond with the nitrogen atom connected to an aryl or alkyl group but not hydrogen. They have the general formul R1R2C = NR3. Hence, it is an imine. It is named after a scientist, Hugo Schiff.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 26
Aldehydes and ketones on treatment with primary aliphatic or aromatic amines in the presence of trace of an acid yields a Schiff’s base.

Question 2.
Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system of nomenclature :

  1. CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CHO
  2. CH3CH2COCH(C2H5)CH2Cl
  3. CH3CH=CHCHO
  4. CH3COCH2COCH3
  5. CH3CH(CH3)CH2C(CH3)2COCH3
  6. (CH3)3CCH2COOH
  7. OHCC6H4CHO-p.

Answer:

  1. 4-Methylpentanal
  2. 6-Chloro-4-ethylhexan-3-one
  3. But-2-en-l-al
  4. Pentan-2, 4-dione
  5. 3,3,5-Trimethylhexan-2-one
  6. 3,3-Dimethylbutanoic acid
  7. Benzene-1,4-dicarbaldehyde.

Question 3.
Draw the structures of the following compounds :
(i) 3-MethylbutanaI
(ii) p-Nitropropiophenone
(iii) p-Methylbenzaldehyde
(iv) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
(v) 4-Chloropentan-2-one
(vi) 3-Bromo-4-phenylpentanoic acid
(vii) p, p’-Dihydroxybenzophenone
(viii) Hex-2-en-4-ynoic acid.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 27
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 28
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 29

Question 4.
Write the IUPAC names of the following ketones and aldehydes. Wherever possible, give also common names :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 30
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 31

MP Board Solutions

Question 5.
Draw structures of the following derivatives :
(i) The 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of benzaldehyde
(ii) Cyclopropanone oxime
(iii) Acetaldehydedimethylacetal
(iv) The semicarbazone of cyclobutanone
(v) The ethylene ketal of hexan-3-one
(vi) The methyl hemiacetal of formaldehyde.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 32

Question 6.
Predict the products formed when cyclohexanecarbaldehyde reacts with following reagents:
(i) PhMgBr and then H3O+
(ii)Toilens’ reagent
(iii) Semicarbazide and weak acid
(iv) Excess ethanol and acid
(v) Zinc amalgam and dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 33
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 34

Question 7.
Which of the following compounds would undergo aldol condensation, which the Cannizzaro reaction and which neither ? Write the structures of the expected products of aldol condensation and Cannizzaro reaction :
(i) Methanal
(ii) 2-MethyIpentanal
(iii) Benzaldehyde
(iv) Benzophenone
(v) Cyclohexanone
(vi) 1-Phenylpropanone
(vii) Phenylacetaldehyde
(viii) Butan-l-ol
(ix) 2,2-DimethylbutanaI.
Answer:
(A) (ii) 2-methylpentanal, (v) Cyclohexanone, (vi) 1-phenylpropanone and (vii) Phenylacetaldehyde have one or more a-hydrogen atoms and hence undergo aldol condensation.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 35
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 36
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 37

(B) (i) Methanal, (iii) Benzaldehyde and (ix) 2,2-Dimethylbutanal do not contain a- hydrogen and hence undergo Cannizzaro’s reaction.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 38

(C) (iv) Benzophenone is a ketone having no a-H.
(viii) Butan-l-ol is an alcohol.
Both of these neither undergo aldol Condensation nor Cannizzaro reaction.

Question 8.
How will you convert ethanal into the following compounds :
(i) Butane-1,3-diol
(ii) But-2-enal
(iii) But-2-enoic acid.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 39
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 40

Question 9.
Write structural formulae and names of four possible aldol condensation products from propanal and butanal. In each case, indicate which aldehyde acts as nucleophile and which as electrophile.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 41
Butanal acts both as electrophile as well as nucleophile.

Question 10.
An organic compound with the molecular formula C9H10O forms 2, 4- DNP derivative, reduces Tollens’ reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vig-orous oxidation, it gives 1,2-benzene-dicarboxylic acid. Identify the compound.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 42

MP Board Solutions

Question 11.
An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C8H16O2) was hydrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with chromic acid produced (B). (C) on dehydration gives but-1- ene. Write equations for the reactions involved.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 43

Question 12.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated :
(i) Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Di-tert-butyl ketone, Methyl terf-butyl ketone (reactivity towards HCN)
(ii) CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH, CH3CH(Br) CH2COOH, (CH3)2CHCOOH, CH3CH2-CH2COOH (acid strength)
(iii) Benzoic acid,’4-Nitrobenzoic acid, 3,4 Dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-Methoxybenzoic acid (acid strength).
Answer:
1. Aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic addition. In this case more the (ie. addition of HCN) +1 effect of the R-group and more the steric hindrace, lesser is the reactivity therefore, their increasing order of reactivity is
Di – tert – butyl ketone < Methyl tert butyl ketone < Acetone < Acetaldehyde.

2. In carboxylic acids +1 effect of R group decreases and -I effect of halogen increases the acidic character. Further, the nearer the halogen atom to the carboxylic acid group, the stronger is its -I effect. Therefore, the increasing order of acid strength is
(CH3)2CH-COOH < CH3-CH2– CH2– COOH < CH3– CH (Br) CH2COOH < CH3CH2-CH(Br) COOH

3. In benzoic acid and its derivatives, the electron-withdrawing group attached to ring increases its acidic strength while electron releasing group decreases the acidic strength. The effect is more pronounced if such a group is present at p-position.

Nitro group is electron-withdrawing (‘R effect) while methoxy group in an electron releasing. Therefore increasing order of acid strength is 4 methoxy benzoic acid < Benzoic acid < 4 – Nitrobenzoic acid < 3,4- Dinitro benzoic acid.

Question 13.
Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(i) Propanal and Propanone
(ii) Acetophenone and Benzophenone
(iii) Phenol and Benzoic acid
(iv) Benzoic acid and Ethyl benzoate
(v) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
(vi) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone
(vii) Ethanal and Propanal.
Answer:
(i) Add Tollens’ reagent. Propanal will form silver mirror on heating, propanone will not react.
Alternative method : Add I2 and NaOH propanone will give yellow ppt. due to iodoform whereas propanal will not react.

(ii) Add I2 and NaOH. Acetophenone will give yellow ppt. of CHI3 whereas benzophenone will not give.

(iii) Add neutral FeCl3 to each of them separately. Phenol will give violet colour whereas benzoic acid will not react.
Alternative method : Add NaHCO3 to each of them in aqueous solution. Benzoic acid will give brisk effervescence of CO2 while phenol will not react.

(iv) Add NaHCO3 solution to each of them. Benzoic acid will give brisk effervescence due to CO2 whereas ethylbenzoate does not react.

(v) Add I2 and NaOH each of them separately. Pentan-2-one will give yellow ppt. of CHI3. Pen-tan-3-one will not.

(vi) Add Tollens’ reagent. Benzaldehyde will give silver mirror on heating, Acetophenone will not react.

(vii) Add I2 and NaOH. Ethanal will give yellow precipitate of iodoform, whereas propanal does not.

Question 14.
How will you prepare the following compounds from benzene ? You may use any inorganic reagent and any organic reagent having not more than one carbon atom:
(i) Methyl benzoate
(ii) m-Nitrobenzoic acid
(iii) p-Nitrobenzoic acid
(iv) Phenylacetic acid
(v) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 44
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 45

Question 15.
How will you bring about the following conversions in not more than two steps :
(i) Propanone to Propene
(ii) Benzoic acid to Benzaldehyde
(iii) Ethanol to 3-HydroxybutanaI
(iv) Benzene to m-Nitroacetophenone
(v) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone
(vi) Bromobenzene to l-Phenylethanol
(vii) Benzaldehyde to 3-Phenylpropan-l-ol
(viii) Benazaldehyde to a-Hydroxy-phenylacetic acid
(ix) Benzoic acid to m-Nitrobenzyl alcohol.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 46
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 47
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 48

Question 16.
Describe the following :
(i) Acetylation
(ii) Cannizzaro
(iii) Cross-aldol condensation
(iv) Decarboxylation
Answer:
(i) Acetylation: The introduction of an acetyl functional group into an organic r compound is known as acetylation. It is usually carried out in the presence of a base such as pyridine, dimethylaniline, etc. This process involves the substitution of an acetyl group for an active hydrogen atom. Ecetyl chloride and acetic anhydride are commonly used as acetylating agents.

For example, acetylation of ethanol produces ethyl acetate.
CH3CH2OH + CH3COCI → CH3COOC2H5 + HCl

(ii) Cannizzaro reaction: Aldehydes which do not contain a-hydrogen like HCHO, C6H5CHO react with cone. NaOH solution to form methyl alcohol and formic acid. This reaction is called the Cannizzaro reaction.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 49

(iii) Cross-aldol condensation: When aldol condensation is carried out between different aldehydes or two different ketones or an aldehyde and a ketone, then the reaction is called a cross-aldol condensation. If both the reactants contain cr-hydrogens, four compounds are obtained as products.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 50

(iv) Decarboxylation : Decarboxylation refers to the reaction in which carboxylic acids lose carbon dioxide to form hydrocarbons when their sodium salts are heated with soda-lime.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 51
Decarboxylation also takes place when aqueous solutions of alkali metal salts of carboxylic acids are electrolysed. This electrolytic process is known as Kolbe’s electrolysis.

Question 17.
Complete each synthesis by giving missing starting material, reagent or products:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 52
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 53
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 54
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 55
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 56

Question 18.
Give plausible explanation for each of the following:
(i) Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethyIcycIohexa- none does not.
(ii) There are two-NH2 groups in semicarbazide. However, only one is involved in the formation of semicarbazones.
(iii) During the preparation of esters from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst, the water or the ester should be removed as soon as it is formed.
Answer:
(i) In 2, 2, 6- trimethylcyclohexanone, there is steric hindrance of three methyl groups, therefore, it does not form cyanohydrin in good yield as compared to cyclohexanone which does not have steric hindrance.

(ii) The lone pair of electron on NH2 attached to carbonyl group is involved in resonance and hence not available for donation.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 57

(iii) It is done so that ester formed does not get hydrolysed.

Question 19.
An organic compound contains 69-77% carbon, 11-63% hydrogen and rest oxygen. The molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent but forms an addition compound with sodium hydrogensulphite and give a positive iodoform test. On vigorous oxidation, it gives ethanoic and propanoic acid. Write the possible structure of the compound.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 58
It does not react with Tollens’ reagent, therefore it is not an aldehyde.
It forms additional compound with NaHSO3, therefore it is a Ketone.
It gives Iodoform test therefore it is a methyl ketone.
On the basis of the above the possible structure of the compound is:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 59
On vigorous oxidation it gives ethanoic acid and propanoic acid, therefore the com¬pound is pen-tan-2-one and not 3-methylbutan-2-one.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 60

Question 20.
Although phenoxide ion has more resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why?
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 61
In carboxylate ion negative charge is delocalised over two oxygen atoms which are highly electronegative whereas in phenoxide ion negative charge is delocalised over only one oxygen atom. Carboxylate ion is more stable than phenoxide ion that is why carboxylic acid is more acidic than phenols.

MP Board Solutions

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Other Important Questions And Answers

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Objective Type Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The formation of cyanohydrin by Ketone is an example of:
(a) Electrophilic addition
(b) Nucleophilic addition
(c) Nucleophilic substitution
(d) Electrophilic substitution.
Answer:
(b) Nucleophilic addition

Question 2.
Which of the following reaction gives Cannizzaro reaction with cone, alkali solution :
(a) Benzaldehyde
(b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Propanaldehyde
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) Benzaldehyde

Question 3.
Aldehydes and Ketones react with which of the following to form oxime :
(a) NH3
(b) NH2-NH2
(c) NH2OH
(d) NH2CONH.NH2.
Answer:
(c) NH2OH

Question 4.
Aromatic aldehyde react with primary amines to give :
(a) Urea
(b) Amide
(c) SchifFs base
(d) Oxime.
Answer:
(c) SchifFs base

Question 5.
The reaction of acetaldehyde in basic medium is :
(a) Benzoin condensation
(b) Aldol condensation
(c) Polymerisation
(d) Cannizzaro reaction.
Answer:
(b) Aldol condensation

Question 6.
Which of the following does not give a yellow precipitate with I2 and NaOH :
(a) C2H5OH
(b) CH3CHO
(c) CH3—CO—CH3
(d) HCHO.
Answer:
(d) HCHO.

Question 7.
IUPAC name of the compound of formula Cl3—C—CH2—CHO is :
(a) 3,3,3 trichloropropanol
(b) 1,1,1 trichloropropanol
(c) 2,2,2 trichloropropanol
(d) Chloral.
Answer:
(a) 3,3,3 trichloropropanol

Question 8.
The following precipitate is obtained by the reaction of Fehling solution with ethanol:
(a) Cu
(b) CHO
(c) Cu2O
(d) Cu2O + Cu2O3.
Answer:
(c) Cu2O

Question 9.
Reduction of Aldehydes and Ketones to hydrocarbon occur in the presence of:
(a) Zn/Hg and HCl
(b) Pd/BaSO4
(c) Anhydrous AlCl3
(d) Ni/Pt.
Answer:
(a) Zn/Hg and HCl

Question 10.
Which of the following compound produce white precipitate with HgCl2 :
(a) HCOOH
(b) CH3COOH
(c) C2H5COOH
(d) C3H7COOH.
Answer:
(a) HCOOH

Question 11.
Formic acid :
(a) Is immiscible with water
(b) Reduces ammoniacal silver nitrate
(c) Is three and half times weaker acid than acetic acid
(d) Is obtained on heating KOH.
Answer:
(b) Reduces ammoniacal silver nitrate

Question 12.
Correct order of Acidic strength is :
(a) CH3COOH > CH2ClCOOH > CHCl2—COOH
(b) CHCl2—COOH > CH2ClCOOH > CH3—COOH
(c) CHCl2—COOH > CH3—COOH >CH2ClCOOH
(d) CH2—ClCOOH > CH3 — COOH > CHCl2—COOH.
Answer:
(b) CHCl2—COOH > CH2ClCOOH > CH3—COOH

Question 13.
Benzaldehyde on heating with alcoholic KCN gives :
(a) Benzoin
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Sodium Benzoate
(d) Cinnamic acid.
Answer:
(a) Benzoin

Question 14.
Which of the following does not give silver mirror with ammoniacal AgNO3 :
(a) HCHO
(b) CH3—CHO
(c) CH3—COOH
(d) HCOOH.
Answer:
(c) CH3—COOH

Question 15.
The reagent compound which easily reacts with both acetaldehyde and ace-tone is: ,
(a) Fehling solution
(b) Grignard reagent
(c) Schiff’s reagent
(d) Tollen’s reagent.
Answer:
(b) Grignard reagent

Question 16.
Methyl Ketone is identified by :
(a) Tollen’s reagent
(b) Iodoform test
(c) SchifFs test
(d) Benedict solution.
Answer:
(b) Iodoform test

Question 17.
By Which reagent can Aldehyde and Ketone be differentiated :
(a) Fehling solution
(b) H2SO4 solution
(c) NaHSO3 solution
(d) NH3.
Answer:
(a) Fehling solution

Question 18.
Which compound will give Cannizzaro reaction :
(a) Propionaldehyde
(b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Bromobenzene
(d) Acetaldehyde.
Answer:
(b) Benzaldehyde

Question 19.
Tollen’s reagent is :
(a) Ammonical cuprous chloride
(b) Ammonical cuprous oxide
(c) Ammonical silver bromide
(d) Ammonical silver nitrate.
Answer:
(d) Ammonical silver nitrate.

Question 20.
By the reaction of Formaldehyde with KOH methanol and Potassium formate is formed. This reaction is known as :
(a) Perkin reaction
(b) Claisen reaction
(c) Cannizzaro reaction
(d) Knovengel reaction.
Answer:
(c) Cannizzaro reaction

MP Board Solutions

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

  1. By the electrolysis of Potassium acetate …………………. is obtained.
  2. Mixture of Zinc-amalgam and cone, hydrochloric acid is called ………………….
  3. Bakelite is a polymer of phenol and ………………….
  4. Benzaldehyde is also known as ………………….
  5. Ketones do not …………………. Tollen’s reagent.
  6. 40% aqueous solution of formic acid is called ………………….
  7. Aldehyde give …………………. precipitate with Fehling solution.
  8. On heating acetic acid with phosphorous pentaoxide …………………. is formed.
  9. Paraldehyde is used as a …………………. medicine.
  10. In Rosenmund’s reduction BaSO4, acts as a …………………. for Pd and controls the reduction of aldehyde to ………………….
  11. Oxidation of Toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is known as ………………….
  12. By the reduction of Acid chloride by Pd/BaSO4 …………………. compound is formed.
  13. By the reaction of aldehyde containing a-hydrogen with dilute NaOH …………………. is formed.
  14. …………………. is obtained by the dry distillation of calcium acetate.

Answer:

  1. Ethane
  2. Clemmensen reduction
  3. HCHO
  4. Oil of bitter almond
  5. Reduce
  6. Formalin
  7. Red
  8. Acetic anhydride
  9. Hypnotic
  10. Poison, alcohol
  11. Etard reaction
  12. Aldehyde
  13. Aldol
  14. Acetone.

Question 3.
Match the following :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 62
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 63
Answer:

  1. (e)
  2. (a)
  3. (c)
  4. (b)
  5. (d)

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 64
Answer:

  1. (c)
  2. (d)
  3. (e)
  4. (b)
  5. (a)

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 65
Answer:

  1. (e)
  2. (c)
  3. (a)
  4. (b)
  5. (d).

Question 4.
Write answer in one word/sentence :

  1. SchifFs reagent gives which colour with Benzaldehyde.
  2. Write IUPAC name of glacial acetic acid.
  3. Sodium potassium tartarate associated with alkaline copper sulphate solution is known as.
  4. Why do carboxylic acids occur as cyclic dimer ?
  5. Which compound is obtained on heating aromatic aldehyde with acid anhydride in the presence sodium carboxylate ?
  6. Write the name of the condensation reaction of KCN in benzaldehyde.
  7. Which gas is obtained by the dehydration of formic acid ?
  8. Name the reagent which can convert an acid to ester without the use of alcohol.

Answer:

  1. Pink
  2. Ethanoic acid
  3. Fehling solution
  4. Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding
  5. Un-saturated aromatic carboxylic acid (Cinnamic acid)
  6. Benzoin condensation
  7. Carbon monoxide
  8. CH2N2.

MP Board Solutions

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(i) Arrange the following acids in the order of increasing acidic strength :
HCOOH, CH3—COOH,C6H5COOH
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 66
(iii) Arrange in the increasing order of reactivity :
HCHO,CH3CHO and CH3COCH3
Answer:
(i) Increasing order of acidic strength :
CH3COOH < C6H5COOH < HCOOH

(ii) IUPAC name — 2 methyl propanal
Common name — Iso propyl aldehyde

(iii) Increasing order of reactivity :
CH3COCH3 < CH3CHO < HCHO.

Question 2.
(i) What is Hell- Volhard- Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction ?
(ii) What happens when formic acid is heated ?
Answer:
(i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction: When carboxylic acid is treated with Cl2 or Br2 in presence of phosphorus, α- halogenated carboxylic acid is formed. This reaction is known as Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction (HVZ).
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 67
(ii) When formic acid is heated to 160°C it dissociates into CO and H2O.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 68

Question 3.
Give reasons for the following.
(i) The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than those of the corresponding alcohols.
(ii) Acetone is highly soluble in water but acetophenone is not.
(iii) Benzoic acid is less soluble in water than acetic acid.
Answer:
(i) Aldehydes and ketones are polar compounds having sufficient intermolecular dipole-dipole interactions between opposite ends of > C = O dipoles. However, these dipole-dipole interactions are weaker than the intermolecular hydrogen bonds present in alcohols and carboxylic acids. Hence the boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than those of corresponding alcohols and acids.

(ii) Acetone is soluble in water due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding while acetophenone is not soluble because of the presence of bulky – C6H5 group and – CH3 group, the non-polar character becomes more prominent.

(iii) Acetic acid is soluble in water while benzoic acid is not because of the presence of bulky – C6H5 grouping, the tendency for intermolecular hydrogen bond formation decreases and are less soluble.

Question 4.
How is urotropine obtained from formaldehyde? Write its chemical name and structural formula.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 69
Answer:
When formaldehyde is treated with ammonia, urotropine is formed. Its chemical name is hexamethylene tetra ammine or Hexa ammine.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 70

Question 5.
Although phenoxide ion has more resonating structures than carboxylate ion. Carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why?
Answer:
Carboxylate ion and phenoxide ion both achieve stability due to resonance. But carboxylate ion is more stable than phenoxide ion because in it negative charge is delocalised over two highly electronegative oxygen atom whereas in structures II, III, and IV of phenoxide ion the negative charge is delocalized on less electronegative carbon. That is why carboxylic acid is more acidic than phenol.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 71

Question 6.
Write a note on Tollen’s reagent.
Or,
What is Tollen’s reagent? Write its reaction with Acetaldehyde.
Answer:
Tollen’s Reagent : Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution is known as Tollen’s reagent. When Tollen’s reagent is heated with aldehyde, aldehyde reduces Ag+ to Ag and forms a bright silver mirror on the wall.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 72

Question 7.
Why boiling point of carboxylic acid is higher than alcohols having the same molecular mass?
Answer:
Carboxylic acid exist as dimer due to hydrogen bond. These bonds are stronger in acids com¬pared to alcohols, therefore boiling point of carboxylic acid is higher than alcohol.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 73

Question 8.
Explain Fehling reaction with equation.
Answer:
Fehling Reaction : Sodium Potassium tartarate associated with alkaline CuSO4 is known as Fehling solution. When aldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, then aldehyde is oxidized and red precipitate of cuprous oxide is obtained. This is known as Fehling test.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 74

Question 9.
Why is the boiling point of ketone little higher than its corresponding isomeric aldehyde?
Answer:
Ketones are comparatively more polar than their corresponding isomeric aldehyde because the >C=0 group in Ketone is linked with two-electron releasing alkyl group. Thus, the dipole attractive force of ketone is comparatively higher. This is the reason that the boiling point of ketone is comparatively higher than its corresponding isomeric aldehyde.

Question 10.
Among formaldehyde, acetaldehyde and acetone which is more reactive and why? Explain.
Answer:
Among HCHO, CH3CHO and CH3COCH3, HCHO is more reactive. This can be explained on the basis of:

1. Electron releasing effect : Alkyl groups are electron releasing in nature due to which magnitude of positive charge on carbonyl carbon decreases and hence it becomes less susceptible to nucleophilic attack.

2. Steric effect: The bulkier groups in ketones hinders approach of the nucleophile to the carbonyl carbon. This is known as steric effect.

Thus, HCHO with negligible electron releasing effect as well as steric effect is more reactive.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 75

Question 11.
How will you distinguish between
(i) 3-pentanone and 2-pentanone
(ii) Phenol and benzoic acid
(iii) Formic acid and acetic acid
Answer:
(i) 2- pentanone and 3-pentanone are distinguished by the iodoform test. 2-pentanone having CH3CO- group when treated with I2 and aqueous alkali gives a yellow precipitate of iodoform while 3- pentanone doesn’t give the test.

(ii) Benzoic acid on treatment with sodium bicarbonate solution produces brisk effervescence while phenol does not react with NaHCO3 solution.

(iii) Tollens’ reagent test. Formic acid when heated with Tollens’ reagent, a bright silver mirror is produced on the inner sides of the test tube. Acetic acid doesn’t answer this test.

Question 12.
Identify the compounds A, B and C in the following reactions :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 76
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 77

Question 13.
Write down the chemical equation for the following reaction :
(a) Reaction of acetaldehyde with H2SO4 at 0°C
(b) Reaction of formaldehyde with ammonical AgNO3
(c) Heating acetic acid with P2O5.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 78

Question 14.
Describe briefly the polymerization of acetaldehyde.
Answer:
(i) At normal temperature acetaldehyde in presence of conc. H2SO4 polymerises into para-aldehyde.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 79
(ii) At 0°C, on passing HCl gas, acetaldehyde changes into meta-aldehyde.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 80

Question 15.
Write down the difference between formic acid and acetic acid on the basis of the following points:
1. Effect of heat.
2. Reaction with acidified KMnO4.
3. Distillation of Ca salt.
4. Reaction with ammoniacal silver nitrate solution.
5. Reaction with PCl5.
Answer:
Differences between Formic Acid and Acetic Acid
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 81

Question 16.
Explain Stephen’s reaction and Benzoin condensation with example.
Answer:
Stephen’s reaction: Alkyl cyanide on reduction with acidified stannous chloride (i.e., SnCl2 + HCl) at room temperature forms aldimine hydrochloride, which on hydrolysis with boiling water gives aldehyde. This specific type of reduction of cyanide is known as Stephen’s reduction.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 82
Benzoin condensation: Two molecules of benzaldehyde in presence of alcoholic KCN or NaCN condenses to form benzoin.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 83

MP Board Solutions

Question 17.
(i) Write a short note on Perkin’s reaction.
(ii) What happens when acetone is heated with H2SO4?
Answer:
(i) Perkin’s reaction: When aromatic aldehyde is heated in presence of sodium salt of aliphatic acid with an hydride of aliphatic acid, then α,β unsaturated acid is obtained.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 84

(ii) In presence of H2SO4 three molecules of acetone get condensed and form mesitylene.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 85

Question 18.
What is Vinegar? Write its two use.
Answer:
6 to 10% aqueous solution of acetic acid is known as vinegar.
Use:

  • In the preservation of pickle, chutney, and Jam.
  • In the preparation of basic copper acetate.

Question 19.
What is Formalin? Write its two use.
Answer:
40% aqueous solution of formaldehyde (H—CHO) is known as Formalin.
Uses:

  • In cleaning the rooms of patients.
  • In the preservation of dead bodies.

Question 20.
What happens when (Give only equations):
(i) Calcium formate is heated alone.
(ii) Calcium benzoate is heated alone.
(iii) Calcium formate is heated with calcium acetate.
(iv) Dry distillation of calcium benzoate and calcium formate takes place.
Answer:
(i) Formaldehyde is formed :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 86
(ii) Benzophenone is formed :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 87
(iii) Acetaldehyde is formed :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 88
(iv) Benzaldehyde is formed :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 89

Question 21.
What happens when (Give only equations) :
(i) Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia.
(ii) Calcium formate is heated with calcium acetate.
(iii) Acetone reacts with Grignard’s reagent.
(iv) Acetylene reacts with water in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4.
(v) Acetyl chloride to Acetaldehyde.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 90

Question 22.
Write down the difference between compounds containing the aldehydic group and the ketonic group.
Answer:
Differences between Aldehydic and Ketonic group :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 91
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 92

Question 23.
An organic compound A (molecular formula C8H8O) gives a positive 2,4 DNP test. On treating with iodine and sodium hydroxide it gives a yellow precipitate of compound B. Compound A does not give Tollen and Fehling test. On drastic oxidation with potassium permanganate, it forms a carboxylic acid C (molecular formula C7H6O2) which is also formed with the yellow compound in the above reaction. Identify A, B and C and write the related reactions.
Answer:
Compound A does not give Tollen and Fehling test. Thus, it is a Ketone not an aldehyde.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 93

Question 24.
Why trichloroacetic acid is strong like inorganic acid? Explain, benzoic acid is solid while primary aliphatic acids are liquids. Give reason.
Answer:
The chlorine atom present in trichloroacetic acid is an electron-withdrawing group. Due to this, the release of H+ ions becomes easier as the trichloroacetate ion is more stable than its molecule because of the dispersal of negative charge on its oxygen. Thus, it behaves as a strong acid like inorganic acid.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 94
Benzoic acid is solid due to its polar nature dye to the presence of O-δ – H+δ group and high molecular mass while lower aliphatic acids dimerizes due to H-bonding hence they are liquid.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 95

Question 25.
Differentiate Polymerization and Condensation.
Answer:
Differences between Polymerization and Condensation :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 96

MP Board Solutions

Question 26.
Write down the reactions showing the conversion of
(i) Acetic acid into formic acid
(ii) Formic acid into acetic acid
Answer:
(i) Conversion of CH3—COOH into H—COOH :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 97
(ii) Conversion of formic acid into acetic acid:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 98

Question 27.
How will you obtain the following:
(i) Acetaldehyde from acetylene chloride
(ii) Acetone from calcium acetate
(iii) Acetic acid from ethyl acetate
(iv) Ethane from acetic acid.
Answer:
(i) Aldehyde can be prepared by the reduction of acetyl chloride with H2 in the presence of palladium deposited over barium sulphate.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 99
(ii) Calcium acetate on dry distillation gives acetone.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 100
(iii) Ethyl acetate is hydrolysed by mineral acids or alkalies to give acetic acid and ethyl alcohol.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 101
(iv) Acetic acid on reduction with HI in presence of red phosphorus at 500 K to give ethene.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 102

Question 28.
When liquid A is treated with freshly prepared ammoniacal silver nitrate solution, it gives a bright silver mirror. When the liquid is reacted with sodium hydrogen sulphite a white crystalline solid is formed. Liquid B also forms a white crystalline solid with sodium hydrogen sulphite but it does not give a test with ammoniacal silver nitrate. Which among the two liquids is an aldehyde? Write chemical equations of these reactions.
Answer:
Since liquid A reduces ammoniacal silver nitrate (Tollen’s reagent). Thus, A is an aldehyde.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 103
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 104

Question 29.
How formic acid is prepared in the laboratory? Write two uses of it.
Answer:
Formic acid is prepared in the laboratory by heating glycerol with oxalic acid at 100-110°C in a distillation flask fitted with the thermometer and condenser.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 105
Uses : (i) For dyeing of cotton and woollen cloth.
(ii) In the leather industry.
(iii) Preservation of fruits.
(iv) In the rubber industry.
(v) In electroplating.

MP Board Solutions

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the laboratory method of preparation of acetone. Draw labelled diagrams and write down chemical equations.
Answer:
In the laboratory, acetone is prepared by dry distillation of anhydrous calcium acetate.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 106
Method: 30-40 gm of calcium acetate mixed with an equal amount of sodium acetate is heated in a glass retort fitted with a condenser and receiver. Acetone is collected in the receiver. The acetone so obtained is not pure. To purify this, it is shaken with a saturated solution of sodium bisulphite then crystals of acetone sodium bisulphite salt separate out. The crystal is washed and heated with sodium carbonate and then dried over anhydrous CaCl2 and then distilled at 56°C to get pure acetone.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 107
(CH3)2C = O + NaHSO3 → (CH3)2C(OH)SO3Na
2(CH3)2C(OH)SO3Na + Na2CO3 → (CH3)2C = 0 + 2Na2SO3 + H2O + CO2.

Question 2.
Write down the following reaction giving example and equation :
(a) Iodoform reaction
(b) Tischenko reaction
(c) Gattermann-Koch synthesis
(d) Rosenmund’s reaction.
Answer:
(a) Iodoform (Haloform) reaction: Acetaldehyde or methyl ketone reacts with iodine in presence of alkali to form yellow coloured iodoform. This reaction is known as the iodoform test.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 108

(b) Tischenko reaction: Two molecules of benzaldehyde is coupled together in presence of aluminium ethoxide or isopropoxide then benzyl benzoate (ester) is formed.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 109

(c) Gattermann-Koch synthesis: Mixture of CO and HCl bubbled through a solution of aromatic hydrocarbon in ether solution in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3, then benzaldehyde is formed.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 110

(d) Rosenmund’s reaction: Aldehydes are obtained by the reduction of the acid chloride with hydrogen in boiling xylene in presence of a catalyst Pd suspended in BaSO4.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 111
This reaction is called the Rosenmund reaction.

Question 3.
Give quick vinegar method of preparation of acetic acid. Give its reaction with phosphorus pentaoxide and phosphorus pentachloride and write its two uses.
Answer:
In this process, a dilute aqueous solution of ethyl alcohol is oxidized in presence of the enzyme Mycoderma acetic.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 112
In this process, a wooden vat is fitted with two wooden plates having holes. Between these plates is filled by beech wood savings, moistened with old vinegar solution which is the chief source of Mycoderma acetic. A 10% aqueous solution of ethyl alcohol is dropped slowly from the top of the vat and air is passed at a controlled rate through the holes near the bottom of the vat. Ethyl alcohol is oxidized to acetic acid. This process is called quick vinegar process because vinegar is formed very quickly.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 113
(a) Reaction with P2O5:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 114
(b) Reaction with PCl5:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 115

Uses : (i) As a reagent and solvent in the lab.
(ii) As vinegar in the preparation of pickel, chutney etc.
(iii) In the preparation of methyl acetate, ethyl acetate and other esters.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on :
(i) Claisen condensation
(ii) Benzoin condensation.
Answer:
(i) Claisen condensation: When aromatic aldehyde reacts with aliphatic aldehyde or ketone with α-hydrogen, in presence of a weak base, α,β unsaturated aldehyde or ketone is formed. This type of condensation is called claisen condensation.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 116
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 117

(ii) Benzoin condensation : Two molecules of benzaldehyde in presence of alcoholic KCN orNaCN condenses to form benzoin.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 118

Question 5.
How will you obtain the following from acetic acid (Give only equations):
(i) Acetamide
(ii) Ethyl acetate
(iii) Acetic Anhydride
(iv) TVichloro acetic acid.
Answer:
(i) Acetamide:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 119
(ii) Ethyl acetate:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 120
(iii) Acetic anhydride:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 121
(iv) Trichloroacetic acid:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 122

Question 6.
What happens when (Write only equations):
(i) Acetone reacts with chloroform,
(ii) Benzaldehyde reacts with acetic anhydride.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 123

Question 7.
Write notes on the following reactions:
(i) Stephen reaction
(ii) Etard reaction
(iii) Knoevenagel reaction.
Answer:
(i) Stephen reaction: In this reaction, phenyl cyanide is reduced in ethereal solution by stannous chloride and hydrogen chloride followed by hydrolysis to form benzaldehyde.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 124

(ii) Etard reaction: In this reaction, toluene is oxidised by chromyl chloride dissolved in CS2 or CCl4, a brown complex initially formed is separated. This is then decomposed by water to form benzaldehyde.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 125

(iii) Knoevenagel condensation: Benzaldehyde reacts with compounds having active methylene group (e.g., malonic ester and acetoacetic ester) in the presence of pyridine or glacial acetic acid in acetamide thereby forming α,β unsaturated carbonyl compounds.
For example, with malonic ester, cinnamic acid is formed.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 126

MP Board Solutions

Question 8.
What happens when (only equation)
(a) On reacting acetone with grignard reagent.
(b) Reaction of acetone with chloroform in presence of KOH.
(c) Benzaldehyde reacts with aniline.
(d) On heating sodium salt of carboxylic acid with soda lime.
(e) Benzyl chloride reacts with acetyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl3.
Answer:
(a) Reaction of acetone with Grignard reagent.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 127

(b) Reaction of acetone with chloroform.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 128

(c) Reaction of benzaldehyde with aniline.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 129

(d) Reaction of sodium salt of carboxylic acid with soda lime.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 130

(e) Reaction of benzene with CH3COCl.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 131

Question 9.
How will you obtain :
(a) Acetaldehyde from acetylene
(b) Propanone from propyne.
Answer:
(a) Acetaldehyde from acetylene :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 132

(b) Propanone from propyne :
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 133

Question 10.
Starting from acetic acid how will you get the following :
(1) Ethyl alcohol
(2) Ethyl acetate
(3) Methyl bromide
(4) Acetone
(5) Acetic anhydride
(6) Acetamide
(7) Trichloroacetic acid.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 134
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 135

Question 11.
How will you obtain (Give equation):
(i) Benzoic acid from toluene
(ii) Acetic acid from propanoic acid
(iii) Propanol from propanoic acid
(iv) Formic acid from acetic acid.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 136

Question 12.
Give the chemical equation of the following :
(i) Acetaldehyde from formaldehyde
(ii) Formaldehyde from acetaldehyde
(iii) Acetic acid from formic acid.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 137

Question 13.
Give the equation for reactions of the Grignard reagent with following:
(a) CO
(b) HCN
(c) HCOOC2H5
(d) CH3CN.
Answer:
(a) With CO: Aldehyde is obtained.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 138
(b) With HCN: Aldehyde is formed.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 139
(c) With HCOOC2H5: Aldehyde is formed.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 140
(d) With CH3CN: Propanone is formed.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 141

MP Board Solutions

Question 14.
What happens when (Write only equations):
(i) Acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol
(ii) Acetic acid reacts with ammonia
(iii) Acetone reacts with chloroform
(iv) Benzaldehyde reacts with acetic anhydride.
Answer:
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 142
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 143

Question 15.
Explain:
(a) Boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are less than corresponding alcohols and acids.
(b) Boiling points of carboxylic acids are higher than carboxylic acid of similar molecular masses.
Answer:
(a) Aldehydes and ketones are polar compounds so their b.p. are higher than non-polar hydrocarbons but less than that of corresponding alcohols and carboxylic acids. Alcohol and carboxylic acids form associated molecules due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding while hydrogen bonding is not possible in aldehydes and ketones because hydrogen atom is not bonded with an oxygen atom. Thus, due to the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding b.p. of alcohol and acids are higher.

(b) Boiling points of carboxylic acids are higher than alcohols of the similar molecular mass because acids have stronger hydrogen bonding than alcohols. Thus, molecules of carboxylic acids linked with hydrogen bonds have a more attractive force and thus they possess higher boiling points.
MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 144

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Organization

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Organization

Organization Important Questions

Organization Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Out of the following, which is not a part of delegations :
(a) Accountability
(b) Authority
(c) Responsibility
(d) informal organization.
Answer:
(d) informal organization.

Question 2.
A network of social relationship that arise relationship due to interaction at work is called:
(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Denaturalization
(d) Delegation.
Answer:
(b) Informal organization

Question 3.
Organization cannot be seen as :
(a) As a work of management
(b) As a structure of relationship
(c) As a process
(d) As an enterprise instinct
Answer:
(d) As an enterprise instinct

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a part of organization:
(a) Division of work
(b) Work structure
(c) Formation of work and departments
(d) provide leadership
Answer:
(d)provide leadership

Question 5.
Which of the following does not follow the scalar chain :
(a) Formal structure
(b) Informal structure
(c) Functional structure
(d) Divisional structure
Answer:
(b) Informal structure

Question 6.
Group of activities on the basis of product line Is a part of:
(a) Decentralized organization
(b) Divisional organization
(c) Functional organization
(d) Centralized organization
Answer:
(b) Divisional organization

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Question 7.
A tall structure has a :
(a) Narrow span of management
(b) Wide span of management
(c) No span of management
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Narrow span of management

Question 8.
Grouping of a activities on the basis of functions line is a part of:
(a) Delegated organization
(b) Divisional organization
(c) Functional organization
(d) Autonomous organization
Answer:
(c) Functional organization

Question 9.
Centralization refers to :
(a) Retention of decision making authority
(b) Dispersal of decision making authority
(c) Creating division of profit centers
(d) Opening new centers or branches
Answer:
(a)Retention of decision making authority

Question 10.
Span management refers to :
(a) Number of managers
(b) Length of term for which a manger is appointed
(c) Number of subordinates under a superior
(d) Number of members in top management.
Answer:
(b) Length of term for which a manger is appointed

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Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

  1. ……………….establishes cordial relation between labour and capital.
  2. Organization formed according to goods produced by them is called …………..
  3. The transfer of right in limited form to the members is called …………..
  4. Distribution of rights and duties of an enterprise at the lowest level is called ……………
  5. Rights and duties are clearly described in ……………organization.

Answer:

  1. Organization
  2. Departmental, Organization
  3. Delegation
  4. Decentralization
  5. Formal

Question 3.
Write the answers in one word/sentence :

  1. Granting authority and responsibility regarding a specific job to subordinates.
  2. A systamatic dispersion of authority at all levels of department.
  3. Big organization is divided into small administrative unit.
  4.  Authority is delegated not responsibility.
  5. That form of organization which is developed due to mutual relations.
  6. That organization which is based on rules and procedures.
  7. In functional organization what type of relation is shown ?
  8. When does management of organization comes in the process of management ?
  9. Which step is departmental organization ?
  10. In informal organization what type of relations is there among members ?

Answer:

  1. Authority
  2. Decentralization
  3. Divisional organization
  4. Authority
  5. Informal organization
  6. Informal organization
  7. Authority and subordinates
  8. After planning
  9. Second step
  10. Friendly relation.

Question 4.
Write true or false :

  1. Establishment of organization is done by lower level of management.
  2. Organization gives birth to corruption.
  3. Delegation of authority means assigning work to others.
  4. Accountability is the obligation to carry out responsibility.
  5. Organization in management is as important as structure of bones in human body.

Answer

  1. False
  2. False
  3. True
  4. True
  5. True.

Question 5.
Match the columns
MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Organization image - 1
Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

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Organization Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
After which function of management organizing function comes ?
Answer:
Organizing function comes after planning.

Question 2.
How does a strong organization increases job satisfaction among the workers ?
Answer:
A strong organization increases job satisfaction among the workers by assigning them work according to their ability.

Question 3.
How can repetition stopped in an organization ?
Answer:
Right person at the right job.

Question 4.
Why is a big task divided into smaller parts ?
Answer:
Because of the following reasons:

  1. To reduce the burden of work load
  2. To avail the ability of specialized employees
  3. To avoid from repetition of tasks.

Question 5.
What do you understand by divisional ?
Answer:
When a big organization is divided into small administrative units for managing effectively it is called divisional.

Question 6.
How is the word organizing used ?
Answer:
Organization is used in two forms :

  1. Organizational Structure and
  2. Functional structure.

Question 7.
What is delegation of authority ?
Answer:
Delegation of authority merely means the granting of authority to subordinate to operate within prescribed limits.

MP Board Solutions

Question 8.
Explain the meaning of authority responsibility accountability relationship.
Answer:
Authority responsibility relationship means the relationship which explains from whom an individual will receive orders and to whom he will be accountable or answerable while performing a particular task.

Question 9.
What is expansion of management ?
Answer:
Expansion of management means organizing the deployment of employees or managing tasks.

Question 10.
How is informal organization formed ?
Answer:
The structure is a result of social interaction between employees of similar interests.

MP Board Solutions

Organization Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is delegation of authority ?
Answer:
Granting authority and responsibility regarding specific job to the subordinates is called as delegation of authority. Delegation of authority is an art of granting certain ordinary, routine and exact authorities to competent subordinates so that they can perform the work as per instructions efficiently. It is an important element of organization. Delegation of authority is based upon the principle of division of work.

Question 2.
What is line organization ?
Answer:
Line organization is the oldest form of organization. Business or industry structure with self contained departments. Authority travels downwards from top and accountability upwards from bottom along the chain of command and each department manager has control over his or her departments affairs and employees.

Question 3.
What do you mean by organization ?
Answer:
Organization means a group of people having a certain object. It involves coordinating the employees activities in an efficient manner for accomplishing the objectives of the enterprise. The success of an enterprise totally depends on how powerful the organization is.

MP Board Solutions

Question 4.
Explain the merits of committee organization.
Answer:
The merits of committee organization are as follows :

  1. Committee organization promotes cooperation
  2. Quick decisions can be taken in important cases
  3. Policy matters and problems can be solved easily
  4. Coordination can easily be exercised in different departments with the help of committees.

Question 5.
Give a definition of organization.
Answer:
According to Prof. L. Haney, “Organization is a harmonious adjustment of specialized parts for the accomplishments of some common purpose or purposes.”
According to D.W.R. Spriegal, “Organization is the structural relationship between the various factors in an enterprise”.

Question 6.
Where is line organization suitable ?
Answer:
Those organizational units where employees are less in number. Production is of general type and employees are disciplined, here line organization is suitable.

Question 7.
How does organization help in improving the morale of employees ?
Answer:
In an effective organization, the employees are well aware of their rights, duties and responsibilities and therefore they understand the objectives of the enterprise quite well. This helps them to develop the feelings of sincerity, participation and cooperation thereby increasing their morale.

Question 8.
How organization stops repetition of work ?
Answer:
By assigning specific work to specific person repetition is avoided in organization.

Question 9.
Write the main characteristics of line organization.
Answer:
The main characteristics of line organization are :

  1. The orders flow from top to bottom i.e. in downward direction.
  2. orders are passed by officers.

Question 10.
Write the various forms of organization.
Answer:
According to nature and size, an organization has following forms :

  1. Line organization
  2. Line and staff organization
  3. Functional organization
  4. Committee organization.

MP Board Solutions

Question 11.
Discuss the objectives or importance of organization.
Answer:

1. Economy in production : The main object of organization is to bring economy in production. It means production of goods at minimum cost.

2. Economy in time and labour : In organization, best machines, equipments and best methods are applied and so enough time and labour of the work are saved.

3. Cordial relations between labour and capital: To establish relation between labour and management is one of the object of organization. For this, the best entrepreneur is appointed to safeguard the interest of the labour and capital.

4. Spirit of service : Due to social consciousness, the object of every businessman is to serve first then profit. So, every organization in present time has the object to serve.

Question 12.
Throw light on the importance of organization.
Answer:

1. Effective formulation of policies : Policies are framed by the administration of any enterprises or organization. It is the work of the management to formulate all policies. Once the policies are framed, the organization (normally, a group of people) executes these policies. A strong organization ensures reliable policies. So, organization has great importance for effective formulation of policies.

2. Encouragement to specialization : Specialization is based upon the principle of division of labour. If the employees are grouped according to their efficiency, then the work will be carried-out efficiently. This division of work enhances the spirit of employees. Specialization is encouraged due to the number of employees.

3. Increase in managerial efficiency : Priority is given to coperaion, coordination and discipline in a sound organization. So, the work is done at the earliest. Due to earliest disposal of work, new planning is again framed by the top management or administration so the work remains in the continuous process. In this way due to the expansion of managerial work, managerial efficiency progress in a rapid way.

4. Fillip to growth : It can be known from the history of old and big organization that their growth has become possible due to organization. The main maxim for the growth of healthy and sound business is only organization.

5. To work systematically : In organization every person performs his duty systematically as it is clearly directed in the organization about the execution of work.

6. Prevents corruption : There is no any place corruption in a sound organization.

Question 13.
“Organization increases the capacity of production”. Explain.
Answer:
In a sound and organization employees work with full devotion and so production of the enter process increases. Now techniques and machines developed in the enterprise increases the efficiency of employees which will result is large scale production.

Question 14.
What is project organization ?
Answer:
Project organization is that system in which a working team is constituted for specific production or to provide services.

Question 15.
What are the disadvantages of line organization ?
Answer:
Disadvantages of line organization are as follows :
(i) There is a good scope for favouritism as the highest officer has the authority. There is a possibility that he promotes or appoints his favourites.
(ii) The-modem industry is so complex that it is not possible for a single person to perform all the work efficiently. It is not possible for the department head to be specialized in very field. Hence, there is a lack of specialization in this method.

Question 16.
What is line and staff organization ? Write its four characteristics.
Answer:
The line is the chain of command that extends from board of directors through the various delegation and re-delegations of authority and responsibility to the point where
the primary activities of the company are performed. They are directly engaged in producing or selling of goods and services and provide advices also characteristics :

  1. Order and responsibility moves from top to bottom in this organization.
  2. Both the working thinking and giving suggestions are separate in it.
  3. To assist the line officers employees are appointed.
  4. The specialists work as a staff member only.

Question 17.
Mention the advantages of line organization.
Answer:
Advantages : The advantage of line organization are as follows :

  1. Every member of the organization knows his responsibilities and duties.
  2. There is strong discipline because the subordinates knows their rights and control area.
  3. In this type of organization, adjustment can be made according to the needs, i.e., there is flexibility.
  4. The subordinates cannot runaway from their duties because they are not able to put their responsibilities on others.

Question 18.
What do you mean by committee organization ?
Answer:
Committee organization is that system in which a specific group is formed to perform administrative work committee is a group of persons. They are allotted some functions in such a way that they will perform the function collectively. The head of this committee is called the president.

Question 19.
What are the reasons of distributing works in small parts ?
Answer:
Work is distributed into small parts due to following reasons :

  1. To reduce the pressure of work
  2. To have advantage of profit
  3. To divide the work in such a way so that repetition should not be there.

Question 20.
What do you mean by divisional organization ?
Answer:
When a big organization is divided into small administrative unit for managing effectively, it is called divisional organization.

Question 21.
Write the four advantages of territorial organization.
Answer:
The four advantages of territorial organization are as follows :

  1. It provides effective span at control.
  2. Expansion of business in various regions becomes easy.
  3. It facilitates in economy is  rent and labour.
  4. It provides opportunity of giving training to managers.

Question 22.
“By top level organization the efficiency of Administration increases.” Explain.
Answer:
Formal organization is top level organization. Formal organization is established for general objectives. Organization structure is determined by top level. In it authority and responsibility are clearly defined. Formal organization aims at achieving predetermined objectives. Every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior. So by top level organization the efficiency of administration increases.

MP Board Solutions

Question 23.
Distinguish between divisional and functional organization.
Answer:
The differences between divisional and functional organization :
MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Organization image - 8
Question 24.
What is the relation between formal and informal organization ?
Answer:
Informal organization is a part of formal organization. In formal organization the worker complete their work with the help of each other. They consult each other due to this friendly relationship is maintained. On the basis of friendship a network of informal organization in formed. This network is called informal organization. Thus formal organization gives birth to informal organization. So we can say that formal organization and informal organization are interrelated.

Question 25.
“Organization increases managerial efficiency.” How ?
Answer:
The best organization increases managerial efficiency. The best and effective organization helps in achieving objectives easily. The best organization means good employees, workers and management. Better environment helps in the efficiency of organization. Increase in managerial efficiency is because of specialization in an organization. A good organization provides training to its employees. These qualified and trained people make full utilization of various resources.

Question 26.
What are the characteristics of informal organization ?
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of informal organization :

  1. These type of organizations are formed spontaneously.
  2. These organization have common interest.
  3. It is a voluntary organization.
  4. These organizations have no concern with manual and charts.
  5. These organization can be legal or illegal.
  6. It is a part of formal organization.
  7. In these organization the relationship is based upon personal understanding.

Organization Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between formal and informal organization.
Answer:
Differences between Formal and Informal Organization :

Question 2.
What is formal organization ? Explain any four features.
Answer:
The different types or forms of organizations are classified on various basis. One of the type is formal and informal organization.
Formal organization : It is an official structure of activities, roles and authority relationship which is planned and executed by management for achieving organizational objectives. In this organization every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior only. It follows official chain of command.
Characteristics of formal organization : Following are the characteristics of formal organization:

  1. This type of organization is established for general objectives.
  2. Organization structure is determined by top level.
  3. Authority and responsibility are clearly defined in formal organization.
  4. The relationship.is determined according to the jobs and its nature.
  5. Formal organization aims at achieving predetermined objectives.
  6. Every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior.
  7. In this type of organization policies, procedures and plans are written.

MP Board Solutions

Question 3.
What is informal organization ? Explain its characteristics/features.
Answer:
Informal Organizations: Informal organization is the result of working together and social interactions. It has no predetermined purpose. It achieves social satisfaction. In this type of organization there is no prescribed channel of communication. There are no set or fixed rules in this organization. The examples of this organization are relationship between travellers, players, pilgrims, etc.
Definitions :

(1) According to Keith Davis, “Informal organization is that network of personal and social relationships which is not established or required by formal organizations.”

(2) According to C. I. Barnard, “Organization is informal when aggregate inter-personal relationships are without conscious joint purpose.”

Characteristics of informal organization : The characteristics of informal organization are as follows:

  1. These type of organizations are formed spontaneously.
  2. These organizations have common interest.
  3. It is a voluntary organization.
  4. These organizations have no concern with manuals and charts.
  5. In this organization the relationship is based upon personal understanding.
  6. These organizations can be legal and illegal.
  7. It does not have a clear and well defined structure.
  8. It emerges to meet the social and cultural needs of the members of the organization.
  9.  It is a part of formal organization.
  10. The rules and regulations in this organization is not in writing.
  11. It may or may not follow official chain of command.

Question 4.
What do you mean by delegation of authority ? What are its elements ?
Ans.
Delegation of authority: Granting authority and responsibility regarding specific job to subordinates is called delegation of authority.
The process or elements of delegation are as follows :

1. Assigning of duty : The first and important element of delegation is assigning of duty or task or responsibility. Before the task is assigned, the superior must:

  1. Determine the results expected from subordinates
  2. Identify the tasks to be assigned
  3. Define the tasks to be assigned. The original officer gives less important or routine duties to subordinates while the original officer should himself perform the important, complicated and secret work.

2. Granting of authority : Without authority nobody is going to perform the duties. Thus for completion of work it is necessary to grant authority along with assigning of duties. In the words of Koontz O’Donnell, “Actually the authority vested in a managerial position is the right to use discretion, the right to create and maintain an environment for the performance of individual working together in a group. Thus all needed authorities should be delegated for the fulfilment of a responsibility.

3. Creation of responsibility : Responsibility means holding an individual answerable for final results. Delegation is an art of getting work done effectively not escaping from responsibility to superiors. According to Allen, “Accountability or responsibility is the obligation to carry out responsibility and exercise authority in terms of performance standard established.”

Acceptability of delegation. A person can accept or reject an assigned task. If the delegated authority rejects the task then the delegated management with assign it to another capable employee therefore acceptability of delegation is important.

4. Evaluation and control of internal activities : It is the last step of the process of organizing every subordinate is responsible for the task assigned by his or her authority. Higher authorities evaluate the deployed tasks to their subordinates assures its process and avail the power of authority.

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Question 5.
What is decentralization ? Explain its advantages.
Answer:
Meaning : Decentralization is the opposite of centralization which means systematic delegation or dispersal of authority at all levels of management and in all departments of the organization. In this process subordinates are given more role and importance in the management and organization. It is the top level management which decides introduction of decentralization in the organization.
Definition : The major definitions of decentralization are as follows :

1. Everything that goes to increase the importance of the subordinates role is decentralization. —Henri Fayol.
Following are the Importance or advantages of decentralization:

1. Quick decision making: Since the workload of managers at top level is reduced so they are free to make decisions which are speedy in nature,

2. Reduces the burden of managers: The most important benefit of decentralization is that it reduces the burden of managers at top level. The work is assigned by the managers to the subordinates which brings relief to the top level management.

3. Motivates subordinates : Managers or the top level management authorises the subordinates to take decisions independently which increases their morale and motivates them towards the betterment of organization.

4. Democratic management: Decentralization facilitates democratic management. It shares authority and responsibility between managers. It also avoids concentration of power.

5. Helps in facing competition : Today’s competition can be faced effectively only when a person is able to take and implement decisions. This can be performed only when the authority and responsibility of decisions is provided by organization. Thus decentralization helps to face competition effectively.

6. Training and Development: Through decentralization training and development is automatically directed or followed. Decentralization helps in providing training to subordinates and makes them specialised in their work.

7. Incentives to workers : Decentralization provides job satisfaction to workers by giving them independence and participation in the activities of organization which increases the morale of employees.

Question 6.
Distinguish between divisional and functional organization.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain the various advantages and disadvantages of formal organization.
Answer:
Formal organization : It is an official structure of activities, roles and authority relationship which is planned and executed by management for achieving organizational objectives. In this organization every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior only. It follows official chain of command.
Characteristics of formal organization : Following are the characteristics of formal organization:

  1. This type of organization is established for general objectives.
  2. Organization structure is determined by top level.
  3. Authority and responsibility are clearly defined in formal organization.
  4. The relationship is determined according to the jobs and its nature.
  5. Formal organization aims at achieving predetermined objectives.
  6. Every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior.
  7. In this type of organization policies, procedures and plans are written.

Merits of formal organization : Following are the merits of formal organization :

  1. Objectives can be easily achieved through this organization.
  2. There is unity of order and direction in this organization.
  3. Stability persists in this organization. .
  4. There is easy and effective coordination and control over activities.
  5. Responsibilities are fixed in case of failures.
  6. There is clear determination of duties, authorities and responsibilities.
  7. In this type of organization reasonable and balanced division and subdivision of activities.
  8. Advantages of specialization and division of work can be achieved.
  9. All activities are performed according to rules and regulations.
  10. The resources are utilized up to the maximum extent in these organizations.

Demerits of formal organization : Following are the demerits of formal organization:

  1. There is lack of flexibility in these organizations.
  2. In these organizations there is always problem of control and coordination.
  3. Red farism develops in this organization.
  4. There is lack of initiative informal organization.
  5. Sometimes power and authority is misused. .
  6. Formal work and communication is not having importance in this organization.

MP Board Solutions

Question 8.
Differentiate between Delegation and Decentralization.
Answer:
Differences between Delegation and Decentralization :

Question 9.
Distinguish between Authority and Accountability.
Answer:
Differences between Authority and Accountability :

Question 10.
Write the essentials of good organization structure.
Answer:
Essentials of good organization structure :

1. Clear lines of authority : There must be a clear line of authority running from the top to bottom of the organization. It is achieved through delegation by step from the highest executive to the lowest worker having the least responsibility and no authority over others. Failure to clarify the line of authority result in friction, politics and inefficiencies.

2. Adequate delegation of authority : Every person in the organization must get adequate authority to meet his obligations according to situations. Authority is vested in the top most executive and is delegated to his subordinates wherever necessary to meet their obligations. If sufficient authority is not delegated, the top most executive or the person vesting the authority, faces various problems such as bottle-neck in decision-making, delay in decision implementation, pressure on higher level and less motivation to subordinates. These all problems hamper the growth of the organization.

3. Minimum managerial levels : The managerial level in an organization should be kept minimum as far as possible. The greater the number of levels, the larger the chain of command and the longer the time in travelling the message up and down. Though the number of levels is not certain, yet it serves as guide-line.

4. Unity of direction : Every person in the organization should be directed only by one boss as far as possible relating to a single major function. Multiplication of direction may create confusion and may lead to role conflict.

5. Application of Ultimate Responsibility : The authority flows from superior to subordinate along with the responsibilities. The higher level manager is not relieved of his responsibilities for the acts delegated to the subordinates. He is responsible for his own duties and the duties of his subordinates.

6. Span of Control: Span of control refers to the number of subordinates a manager can directly supervise. There is a limit on this number but it cannot be applied universally because several factors such as nature of superior and that of a subordinates, communication techniques, etc. affect the span of control.

7. Simplicity : Taking into account the essential network but leaving no room for confusion and ambiguity the organization structure should be designed as simple as possible. Too many levels or communication channels, or committees, or multiple of command or too much coordination often create more problems rather to solve them.

Question 11.
Describe the objects of organization.
Answer:

1. Economy in production : The main object of organization is to bring economy in production. It means production of goods at minimum cost.

2. Economy in time and labour : In organization, best machines, equipment and best methods are applied and so enough time and labour of the work are saved.

3. Cordial relations between labour and capital : To establish relation between labour and management is one of the object of organization.
Safeguard the interest of the labour and capital.

4. Spirit of service : Due to social consciousness, the object of every businessman is to serve first then profit. So, every organization in present time has the object to serve.

Question 12.
Describe characteristics of project organization.
Answer:

  1. This system is adopted to perform any specific project
  2. After completion of the project its existence ends
  3. Working team is constituted with persons of special ability.

Question 13.
Explain briefly the process of organization.
Or
Method of organization.
Answer:
Following are the steps of organization :

1. Establishment of objectives: The first step of organization structure is establishment of objectives. In the object of organization, those activities should be clearly explained for which organization is built.

2. Determination of activities : The second step in organization is determination of activities and its division. While dividing activities the organizational objectives must be kept in mind.

3. Grouping of activities : The next step involves grouping of activities as purchases, sales, advertisement, marketing, production etc. Different departments are set up for that purpose.

4. Allocation of work : It involves allocation of work on the basis of skills and specialization of employees. The principle of right job for right person is followed while allocating work to employees.

5. Delegation of authority : It is not possible to execute activities without authority. Therefore along with work, the authority is also delegated to the employees.

6. Coordination : For coordination, employees and officers are introduced to each other and everybody’s working place, work, right, duties and relation to each other are specifically mentioned.

Question 14.
Describe the characteristics of organization.
Answer:

1. Organization is a group of people : One person cannot be defined as organization. So, there should be at least two or more persons. There is no restriction on maximum number.

2. Specific objective : Any good organization has specific objectives. A gathering of people without a purpose is not an organization.

3. Division of work : For efficiently achieving goals, the work at hand should be divided and delegated. For example, the activities of an organization may be divided under purchase, sales, finance, personnel, production, etc,

4. Universal existence : Organization exists universally, irrespective of size of the company. All spheres or fields of society like politics, business, schools, families, etc. have organization though the objective may be different.

5. Leadership and formal relations : Organization is also characterized by the presence of leadership and formal relations among the members of the group.

6. Effective communication and coordination : An efficient organization necessitates effective communication as a requisite element. Proper communication and coordination between various levels of the organization results in easy execution of work.

Question 15.
“Write the characteristics, advantage and disadvantage of informal organization.
Answer:
Characteristics of informal organization : The characteristics of informal organization are as follows:

  1. These type of organizations are formed spontaneously
  2. These organizations have common interest
  3. It is a voluntary organization
  4. These organizations have no concern with manuals and charts
  5. In this organization the relationship is based upon personal understanding
  6. These organizations can be legal and illegal
  7. It does not have a clear and well defined structure
  8. It emerges to meet the social and cultural needs of the members of the organization
  9. It is a part of formal organization
  10. The rules and regulations in this organization is not in writing
  11. It may or may not follow official chain of command.

MP Board Solutions

Advantages of informal organization : Following are the advantages of informal organization:

  1. It removes the weakness of formal organization
  2. It is an effective means of communication
  3. Through this organization the spirit of cooperation and coordination develops
  4. It provides social status and sense of satisfaction
  5. Employees are motivated towards work.

Disadvantages of informal organization : Following are the disadvantages of informal organization:

  1. Illegal activities are encouraged in these organizations
  2. These organizations create confusions by spreading rumours
  3. High level management is generally opposed by this organization
  4. Some of these organizations are against democracy and secularism
  5. These organizations are generally have short life.

Conclusion : Generally all organizations have some merits and demerits. Informal organization is complementary to formal organization

Question 16.
Write the principles of organization.
Answer:
Golonel Lyndall Urwick has given following principles :

1. Principle of objectives: The objective of an enterprise should be the objective of whole organization, because every organizational aims at achieving aims of an enterprise. Objectives should be made clear at every level.

2. Principle of specialization : Every person has got particular quality of doing particular work. One person should be allotted one work only this will increases his ability of doing that particular work.

3. Principle of coordination : The main aim of organization should be to maintain coordination among various elements, through which objectives can be achieved.

4. Principle of authority : Authority should not be vested in one hand, but it should be distributed accordingly. So that workers take interest in the work and a feeling of responsibility also arises.

5. Principle of continuity : According to time and requirement, changes should be done. In other words, an organization should be flexible, otherwise it would not be successful. One should recognize the speed of time.

6. Principle of responsibility: After assigning authority, care of responsibility should also be taken. This increases the desire of working more and quality of work. Every worker should be well aware that he is responsible to whom.

7. Principle of definition : Every employee should be made well aware of his duties and responsibilities. Every duty, position etc. in every organization should be clearly prescribed in writing, which helps in quick achievements of goals.

8. Principle of uniformity: There should be uniformity in authority and responsibility given to various officers. But there should be no dispute between authority of two officers which will result in indiscipline and lead to delay of work.

9. Principle of span of control: Area of control of each manager should be restricted, this results in better performance and it becomes easy to carry and complete work. ‘Urwick’ has said that “Maximum a person can handle five to six persons”. According to the nature of business, control should be restricted.

10. Principle of balance : Balance should be made between different units of an organization. Balance increase discipline in the management of a business and helps in the success of the organization.

11. Principle of unity of command : A worker takes orders from his superior boss only and not from others, he is answerable to his boss only. If he has two boss, then confusion will be created and if he listens to one boss and not other, this will create conflict. Therefore, unity of command is necessary for success.

12. Principle of simplification : Organizers should make such policies which are simple, easy, understood by everyone and impressive. If the elements of an organization or policies are not simple, it will create problem.

13. Other principles: Some modem principles showed by experts are :

  1. Principle of efficiency
  2. Principle of unity of objectives
  3. Principle of participation
  4. Principle of formality
  5. Principle of inspection and balance
  6. Principle of surety
  7. Principle of transferring ownership.

MP Board Solutions

Question 17.
Distinguish between line of organization and staff organization.
Answer:
differences between Line and Staff organization :

Question 18.
Distinguish among authority, responsibility and accountability.
Answer:
Differences among Authority, Responsibility and Accountability.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions