Prasanna

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 8th English Solutions Chapter 8 English is Amazing Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 8th Special English Solutions Chapter 8 English is Amazing (Poem)

English is Amazing Textual Exercise

Word Power

(A) Read the words given in the box :

Now classify them in the following table :

(B) Complete the following sentences by choosing the right word from the words given in the brackets :

1. A knife is ………………. (difficult, dangerous).
2. It was raining heavily ………………. (because, so) we did not go for the picnic.
3. An iron ball will ………………. (sink,float) into the water.
4. People did not have computer in ………………… (old, ancient) times.
5. The girl had a blue belt around her ………………. (waste/waist)

Answer:

1. dangerous
2. so
3. sink
4. ancient
5. waist

Comprehension

(A) Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The poem speaks about
(a) geese and cows
(b) why English spelling is so difficult to learn.
(c) a child reading a book.
(d) a box.
Answer:
(b) why English spelling is so difficult to learn.

Question 2.
The poet is complaining
(a) that making plurals in English is very easy.
(b) that there are feminine pro nouns.
(c) that English is a tricky language.
(d) that making plurals in English is difficult.
Answer:
(c) that English is a trickey language.

Question 3.
Which two difficult areas of English are discussed in the poem?
(a) nouns and adjectives
(b) clauses and prepositions
(c) nouns and pronouns
(d) verbs and adverbs.
Answer:
(c) nouns and pronouns

Question 4.
The feminine pronouns are :
(a) he, his and him.
(b) she, shis and shim.
(c) she, her and hers.
(d) he, she and it.
Answer:
(c) she, her and hers.

(B) Read the poem and mark the following statements as true or false :

1. The plural of cow may also be kine.
2. English is called an easy language.
3. Making plurals in English is easy.
4. The singular form of feet is foot.
5. English is the trickiest language.

Answers:

1. true
2. false
3. false
4. false
5. true

Feet Finder APK 2022 for Android Free Download.

Let’s Read

Read the following passage :

The mother tongue is the first language that the child learns and picks up from the people around him. A foreign language is a language that one uses for a limited purpose. The mother tongue comes in a natural way, whereas a foreign language is learned so that one may be able to write and speak it. A language is learned with its structure, grammar and vocabulary. The mother tongue may have a different sentence structure. Often the method of translation is adopted for easy understanding of a foreign language. This is the main fault area of learning a foreign language. This may not be the right approach. So instead of learning a foreign language through translation one should know the way it really goes. The exposure to a language is the most important factor in learning.

Now answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which is the first language that a child learns?
Answer:
The mother tongue is the first language that a child learns.

Question 2.
What is the purpose of a foreign language?
Answer:
A foreign language is used for a limited purpose. It is learned so that one may be able to write and speak it.

Question 3.
How is the language learned?
Answer:
The language is learned with its structure, grammar and vocabulary.

Question 4.
Which method is ofter adopted to learn a foreign language?
Answer:
The method of translation is adopted for easy understanding of a foreign language.

Question 5.
Which is the most important factor in learning a language?
Answer:
The exposure to a language is the most important factor in learning.

Let’s Write

(A) Here is a list of the likes and dislikes. Choose the five things you like and five things you dislike.

Answer:
I am Mona. I study in class VIII. I like cleaning my room, doing homework, reading story books, brushing my teeth and eating green vegetables, but the things I dislike watching television, going to cinema, studying mathematics, going to cinema and eating chocolates.

English is Amazing Word Meanings

Page-72: fowl – a bird that is kept for its meat and eggs – बाज। Moose – an ell (a large deer) of North America – उत्तर अमेरिका का एक बड़ा हिरण। Vow – make a serious promise- शपथ लेना। Lone – alone, without any other people or things – अकेला। Trickiest – difficult to do or deal with – क्लिष्ट।

In this article, we share MP Board Class 10th Maths Book Solutions Chapter 1 वास्तविक संख्याएँ Ex 1.2 Pdf, These solutions are solved by subject experts from the latest MP Board books.

MP Board Class 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 वास्तविक संख्याएँ Ex 1.2

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित संख्याओं को अभाज्य गुणनखण्डों के गुणनफल के रूप में व्यक्त कीजिए :

1. 140
2. 156
3. 3825
4. 5005
5. 7429

हल :

1. 140 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 7 = 2² × 5¹ × 7¹ उत्तर
2. 156 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 13 = 2² × 3¹ × 13¹ उत्तर
3. 3825 = 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 17 = 3² × 5² × 17¹ उत्तर
4. 5005 = 5 × 7 × 11 × 13 = 5¹ × 7¹ × 11¹ × 13¹ उत्तर
5. 7429 = 17 × 19 × 23 = 17¹ × 19¹ × 23¹ उत्तर

प्रश्न 2.
पूर्णांकों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों के HCF और LCM ज्ञात कीजिए तथा इसकी जाँच कीजिए कि दो संख्याओं का गुणनफल = HCF × LCM है :
(i) 26 और 91
(ii)510 और 92
(iii) 336 और 54
हल:
(i) 26 = 2 × 13
91 = 7 × 13
HCF = 13
उत्तर LCM = 2 × 7 × 13 = 182
उत्तर अब HCF (26,91) × LCM (26,91)= 13 × 182 = 2366
एवं 26 × 91 = 2366
अत: HCF (26, 91) × LCM (26,91) = 26 × 91 सत्यापित

(ii) 510 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 17
92 = 2 × 2 × 23
HCF = 2 उत्तर
LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 17 × 23 = 23460 उत्तर
अब HCF (510, 92) × LCM (510, 92)= 2 × 23460 = 46920
एवं 510 × 92 = 46920
अत:, HCF (510, 92) × LCM (510, 92) = 510 × 92 सत्यापित

(iii) 336 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7
54 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3
HCF = 2 × 3 = 6 उत्तर
LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 7 = 3024 उत्तर
अब HCF (336,54) × LCM (336,54) = 6 × 3024 = 18144
एवं 336 × 54 = 18144
अतः HCF (336,54) × LCM (336,54) = 336 × 54 सत्यापित

365 / 838 = 0.436.

प्रश्न 3.
अभाज्य गुणनखण्ड विधि द्वारा निम्नलिखित पूर्णांकों के HCF और LCM ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) 12, 15 और 21
(ii) 17, 23 और 29
(iii) 8,9 और 25
हल :
(i) 12 = 2 × 2 × 3
15 = 3 × 5
21 = 3 × 7
HCF = 3
LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 420
अतः, अभीष्ट HCF = 3 एवं LCM = 420

(ii) 17 = 1 × 17
23 = 1 × 23
29 = 1 × 29
HCF = 1
LCM = 17 × 23 × 29 = 11339
अतः अभीष्ट HCF = 1 एवं LCM = 11339 उत्तर

(iii) 8 = 1 × 2 × 2 × 2
9 = 1 × 3 × 3
25 = 1 × 5 × 5
HCF = 1
LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 = 1800
अतः, अभीष्ट HCF = 1 एवं LCM = 1800 उत्तर

प्रश्न 4.
HCF (306, 657) = 9 दिया है। LCM (306, 657) ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
LCM (306, 657) × HCF (306, 657) = 306 × 657
⇒ LCM (306, 657) = \(\frac{306 \times 657}{9}\)
[∵ HCF (306, 657) = 9 दिया है।
⇒ LCM (306, 657)= \(\frac { 201042 }{ 9 } \) = 22338
अतः, अभीष्ट LCM (306, 657) = 22338 उत्तर

प्रश्न 5.
जाँच कीजिए कि क्या किसी प्राकृत संख्या n के लिए संख्या 6n अंक 0 पर समाप्त हो सकती है?
हल :
हम जानते हैं कि 6ⁿ = 2ⁿ × 3ⁿ का गुणनखण्ड 5 नहीं है, अतः किसी भी प्राकृत संख्या n के लिए 6n संख्या अंक 0 पर समाप्त नहीं होगी क्योंकि 0 पर समाप्त होने वाली संख्याएँ 5 से विभाज्य होती हैं और यह संख्या 5 से विभाज्य नहीं है।
अतः, ऐसी कोई संख्या n नहीं है जिसके लिए 6ⁿ अंक 0 पर समाप्त होगी। उत्तर

प्रश्न 6.
व्याख्या कीजिए कि 7 × 11 × 13 + 13 और 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 5 भाज्य संख्याएँ क्यों हैं।
हल :
7 × 11 × 13 + 13 = 13 (7 × 11 + 1) = 13 × 78
जो एक भाज्य संख्या है।
एवं 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3× 2 × 1 + 5 = 5(7 × 6 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 1)
= 5 × (1008 + 1) = 5 × 1009
जो एक भाज्य संख्या है।
अतः, दी हुई दोनों संख्याएँ भाज्य संख्याएँ हैं। उत्तर

प्रश्न 7.
किसी खेल के मैदान के चारों ओर एक वृत्ताकार पथ है। इस मैदान का एक चक्कर लगाने में सोनिया को 18 मिनट लगते हैं, जबकि इसी मैदान का एक चक्कर लगाने में रवि को 12 मिनट लगते हैं। मान लीजिए वे दोनों एक ही स्थान और एक ही समय पर चलना प्रारम्भ करके एक ही दिशा में चलते हैं। कितने समय बाद वे पुनः प्रारम्भिक स्थान पर मिलेंगे?
हल :
18 = 2 × 3 × 3 = 2¹ × 3²
12 = 2 × 2 × 3 = 2² × 3¹
LCM (18, 12) = 2² × 3² = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 = 36
अतः, वे पुन: 36 मिनट बाद प्रारम्भिक स्थान पर मिलेंगे।

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions Unit 3 Statistical Tools and Interpretation

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Important Questions

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option:

Question (a)
The most common measurement of central tendency is:
(a) Median
(b) Multiple
(c) Mean
(d) Weighted mean.
Answer:
(c) Mean

Question 2.
Division of one column in ten equal parts is called:
(a) Decile
(b) Quartile
(c) Percentile
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Decile

Question 3.
Which of the following equation is correct:
(a) Anova = σ
(b) Anova = σ ^-2
(c) Anova = σ ⁴
(d) Anova = √σ × 2.
Answer:
(b) Anova = σ ^-2

Question 4.
Where is correlation multiple placed:
(a) Between 0 and + 1
(b) Between – 1 and 0
(c) Between – 1 and + 1
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Between – 1 and + 1

Question 5.
Base year is:
(a) Comparison year
(b) Present year
(c) Any year
(d) One year previous to present year.
Answer:
(a) Comparison year

Percentage Difference calculator is a free online tool to find the percent difference between two numbers.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Rule of ……………………….. is supposed to be idle for creation of index.
2. Multiple is the value of column in which ……………………… comes repeatedly.
3. The value which divides the column into more than two parts is called ……………………………
4. ………………………. is the difference between maximum and minimum value.
5. …………………………. is the simple ray that shows relation between two values.

Answer:

1. Fisher
2. Maximum
3. Division
4. Range
5. Analogical relation.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b).

Question 4.
State true or false:

1. Cumulative frequency shows “less than” or “more than” of any sequence.
2. 5 is the mode of the numbers 3, 4, 3, 5, 5, 3, 2.
3. Range is found by adding highest value and smallest value.
4. Money inflation is measured on changes of index number of whole sale market of weekly statement.
5. High income leads high savings.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True.

Question 5.
Answer in one word:

1. Graphic method of studying dispersion.
2. Definite relation between two or more groups.
3. One which divides column in ten equal parts.
4. In India which index helps to measure average change in prices.
5. Saving is directly related to.

Answer:

1. Lorenz curve
2. Correlation
3. Deciles
4. Consumer Price Index
5. Income.

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Measure of central tendency is the single value which represents the characteristics of the entire universe.

Question 2.
Which is the popular measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Arithmetic mean.

Question 3.
Define Arithmetic mean?
Answer:
It is defined as the sum of the values of all observations divided by the number of observations.

Question 4.
Find out mode from the following data:
7, 12, 8, 5, 9, 10, 9, 11, 96
Answer:
9 is the number which is repeated maximum number of times. Hence, mode is 9.

Question 5.
Write the formula of weighted arithmetic mean?
Answer:
Weighted Arithmetic Mean = \(\frac{ΣWx}{ΣW}\)

Question 6.
Arrange the following series in descending order:
5, 16, 18, 2, 13, 15, 3, 19, 17, 20.
Answer:
20, 19, 18, 17, 16, 15, 13, 5, 3, 2

Question 7.
Name any two positional averages?
Answer:

1. Median and
2. Mode.

Question 8.
What is median?
Answer:
Median is that value which divides a series into two equal parts.

Question 9.
Write the formula of median in discrete series?
Answer:
Median (M) = size of (\(\frac{N+1}{2}\))^th item.

Question 10.
Write the formula of median in continuous series?
Answer:
Median (M) =

Question 11.
What is Quartile?
Answer:
It divides the series into four equal parts. These are three quartiles Q₁, Q₂ and Q₃.

Question 12.
Write the formula of first quartile?
Answer:
First Quartile (Q₁) =

Question 13.
Write the formula of third quartile?
Answer:
Third quartile (Q₃) =

Question 14.
What is a mode?
Answer:
Mode is defined as that value which occurs the most frequently in the distribution.

Question 15.
Write the formula to calculate mode?
Answer:
Mode Z =

Question 16.
Write the names of two measures of central tendency which can be determined from graph paper?
Answer:

1. Median and
2. Mode.

Question 17.
Which is the mostly used measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Mean.

Question 18.
Which measure of central tendency is not affected by extreme values?
Answer:
Median.

Question 19.
What is Percentile?
Answer:
Percentile divides the series into 100 equal parts.

Question 20.
Which measure of central tendency is used to explain qualitative data?
Answer:
Mode.

Question 21.
Name the measure of central tendency which is based on all items?
Answer:
Mean.

Question 22.
Define measure of dispersion?
Answer:
Dispersion measures that extent to which different items tend to disperse away from an average.

Question 23.
What is Range?
Answer:
Range is the difference between the highest value and lowest value in a series.

Question 24.
Write the formula of range?
Answer:
Range = Highest value in series – Lowest value in series.

Question 25.
Define Quartile deviation?
Answer:
Quartile deviation is the half of inter quartile range.

Question 26.
Write the formula of quartile deviation?
Answer:
Quartile deviation = \(\frac { Q_{ 3 }-Q_{ 1 } }{ 2 } \)

Question 27.
Write the formula of coefficient of quartile deviation?
Answer:
Coefficient of quartile deviation = \(\frac{Q_{3}-Q_{1}}{Q_{3}+Q_{1}}\)

Question 28.
Define mean deviation?
Answer:
It is the arithmetic mean of the deviations of various items from their average.

Question 29.
Write the formula of coefficient of mean deviation?
Answer:
Coefficient of mean deviation = \(\frac { MD }{ \overline { XorMorZ } } \)

Question 30.
Define standard deviation?
Answer:
Standard deviation is the square root of the arithmetic mean of the squares of all deviation.

Question 31.
Write the formula of standard deviation?
Answer:
Standard deviation =

Question 33.
What is coefficient of variation?
Answer:
It is the percentage variation in the mean, the standard deviation being considered as the total variation in the mean.

Question 34.
Write the formula of coefficient of variation?
Answer:
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac { \sigma }{ \overline { X } } \) × 100.

Question 35.
What does Lorenz curve show?
Answer:
Lorenz curve is the graphic representation of dispersion in a distribution. It shows the actual distribution of items.

Question 36.
What is coefficient of correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is an analysis of covariation between two or more variables.

Question 37.
What is positive correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is said to be positive when two variables move together in the same direction.

Question 38.
What is negative correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is said to be negative when two variables move together in the opposite direction.

Question 39.
If coefficient of correlation is zero then what does it mean?
Answer:
There is no correlation between two variable.

Question 40.
Write the formula of Karl Pearson to calculate correlation?
Answer:
\(r=\frac{\sum x y}{N \sigma_{1} \sigma_{2}}\)

Question 41.
When is Spearman’s rank difference method used?
Answer:
When variables are qualitative like Beauty, Bravery, Ability, Intelligence etc.

Question 42.
Write the formula of Spearman’s rank difference method?
Answer:

Question 44.
What is the measure of Index in base year?
Answer:
100.

Question 45.
What is base year?
Answer:
Base year is the year of reference with which the extent of change in the current year is measured.

Question 46.
Write two types of Index number?
Answer:

1. Simple Index number and
2. Weighted Index number.

Question 47.
What is simple index number?
Answer:
These are the index numbers in which all items of the series are accorded equal importance.

Question 48.
What is weighted index number?
Answer:
These are the index numbers in which different items of the series are accorded different weightage, depending upon their relative importance.

Question 49.
Who publishes wholesale price index in India?
Answer:
Central statistics organization (CSO).

Question 50.
What does wholesale price index show?
Answer:
It measures the relative changes in the prices of commodity traded in the wholesale markets.

Question 51.
On which basis wholesale price index is available in India?
Answer:
Weekly basis.

Question 52.
What is the other name of consumer price index?
Answer:
Cost of living index.

Question 53.
Define consumer price index?
Answer:
Consumer price index is the index number which measures the average change in prices paid by the specific class of consumers for goods and services consumed by them in the current year in comparison with base year.

Question 54.
What is base year of Index number of Industrial production?
Answer:
1993 – 1994.

Question 55.
What is Assumed mean?
Answer:
Assumed mean is the value of a series which helps in calculating the arithmetic mean.

Question 56.
What is senses?
Answer:
Sensex is an index representing the movement in share price of major companies listed in Bombay stock exchange.

Question 57.
What is the base year of sensex?
Answer:
1978 – 1979.

Question 58.
How many companies are included in sensex?
Answer:
30.

Question 59.
What does it mean when sensex goes up?
Answer:
If sensex goes up it means that the prices of the stocks of most of the companies under BSE sensex have gone up.

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A measure of dispersion is a good supplement to the central value in under – standing a frequency distribution? Comment?
Answer:
Dispersion is the extent to which values in a distribution differ from the average of the distribution. Knowledge of only average is insufficient as it does not reflect the quantum of variation in values. Measures of dispersion enhance the understanding of a distribution considerably by providing information about how much the actual value of items in a series deviate from the central value, e.g., per capita income. Thus, a measure of dispersion is a good supplement to the central value in understanding a frequency distribution.

Question 2.
Which measure of dispersion is the best and how?
Answer:
Standard deviation is considered to be the best measure of dispersion and is therefore the most widely used measure of dispersion.

1. It is based on all values and thus provides information about the complete series.
2. It is independent of origin but not of scale.
3. It is useful in advanced statistical calculations like comparison of variability in two data sets.
4. It can be used in testing of hypothesis.
5. It is capable of further algebraic treatment.

Question 3.
Some measures of dispersion depend upon the spread of values whereas some calculate the variation of values from a central value. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, it is true that some measures of dispersion depend upon the spread of values, whereas some calculate the variation of values from the central value. Range and Quartile Deviation measure the dispersion by calculating the spread within which the value lie. Mean deviation and standard deviation calculate the extent to which the values differ from the average or the central value.

Question 4.
In town, 25% of the persons earned more than? 45,000 whereas 75% earned more than 18,000. Calculate the absolute and relative values of dispersion?
Answer:
25% of the persons earned more than 45,000. This implies that upper quartile Q₃ = 45,000 75% earned more than 18,000. This implies that lower quartile Q₁ = 18,000. Absolute measure of dispersion = Q₃ – Q₁ = 45,000 – 18,000 = 27,000
Relative measure of Dispersion:
Co – efficient of Quartile Deviation = \(\frac { Q_{ 3 }-Q_{ 1 } }{ Q_{ 3 }+Q_{ 1 } } \) where Q₃ = 3rd Quartile Q₁ = 1st Quartile
= \(\frac{45,000-18,000}{45,000+18,000}\) = \(\frac{27,000}{63,000}\)

Question 5.
When is rank correlation more precise than simple correlation coefficient?
Answer:
Rank correlation is more precise than simple correlation coefficient in the following situations:

1. When the measurement of the variables are suspect e.g., in a remote village where measuring rods or weighing scales are not available, height and weight of people cannot be measured precisely but the people can be easily ranked in terms of height and weight.

2. When data is qualitative: It is difficult to quantify qualities such as fairness, honesty etc.

3. When data has extreme values: Sometimes the correlation coefficient between two variables with extreme values may be quite different form the coefficient without the extreme values. Under these circumstances rank correlation provides a better alternative to simple correlation.

Question 6.
Does zero correlation mean independence?
Answer:
No, zero correlation does not mean independence. If there is zero correlation (r_XY= 0), it means the two variables are uncorrelated and there is no linear relation between them. However, other types of relation may be there and they may not be independent.

Question 7.
Why do we need on Index number?
Answer:
Index number are needed due to the following reasons:

1. Measurement of change in the price level or the value of money.
2. Information of foreign trade.
3. Calculating real wages.
4. Measuring and comparing output.
5. Policy making of government.

Question 8.
What are the desirable properties of the base period?
Answer:
Base period should have the following properties:

1. The base year should be a normal period and periods in which extraordinary events have occurred should not be taken as base periods as they are not appropriate for general comparisons.
2. Extreme value should not be selected as base period.
3. The period should not be too far in the past as comparison with current period cannot be done with such base year as policies, economic and social conditions change with time.
4. It should be updated periodically.

Question 9.
Why is it essential to have different CPI for categories of consumers?
Answer:
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India is calculated for different categories as under:

1. CPI for industrial workers.
2. CPI for urban non – manual employees.
3. CPI for agricultural labourers.

Question 10.
What is the difference between a price index and a quantity index?
Answer:
The difference between a Price index and a Quantity index:
Price Index:

1. It measure and allow for comparison of the prices of certain goods.
2. Its widely used.
3. It is known as unweighted index numbers.

Quantity Index:

1. It measure the changes in the physical volume of production construction or employment.
2. Its narrowly used.
3. It is known as weighted index numbers.

Question 11.
“Index numbers are Economic Barometers”? Explain?
Answer:
Index numbers are used to measure the level of economic activities like barometers. They are called as barometers due to following reasons:

1. Wholesale price index number shows the changes in general price level which can be used for any consumer category.
2. Index number of agricultural production is a weighted average of quantity relatives.
3. Index number is a useful guide to help in decision making while investing in the stock market.

Question 12.
What is “mode”? Explain its merits?
Answer:
The word “mode” has been derived from the French word “La mode” which means fashion. In statistics, mode means the value, which occurs most frequently in the series. Following are the merits of mode:

1. Simple calculation:
Calculation of mode is simple. Sometimes in individual and discrete series it can be found out by inspection only.

2. Least effect of extreme values:
Mode is not affected by extreme values. If the groups are unequal even then mode can be calculated.

3. Representative measure:
Mode is a representative and real measure of the series because this is one of the values from the group itself.

4. Use in quantitative facts:
Mode is also used for describing the quantitative data.

Question 13.
Explain the merits and demerits of Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation?
Answer:
Merits:

1. This method gives us precise magnitude of the correlation due to which interpretation of result becomes easy.
2. It is the most popular method of measuring relationship between the two variables.
3. It expresses the direction and degree of change in two variables.

Demerits:

1. It cannot be used to quantity qualities such as honesty fairness, etc.
2. The value of correlation are largely affected by the values of extreme items.

Question 14.
Explain the merits and demerits of Spearman rank difference method?
Answer:
Merits:

1. Simple:
Spearman’s ranking method is very simple compare to Pearson’s method. It can be easily calculated and understood than Pearsonian coefficient of correlation. In Karl Pearson’s method more calculation are required

2. Compulsory calculations:
In case ranks of values in the series are given rank methods is the only way to compute coefficient of correlation.

3. Useful for data of qualitative nature:
In case the data is related to ability, performance, beauty, honesty, intelligence and honesty etc. So this is the most suitable method to calculate coefficient of correlation.

4. Same result:
The answer obtained by rank method equals the answers determined through Pearsonian method, if values are not repeated.

5. Convenient:
This method can be used convenient by even if numbers in series are given in irregular way.

6. Best method:
This method is the best method in cases where the correlation is found by personal data.

7. This method is appropriate when number of elements is only 20 or 30.

Demerits:
Though the method is good but still there are certain drawbacks in it. They are as follows:

1. Unsuitable of grouped frequency distribution:
This method cannot be used for finding out correlation in grouped frequency distribution. This method is applicable only in individual observation.

2. Unsuitable if the values of the series exceed 30:
In such cases, obtaining ranks their difference and square becomes difficult so Pearsonian coefficient of correlation method is recommended. When N becomes more than thirty the counting becomes complicated. The scope of this method is limited.

3. Lack in precision:
This method is based on ranks. All the information related to data is not used, so it lacks precision as compared to Pearsonian method of coefficient of correlation.

Question 15.
The monthly expenditure of some families in a village are as follows:

Calculate range and its coefficient?
Answer:
Range = H – L
= 5,000 – 500 = 4,500 Rs.
Coefficient of range = \(\frac{H – L}{H + L}\) = \(\frac{5000 – 500}{5000 + 500}\) =\(\frac { 4500 }{ 5500 }\) = 0.82

Question 16.
Two factories A and B are established in one industry? Following information are available about them:

In which of factory wages rates are more?
Answer:
To find out the difference in wage rates we will have to find out coefficient of variation.
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{S D}{\bar{X}} \times 100\)
Coefficient of variation of factory A = \(\frac{3}{120}\) × 100 = 2.5 %
Coefficient of variation of factory B = \(\frac{4}{85}\) × 100 = 4.7 %
Wage rates of factory B is more.

Question 17.
Explain the importance of correlation in statistics?
Answer:
Some importance features about the correlation:

1. The correlation of a sample is represented by the letter r.
2. The range of possible values for a correlation is between – 1 to +1.
3. A positive correlation indicates a positive linear association. The strength of the positive linear association increases as the correlation becomes closer to +1.
4. A negative correlation indicates a negative linear association. The strength of the negative linear association increases as the correlation becomes closer to -1.
5. A correlation of either +1 or -1 indicates a perfect linear relationship. This is hard to find with real data.

Question 18.
Explain the utility of index numbers?
Answer:

1. Index numbers help in framing suitable policies:
Index numbers provide various type of information on the basis of which various policies suitable to our economy are framed. On the basis of index number the insurance companies fix their premiums and banks fix their interest rates. Railways fixed their fare on this index only. It gives knowledge about the purchasing power, industrial and agricultural production about other countries.

2. Make the difficult facts easy:
By index number, sometimes we make some facts and events easy which is not possible by any other method. For example, measurement of trading activities is not possible by studying single fact. But by analysing the progress of industrial production, Banking and transportation the trading index can be found out. Many emotional facts take the concrete form with the help of index. Thus, they are made simple and easier for general people.

3. Comparative study is possible:
By index number comparative study is possible. This is because they express changes in relative form so it is not difficult to compare two things.

4. Indication towards future economic tendency:
Index number expresses not only the present conditions but on the basis of it we can find out the conclusions of the facts of future also. Thus, we reach to the present facts with the help of future inferences and thus we get the indication of future economic tendency.

Question 19.
Define base year? What are the guidelines to be observed while determining the base year?
Answer:
Base year is the period with respect to which change is measured. Following guidelines are to be observed while determining the base year:

1. Base year should be a normal year i.e. it should be free form abnormalities like wars, earthquakes, floods, etc.
2. Base year should not be too old.
3. Base year should be clearly defined.

Question 20.
Construct price index for 1990 taking 1989 as base year from the following information:

Answer:
Calculation of Price Index by simple aggregative method:

Price Index for year 1990 (P₀₁) = \(\frac { \Sigma P_{ 1 } }{ \Sigma P_{ 0 } } \) x 100
= \(\frac{360}{300}\) x 100
= \(\frac{36000}{300}\) = 120
These is a net increase of (120 – 100) = 20% in prices in 1989 as compared to 1990.

Question 21.
Calculate Index for 1989 taking base year 1989 by average of price relatives method?

Answer:
Calculation of Price Index by average of price relatives method:

Question 22.
Calculation of Index by Laspeyre’s method from the following:

Answer:
Calculate of Index by Laspeyre’s method:

Question 23.
Calculate index by Paasche’s method the following:

Answer:
Calculation of index by Paasche’s method:

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
If the arithmetic mean of the data given below is 28. Find:

1. Missing frequency
2. Median of the series.

Answer:
Calculation of missing frequency:

\(\overline { X } \) = \(\frac{Σfm}{Σf}\)
or 28 = \(\frac{2100+35x}{80+x}\)
or or 2240+ 28x = 2100 + 35x
or 2240 – 2100 = 35x – 28x
or 7x = 140
x = \(\frac{140}{7}\)
Hence, missing frequncy is 20.

Question 2.
Calculate median from the following:

Answer:
Calculation of median:

Median = Size of (\(\frac{N}{2}\))^th items.
= \(\frac{100}{2}\)^th item.
= 50^th item.
50th median class is 20 – 30.

= 20 + \(\frac{20}{27}\) x 10 = 20 + 7.41 = 27.41

Question 3.
Calculate arithmetic mean by shortcut method:

Answer:
Calculate of mean by shortcut method:

Formula: \(\overline { X } \) = A + \(\frac { \Sigma fdx }{ N } \)
Here, \(\overline { X } \) = ?, N = 100, A = 25, Σfdx = 620.
∴ \(\overline { X } \) = 25 + \(\frac{620}{100}\) = 25 + 6.2 = 31.2.

Question 4.
Calculate mode from the following data:

Answer:
From the following table modal class is 20 – 30 as its frequency is the highest.

Question 5.
Calculate quartiles from the followings:

Answer:
Calculate of quartiles:

Q₁ = \(\frac{N+1}{4}\) th item = \(\frac{100+1}{4}\) th item.
= 25.25 th item
= 25 th item + 0.25 (26 th item – 25 th item)
= 7 + 0.25 (7-7)
= 7 + 0.25(0) = 7 + 0 = 7.
Q₂ = 2 (\(\frac{N+1}{4}\)) th item = 50.50 th item.
= 50 th item + 0.5 (51th item – 50th item)
= 9 + 0.5 (9 – 9) = 9 + 0.5(0) = 9 + 0 = 9.
Q₃ = 3 (\(\frac{N+1}{4}\)) th item = 75.75 th item
75th item + 0.75 (76 th item – 75 th item)
= 16 + 0.75 (16 – 16)
= 16 + 0.75(0) = 16 + 0
= 16.

Question 6.
Calculate dispersion and relative measures of dispersion:

Answer:
Calculating relative measure of dispersion:

Here, R = ?, L = 35.5, S = 3.5.
Formula: R = L – S = 35.5 – 3.5 = 32
∴ Relative measure of dispersion = \(\frac{L-S}{L+S}\)
= \(\frac{35.5-3.5}{35.5+3.5}\)
= \(\frac{32}{39}\) = 0.8205 (Approx).

Question 7.
Calculate quartile deviation and its coefficient from the following data:

Answer:
Calculation of quartile deviation and its coefficient:

Q₁ = Size of \(\frac{N+1}{4}\) th item = Size of \(\frac{87+1}{4}\) th item.
= Size of \(\frac{88}{4}\) th item.
= Size of 22 th item, which lies in C.F. 38
∴ Q₁ =9

∴ Coefficient of Q.D. = 0.5.

Question 8.
The yield of wheat and rice per acre for 10 districts of a state:

Calculate mean deviation about mean.
Answer:

Question 9.
The yield of wheat and rice of 10 districts of a state are:

Calculate mean deviation from median.
Answer:

Question 10.
The yield of rice and wheat of 10 districts of a state are:

Calculate standard deviation and its coefficient?
Answer:

Question 11.
A batsman is to be selected for a cricket team? The choice is between X and Y on the basis of their scores in five previous scores which are:

Which batsman should be selected if we want?

1. A higher run gether or
2. A more reliable batsman is the team

Answer:

Question 12.
Calculate the correlation coefficient between the heights of fathers in inches (x) and their son (y):?

Answer:

Question 13.
Calculate coefficient of correlation between x and y, and comment on their relationship?

Answer:

These are perfectly positive correlation between x and y.

Question 14.
There are 80 students in a class. Average marks of statistics in class is 65 marks. There are two sections in the class, first have 50 students whose average marks is 60. Calculate the average marks of other section?
Answer:
Total students N = 80
Average of marks \(\bar{X}_{1}\) = 65
Students of 1st section N₁ = 50
Students of second section N₂ = 80 – 50 = 30
Average marks of students of 1st section \(\bar{X}_{1}\) = 60
N \(\bar{X}_{1}\) = + N₁ \(\overline { X } _{ 1 }\) + N₂ \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\)
80 x 65 = 50 x 60 + 30 \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\)
5,200 – 3,000 = 30 \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\)
30 \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\) = 2,200
Average marks of students of 2nd section \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
\(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\) = 73.33.

Question 15.
Calculate mode from the following data:

Answer:
Modal class is 30 – 40 as from observation highest frequency is 32?

Question 16.
The median in following table is 42? Determine the missing frequency?

Answer:
Let the frequency of class 20 – 30 be f₂ Unknown frequency of class 50 – 60 f₂.

N = 288 = 106 + f_{1 +} f₂
160 + f₁ + f₂ = 288
f₁ + f₂ = 288
f₁ + f₂ = 288 – 106 = 182
Median 42 is in class 40 – 50.

= 5 (42 – 40) = 94 – f₁
= 210 – 200 = 94 – f₁
= 10 – 94 = – f₁
f₁ = 84
f₁ + f₂ = 182
f₂ = 182 – f₁ = 182 – 84
f₂ = 98

Question 17.
Compare the arithmetic mean, median and mode as measures of central tendency?
Answer:
Following table shows the comparison of arithmetic mean, median and mode as measures of central tendency:

Question 18.
Distinguish between mean deviation and standard deviation?
Answer:
Following are differences between mean deviation and standard deviation:

1. Algebraic sign like plus (+) and minus (-) are ignored while calculating mean deviation, they are taken into account in the calculation of standard deviation.
2. Mean deviation can be calculated by any of the three averages i.e., mean, median and mode standard deviation can be calculated only by the Arithmetic mean.
3. Mean deviation cannot be used for further algebraic treatment while standard deviation is capable of further algebraic treatment.
4. Standard deviation is considered to be superior to mean deviation.
5. Mean deviation is easy to calculated and to understand as compared to standard deviation.

Question 19.
Calculate standard deviation from the following data:

Answer:

Question 20.
Calculate coefficient of correlation by Karl Pearson method from following data:

Answer:

Question 21.
Calculate coefficient of correlation by Karl Pearson method from following data:

Answer:

Question 22.
Calculate coefficient of correlation by Spearman rank difference method?

Answer:

Question 23.
In a drama competition two judges gave the following marks to 10 participants? Calculate rank coefficient?

Answer:

Question 24.
What is index number? What is its importance in statistics?
Answer:
An index number is a specialised average designed to measure the net change in a group of related variables over a period of time. Following are the main uses of index number which show its importance in statistics:

1. To simplify complicated matters:
Index numbers present the given information in such a manner that it can be easily understood.

2. To measure comparative changes:
Index numbers facilitate comparison of changes from time to time, among different places and in series expressed in different units. The changes in price level, cost of living etc. which are not capable to measurement directly are measured with the help of index numbers.

3. To frame suitable policies:
Index numbers guide a lot in framing suitable economic policies. For example, wholesale and retail price index number help in economic and business policy – making regarding, price, output, demand, sales etc. The indices of consumption of various commodities help in the planning of their future production. Index numbers are applied with advantage for formulating and revising their policies from time to time.

4. To measure the purchasing power of money:
Index numbers are helpful in measuring the purchasing power, i. e., value of the money. This helps in fixing proper wage policy in the country.

5. To study trends and to make forecast:
Index number are most widely used for measuring changes over a period of time. On the basis of present indices, the forecast for the future can be made.

Question 25.
What is the purpose of constructing an index number of price and quantities?
Answer:
The purpose of constructing and index number of prices is to enable us to compare prices of certain goods over a period of time. It is used to measure change in the price level or the value of money during different periods of time.

The purpose of constructing an index number of quantities is to enable us to compare physical quantity of goods produced, consumed or distributed over a period of time. It is used to show whether the level of agricultural and industrial production in the economy is increasing or decreasing.

Question 26.
What are the limitations of index number?
Answer:
The limitation of index numbers are as follows:

1. Since index numbers are based on sample data, they only provide approximate results which may not exactly represent the changes in relative levels.
2. There are more chances of errors in construction of index numbers. It may be any where from level of selection of commodities to choice of the formula.
3. Index numbers often find difficulty to record change in the quality of a variable.
4. There does not exist a unique index number method which is acceptable to all.
5. Index numbers are also misused by dishonest persons to draw desirable conclusion for their selfish motives.

Question 27.
Throw light on importance of consumer price index?
Answer:
The importance of consumer price index is:

• It is used to determine the purchasing power of money and real wages.
• It is also used to analyze the market of specific commodities.
• It helps to formulate government policies.
• It helps in estimation of national income.
• Cost of living index numbers are used as basis for the wage adjustments.

Question 28.
Calculate Price Index by Fisher’s method from following data:

Answer:

Question 29.
What are the points to be kept in mind while constructing index number?
Answer:
The points to be kept in mind while constructing Index number are:

1. Purpose:
The purpose of construction of Index numbers should be clearly defined because every index number has a specific use.

2. Selection of a base years:
Selection of base year is important for construction of index number. It should be selected carefully.

3. Selection of number of Items:
It refers to collection of data which should be determined by the purpose for which the index is constructed.

4. Selection of an average:
As Index number are specialized averages. We need to decide on the average to be used. We need to select from various averages such as
arithematic mean, geometric mean, etc.

5. Selection system of weighing:
Weighing is having an important place in construction of index number. In this various goods are weighed according to their weights.

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Maths Important Questions Chapter 6 Linear Inequalities

Linear Inequalities Important Questions

Linear Inequalities Objective Type Questions

(A) Choose the correct option :

Question 1.
If x is a real number, then the solution of inequality 3x + 1 < 5x + 7 is :
(a) (- ∞, 3)
(b) (- 3,∞)
(c) (3, ∞)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) (- 3,∞)

Question 2.
If x is a real number, then the solution of inequality \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) (3x – 1) ≥ \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)(4x + 3) – 1 is :
(a) (- ∞, 3)
(b) (3, ∞)
(c) (3, ∞)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) (3, ∞)

Question 3.
The graph of x ≤ 2 and y ≥ 2 is situated in the :
(a) First and second quadrant
(b) Second and Third quadrant
(c) First and third quadrant
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) First and second quadrant

Question 4.
In linear programming problems, the objective function will be :
(a) One of the constraints
(b) A linear function which gives optimum solution
(c) Relation between varivable
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) A linear function which gives optimum solution

Question 5.
In linear constraints the maximum value of objective function will be :
(a) At the centre of feasible region
(b) At (0, 0)
(c) At one of the vertices of the feasible region
(d) At the vertex which is situated at maximum distance from (0, 0)
Answer:
(c) At one of the vertices of the feasible region

Question 6.
Which word is not used in linear programming problems :
(a) Slack variable
(b) Objective function
(c) Concave region
(d) Feasible solution.
Answer:
(a) Slack variable

Question 7.
The minimum value of p = 6x + 16y when constraints are x ≤ 40 and y ≥ 20 and x, y ≥ 0 is :
(a) 240
(b) 320
(c) 0
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) 320

Question 8.
At which point the value of 3x + 2y is maximum under the constraints x + y ≤ 2, x ≥ 0 y ≥ 0 :
(a) (0, 0)
(b) (1.5, 1.5)
(c) (2, 0)
(d) (0, 2).
Answer:
(c) (2, 0)

Question 9.
Under constraints x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, x + y ≤ 4, maximum value of P = 3x + y is :
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 6
(d) 10.
Answer:
(b) 12

Question 10.
Under constraints x – 2y ≥ 6, x + 2y ≥ 0, x ≤ 6 , maximum value of P = x + 3y is :
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19.
Answer:
(c) 18

Question 11.
Feasible solution of linear programming is in :
(a) Second quadrant only
(b) First and third quadrant
(c) First and second quadrant
(d) First quadrant only.
Answer:
(d) First quadrant only.

Question 12.
If x is a real number and |x| < 4, then :
(a) x ≥ 4
(b) – 4 < x < 4
(c) x ≤ – 4
(d) – 4 ≤ x ≤ 4
Answer:
(b) – 4 < x < 4

Question 13.
Solution of inequality 3x – 2 < 0 will be :
(a) [3, ∞]
(b) [- ∞, \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)]
(c) [3, 2]
(d) [2, 3]
Answer:
(b) [- ∞, \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)]

Welcome to our step-by-step math inequality solver.

Question 14.
The set of solutions of inequality 4x – 12 ≥ 0 is :
(a) (4, 2)
(b) [4, 12]
(c) [3, ∞]
(d) [3, ∞]
Answer:
(c) [3, ∞]

Question 15.
The solution of inequality |4x – 3| < 27 is :
(a) (- 6, \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 }\))
(b) [ – 6, \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 }\) ]
(c) [ – 6, \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 }\) )
(d) ( – 6, \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 }\) ]
Answer:
(a) (- 6, \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 }\))

Question 16.
Solution of inequality x > 2 is :

Answer:

Question 17.
Sawant has a space to store at most 13 boxes of apples and oranges. If he bought x boxes of oranges and y boxes of apples, then correct inequality will be :
(a) x + y < 13
(b) x + y > 13
(c) x + y < 13
(d) x + y = 13.
Answer:
(c) x + y < 13

Question 18.
In which point the maximum of objective function P = 10x + 6y in the following points:
(a) (0, 0)
(b) (8, 4)
(c) (10, 0)
(d) (0, 0).
Answer:
(b) (8, 4)

Question 19.
The graph of inequality x +y > 2 is :

Answer:

Question 20.
The solution of inequality 3x – 7 ≥ x + 1 is :
(a) [4, ∞]
(b) (4, ∞]
(c) (4, ∞)
(d) [4, ∞).
Answer:
(d) [4, ∞).

Question 21.
The solution of inequality 3x – 6 > 0; 2x – 6 > 0 is :
(a) [3, ∞]
(b) (3, ∞)
(c) [2, ∞)
(d) (2, ∞).
Answer:
(b) (3, ∞)

Question 22.
The solution of inequality 2x + 6 = 0; 4x – 8 < 0 is :
(a) [- 3, ∞)
(b) (3, 2)
(c) [- 3, 2)
(d)[- 3, 2].
Answer:
(c) [- 3, 2)

Question 23.
The set of solution of inequality x ≥ 0 is :
(a) All points of X – axis and first, fourth quadrants
(b) All points of first and fourth quadrants
(c) All points of first and second quadrants
(d) All points of Y – axis and first, fourth quadrants.
Answer:
(d) All points of Y – axis and first, fourth quadrants.

Question 24.
Variables of the objective function of linear Programming problem are :
(a) Negative
(b) Zero or Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Zero or Positive.
Answer:
(d) Zero or Positive.

(B) Match the following :

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (f)
5. (e)

(C) Fill in the blanks :

1. The maximum or minimum value of objective function is called ……………….
2. The graph of x ≥ 0 is situated in the ………………. quadrant.
3. The graph of y ≤ 0 is situated in the ………………. quadrant.
4. Solution of inequality 3x + 1 < 5x + 7 is (where x is an integer) ……………….
5. Solution of inequality 3x – 4 < 5 is (where x is an integer) ……………….
6. Solution of inequality 4x + 3 > – 13 is (where x is a real number) ……………….
7. Solution of inequality 7x – 2 < 5x + 4 is (where x is a real number) ……………….
8. Solution of inequality 20x < 90 is (where x is a natural number) ……………….
9. Solution of inequality 3x – 2 < x + 4 is ……………….
10. The inequality of one variable is ……………….
11. The set of solutions of y > 0 are in the ………………. and ………………. quadrant.
12. x ≥ 2 and y ≥ 2 will be situated in the graph ……………….
13. The domain of inequality 3x – 15 ≤ 0 is ……………….
14. A function whose maximum and minimum value is to be found subject to the given constrains is known as ……………….

Answer:

1. Optimum value
2. First and fourth
3. Third and fourth
4. (- 3, ∞)
5. {… – 3, – 2, -1, 0, 1, 2}
6. (- 4, ∞)
7. (- ∞, 3)
8. {1, 2, 3, 4}
9. (- ∞, 3)
10. ax + b ≥ c or ax + b ≤ c; where a ≠ 0
11. First and second
12. First and second quadrant
13. (- ∞, \(\frac { 15 }{ 3 }\))
14. Objective function

(D) Write true / false :

1. If the variable x is such that its value lies between two fixed point a and b, then {x : a < x < b} is called a closed interval.
2. The function whose maximum or minimum value is to be found is called objective function.
3. The set of values of the variable satisfying all constraint is called feasible solution of the problem.
4. The process of doing certain specified steps in a given order is called programming.
5. The set {x : a < x < b} which consists of both a and b is called open interval.
6. The solution of inequality 6x – 30 ≥ 0 will be x ≤ 5
7. The solution of inequality – 2x + 7 < – 13 will be (10, ∞).
8. The linear inequality of one variable is ax + b = 0; a ≠ 0, ∀a, b ∈
9. R. The line inequality of two variables is ax + by + c = 0; a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0, ∀a, b, c ∈ R.
10. The graph of inequality x > 0 is :
    
11. The graph of inequality y ≤ 0 is :
    
12. The solution of inequality 5x – 30 ≤ 0 is :
    

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. True
11. True
12. False.

(E) Write answer in one word / sentence :

1. In which quadrant lies the solution of x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0?
2. In which quadrant lies the solution of x ≤ 2 and y ≥ 2?
3. Write the solution of 3(2 – x) ≥ 2(1 – x) .
4. Write the solution of \(\frac { x }{ 3 }\) > \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) + 1.
5. Write the solution of \(\frac { x – 4 }{ x + 2 }\) ≤ 2.

Answer:

1. First quadrant
2. First and second quadrant
3. (- ∞, 4]
4. (- ∞, – 6)
5. (- ∞, – 8]∪(- 2, ∞)

Linear Inequalities Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Draw the graph of inequality 2x + y ≥ 6 in two – dimensional plane. (NCERT)
Solution:
Given inequality is 2 x + y ≥ 6
Consider this as an equation 2x + y = 6.
For this equation following values of x and y are given in the table :

Plot the graph using the above table. Take a point (0, 0) and put in given inequality,
2x + y ≥ 6
⇒ 2 x 0 + 0 ≥ 6
⇒ 0 ≥ 6 Which is false.
Hence, shaded portion will be opposite of origin.

∴ The shaded region represents the inequality 2x + y ≥ 6.

Question 2.
Draw the graph of inequality 3x + 4y ≤ 12 in two – dimensional plane. (NCERT)
Solution:
Given inequality : 3x + 4y = 12
Consider this as an equation 3x + 4y = 12.
For this equation the following values of x and y are given in the table :

Plot the above points in a graph paper and join them.
Put (0, 0) in given inequality,
⇒ 3x + 4y ≤ 12
⇒ 3 x 0 + 4 x 0 ≤ 12
⇒ 0 ≤ 12
Which is true.
Hence, shaded portion will be towards origin as shown in figure.

∴ The shaded region represents the inequality 3x + 4y ≤ 12

Question 3.
Draw the graph of inequality y + 8 ≥ 2x in two – dimensional plane. (NCERT)
Solution:
Given inequality : y+8 > 2x Consider this as an equation 2x – y = 8
For this equation following values of x and y are given in the table :

Plot the above points in graph paper and join them.
Put (0, 0) in the given inequality,
y + 8 ≥ 2x
⇒ 0 + 8 ≥ 2 x 0
⇒ 8 ≥ 0 Which is true.
Hence, the shaded portion will be towards origin.

∴ Shaded portion represents the inequality y + 8 ≥ 2x.

Draw the graph of following inequality in two – dimensional plane :

Question 4.
2x – 3y > 6.
Solution:
Given inequality is :
2x – 3y > 6
Consider this as an equation 2x – 3y = 6
Following table is prepared for different values of x and y :

Plot the above points on xy – plane and join them.
Put x = 0, y = 0 in given inequality,
2x – 3y > 6
⇒ 2 x 0 – 3 x 0 > 6
⇒ 0 > 6 Which is false.
Hence, the shaded portion will be opposite of origin.

∴The shaded region represents the inequality 2x – 3y > 6

Question 5.
– 3x + 2y ≥ – 6.
Solution:
Given inequality is : – 3x + 2y ≥ – 6.
Consider this as an equation – 3x + 2y = – 6.
Following table is prepared for different values of x and y :

Plotting the above points on xy – plane and join them. Put x = 0, y = 0 in given inequality,
– 3x + 2y ≥ – 6
⇒ – 3(0) + 2(0) ≥ – 6
⇒ 0 ≥ – 6 Which is true.
∴ Shaded portion will be towards origin.

Hence, the shaded portion represents the inequality – 3x + 2y ≥ – 6.

Question 6.
3y – 5x < 30.
Solution:
Given inequality: y – 5x < 30.
Consider this as an equation 3y – 5x = 30.
Following table is prepared for different values of x and y :

Ploting the above points on xy – plane and join them.
Put x = 0, y = 0 in given inequality,
3y – 5x < 30
⇒ 3(0) – 5(0) < 30
⇒ 0 < 30
Which is true.
Hence, the shaded region will be towards origin.

∴ Shaded region represents the inequality 3y – 5x < 30

Question 7.
2x + y ≥ 6, 3x + 4y ≤ 12. (NCERT)
Solution:
Given inequalities are :
2x + y ≥ 6
and 3x + 4y ≤ 12
For the equation 2x+y = 6.
Following table is prepared for different values of x and y :

Plotting the above points on xy – plane to get straight line.
Put x = 0, y = 0 in the inequality,
2x + y ≥ 6
⇒ 2 x 0 + 0 ≥ 6
⇒ 0 ≥ 6
Which is false.
∴ The shaded region will be opposite of origin.
For the equation 3x + 4y = 12.
Following table is prepared for different values of x and y :

Plotting the above points on xy – plane to get straight line.
Put x = 0, y = 0 in given inequality,
3x + 4y ≤ 12
⇒ 3 x (0) + 4(0) ≤ 12
⇒ 0 ≤ 12
Which is true.
Hence, the shaded portion will be towards origin.

∴ The common shaded region is the required solution of the given inequalities.

Question 8.
Solve the following inequalities graphically in two – dimensional plane : x + y ≥ 4, 2x – y >0. (NCERT)
Solution:
Given inequalities are :
x + y ≥ 4
and 2x – y > 0
For the equation x + y = 4, following table is prepared for different values of x and y:

Plotting the above points on xy – plane to get straight line.
Put x = 0, y = 0 in the inequality,
x + y ≥ 4
⇒ 0 + 0 ≥ 4
⇒ 0 ≥ 4
Which is false.
Hence, the shaded region will be opposite of origin.
Preparing table for different value of x and y of the equation 2x – y = 0 :

Plotting the above points in xy – plane to get straight line.
Put x = 1 and y = 0 in given inequality,
2x – y > 0
⇒ 2(1) – 0 > 0
⇒ 2 > 0
Which is true.
Hence, the shaded region will be towards of point (1,0).

The common shaded region is the required solution of the given inequalities.

Question 9.
Solve the following inequalities graphically in two – dimensional plane :
5x + 4y ≤ 20, x ≥ 1, y ≥ 2 (NCERT)
Solution:
The given inequalities are :
5x + 4y ≤ 20
x ≥ 1
y ≥ 2
Prepared table for different values of x and y of the equation 5x +4y = 20 :

Plotting the points of the above table on xy – plane to get straight line.
Then, put x = 0, y = 0 in the inequality,
5x + 4y ≤ 20
⇒ 0 + 0 ≤ 20
⇒ 0 < 20
Which is true.
∴Shaded region will be towards origin.
For equation x + O.y = 1 to get different values of x and y are in the table :

Plotting the points from table on xy plane to get straight line.
Putting x = 0, y = 0 in the inequality,
x ≥ 1
⇒ 0 ≥ 1
Which is false.
Hence, the shaded region will be opposite side of origin.
For equation 0.x + y = 2, the different values of x and y are given in the table :

Plotting the points on xy plane to get straight line.
Then, put x = 0, y = 0 (0,0) in the inequality,
y ≥ 2
⇒ 0 ≥ 2
Which is false.
Hence, the shaded region will be opposite side of origin.

∴ The common shaded region is the required solution of the given inequalities.

Question 10.
Solve the following inequalities graphically :
3x + 4y ≤ 60, x + 3y ≤ 30, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0. (NCERT)
Solution:
The given inequalities are :
3x + 4y ≤ 60
x + 3y ≤ 30
x ≥ 0
y ≥ 0
Prepared table for values of x and y of equation 3x + 4y = 60 :

Plotting the above points on xy – plane to get straight line.
Then, put x = 0, y = 0 in the inequality,
3x + 4y ≤ 60
⇒ 0 + 0 ≤ 60
⇒ 0 ≤ 60
Which is true.
Hence, the shaded portion will be towards origin.
Prepared table for values of x and y of equation x + 3y = 30:

Plotting the above points on xy – plane to get straight line.
Then, put x = 0, y = 0 in the inequality,
x + 3y ≤ 30
⇒ 0 + 0 ≤ 30
⇒ 0 ≤ 30
Which is true.
Hence, the shaded region will be towards origin.
The graph of x = 0 is y – axis and graph of y = 0 is x – axis.

The common shaded region is the required solution set of the given inequalities.

MP Board Class 11th Maths Important Questions

MP Board Class 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Heron’s Formula Ex 12.1

Question 1.
A traffic signal borard, indicating ‘SCHOOL AHEAD’, is an equilateral triangle with side ‘a’ Find the area of the signal board, using Heron’s formula. If its perimeter is 180 cm, what will be the area of the signal board?
Solution:

Question 2.
The triangular side walls of a flyover have been used for advertisements. The sides of the walls are 122 m, 22 m and 120 m (see Fig.) the advertisements yield an earning of ₹ 5000/m² per year. Acompany hired one of its walls for 3 months. How much rents did it pay?

Solution:

s = \(\frac{122+120+22}{2}\) = \(\frac{264}{2}\) = 132 m
s – a = 132 – 122 = 10 m
s – b = 132 – 22 = 12m
s – c = 132 – 22 = 110 m
area of triangular portion of wall = \(\sqrt{32x10x12x110}\)
= \(\sqrt{2x2x3x11x10x2x2x3x11x10}\)
= 10 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 11 = 1320 m²
Rate = ₹ 5000/m² per year
Rent for 3 months = 1320 x \(\frac{5000×3}{12}\)
= 330 x 5000
= ₹ 16,50,000

Question 3.
There is a slide in a park. One of its side walls has been painted in some colour with a message “Keep The Park Green And Clean” (see Fig.). If the sides of the wall are 15 m, 11 m and 6 m, find the area painted in colour.

Solution:
a = 15 m
b = 11 m
c = 6m
p = a + b + c
= 15 + 11 + 6
= 32 m P

s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{32}{2}\) = 16m
s – a = 16 – 15 = 1 m
s – b = 16 – 11 = 5 m
s – c = 16 – 6 = 10m
Area of triangular park = \(\sqrt{16x1x5x10}\)
= \(\sqrt{2x2x2x2x1x5x2x5}\)
= 2 x 2 x 5√2 = 2o\(\sqrt{2m^{2}}\)

Question 4.
Find the area of a triangle two sides of which are 18 cm and 10 cm and the perimeter is 42 cm.
Solution:

a = 18 cm
b = 10 cm
Let the third side be c
p = 42 cm
18 + 10 + C = 42
C = 14
S = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{42}{2}\) = 21 cm
s – a = 21 – 18 = 3
s – b = 21 – 10 = 11
s – c = 21 – 14 = 7
Area of ∆ = \(\sqrt{21x3x11x7}\) = \(\sqrt{3x7x3x11x7}\)
= 3 x 7\(\sqrt{11}\) = 21\(\sqrt{11}\) cm²

Question 5.
Sides of triangle are in the ratio of 12 : 17 : 25 and its perimeter is 540 cm. Find its area
Solution:
a = 12x
b = 17x
c = 25x
p = 12x + 11x + 25x = 540
54x = 540
x = \(\frac{540}{54}\) = 10
a = 12 x 10 = 120 cm
b = 17 x 10 = 170 cm
c = 25 x 10 = 250 cm
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{540}{2}\) = 270 cm
s – a = 270 – 120 = 150 cm
s – b = 270 – 170 = 100 cm
s – c = 270 – 250 = 20 cm
Area of ∆ = \(\sqrt{270x150x100x20}\)
= \(\sqrt{3x3x3x10x3x5x10x10x10x2x10}\)
= 3 x 3 x 10 x 10 x 10
= 9000 cm²

Question 6.
An isosceles triangle has perimeter 30 cm and each of the equal sides is 12 cm. Find the area of the triangle.
Solution:

a = 12 cm
b = 12cm
Let the third side be c.
p = a + b + c
30 = 12 + 12 + c
c = 30 – 24 = 6 cm
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{30}{2}\) = 15
s – a = 15 – 12 = 3
s – b = 15 – 12 = 3
s – c = 15 – 6 = 9
Area of ∆ = \(\sqrt{5x3x3x9}\)
= \(\sqrt{5x3x3x3x3x3}\)
= 3 x 3\(\sqrt{15}\) = 9\(\sqrt{15}\) cm²

Area of Quadrilaterals:
To find the area of quadrilaterals divide the quadrilateral into two triangles using a diagonal and then use heron’s formula.

Class 10 Maths formulas are the cornerstone of numeracy skills.

Example 1:
A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the same area. If the sides of the triangle are 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm and the parallelogram stands on the base 14 cm, And the height of the parallelogram.
Solution:

Here, a = 13 cm,
b = 14 cm,
c = 15 cm
Base of parallelogram =14 cm.

= 7 x 3 x 2 x 2
= 84 cm²
Let h be the height of the parallelogram ADEC.
Area of parallelogram ADEC = Area of ∆ABC (given)
Base x height = 84
14 x height = 84
h = \(\frac{84}{14}\)
= 6 cm.

Example 2:
The sides of a quadrilateral, taken in order are 5, 12, 14 and 15 meters respectively, and the angle contained by the first two sides is a right angle. Find its area.
Solution:

Here, AB = 5m
BC = 12m
CD = 14m
DA = 15 m
Join AC. The ABCD is divided into two triangles ABC and ACD. The area of the quadrilateral is equal to sum of areas of ∆ABC and ∆ADC.
In ∆ABC

area of ABCD
= ar (∆ABC) + ar (∆ACD) –
= (84 + 30)m² = 114m²

Example 3:
In a parallelogram measure of adjacent sides are 34 cm and 20 cm. One of the diagonals is 42 cm. Find the area of the parallelogram.
Solution: In Fig.

AB = DC = 34 cm
AD = BC = 20 cm
AC =42 cm.
We know that the diagonal of a parallelogram divides it into two tri¬angles of equal area.
∴ Area of parallelogram ABCD = 2 x Area of (∆ABC)
Consider ∆ABC
a = 34cm
b = 20cm
c = 42cm
s = \(\frac{a+b+c}{2}\)
= \(\frac{34+20+42}{2}\)
= \(\frac{96}{2}\) = 48 cm
s – a = 48 – 34 = 14 cm
s – b = 48 – 20 = 28 cm
s – c = 48 – 42 = 6 cm
By Heron’s formula,

= 2 x 2 x 6 x 14
= 336 cm²
∴ Area of (∥^gm ABCD) = 2 x 336
= 672 cm²

Example 4:
A rhombus sheet, whose perimeter is 32 m and whose one diagonal is 10 m long, is painted on both sides at the rate of? 5 per m2. Find the cost of painting.
Solution:

Given P = 32m
BD = 10m
Rate of painting = ₹ 5/m²
Let the sides of rhombus be x m.
P = Ax
⇒ 32 = 4x
∴ x = 8m
So, AB = BC = CD = DA = 8 m
We know that the diagonal of a rhombus divides it into two triangles of equal area. .
∴ Area of rhombus ABCD = 2 x area of ∆ABD
Consider ∆ABD
a = 8m
b = 8m
c = 10m
S = \(\frac{a+b+c}{2}\) = \(\frac{8+8+10}{2}\)
= 13 m.
s – a = 13 – 8 = 5 m
s – b = 13 – 8 = 5m
s – c = 13 -10 = 3 m
By Heron’s formula,
Area of ∆ABD = \(\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}\)
= \(\sqrt{3x5x5x3}\)
= 5 x \(\sqrt{39}\)
= 5 x 6.24 = 31.2 m²
Area of rhombus ABCD = 2 x 31.2 = 62.4 m²
Area of rhombus to be painted = 2 x area of rhombus (∴ Painting is to be done on both sides)
= 2 x 62.4 = 124.80
Cost of painting = Rate x Area
= 5 x 124.80
= ₹ 624.

Example 5:
Two parallel sides of a trapezium are 60 cm and 77 cm other sides are 25 cm and 26 cm. Find the area of trapezium.
Solution:

Given AB = 60 cm
DC = 77 cm
AD = 25 cm
BC =26 cm
Draw a line BE ∥ AD from point B.
In ABED
AB ∥ DE
AD ∥ BE
ABED is a parallelogram.
AB = DE = 60
EC = 77 – 60 = 17 cm.
AD = BE = 25 cm
In ∆BEC
a = EC = 17 cm
b = BE = 25 cm
c = BC = 26cm
s = \(\frac{17+25+36}{2}\)
s – a = 34 – 17 = 17 cm
s – b = 34 – 25 = 9 cm
s – c = 34 – 26 = 8cm
By Heron’s formula,

MP Board Class 9th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Science Solutions Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals of Climate

Weather Climate and Adaptations of Animals of Climate  Intext Questions

Question 1.
I wonder who prepares the wheather report?
Answer:
The weather reports are prepared by the Meteorological Department of the Government.

Question 2.
I wonder why weather changes so frequently?
Answer:
Because factors affecting weather like temperature, humidity, etc. vary frequently.

Question 3.
What is the source of whether in the first place?
Answer:
All changes in the weather are caused due to sun.

Question 4.
Do fishes and butterflies also migrate like birds?
Answer:
No.

Weathering the storm in ersama mcq​ Question·

Activity
Fill all the columns according to the data in the chart that you have prepared.
Answer:
Table
Weather data of a week

(Rainfall may not be recorded for all the days since it may not rain everyday.)

Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals of Climate Text Book Exercises

Question 1.
Name the elements that determine the weather of a place?
Answer:
The day – to – day condition of the atmosphere at a place with respect to the temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind – speed, etc., is called the weather at that place.

Question 2.
When are the maximum and minimum temperature likely to occur during the day?
Answer:
The maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in the afternoon while the minimum temperature occurs in the early morning.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The average weather taken over a long time is called …………..
2. A place receives very little rainfall and the temperature is high throughout the year, the climate of that place will be ……………. and
3. The two regions of the earth with extreme climatic conditions are ………….. and ……………

Answer:

1. Climate of the place
2. Hot, dry
3. Tropical, polar regions.

Question 4.
Indicate the type of climate of the following areas:

1. Jammu and Kashmir –
2. Kerala –
3. Rajasthan –
4. North – east India –

Answer:

1. Moderately hot and moderately wet climate.
2. Very hot and wet climate.
3. Hot and dry climate.
4. Wet climate.

Question 5.
Which of the two changes frequently weather or climate?
Answer:
Weather.

Question 6.
Following are some of the characteristics of animals:

1. Diets heavy on fruits
2. White fur
3. Need to migrate
4. Loud voice
5. Sticky pads on feet
6. Layer of fat under skin
7. Wide and large paws
8. Bright colours
9. Strong tails
10. Long and Large beak.

For each characteristic indicate whether it is adaptation for tropical rainforests or polar regions. Do you think that some of there characteristics can be adapted for both regions?
Answer:

1. Tropical rainforests
2. Polar region
3. Polar region
4. Tropical rainforesl
5. Tropical rainforests
6. Polar region
7. Polar region
8. Tropical rainforets
9. Tropical rain.forests
10. Tropical rainfore’t

Question 7.
The tropical rainforest has a large population of animals. Explain why it is so?
Answer:
Tropical rain are found in Western Ghats and Assam in India, South – east Asia, central America and Central Africa. Because of continuous warmth and rain, this region supports wide variety of plants and animals. The major types of animals living in the rainforests are apes, gorillas, monkeys, tigers, lions, leopards, lizards, elephants, insects, birds and snakes.

The climate conditions in rainforests are highly suitable for supporting an enormous number and variety of animals. Thus, we can say that because of the hospitable climate conditions huge populations of plants and animals are found in the tropical rainforests.

Question 8.
Explain, with examples, why we find animals of certain kind living in particular climatic conditions?
Answer:
Animals are adapted to survive in the conditions in which they live. Animals living in very cold and hot climate must possess special features to protect themselves against the extreme cold or heat. Polar bears have white fur so that they are not easily visible in the snowy white background. It protects them from their predators. It also helps them in catching their prey. To protect them from extreme cold, they have two thick layers of fur.

They also have a layer of fat under their skin. In fact, they are so well – insulated that they have to move slowly and rest often to avoid getting overheated. Physical activities on warm days necessitate cooling. So, the polar bear goes for swimming. It is a good swimmer. Its paws are wide and large, which help it not only to swim well but also walk with ease in the snow. While swimming under water, it can close its nostrils and can remain under water for long durations.

It has a strong sense of smell so that it can catch its prey for food. Another well – known animal living in the polar regions is the penguin (Fig.). It is also white and merges well wTith the white background. It also has a thick skin and a lot of fat to protect it from cold. You may have seen pictures of penguins huddled together. This they do to keep warm.

Question 9.
How do elephant living in the tropical rainforest adapt itself?
Answer:
The elephant has adapted to the conditions of rainforests in many remarkable ways. Look at its trunk. It uses it as a nose because of whjch it has a strong sense of smell. The trunk is also used by it for picking up food. Moreover, its tusks are modified teeth. These can tear the bark of trees that elephant loves to eat.

So, the elephant is able to handle the competition for food rather well. Large ears of the elephant help it to hear even very soft sounds. They also help the elephant to 4 keep cool in the hot and humid climate of the rainforest.

Choose the correct option which answers the following question:

Question 10.
A carnivore with stripes on its body moves very fast while catching its prey. It is likely to be found in

1. Polar regions
2. Deserts
3. Oceans
4. Tropical rainforests.

Answer:
4. Tropical rainforests.

Question 11.
Which features adapt polar bears to live in extremely cold climate?

1. A white fur, fat below skin, keen sense of smell.
2. Thin skin, large eyes, a white fur.
3. A long tail, strong claws, white large paws.
4. White body, paws for swimming, gills for respiration.

Answer:
1. A white fur, fat below skin, keen sense of smell.

Question 12.
Which option best describes a tropical region?

1. Hot and humid
2. Moderate temperature, heavy rainfall
3. Cold and humid
4. Hot and dry.

Answer:
1. Hot and humid.

Extended Learning – Projects and Activities

Question 1.
Collect weather reports of seven successive days in the winter months (preferably December). Collect similar reports for the summer months (preferably June). Now prepare a table for sunrise and sunset times as shown:
Table

Try to answer the following questions:

1. Is there any difference in the time of sunrise during summer and winter?
2. When do you find that the sun rises earlier?
3. Do you also find any difference in the time of sunset during the month of June and December?
4. When are the days longer?
5. When are the nights longer?
6. Why are the days sometimes longer and sometimes shorter?
7. Plot the length of the days against the days chosen in June and December?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Sunrises earlier during summer.
3. Yes, sunsets earlier during winter.
4. During summer, the days are longer.
5. During winter, the nights are longer.
6. Earth revolves around the sun. During different times, the angle of earth with the sun changes. This causes the difference in length of day and night.
7. Length.

Question 2.
Collect information about the Indian Meteorological Department. If possible visit its website: http//www.imd.gov.in. Write a brief report about the things this department does.
Answer:
Do with the help of your subject teacher.

Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals of Climate Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct alternative:

Question (i)
The weather reports are prepared by the –
(a) Meteorological Department of the Government
(b) Agricultural Department of the Government
(c) Radio and TV Department of the Government
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Meteorological Department of the Government

Question (ii)
The climate of the north – east is –
(a) Hot
(b) Wet
(c) Cold
(d) Dry.
Answer:
(b) Wet

Question (iii)
The climate of the western region is –
(a) Hot
(b) Wet
(c) Dry
(d) Hot and dry.
Answer:
(d) Hot and dry.

Question (iv)
The lion – tailed macaque lives in the rainforests of –
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Western Ghats

Question (v)
Which are of the following is a migratory bird –
(a) Penguin
(b) Peacock
(c) Crow
(d) Siberian crane.
Answer:
(d) Siberian crane.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The temperature, humidity and other factors are called the ……………. of the weather.
2. Rainfall is measured by an instrument called the …………….
3. All changes in the weather are caused by …………….
4.  ……………. Record the weather every day.
5. The polar regions are situated near the …………….
6. Musk oxen, foxes, seals, etc. are living in the ……………. regions.
7. The tropical region has generally a ……………. climate.
8. Animals are adapted to the conditions in which they …………….
9. Penguins lives in ……………. regions.
10. The beard ape lives in the rainforests of …………….

Answer:

1. Elements
2. Rain gauge
3. Sun
4. Meteorologists
5. Poles
6. Polar
7. Hot
8. Live
9. Very cold
10. Western Ghats.

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. The weather is generally not the same on any two days and week after week.
2. The camel is called the ship of the desert.
3. The times of sunrise and sunset also change during the year.
4. The climate of the Kerala is very cold for most part of the year
5. Penguins lives in very cold.
6. Animals are adapted to the conditions in which they live.
7. All the changes in the weather are driven by the sun.
8. Migration is another means to escape the harsh, cold conditions.
9. Polar bears are found in Indian tropical rainforests.
10. The winter sleep of animals is called migration.

Answer:

1. True (T)
2. True (T)
3. True (T)
4. False (F)
5. True (T)
6. True (T)
7. True (T)
8. True (T)
9. False (F)
10. False (F).

Question 4.
Match the items in Column A with Column B:

Answer:

(i) (b)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (c)

Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals of Climate vert short  Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who prepares the weather report?
Answer:
The weather reports are prepared by the Metreological Department of the Government.

Question 2.
What do you mean by weather?
Answer:
The day – to – day condition of the atmosphere at a place with respect to the temperature, rainfall, wind speed, humidity, is called the weather of that place.

Question 3.
What do you mean by climate?
Answer:
The average weather pattern taken over a long time, say 25 years, is called the climate of the place.

Question 4.
When is the climate of a place called hot and wet?
Answer:
If there is heavy rainfall on most of the days as well as the temperature is high in the same place, then we can say that the climate of that place is hot and wet.

Question 5.
When is the climate of a place called hot?
Answer:
If the temperature at a place is high most of the time, then we say that the climate of that place is hot.

Question 6.
Why do some places have hotter climate than others?
Answer:
The places nearer to the equator are usually hotter. This is because the sim’s rays are more concentrated near the equator than they are farther North or South.

Question 7.
Which causes the changes in weather?
Answer:
Sun.

Question 8.
Name the location in India where climate is hot and dry?
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 9.
Name the location in India where climate is wet.
Answer:
North – east.

Question 10.
Define raingauge.
Answer:
Rainfall is measured by an instrument called the raingauge.

Question 11.
Name two animals found in cold climate?
Answer:
Polar bear and Penguins.

Question 12.
Name two animals found in hot and humid climate.
Answer:
Beard ape and Red – eyed frog.

Question 13.
Name two deserts animal.
Answer:
Camel and snake.

Question 14.
Where does penguin live?
Answer:
Penguin lives in very cold places.

Question 15.
What makes penguins good swimmers?
Answer:
Penguin’s bodies are streamlined and their feet have webs, making them good swimmers.

Question 16.
How are the paws of a polar bear?
Answer:
Wide and large.

Question 17.
Can a polar bear live happily on land?
Answer:
No, it lives happily where the land is fully covered with snow.

Question 18.
Where do the elephant live ?
Answer:
Elephant lives in forest.

Question 19.
Name two countries where the tropical rainforests are found?
Answer:
India and Brazil.

Question 20.
Name two countries where polar regions are found?
Answer:
Sweden and Canada.

Question 21.
Name four countries in polar region?
Answer:
Norway, Iceland, Canada and Greenland.

Question 22.
Name the major types of animals living in rainforest?
Answer:
The major types of animals living in the rainforests are apes, lions, tigers, monkeys, gorillas, elephants, leopards, snakes, birds and lizards.

Question 23.
Where do the following animals live?

1. Fish
2. Monkeys
3. Snakes

Answer:

1. In water
2. On land and trees
3. On land and water.

Question 24.
Name any two animals which are active during night?
Answer:
Owl and Bat.

Question 25.
Name the bird from Siberia that comes to India?
Answer:
Siberian Crane.

Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals of Climate Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between weather and climate?
Answer:
Difference between weather and climate:

Weather:
The day – to – day condition of the atmosphere at a place with respect to the temperature, rainfall, windspeed, humidity, etc. is called the weather at that place.

Climate:
The average weather pattern taken over a long time, say 25 years, is called the climate of that place.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the sun?
Answer:
All changes in the weather are caused by the sun. The sun is a huge sphere of hot gases at a very high temperature. The distance of the sun from us is very large. Even then the energy sent out by the sun is so huge that it is the source of all heat and light on the earth. So, the sun is the primary source of energy that causes changes in the weather.

Energy absorbed and reflected by the earth’s surface, oceans and the atmosphere play important roles in determining the weather at any place. If you live near the sea, you would have realised that the weather at your place is different from that of a place in a desert, or near a mountain.

Question 3.
How do penguins adapt with polar climate?
Answer: Penguins are white and merge well with the white background. They also have a thick skin and a lot of fat to protect it from cold. Penguins huddle together. This they do to keep warm. Further, their bodies are streamlined and their feet have webs, making them good swimmers.

Question 4.
How is camel adapted to live in desert?
Answer:
Camel lives in desert. It has long legs which help it to lift its body above the ground. So, camel is able to avoid direct contact with the hot ground. Camel drinks more than 50 litres of water at a time. Camel store the water in his body. So that it lives without water for a longer time. Due to its thick skin, transpiration of water is also prevents. That’s why camel is suited to live in desert.

Question 5.
How are fishes adapted to live in water?
Answer:
Fishes are best suited to live in water. They have structure like a boat, which help them in swimming in water. They have gills from which they get food and oxygen. The body of fishes contain different types of fins which help them for swimming in water.

Question 6.
What is the climate of polar regions?
Answer:
The polar regions present an extreme climate. These regions are covered with snow and it is very cold for most part of the year. For six months the sun does not set at the poles while for the other six months the sun does not rise. In winters, the temperature can be as low as _–37°C. Animals living there have adapted to these severe conditions.

Question 7.
Where the polar regions are situated? Name some of the countries that belong to the polar regions. Also name the some countries where the tropical rainforests are found.
Answer:
The polar regions are situated near the poles, i.e., north pole and south pole. Some well – known countries that belong to the polar regions are Canada, Greenland, Iceland, Norway, Sweden, Finland, Alaska in U.S.A. and Siberian region of Russia. Some countries where the tropical rainforests are found are India, Malaysia, Indonesia, Brazil, Republic of Congo, Kenya, Uganda, and Nigeria.

Question 8.
Write the features of lion – tailed macaque?
Answer:
The lion – tailed macaque (also called Beard ape) lives in the rainforests of Western Ghats. Its most outstanding feature is the silver – white mane, which surrounds the head from the cheeks down to its chin. It is a good climber and spends a major part of its life on the tree. It feeds mainly on fruits. It also eats seeds, young leaves, stems, flowers and buds. This beard ape also searches for insects under the bark of the trees. Since it is able to get sufficient food on the trees, it rarely comes down on the ground.

Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals of Climate Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a note about “climate of the tropical rainforests”?
Answer:
The tropical region has generally a hot climate because of its location around the equator. Even in the coldest month the temperature is generally higher than about 15°C. During hot summers, the temperature may cross 40°C. Days and nights are almost equal in length throughout the year. These regions get plenty of rainfall. An important feature of this region is the tropical rainforests. Tropical rainforests are found in Western Ghats and Assam in India, Southeast Asia, Central America and Central Africa. Because of continuous warmth and rain, this region supports wide variety of plants and animals. The major types of animals living in the rainforests are monkeys, apes, gorillas, lions, tigers, elephants, leopards, lizards, snakes, birds and insects.

Question 3.
For which animals the climatic conditions in rainforests are highly suitable?
Answer:
The climatic conditions in rainforests are highly suitable for supporting an enormous number and variety of animals. Since the numbers are large, there is intense competition for food and shelter. Many animals are adapted to living on the trees. Red – eyed frog (Fig. (a)) has developed sticky pads on its feet to help it climb trees on which it lives. To help them live on the trees, monkeys (Fig. (b)) have long tails for grasping branches. Their hands and feet are such that they can easily hold on to the branches.

MP Board Class 7th Science Solutions

Here you will find Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 with Answers PDF Free Download based on the important concepts.

MP Board Class 11th Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 Sets

Sets Important Questions

Sets Objective Type Questions

(A) Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
A set is defind as:
(a) Collection of an object
(b) Collection of well defind object
(c) Nothing can be said
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Collection of well defind object

Question 2.
If A = {1, 2, 3},B = {2, 3, 4} and U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6},then A’ ∩ B’ =
(a) {2, 3}
(b) {1, 5,6}
(c) {5, 6}
(d) {1, 4, 5, 6}.
Answer:
(c) {5, 6}

Question 3.
A and B are two sets, then A ∩ (A ∪ B) =
(a) A
(b) B
(c) ϕ
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) A

Question 4.
A set A = {x : x ∈ R, x² = 16 and 2x = 6} =
(a) ϕ
(b) {14,3,4}
(c) {3}
(d) {4}.
Answer:
(a) ϕ

Question 5.
For a non – empty set A:
(a) A∪A’ = A
(b) A∪A’ = A’
(c) A∪A’ = U
(d) A∪A’ = ϕ .
Answer:
(c) A∪A’ = U

Question 6.
If two non – empty sets A and B are not equal, then:
(a) A⊂A∩B
(b) B⊂A∩B
(c) A∩B⊂B
(d) A∩B⊂ϕ.
Answer:
(c) A∩B⊂B

Question 7.
A and B are two sets and n(A) = 70, n(B) = 60 and n(A∪B) = 110, then n(A∩B) =
(a) 240
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 20.
Answer:
(d) 20.

Question 8.
If A = {1,2,3,4,5}, then the number of proper subsets:
(a) 120
(b) 30
(c) 31
(d) 32.
Answer:
(d) 32.

Question 9.
If A, B and C are three sets, then A – (B∪C) is equal to:
(a) (B – A)∩C
(b) (A – B) ∪C
(c) (A – B) ∩(A – C)
(d) (A – B) ∪(A – C)
Answer:
(c) (A – B) ∩(A – C)

Question 10.
Let S = {1,2,3,4}. The total numbers of unordered pair of disjoint subsets of S is equal to:
(a) 25
(b) 34
(c) 42
(d) 41.
Answer:
(d) 41.

(B) Match the following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (f)
6. (d)

(C) Fill in the blanks:

1. If the elements of A mid B are 3 and 6, then minimum number of elements in A∪B is …………………………….
2. If X and Y are two sets such that n(X) = 17, n(Y) = 23 and n(X∪Y) = 38, then n(X∩Y) = …………………………
3. If sets A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and B = {2, 4, 6, 8}, then B – A = ……………………………..
4. A set which does not contain any element is called ………………………….
5. If set A has n elements, then the number of subsets of A are …………………………..
6. If A = {1, 2} and B = {3, 4}, then (A∪B)∩ϕ = ……………………………..

Answer:

1. 6
2. 2
3. {8}
4. Empty set
5. 2ⁿ
6. ϕ

(D) Write true/false:

1. If A ∩ B = B, then B ⊂ A.
2. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, then A ∆ B = {1, 5, 6}.
3. If n(A – B) = n(A) – n(A n B).
4. For a non – empty sets A is A∩A’- A’.
5. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, then n[P(A)] = 16.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True.

Question (E)
Write answer in one word/sentence:

1. If A = {1, 2}, then write all the subsets of set A.
2. If A = {4, 5, 8, 12} and B = {1, 4, 6, 9}, then find the value of A – (B – A).
3. If n(U) = 700, n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300, and n(A∩B) = 100, then find the value of n(A’∩B’). ‘
4. Find the value of n[P{P{P(ϕ}}]
5. If A = {a, b, c, d}, then find all subsets of set A.
6. If U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, B = {2, 4, 6, 8} and C = {3, 4, 5, 6}, then find the value of (B – C)’.

Answer:

1. ϕ, {1}, {2}, {1,2}
2. {4, 5, 8, 12}
3. 300
4. 4
5. 16
6. {1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}.

Sets Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the following sets in set builder form: (NCERT)

1. {3, 6, 9, 12}
2. {2, 4, 8, 16, 32}
3. {5, 25, 125, 625}
4. {2, 4, 6,},
5. {1, 4, 9, ………… 100}.

Solution:

1. A = {x : x is a natural number, multiple of 3 and x < 15}
2. B = {x : x = 2ⁿ, x∈N and n < 6}
3. C = {x : x = 5ⁿ, and x∈N and n ≤ 4}
4. D = {x : x is an even natural number}
5. E = {x : x = n², x ∈ N and n < 11}.

Question 2.
Write the following sets in roster form: (NCERT)

1. A = {x : x is an odd natural number}
2. B = {x : x is an integer – \(\frac{1}{2}\) < x < \(\frac{9}{2}\)
3. C = {x : x is an integer x² ≤ 4}
4. D = {x : x is a letter of a word LOYAL}
5. E = {x : x is a month of year which does not have 31 days}
6. F – {x : x is a consonant of English alphabet which comes before k}

Solution:

1. A = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}
2. B = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}
3. C = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 2}
4. D = {L, 0, Y, A}
5. E = {FEBRUARY, APRIL, JUNE, SEPTEMBER, NOVEMBER}
6. F = {b, c, d, f, g, h, j}.

Question 3.
From following find whether A = B. (NCERT)

1. A = {a, b, c, d}, B = {d, c, b, a}.
2. A = {4, 8, 12, 16}, B = {8,4, 16, 18}.
3. A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}, B = {x : x is a positive even integer x < 10}.
4. A = {x : x is a multiple of 10}, B = {10, 15, 20, 25, 30}.

Solution:
1. A = {a, b, c, d}, B = {d, c, b, a}
All the elements of set A is in set B
A = B.

2. A = {4, 8, 12, 16}, B = {8, 4, 16, 18}
All the elements of A is not in set B.
∴ A≠B.

3. Here A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} and B = { x : x is an even number and x ≤ 10}
B = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
i.e., The elements of set A and B are same.
∴ A = B

4. Here A = {x : x is a multiple of 10} = {10, 20, 30, 40}
and B = {10, 15, 20, 25, 30, …}
The elements of set A and B are not same.
∴ A≠B.

Question 4.
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6}, C = {5, 6, 7, 8} and D = {7, 8, 9, 10} then find the following: (NCERT)

1. A∪B
2. A∪C
3. B∪C
4. B∪D

Solution:

1. A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6} = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.
2. A ∪ C = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8} = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}.
3. B ∪ C = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8} = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
4. B ∪ D = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {7, 8, 9, 10} = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

Question 5.
If A = {3, 5, 7, 9, 11}, B = {7, 9, 11, 13}, C= {11, 13, 15} and D = {15, 17} then, find the following:

1. A ∩ B
2. B ∩ C
3. A ∩ C
4. B ∩ D

Solution:

1. A ∩ B = {3, 5, 7, 9, 11} ∩ {7, 9, 11, 13} = {7, 9, 11}
2. B ∩ C = {7, 9, 11, 13} ∩ {11, 13, 15} = {11, 13}
3. A ∩ C = {3, 5, 7, 9, 11} ∩ {11, 13, 15} = {11}
4. B ∩ D = {7, 9, 11, 13} ∩ {15, 17} = ϕ

Question 6.
If A = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21}, B = {4, 8, 12, 16, 20}, C = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16} and D = {5, 10, 15, 20} then, find the following: (NCERT)

1. A – B
2. A – C
3. A – D
4. B – A
5. C – A
6. D – A
7. B – C
8. B – D
9. C – B
10. D – B
11. C – D
12. D – C?

Solution:
Let A and B are two sets and A – B is a set of those elements which one present in A and not in B.

1. A – B = {Those elements present in A and not in B}
= {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21} – {4, 8, 12, 16, 20}
= {3, 6, 9, 15, 18, 21}.

2. A – C = {Those elements present in A and not in C}
= {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21} – {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16}
= {3, 9, 15, 18, 21}.

3. A – D = {The elements which are in A but not in D}
= {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21} – {5, 10, 15, 20}
= {3, 6, 9, 12, 18, 21}.

4. B – A = {The elements which are in B but not in A}
= {4, 8, 12, 16, 20} – {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21}
= {4, 8, 16, 20}.

5. C – A = {The elements which are in C but not in A}
= {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16} – {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21}
= {2, 4, 8, 10, 14, 16}.

6. D – A = {The elements which are in D but not in A}
= {5, 10, 15, 20} – {3, 6,9, 12, 15, 18, 21}
= {5, 10, 20}.

7. B – C = {The elements which are in B but not in C}
= {4, 8, 12, 16, 20} – {2, 4,6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16}
= {20}.

8. B – D = {The elements which are in B but not in D}
= {4, 8, 12, 16, 20} – {5, 10, 15, 20}
= {4, 8, 12, 16}.

9. C – B = {The elements which are in C but not in B}
= {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16} – {4, 8, 12, 16, 20}
= {2, 6, 10, 14}.

10. D – B = {The elements which are in D but not in B}
= {5, 10, 15,20} – {4, 8, 12, 16, 20}
= {5, 10, 15}.

11. C – D = {The elements which are in C but not in D}
= {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16} – {5, 10, 15, 20}
= {2, 4, 6, 8, 12, 14, 16}.

12. D – C = {The elements which are in D but not in C}
= {5, 10, 15, 20} – {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16}
= {5, 15, 20}.

Question 7.
Let U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {2, 4, 6, 8} and C then find the following:

1. A’
2. B’
3. (A ∪ C)’
4. (A ∩ B)’
5. (A’)’
6. (B – C)’
7. (B – C)’

Solution:
1. A’= U – A
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {1, 2, 3, 4}
⇒ A’= {5, 6, 7, 8, 9}.

2. B’ = U – B
⇒ {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {2, 4, 6, 8}
⇒ B’ = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}.

3. (A ∪ C) = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6}
⇒ A ∪ C = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
(A ∪ C)’= U – (A ∪ C)
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
⇒ (A ∪ C)’ = {7, 8, 9}

4. A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {2, 4, 6, 8} = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8}
(A ∪ B)’ = ∪ – (A ∪ B)
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8}
⇒ (A ∪ B)’ = {5, 7, 9}

5. (A’)’ = ∪ – A’
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
⇒ (A’)’= {1, 2, 3, 4} = A

6. B – C = {2, 4, 6, 8} – {3, 4, 5, 6} = {2, 8}.
(B ∪ C)’ = U – (B – C)
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {2, 8}
⇒ (B – C)’= {1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9}.

Sets Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
If X and Fare two sets, n(X) = 17, n(Y) = 23 and n(X ∪ F) = 38, then find n(X ∩ F)? (NCERT)
Solution:
We know that n(X ∪ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) – n(X∩Y)
Given: n(X) = 17, n(Y) = 23, n(X ∪ Y) = 38, n(X ∩ Y) = ?
∴ 38 = 17 + 23 – n(X ∩ Y)
⇒ 38 = 40 – n(X ∩ Y)
⇒ n(X ∩ Y) = 40 – 38
⇒ n(X ∩ Y) = 2.

Question 2.
If X and Y are two sets, such that X∪Y has 18 elements, X has 8 elements and F has 15 elements, then how many elements does X ∩ Y have? (NCERT)
Solution:
Given: n(X ∪ Y) = 18, n(X) = 8, n(Y) = 15.
Applying formula n(X ∪ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) – n(X ∩ Y)
18 = 8 + 15 – n(X ∩ Y)
⇒ n(X ∩ Y) = 23 – 18 = 5.

Question 3.
If S and Tare two sets, such that S has 21 elements, T has 32 elements and S∩T has 11 elements, how many elements does S∪T have? (NCERT)
Solution:
Given: n(S) = 21, n(T) = 32, n(S ∩ T) = 11, n(S ∪ T) = ?
∵ n(S ∪ T) = n(S) + n(T) – n(S ∩ T)
⇒ n(S ∪ T) = 21 + 32 – 11 = 42.

Question 4.
If X and Y are two sets such that X has 40 elements, X∪Y has 60 elements and X∩Y has 10 elements, then how many elements does Y have? (NCERT)
Solution:
Given: n(X) = 40, n(X ∪ Y) = 60, n(X ∩ Y) = 10, n(Y) = ?
Applying formula n(X ∪ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) – n{X ∩ Y)
⇒ 60 = 40 + n(Y) – 10
⇒ 60 = 30 + n(Y)
⇒ n(Y) = 30.

Question 5.
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6}, C = {5, 6, 7, 8} and D = {7, 8, 9, 10}, then find the following: (NCERT)

1. A ∪ B ∪ C
2. A ∪ B ∪ D
3. B ∪ C ∪ D.

Solution:
1. A ∪ B ∪ C = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8}
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8}
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}.

2. A ∪ B ∪ D = { 1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪{7, 8, 9, 10}
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {7, 8, 9, 10}
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}.

3. B ∪ C ∪ D = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8} ∪ {7, 8, 9, 10}
= {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
= {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}.

Sets Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In a survey of 600 students in a school, 150 students were found to be taking tea and 225 taking coffee, 100 were taking both tea and coffee. Find how many students were taking neither tea nor coffee? (NCERT)
Solution:
Let C and T be the students taking coffee and tea.
Here, n(T) = 150, n(C) = 225, n(C ∩ T) = 100.
Applying formula n(C ∪ T) = n(T) + n(C) – n(C ∩ T)
n(C ∪ T) = 150 + 225 – 100 = 375 – 100
⇒ n(C ∪ T) = 275
Total number of students = 600 = n(U).
Number of students taking neither tea nor coffee = n(C ∪ T)’
n(C ∪ T)’ = n(U) – n(C ∪ T)
= 600 – 275 = 325.

Question 2.
In a group of 70 people, 37 likes coffee, 52 likes tea and each person likes at least one of these two drinks. Find the number of persons who likes both coffee and tea? (NCERT)
Solution:
Let C and T be the persons who likes coffee and tea.
Given: n(C) = 37, n(T) = 52, n(C ∪ T) = 70, n(C ∩ T) = ?
Applying formula n(C ∪ T) = n(C) + n(T) – n(C ∩ T)
⇒ 70 = 37 + 52 – n(C ∩ T)
⇒ 70 = 89 – n(C ∩ T)
⇒ n(C ∩ T) = 89 – 70
⇒ n(C ∩ T) = 19
∴ Number of people who likes both coffee and tea = 19.

Question 3.
In a group of 65 people, 40 likes cricket, 10 likes both cricket and tennis. How many like tennis only and not cricket? How many like tennis? (NCERT)
Solution:
Let C and T denotes the people who likes cricket and tennis respectively.
Given: n(C ∪ T) = 65, n(C) = 40, n(C ∩ T) = 10
We know that
n(C ∪ T) = n(C) + n(T) – (C ∩ T)
65 = 40 + n(T) – 10
⇒ n(T) = 65 – 30 = 35.
∴ Number of people who likes only tennis and not cricket
= n(T ∩ C)’ = n(T) – (C ∩ T)
= 35 – 10 = 25.

Question 4.
In a survey of 60 people, it was found that 25 people read newspaper H, 26 read newspaper T, 26 read newspaper I, 9 read both H and I. 11 read both H and T, 8 read both T and 1.3 read all three newspapers. Find

1. The number of people who read at least one of the newspapers.
2. The number of people who read exactly one newspaper. (NCERT)

Solution:
Given: n (H) = 25, n (T) = 26, n(I) = 26, n(H ∩ I) = 9, n(H ∩ T) = 11, n(T ∩ I) = 8, n(H ∩ T ∩ I) = 3

1. The number of people who reads at least one of the newspaper = n(H∪T∪I)
= n(H) + n(T) + n(I) – n(H ∩ T) – n(T ∩ I) – n(H ∩ I) + n(H ∩ T ∩ I)
= 25 + 26 + 26 – 11 – 8 – 9 + 3
= 77 – 28 + 3 = 80 – 28 = 52.

2. The number of people who reads exactly one newspaper.
= n(H) + n(T) + n(I) – 2n(H ∩ I) – 2n(H ∩ T) – 2n(T ∩ I) + 3n(H ∩ T ∩ I)
= 25 + 26 + 26 – 2 × 9 – 2 × 11 – 2 × 8 + 3 × 3 = 77 – 18 – 22 – 16 + 9
= 86 – 56 = 30.

Question 5.
In a survey it was found that 21 people liked product A, 26 liked product B and 29 liked product C. If 14 people liked products A and B, 12 people liked products C and A, 14 people liked products B and C and 8 liked all the three products. Find how many liked product C only? (NCERT)
Solution:
Let A, B and C denotes the people liked the products A, B and C respectively.
Given: n(A) = 21, n(B) = 26, n(C) = 29, n(A ∩ B) = 14, n(C ∩ A) = 12, n(B ∩ C) = 14, n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 8
n(only C) = n(C) – n(C ∩ A) – n(B ∩ C) + n(A ∩ B ∩ C)
= 29 – 12 – 14 + 8
= 37 – 26 = 11.

MP Board Class 11 Maths Important Questions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 1 Resources of India: Soil, Water, Forest and Wild Life Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 1 Resources of India: Soil, Water, Forest and Wild Life

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 1 Text book Exercise

We have provided Class 10 SST MCQ Questions and Answers Chapter Wise PDF Download to help students understand the concept very well.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question 1.
Which factor does not help in the formation of the soil?
(a) Wind and water
(b) Decomposed plants and animals
(c) Rocks and temperature
(d) Water accumulation.
Answer:
(a) Wind and water

MP Board 10th Maths Solution

Question 2.
Which soil is generally found in the delta region of Andhra Pradesh and Orissa and the plains of Ganges?
(a) Red soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Laterite soil.
Answer:
(b) Alluvial soil

Question 3.
In which region, the method of making contour bunds is used for soil conservation?
(a) Delta region
(b) Plateau region
(c) Hills
(d) Plains
Answer:
(c) Hills

Question 4.
Man uses the most?
(a) underground water
(b) Oceanic Water
(c) Surface Water
(d) Atmospheric Water
Answer:
(a) underground water

Question 5.
Which of the following states is known as Tiger state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Assam.
Answer:
(b) Madhya Pradesh

Question 6.
The founder of Vanmahostava was?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pt.Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
Answer:
(c) K.M. Munshi

Question 7.
Most forested state is –
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Tamil Nady.
Answer:
(c) Assam

Question 8.
Ghana Bird Santuary is located in –
(a) Kerala
(b) Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1.  ………………. has an important place in Joint Forest Management System.
2.  Social Forestry Scheme is getting financial assistance from ……………….
3.  Forest Fire Control Project is working in association with ……………….
4.  ……………….. and are ……………… established to protect and conserve wild life.

Answer:

1. 1.  Forest protection
   2.  World Bank
   3.  W.W.F.

1.  Sancturay, Naitonal Parks.

Question 3.

Answer:

1. (a)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (d)

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by soil erosion?
Answer:
Removal of soil at a large scale from one place to another by some natural agent is known as soil erosion.

Question 2.
What do you mean by soil conservation?
Answer:
The ever increasing population resulted in the destruction of natural resources. Therefore, to prevent destruction soil conservation is necessary. There are various methods of soil conservation.

Question 3.
What are the sources of underground water?
Answer:
Rain water is a main source of underground water. Some part of rain water is soaked by the land. Rest of the water percolates and is collected below the surface as underground water.

Question 4.
What is the basis of modified forest policy of 1988?
Answer:
The main basis of modified forest policy is to maintain environmental stability, to conserve the natural heritage and to check on soil erosion.

Question 5.
What is the basis of the success of social forestry?
Answer:
This programme of plantation has been started in association with World Bank. It aims to plant useful trees in waste lands, road side and canal embankments near villages. One tree for every child’ this slogan is developed in schools and colleges. People’s participation is increased by publishing Vanmahotsava and by farm forestry, by planting trees road side, railway side and canal embankments.

Question 6.
Why Indian Institute of Forest Management had been established?
Answer:
This institute had been established in Ahemdabad in 1978 in collaboration with a Swidish Company for the development of the forest. Central Government has also established Indian Institute of Forest Management in Bhopal for training, research and consultancy purposes.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by soil profile? Explain?
Answer:
Soil profile is the sequence, colour, texture and nature of the horizons (layers) superimposed one above the other and exposed in a pit – section dug through the soil mantle,

1.  Upper most layer is top soil
2.  Second layer is sub soil
3.  Third layer is weathered parent rock material
4.  Fourth layer consists of parent rocks.

Top soil of the upper most layer is the real soil. Its important characteristic is the presence of humans and organic matter. Second layer is sub soil which consists of rocks, sand particles and clay. Third layer consists of weathered parent rock material and the fourth layer is made of parent rocks.

Question 2.
What is importance of soil in human life? Explain?
Answer:
Soil is very important for human life, especially for farmers. Human life depends on soil. All living organisms get their food directly or indirectly from soil. We get cotton, silk, jute and wool for making
clothes from soil, either directly or indirectly, e.g. sheep eats grass and gives us wool, silk worms survive on vegetation and vegetation grows in soil. Our industries like animal rearing, agriculture and forest – based industries all depend on soil. So soil is the basis of our life. According to Wil Cox, ‘The history of civilization is the history of the soil and the education of the individual begins from the soil.’

Question 3.
Differentiate between Red Soil and Laterite Soil ?
Answer:
Red Soil:

1. Red soil is formed due to weathering of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
2. It is highly porous and less fertile but where it is deep it is fertile.
3. It is less crystalline.
4. It is red in colour due to the presence of iron in it.
5. It occurs in part of Tamilnadu, Karnataka, Orissa, Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh.

Laterite Soil:

1. Laterite soil is formed by the leaching process in the heavy rainfall areas of tropical India.
2. It is less fertile, only grass grows on it in abundance.
3. It is crystalline.
4. It is red in colour due to little clay and much gravel of red sandstones.
5. It is found is hills of the Deccan, Karnataka, Orissa, Assam, Megha­laya and Kerala.

Question 4.
What are the measures of water conservation?
Answer:
The judicious utilization, conservation and management of water resources is necessary. In the view of the limited water available, increasing demand and its uneven availability it has become imperative to conserve the water resources. Following three steps are essential in this direction:

1.  To collect the rainwater and stop it from draining off.
2.  Scientific management of the water resources of all the river watersheds minor to major.
3.  Prevention of water resources from pollution.

Question 5.
Rain water harvesting is important. Why?
Answer:
Natural water is precious but abundantly available during rainy season. But due to carelessness of the people it goes wasted. We know that the crisis of fresh and pure water has became a world wide problem. So it is call of time to collect such a huge quantity of water by constructing reservoir on the roof or nearby the house or roadways.

Question 6.
Conservation of forest is necessary, why?
Answer:
Conservation of forests is necessary, because of the following:

1. Plants provide food for men and animals.
2. They help in the maintenance of ecosystem.
3. They give oxygen necessary for the survival of men and animals.
4. They provide us timber for building, doors, houses, etc.
5. They give us herbal medicines.
6.  They help in soil erosion.

Question 7.
Explain forest based industries?
Answer:
Forests provide a large number of minor produce which are essential for industries such as lac, tanning materials, gum, honey, katha, wax, resins, bamboo, medicinal herbs, horn and hides of animals etc. Forests provide materials for basic industries i.e., wood is useful raw material for several industries like paper, match, lac, leather, oil and herbal medicines. Small scale industries developed from the minor forest provide like tendupatta, cane, honey, wax, etc.

Question 8.
How does forest control the climate?
Answer:
It is necessary for a country to have a proper echological balance. A country should therefore have at least one third of its land area covered with the forests. A larger area under forest is must for absorption of carbon – di – oxide, the accumulation of which is likely to accentuate green house effect. This ‘effect’ may further give rise to general increase in temperature globally and ultimately melt the icecaped areas of the world. This would cause great loss to the life and property of the people living in low lying areas of the world. Thus, the forests would vanish by these natural calamities brought by the man.

Question 9.
Write down the chief characteristics of Forests Policy of December 1988?
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of the Forests Policy of Decemeber 1988:

1. Substantial increase in forest tree cover through massive forestation and social forestry programmes.
2. Steps to meet requirements of fuel wood, fodder and minor forest produce and timber for tribal and rural populations.
3. Increase in productivity of forest to meet the national needs.
4. Encouragement of efficient utilisation of forest produce and optimum substitution of wood.
5. Steps to massive people’s movement with involvement of women to achieve the objective and minimise pressure on existing forests.

Question 10.
What is Social Forestry Scheme?
Answer:
Social Forestry Scheme means the scheme for an awareness of tree plantation with the help of government and non – governmental institution. There is a known slogan ‘one tree for every child’ geared up to the students of schools and colleges is a serious measure to implement this variety of ecological scheme. This scheme of plantation is started in association with World Bank.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is soil? Describe different types of soil, their characteristics and distribution?
Answer:
The – uppermost layer of the earth’s crust, which is useful for cultivations and the basic resource of agriculture is called soil. The soils of India are:

1. Alluvial soil
2. Black soil
3. Red soil, and
4. Laterite soil.

1. Alluvial Soil:
Alluvial soil is considered to be a most fertile soil which forms the largest and the most important soil group of India. It contributes the largest share to the country’s agricultural production.

(a) Area:
Alluvial soil covers about 43.7% of the total land area under cultivation. The entire northern plain of India is made up of alluvial soil.

(b) Composition:
These soils are made up of new alluvium and old alluvium. These soils contain fine particles of soil called alluvium. The soil is called new and old depending upon their period of deposit.

(c) Fertility:
Alluvium soils are very fertile soils as they contain adequate amount of potash, phosphoric acid and lime. All the river basin generally have alluvial soils. It supports over half the Indian population.

2. Black Soil:
These soils are black in colour and are very suitable for the cultivation of cotton.

(a) Area:
These soils are spread all over the Deccan trap and are made up of lava flows. They cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurastra, Malwa and southern Madhya Pradesh and extend eastwards in the south along the Godavari and Krishan Valley.

(b) Composition:
The Regur soils or Black soils contain calcium carbonate, magnesium carbonate, potash and lime. They are generally poor in phosphoric content. The soils consisting of extremely fine clay material known for their sticky characteristics are also called Black soils.

(c) Fertility:
Regur soils are very important and suitable for the cultivation of cotton, that is why they are sometimes also called cotton soil.

3. Red Soil:
These soils are derived from crystalline and metamorphic rocks rich in minerals.

(a) Area:
The southern half of peninsular block is covered by red soils of different shades of red and yellow. This type of soil can be seen in Chotanagpur plateau, Orissa, east Madhya Pradesh, Telangana, Nigiries and Tamilnadu plateau. These soil areas are also found northwards in the west along the Konkan coast of Maharashtra.

(b) Composition:
Red soils are loamy in deep depressions and in uplands. They contain loose grave (a highly coarse material and are deficient in phosphoric acid, organic matter and nitrogenous material.

(c) Fertility:
Since these soils are loamy and are made up of coarse material, they are not fertile. They are deficient in the organic matter and nitrogenous material that makes it less fertile.

4. Laterite Soil:
The laterite soil is a result of intense leaching owing to heavy tropical rains.

(a) Area:
They are found in western coastal regions receiving very heavy rainfall. They are also found in patches along the edge of the plateau in the east covering small parts of Tamilnadu and Orissa, a small part of Chotanagpur and Meghalaya in the north east.

(b) Composition:
These soil’s have resulted due to intense leaching owing to heavy tropical rainfall.

(c) Fertility:
These soils are invariably poor and support only pastures and scrub forests.

Question 2.
What is soil erosion? Explain the causes of soil erosion and methods of conservation of soil?
Answer:
The term erosion means the loosening and removal of soil from its previous resting place by the action of water and other agents. In India, soil erosion is in many places a serious menace. The extent to which erosion is liable to occur will vary with the condition but at any point its incidence is determined by the following factors:

1. The configuration, and particularly the slope of the land.
2. The credibility of the soil.
3. The amount distribution and intensity of the rainfall.
4. The vegetable cover.
5. The system of husbandary and soil management practiced.

Causes of soil erosion are:

1. Deforestation
2. Overgrazing
3. Shifting agriculture
4. Wind erosion
5. Agriculture by non-scientific methods.

Soil conservation:
The ever increasing population resulted in the destruction of natural resources. Therefore, to prevent destruction, soil conservation is necessary. There are various methods of soil conservation.

1. Contour farming
2. To prevent gully erosion by making field ridge.
3. Prevention of soil erosion by planting trees as wind breaks in deserts which check the velocity of wind. By doing plantation on the follow land and mountain slopes and by controlled grazing.
4. By collecting the run off water in mountain slopes and uneven areas.
5. By developing grazing land in the rural areas.

Question 3.
Draw a labelled diagram of soil profile?
Answer:
Soil profile:
Soil profile is the sequence, colour, texture, nature of the horizons (layers) superimposed one above the other and exposed in a pit – section dug through the soil mantle. Top soil of the upper most layer is the real soil. Its important characteristic is the presence of humans and organic matter.

Second layer is sub soil which consists of rocks, sand particles and clay. Third layer consists of weathered parent rock material and the fourth layer is made of parent rocks.

Question 4.
What are the main sources of water resource? What is importance of water resources in human life?
Answer:
There are four major sources of water.

1. Surface water
2. Ground water
3. Atmospheric water, and
4. Oceanic Water.

1. Surface water:
The surface water is available in rivers, ponds and lakes. Rivers are the main source of surface water in India. Rivers and its tributaries are found in each and every part of India. Three main rivers are the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra and they carry nearly 60 percent of the total surface water in India. Among the major rivers of the world, the Brahmaputra and the Ganga are at eighth and tenth places respectively.

2. Ground water:
Some part of rain water is soaked by the land. Only 60 percent reaches the upper layer of the soil, which is very useful for agriculture and vegetation to grow. Rest of the water percolates and is collected below the surface as ground water. It is obtained on the surface through wells and tubewells and is used by human beings for irrigation purposes, gardening and industrial purposes.

3. Atmospheric water:
This is in the form of water vapour therefore, it is not used.

4. Ocean water:
This type of water is mainly used for transport and fishing industry. Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean are in the West, East and South of India respectively. Importance of water in human life is as follows:

1. To provide irrigational facilities.
2. To conserve the soil fertility as the flood.
3. To generate hydro – electric power.
4. To promote navigation through canals and rivers.
5. To promote tourism as beach tourism.
6. To promote fish culture, and
7. To store water, which can be used when it is in greater demand.

Question 5.
Describe the methods of water conservation. Why is it necessary?
Or
Why is water conservation necessary? Describe its main methods? (MP Board 2009,)
Answer:
The following are the crucial methods for the water conservation:

1. To collect rain water and stop it from draining off.
2. Scientific management of water resources.
3. Prevention of water resources from industrial and domestic pollution.

The availability of water for agricultural and other purpose is inadequate and irregular in our country. Being the monsoon, the bulk of rainfall is confined to a brief period of three to four months. Even the places of high rainfall like Cherrapunji and Konkan having heavy rainfall face scarcity of water during the dry season.

Secondly the distribution of rainfall is unequal for example our ground water resources are abundant only in the northern and coastal plains and in the other parts of the country its supply is inadequate. The river water of the Country is also not well connected by canals. In short, the supply of water in India depends on Monsoons and also the topography of land.

Therefore we feel that it is necessary to conserve this precious natural resource. Running water of rivers may be used for irrigation by constructing a canal. Similarly, dams may to constructed to produce electricity.

Question 6.
Describe direct and indirect advantages of forests? (MP Board .2009, 2013)
Or
Mention the direct and indirect advantages of forests? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Direct advantages of the forests are:
1. Forest provides wood:
Wood from forests is an important fuel. Wood and cow dung produces 34.6 per cent of total power resources. They provide us Teak, Sal, Shisham, Pine, Abnoos, Sandle wood and Deodar. Wood is also used for making furniture.

2. Forests provide minor forest produce:
Forests produce a large number of minor product which are essential for industries such as lac, tanning materials, gum, honey, katha, wax, resins, bamboo, medicinal herbs, horn and hides of animals etc.

Forests provide materials for basic industries i.e., wood is useful raw material for several industries like paper, match, lac, leather, oil and herbal medicines. Small scale industries developed from the minor forest provide like tendupatta, cane, honey, wax, etc.

3. Grazing land for animals:
Forests provide natural pastures for grazing animals.

4. Employment:
About 7.8 crore people depend on forests for their livelihood. Many industries are based on raw materials from forests giving employment to crores of people.

5. Revenue generation:
Government receive crores of rupees from the forests as revenue and royalty. Presently this revenue is 670 crore rupees per annum.

Indirect advantages of the forests are:

1. Control soil erosion:
Trees firmly enclose and considerably reduce soil erosion. Trees hold the fertile top layer of the soil.

2. Control the climate:
Forest act as wind breaks which check the velocity of wind. The climate of forest area remains temperate.

3. Check floods:
Speed of water is reduced by the existence of forests. Water is reduced by the trees. The force of water is reduced by the extensive forest cover.

4. Control expansion of desert areas:
Sardar Patel said, “If expansion of deserts are to be controlled and human civilization is to be prevented then the destruction of forest wealth is to be prevented.”

Question 7.
Describe the efforts of government in forest conservation?
Answer:
In 1950 after independence, Central Forest Board was established. New forest policy was made. Its four main points were:

1. Forest area should be increased to 33.3 per cent.
2. Forestation
3. Protection of forests
4. Forestry research.

The policy was revised on 7th December 1988. The main aim of the forest policy of 1988 is protection, conservation and development of forests. Policy holds the following objectives:

1. Maintenance of environmental stability through preservation and restoration of ecological balance.
2. Conservation of natural heritage.
3. Check on soil erosion and denudation in catchment areas of river, lakes and reservoirs.

In 1990, a 20 – year National Forestry Action programme was launched to make National Forest Policy of 1988 functional. For the development of the forests following activities are taking place:

1. Establishment of Central Forest Commission.
2. Indian Forest Survey Organisation.
3. Council of Forestry Research and Education.
4. Establishment of Wood Craft Training Centre.
5. State Forest Development Corporations.
6. Indian Institute of Forest Management.

Question 8.
Why wildlife conservation is necessary? What are the measures of wildlife conservation? (MP Board, 2011)
Answer:
Depletion of forest has endangered plant and wildlife. Several species have already become extinct. In order to preserve natural habitat and protect them from becoming extinct the government has set up many programmes. There are also programmes for conservation of wetland mangroves and coral reefs under the preservation of special ecosystem.

Coral reefs are characterized by high biomass production and rich floral and faunal diversity four coral reefs have been identified for conservation and management. Periodic census of wild animals are undertaken to check the number of certain species getting reduced. The hunting of wild animals and. birds has been banned and hunters are penalised. Conservation of wildlife: Following efforts can be made to protect the wildlife:

1. Safeguarding the national habitat of the wild animals.
2. Poaching should be restricted.
3. Establishing biosphere reserves in forest areas.
4. Educating public for environmental protection at levels of education.
5. Implementation of wildlife management programmes.

Project Work

Question 1.
Prepare a plan for a geographical tour of your area and collect the following information:

1. Type of soil in your region and its characteristics.
2. Causes of soil erosion in the area.
3. What could be the measures to prevent soil erosion in that area.
4. Characteristics of soil on the basis of crops grown in that area.

Answer:
Do yourself with the help of your subject teacher.

Question 2.
Prepare a map of India and show the following:
Kaziranga, Gir, Gim, Keoladeo, Simlipal National Park, Sunderban, Ranthambore, Savisca, Manas, Corbett Tiger Project, Nilgiri, Nandadevi, Great Nicobar, Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
Do yourself with the help of map under the guidance of your subject teacher.

Question 3.
Visit a National Park and prepare a report on the following points:

1. Wild life
2. Habitat of wild animals.
3. Their food and methods of hunting.
4. Forest produce collected from that park.

Answer:
Do yourself with the help of your subject teacher.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 1 Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions:
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (a)
Which soil variety in known a ‘regur’?
(a) Laterite soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Alluvial soil.
Answer:
(b) Black soil

Question (b)
Which of the following river is the longest one?
(a) Indus
(b) Narmada
(c) Godavari
(d) Ghagra.
Answer:
(b) Narmada

Question (c)
Indian Institute of Forest Management is in?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kanpur
(c) Dehradoon
(d) Ahamedabad.
Answer:
(d) Ahamedabad.

Question (d)
Dachigam National Park is located in the state?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question (e)
Project Tiger was started in?
(a) 1971
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
Answer:
(c) 1973

Question (f)
Which type of soil is found in western Ghats?
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Red soil
Answer:
(a) Alluvial soil

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Petrol and coal are ………………… resources.
2. Clay soil is called ………………….. soil.
3. Deforestation is the cause of soil …………………
4. The National Forest Policy was formulated in …………………….
5. Jim Corbett National Park is located in …………………
6. Central Forest Commission is established in …………………… (MP Board 2009, Set D)
7. Ghana Bird Sanctuary is located in …………………….. (MP Board 2009, Set C)
8. All the elements which are capable of fulfilling human wants, are called ……………………..
9. Soil erosion ocwrs due to ………………… , ……………… and ………………. activities.

Answer:

1. non – renewable
2. alluvial
3. erosion
4. 1988
5. Uttarakhand
6. 1965
7. Rajasthan
8. Resources
9. water, wind, human.

Question 3.
True and False type questions:

1. Sunderlal Bahuguna was the founder of Vanmahotsava in 1950.
2. 33 per cent is the minimum criteria of the forestation as the biological balance.
3. About 47,000 species are found in India according to Zoological Survey of India.
4. In 1965, K.M. Munshi started Vanmahostsava. (MP Board 2009, Set C)
5. Gir National Park is located in Maharashtra.
6. There are 14 boisphere reserves which have been established in India.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False
6. True.

Question 5.
Match the Columns:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

Question 1.
What per cent of our land area is plain?
Answer:
About 43%.

Question 2.
What per cent of land is mountainous?
Answer:
About 30%.

Question 3.
What is pasture?
Answer:
Land covered with natural grasses is knows as pasture.

Question 4.
Name the most endangered species in India?
Answer:
The tiger, the rhino, the bustard and the lion.

Question 5.
Which is the first biological reserve in India?
Answer:
The first biological reserve was set up in the Nilgiries.

Question 6.
Where is the Gulf of Mannar?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
What percentage of India is covered with forests?
Answer:
About 23.3%.

Question 8.
What are the sources of surface water?
Answer:
Ponds, tanks, rivers and reservoirs, etc.

Question 9.
What do you mean by rain water harvesting?
Answer:
It simply means capturing rains where it falls.

Question 10.
What are the major sources of irrigation in India?
Answer:
Canals, Tanks, Wells and Tubewells.

Question 11.
Which elements enhance the fertility of soil?
Answer:
Fine vegetal and animal remains add to the fertility of the soil.

Question 12.
What is Bangar?
Answer:
This is the old alluvium soil spread at the outer areas of khadar.

Question 13.
Where are the elephants found in India?
Answer:
Elephants in India are found in the jungles of Assam and those of Kerala and Karnataka.

Question 14.
How many species of animals, birds and fishes are found in India?
Answer:
India has approximately 89000 species of animals, 1200 of birds and 2500 species of fishes.

Question 15.
What is the primary source of water on the earth?
Answer:
The primary source of water on earth is precipitation that comes in the forms of rain and snowfall.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the various elements of nature which contribute to evolution of soil?
Answer:
Changing temperature, running water and wind etc., contribute in the evolution of soil.

Question 2.
Which soil supports over half the Indian population?
Answer:
The alluvial soil. The new alluvium soil near the river banks or the catchment areas is called khadar.

Question 3.
What is National Park?
Answer:
It is a place where wildlife is in their natural setting. It is a place where animals mpve freely. Food for the animals is provided by animals themselves.

Question 4.
What do you mean by hydro – electricity?
Answer:
The electricity derived from the running or falling water. It is one of the neatest, cheapest and pollution free form of energy.

Question 5.
What are the types of forests according to administration?
Answer:
On the basis of administration, forests are classified into three types:

1. Reserved Forests
2. Protected Forests
3. Unclassified Forests.

Question 6.
What are the main causes of growing scarcity of water?
Answer:
Main causes of growing scarcity of water are:

1. Rapidly growing population.
2. Rising demand for. food and cash crops.
3. Increasing urbanisaffon and rising standard of living.

Question 7.
What is Humus?
Answer:
Deposited organic matter of plants and animals is called humus. It is found in top soil and helps in making soil fertile.

Question 8.
Define weathering?
Answer:
Disintegration of rocks on the earth surface due to weathering.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any four characteristics of black soil?
Answer:
Black soil is also known as Regur soil. It is:

1. most suitable for the cultivation of cotton.
2. made up of extremely fine material.
3. known for its capacity to hold moisture.
4. rich in soil nutrients such as calcium carbonate, magnesium carbonate, potash and lime.

Question 2.
Why should we increase the land under forest?
Answer:
India has only 19 per cent of forest cover out its total land area. It is far below the scientific norms which prescribes minimum availability of forest to be 33 per cent. The forest area in India must therefore be increased to maintain ecological balance and absorption of carbon dioxide. The forests help us to preserve the wild ‘life. They cause precipitation and help us in decreasing the possibility of droughts. Forests regulate the flow of river water.

Question 3.
Write the main differences between Khadar soil and Bangar soil?
Answer:
Khadar Soil:

1. This is the new alluvial soil deposited by the rivers in the northern plains. The new alluvial soil deposited at the bank of rivers is locally kndwn as khadar.
2. This is very fertile land and the soil contains adequate amount of potash, phosphoric acid and lime. This has fine particles.

Bangar Soil:

1. This is the old alluvial soil ‘ deposited by the rivers in the northern plains. The old alluvial soil which is deposited beyond the new alluvium is locally called bangar in the norhtern plains.
2. This is also fertile soil but not as fertile as the Khadar is. This old alluvium often contains kankar nodules with- calcium carbonate in sub soil.

Question 4.
What is bio – reserve?
Answer:
Efforts are being made on the basis of specific regions to protect and preserve every plant and animal species found in India so that this natural heritage can be transmitted to the future. This concept is known as bio – reserve. Till now there are 14 bio – reserves have been established in India. Nilgiri of Kerala is one of them.

Question 5.
Differentiate between surface water and ground water resources?
Answer:
Surface Water:

1. Surface water is the volume of water present over the surface of the earth whether in the stationary state or the running state.
2. The volume of water on the surface changes with the change in the seasons and weather conditions.
3. The surface water can be used by constructing dams and canals etc.

Ground Water:

1. The underground water is the volume of water present below the earth surface whether in the stationary state or the running state.
2. The volume of underground water also depends on the amount of water received on the surface and at the same time, the amount of underground water utilized.
3. The undergournd water is widely used for drinking and irrigation through well and tube- wells.

Question 6.
Explain the agents of soil formation?
Answer:
Soil is a renewable resource. It takes hundreds of years in the formation of one centimetre thick layer of soil. Plain surface is best for the formation of soil because least problems are created here during the formation. There are different factors which help in formation of soil e.g., parent rocks and topography, climatic conditions which helps in weathering of rocks, plants, animals and there remains.

Question 7.
Write five steps for conervation of wild life?
Answer:

1. Safeguarding the national habital of the wild animals.
2. Hunting of wild animals should be restricted.
3. Establishing Biosphere Reserves in forest areas.
4. Educating public for environmental protection at levels of education.
5. Implementation of wildlife management programmes.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the concept of soil conservation. Outline the measures of soil conservation?
Answer:
Conservation of Soil. Soil is the most important resource to support human life. The soil on which we depend so much for our survival has evolved over thousands and thousands of years. It is therefore necessary to conserve this resource to enable people to produce a variety of crops.

What is needed to day is the scientific management of soil, their proper conservation, avoidance of their erosion and maintainence of their fertility through organic and bio manures.

Soil erosion is one single factor which cause great harm to our agricultural productivity. Secondly, salinity and alkalinity has also spoiled the fertility of the soil in India. Running water and wind have been causing regular soil erosion. So, conservation is necessary to ensure sustained productivity of land.
The soil can be conserved by adopting the following measures:

1. Aforestation and a ban on blind deforestation.

2. Contour Ploughing:
It is the method by which field are ploughed, harrowed and sown along the contours instead of up and down the slopes.

3. Terracing:
This means making a series of winding steps on mountain slope.

4. Strip Cropping:
Cover crop such as grasses and small grains are planted alternately with cultivated crops. Cover crops absorb moisture and hold the soil together.

5. Stopping clearance of forests on a large scale.

6. Preventing overgrazing.

7. Construction of bunds.

Question 2.
How are forests useful to man?
Answer:
The economical uses of forests are as follows:

1. Forests maintain environmental stability, ecological balance for the existence of all life forms.
2. They provide timber and fuel wood. Soft wood is used in furniture, packages, and also other building materials.
3. Pulp is made from soft wood and is used in paper making.
4. Forest provide many things to meet our food requirements like wild fruits, nuts, berries, etc. Many tribes are dependent on gathering of these products in forests.
5. They modify climatic conditions and bring better rainfall in the area.
6. They reduce wind force and reduce air temperature during summer which have a positive effect on the overall environment.
7. They add to the forest floor large quantities of leaves, twigs and branches, which after decomposition form humus. This increases the fertility of soil.

Question 1.
Show distribution of soil on a outline map of India?
Answer:

Question 2.
Show Wildlife and Biosphere Reserves on a outline map of India?
Answer:

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Food: Where Does it Come From? Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

Are you searching for CBSE Class 6 Science MCQ Quiz Questions with Answers to practice? Then, you have come to the right spot.

MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Food: Where Does it Come From?

Food: Where Does it Come From? Text Book Exercise

Question 1.
Do you find that all living beings need the same kind of food?
Answer:
No, we know that the different organisms eat different kinds of food. For example, human being eats roti, dal, rice, bread, vegetables and rice, etc. Buffalo, cow and some other animals eats grass, oil cake, grains, hay, etc. Cat and dog eats small animals, milk, roti, bread and birds, etc. Tiger, lion eat other animals. Thus, we can say that different living beings eat different kind of food.

Question 2.
Name the five plants and their parts that we eat?
Answer:

Plants:

1. Radish
2. Carrot
3. Mustard
4. Potato
5. Maize

Parts that we eat:

1. Roots and leaves
2. Roots
3. Seeds, oil and leaves
4. Roots
5. Fruits

Question 3.
Match the items in Column A with that in Column B.

Answer:

(i) (d)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (b)

Question 4.
Fill up the blanks with the words gives:
herbivore, plant, milk, sugarcane, carnivore

1. Tiger is a ……………………… because it eats only meat.
2. Deer eats only plants products and so, is called ……………………….
3. Parrot eats only ………………….. products.
4. The …………………….. that we drink, which comes from cows, buffaloes and goats is an animal product.
5. We get sugar from ……………………..

Answer:

1. Carnivore
2. Herbivore
3. Plant
4. Milk
5. Sugarcane.

Projects And Activities

Activity 1.
You must have seen a garden lizard around your home. Next time whenever you see it, observe carefully and find out what it takes for food. Is the food different from that of a house lizard?
Answer:
A garden lizard takes mosquitoes, house flies while a house lizard takes insects only.

Activity 2.
Make a list (with pictures, when possible) of food items generally taken by people of different regions of India. Place these on a large outline map of India to display in your classroom?
Answer:

Activity 3.
Find out the names of plants that grow in water and which are eaten as food?
Answer:
Lotus, lily, algae and chest – nut, etc. are grow in water and which are eaten as food.

Activity 4.
Make a table to show that the type of food the animals eat?
Answer:

Activity 5.
In the table give below names of some of the things are given. Write their uses and sources in front of them?

Answer:

Activity 6.
Prepare a table to show animals which eats only plants, other animals and both plants and animals?
Answer:

Activity 7.
Make a table that what do your friends eat?
Answer:

Activity 8.
Make a table to show some food items and their ingredients?
Answer:
Food items and their ingredients

Activity 9.
Prepare a table to show ingredients used to prepare food items and their sources?
Answer:
Ingredients used to prepare food items and their sources

Activity 10.
How will you sprout the seeds?
Answer:

1. Take some dry seeds of chana or raoong.
2. Put a small quantity of seeds is a container filled with water and leave this aside for a day.
3. Next day, drain the water completely and leave the seeds in the vessel. Wrap them with a piece of wet cloth and set aside.
4. The following day, a small white structure may have grown out of the seeds. If so, the seeds have sprouted.

If not, wash the seeds in water, drain the water and leave them aside for another day, covered with a wet cloth.

5. Further, the next day, the seeds would have sprouted.
6. Further, the next day, the seeds would have sprouted.
7. After washing these sprouted seeds, we can eat them.
8. They can also be boiled. Add some spices and get a tasty snack to eat.

Food: Where Does it Come From? Intex Questions

Question 1.
Paheli want to know if any of our food comes from sources other than plants and animals?
Answer:
No.

Question 2.
Paheli wants to know where you would place human beings, while filling table of Activity 6?
Answer:
Omnivoxes.

Food: Where Does it Come From? Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions Food: Where Does it Come From?

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question (a)
Cat is a omnivores because it eats:
(a) Plants
(b) Animals
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both of these

Question (b)
Sugar is made from:
(a) Water
(b) Wheet
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:
(d) Sugarcane

Question (c)
The source of chicken curry is:
(a) Plants
(b) Animals
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Animals

Question (d)
Seeds of mustard plants give us:
(a) Oil
(b) Fruit
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Oil

Question (e)
Human beings are –
(a) Herbivores
(b) Carnivores
(c) Omnivores
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Omnivores

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Food is essential for all ………………….. beings.
2. Animals provides us ……………………..
3. All animals are …………………… because of their food habits.
4. Horse is a herbivorous animal because it eats …………………………
5. Honey is obtained from …………………….

Answer:

1. Living
2. Food
3. Different
4. Herbivorous
5. Honey – Bees.

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. Milk gives us proteins.
2. Animals that feed on both plants and animals are called omnivorous.
3. Animals do not provide us food.
4. All living beings need the same kind of food.
5. Animals do not depend for their food on plants.
6. Human beings are omnivores.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False
6. True.

Question 4.
Give one word for the following:

1. Animals which eat plants and plant products only.
2. Animals which eat other animals.
3. Animals which eat both plants and animals.

Answer:

1. Herbivores
2. Carnivores
3. Omnivores.

Question 5.
Match the names of same animals in column A with their common food in column B:

Answer:

(i) – (c)
(ii) – (f)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (g)
(v) – (b)
(vi) – (e)
(vii) – (d)

Food: Where Does it Come From? Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many materials or ingredients are needed to prepare a dish of boiled rice?
Answer:
Two, i.e., raw rice and water.

Question 2.
What are the sources of rice or wheat?
Answer:
The sources of rice or wheat are fields and plants.

Question 3.
Name some food products we obtain from animals?
Answer:
Milk, egg and meat.

Question 4.
Which animals provide us milk?
Answer:
Buffalo and cow.

Question 5.
Which animals provide us eggs?
Answer:
Hen.

Question 6.
Name some animals that provide us food?
Answer:
Buffalo, cow and goat.

Question 7.
Which parts of a plant are our food?
Answer:
We eat many leafy vegetables. We eat fruits of some plants. Sometimes roots, stems and even flowers of plant are our food.

Question 8.
Name any two oil – yielding plants?
Answer:
Sunflower and mustard plants.

Question 9.
What are herbivorous?
Answer:
The animals which depend on only green plants for their food like cow, goat, etc.

Question 10.
What are carnivorous?
Answer:
The animals which eat only other animals Tiger and Lion are carnivorous.

Question 11.
What are omnivorous?
Answer:
The animals who can feed on plants and other animals both are called omnivorous like man, cat, dog, etc.

Question 12.
Name any two invertebrates?
Answer:

1. Earthworm
2. Insects.

Question 13.
What is the food of a frog?
Answer:
Small insects.

Question 14.
What is the food of fishes?
Answer:
It feeds upon microplants and aquatic insects.

Question 15.
Which types of foods are eaten by buffalo and cow?
Answer:
Buffalo and cow eat oil cake, grass, hay, leaf and grain.

Question 16.
What is the smallest constituent of plant or animal?
Answer:
The smallest constituent of plants and animal is cell.

Question 17.
Give one example of each plant which is reproduced by (i) stems, (ii) leaves?
Answer:

1. Potato, ginger are reproduced by stems.
2. Bryophyllum is reproduced by leaves.

Question 18.
Where do we get honey?
Answer:
We get honey from honey – bees, which is collected from sweet, juice or nector of flowers.

Question 19.
Name some animals which eat only plants?
Answer:
Buffalo, cow, goat, sheep and deer.

Question 20.
Name some animals which eat both plants and animals?
Answer:
Dog and crow.

Question 21.
Name some animals with lay eggs?
Answer:
Frog, snakes, birds, etc. lay eggs.

Food: Where Does it Come From? Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the animals which provide us milk, meat, egg, and honey?
Answer:
We get milk from buffalo, goat, cow and sheep, we get meat from, fish, goat, hen, etc., we get eggs from hens. Honey is obtained from honey – bees.

Question 2.
Name the plants from which we obtained grains, oils, fruits and pulses?
Answer:
We get grains from wheat, rice and maize, etc. we get oils from sunflower, mustard, ground nut and soyabean plants, etc. We get fruits from mango, banana, guava, orange and papaya plants. We get pulses from urad, moong, masoor, and gram plants.

Question 3.
Name the plants from which we obtained vegetables?
Answer:
We get vegetables from radish, brinjal, cabbage, carrot, cauliflower, and peas plants, etc. These vegetables are in the form of roots, stems leaves and fruits.

Question 4.
How are plants different from animals?
Answer:
Difference between plants and animals are:
plants:

1. All green plants prepare their own food.
2. Plants cannot move from one place to another. But they show movement only in the position.

Animals:

1. Animals cannot prepare their own food. They take their food from plants.
2. Animals can move from one place to another.

Question 5.
Give five examples each of plants producing, cereals, vegetables, fruits, medicines and timber?
Answer:

1. Cereals plants: Moong, urad, iram, pla, masoor.
2. Vegetables – Carrot, radish, turnip, cauliflowers and tomato.
3. Fruits – Apple, guava, orange and mango.
4. Medicines – Neem, tulasi, podina, ginger and peepal.
5. Timber – Neem, guava, jamun, babool and palms.

Question 6.
How can plants be classified?
Answer:
Plants can be classified on the basis of following:

1. Plants can be classified on the basis of their habitat. i.e., water plants, land plants, sea/land plants, water plants, desert plants.
2. They can be classified on the basis of their structure like herb, shurb or tree.
3. They can be classified on the basis of their food habits like autotrophic plants, insectivorous plants, heterotrophic plants.

Food: Where Does it Come From? Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on the importance of plants and animals in our daily life?
Answer:
Most of the things we use in our daily life are obtained from plants or animals.

1. Our food items like wheat, rice, pulses, species, oil, vegetables and fruits are obtained from plants.
2. Milk, ghee, butter, curd, egg and meat are obtained from animals.
3. Fibers like silk, wool and leather are obtained from animals.
4. Many materials for shelter house, construction and furniture are also obtained from plants.
5. Some plants are used for decorative purposes.
6. Most of the medicines are obtained from living sources. Thus plants are food producing, timber producing, fiber producing and medicine producing source. Plants are also responsible for producing oxygen which is essential for life.
7. Animal produce very important material for us. Milk, ghee, egg, meat, silk, leather etc. are produced by animals. They plough our fields and work for transportation. In this way we can say that plants and animals are very important for us.

Question 2.
What are similarities and dissimilarities between plants and animals?
Answer:
Similarities between plants and animal:

1. Both can grow.
2. Both can respire.
3. Both can reproduce.
4. Both can excrete.
5. Both can show response to stimuli.

Dissimilarities between plants and animals:

1. Plants can prepare their own food in green leaves with the help of carbondioxide, water, minerals and sunlight. But animals can’t prepare their own food.
2. Plant’s cannot move from one place to another, but animals can move from one place to another.

class 7 science mcq pdf download ·

MP Board Class 7th Science Solutions Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Nutrition in Plants Intext Questions

Question 1.
Boojho wants to know how plants prepare their own food?
Answer:
Plants are the only that can prepare food for themselves by using water, carbon dioxide and minerals.

Question 2.
Paheli wants to know why our body cannot make food from carbon dioxde, water and minerals like plants do?
Answer:
Our body do not have chlorophyll.

Question 3.
Boojho wants to know how water and minerals absorbed by roots reach the leaves?
Answer:
Water and minerals are transported to the leaves by the vessels which run like pipes throughout the roots, stems and leaves of the plant. They form a continuous path or passage for the nutrients to reach the leaves.

Question 4.
Paheli wants to know what is so special about the leaves that they can synthesize food but other parts of the plant cannot?
Answer:
Because the leaves have a green pigment called chlorophyll.

Question 5.
Boojho has observed some plants with deep red, violet or brown leaves. He wants to know whether these leaves also carry out photosynthesis?
Answer:
No.

Question 6.
Paheli wants to know whether mosquitoes, bed bugs, lice and leeches that suck our blood are also parasites?
Answer:
Lice are parasites. Mosquitoes are not parasites because they suck blood to incubit their eggs and not for nutrition.

Question 7.
Boojho is confused. If the pitcher plant is green and carries out photosynthesis, then why does it feed on insects?
Answer:
Because these plants do not get enough nutrition from the soil as required.

Question 8.
Boojho wants to know how these organisms acquire nutrients. They do not have mouths like animals do. They are not like green plants as they lack chlorophyll and cannot make food by photosynthesis?
Answer:
These organisms acquire food from dead organisms.

Question 9.
Paheli is keen to know whether her beautiful shoes, which she wore on special occasions, were spoiled by fungi during the rainy season. She wants to know how fungi appear suddenly during the rainy season?
Answer:
The fungal spores are generally present in the air. When they land on wet and warm things they germinate and grow During rainy season, there are more chances of things getting wet So, fungi spoil more things in rainy season.

Question 10.
Boojho says once his grandfather told him that his wheat fields were spoiled by a fungus. He wants to know if fungi cause diseases also?
Answer:
Yes, fungi causes diseases in plants, animals and humans. However, some fungi are also used is medicines.

Nutrition in Plants Text book Exercises

Question 1.
Why do organisms need to take food?
Answer:
Food is needed by all living organisms for the following purposes:

1. Get energy to do work.
2. Build up body.
3. Improve resistance power against diseases and protects us from infections.
4. Replacement and repairing damaged part in the body.
5. Maintain the functions of the body.

Question 2.
Distinguish between a parasite and a saprotroph?
Answer:
Distinguish Parasite and Saprotroph:
Parasite:

1. They derives nutrients from the body of some other living organisms.
2. They use the heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
3. They mostly live on or in the host.
4. Examples: Tapeworm, Round warm, Cuscutta, Puccinia, etc.

Saprotroph:

1. They derives nutrients from dead and decaying organisms.
2. They use saprotrophic mode of nutrition.
3. They live on dead and decaying stuff.
4. Examples: Mushrooms, Bacteria, Yeast, etc.

Question 3.
How would you test the presence of starch in leaves?
Answer:
Starch Test:
Take the green leaf to be tested. Boil it in water for 5 minutes (approximately). Keep it in the 60% angle amyle alcohol at 60°C till it becomes colourless. Now take the colourless leaf out from alcohol and wash it with cold water. Also pour few drops of dilute iodine solution on the leaf. The leaf becomes very blue with the solution which proves the presence of starch is the leaf.

Question 4.
Give a brief description of the process of synthesis of food in green plants?
Answer:
The leaves have a green pigment called chlorophyll. It helps leaves to capture the energy of the sunlight. This energy is used to synthesize (prepare) food from carbon dioxide and water. Since the synthesis of food occurs in the presence of sunlight, it is called photosynthesis (Photo: light: synthesis: to combine).

So we find that chlorophyll, sunlight, carbon dioxide and water are necessary to carry out the process of photosynthesis. It is a unique process on the earth. The solar energy is captured by the leaves and stored in the plant in the form of food. Thus, sun is the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms.

During photosynthesis, chlorophyll containing cells of leaves, in the presence of sunlight, use carbon dioxide and water to synthesise carbohydrates. The process can be represented as an equation.

During the process oxygen is released. The carbohydrates ultimately get converted into starch. The presence of starch in leaves indicates the occurrence of photosynthesis. The starch is also a carbohydrate.

Question 5.
Show with the help of a sketch that the plants are the ultimate source of food?
Answer:

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Green plants are called …………….. since they synthesise their own food.
2. The food synthesised by the plants is stored as ……………..
3. In photosynthesis solar energy is captured by the pigment called ……………..
4. During photosynthesis plants take in …………….. and release

Answer:

1. Autotrophs
2. Starch
3. Chlorophyll
4. Carbon dioxide, oxygen.

Question 7.
Name the following:

1. A parasitic plants with yellow, slender and tubular stem.
2. A plant that has both autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
3. The pores through which leaves exchange gases.

Answer:

1. Cuscuta (Amarbel)
2. Pitcher plant
3. Stomata.

Question 8.
Tick the correct answer:
(a) Amarbel is an example of –
(i) Autotroph
(ii) Parasite
(iii) Saprotroph
(iv) Host.
Answer:
(ii) Parasite

(b) The plant which trape and feeds on insects is –
(i) Cuscuta
(ii) China rose
(iii) Pitcher plant
(iv) Rose.
Answer:
(iii) Pitcher plant.

Question 9.
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II:

Answer:

(i) (d)
(ii) (a)
(iii) (e)
(iv) (b)
(v) (c)

Question 10.
Mark “T” if the statement is true and “F” if it is false:

1. Carbon dioxide is released during photosynthesis. (T/F)
2. Plants which synthesise their food themselves are called saprotrophs. (T/F)
3. The product of photosynthesis is not a protein (T/F)
4. Solar energy is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis. (T/F)

Answer:

1. False (F)
2. False (F)
3. True (T)
4. True (T)

Question 11.
Choose the correct option from the following:
Which part of the plant gets carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis –
(i) Root hair
(ii) Stomata
(iii) Leaf veins
(iv) Sepals.
Answer:
(ii) Stomata.

Question 12.
Chose the correct option from the following:
Plants take carbon dioxide form the atmosphere mainly through their –
(i) Roots
(ii) Stem
(iii) Flowers
(iv) Leaves.
Answer:
(iv) Leaves.

Nutrition in Plants Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct alternative:

Question (i)
The green coloured pigment present in plants is ………….
(a) Xanthophyll
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Chlorophyll
(d) None of these.
(c) Chlorophyll

Question (ii)
The life processes that provide energy are ……………
(a) Respiration
(b) Nutrition
(c) Both respiration and nutrition
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both respiration and nutrition

Question (iii)
Which of these are autotrophs …………..
(a) Green plants
(b) All plants
(c) All animals
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Green plants

Question (iv)
………….. changes solar energy into chemical energy.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon – di – oxide
(c) Water
(d) Chlorophyll.
Answer:
(d) Chlorophyll.

Question (v)
………….. is saprophyte.
(a) Fungus
(b) Cuscuta
(c) Money plant
(d) Mosquito.
Answer:
(a) Fungus

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Resin, gum, latex are ……………. substances of plants.
2.  …………….. is the mode of taking food by an organism and its utilisation by the body.
3. The plant on which it climbs is called a ……………
4. Plants which use saprotrophic mode of nutrition are called …………..
5. Oxygen is produced during ……………..

Answer:

1. Excretory
2. Nutrition
3. Host
4. Saprotrophs
5. Photosynthesis.

Question 3.
Which of the fallowing statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. All organisms take food and utilise it to get energy for the growth and maintenance of their bodies.
2. Chlorophyll and sunlight are not the essential requirements for photosynthesis.
3. Solar energy is stored by the leaves with the help of chlorophyll.
4. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis.
5. Only a few plants adopt other modes of nutrition like parasitic and saprotraphic.

Answer:

1. True (T)
2. False (F)
3. True (T)
4. False (F)
5. True (T).

Question 4.
Match the items is Column A with Column B:

Answer:

(i) (b)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (b).

Question 5.
Name the following :

1. A plants food factory.
2. Living on another organisms and derive food from them.
3. A chlorophyll containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together.

Answer:

1. Leaf
2. Parasitic
3. Lichens

Nutrition in Plants Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many types of nutritions are there?
Answer:
There are two types of nutritions. These are holophytic nutrition and holozoic nutrition.

Question 2.
How do symbiotic live?
Answer:
Symbiotic live with host and parasite which depend on host benefit.

Question 3.
What are autotrophs? Give examples.
Answer:
The organism who can prepare their own food utilising sunlight, carbon dioxde and water, are known as autotrophs.
Examples: All green plants are autotrophs.

Question 4.
Define photosynthesis?
Answer:
The process by which the green plants prepare their food using carbon dioxide and water in the presence of chlorophyll and light is called photosynthesis.

Question 5.
What is the function of chlorophyll?
Answer:
Chlorophyll helps leaves to capture the energy of the Sun.

Question 6.
What are algae?
Answer:
The slimy green patches in ponds or in other stagnant water bodies are called algae.

Question 7.
What is the purpose of starch test?
Answer:
To confirm the presence of starch in the green plants.

Question 8.
Name two herbivorous animals?
Answer:
Deer, cow.

Question 9.
Name two omnivorous animals?
Answer:
Dog, cat.

Question 10.
Name two carnivorous animals?
Answer:
Tiger, lion.

Question 11.
Name two leguminous plants?
Answer:
Gram, pea.

Question 12.
Name two insectivorous plants?
Answer:
Sundew, Aldrovenda.

Question 13.
Which bacteria can convert nitrogen into soluble term?
Answer:
Rhizobium.

Question 14.
Define autotrophs?
Answer:
Green plants synthesise their food themselves by the process of photosynthesis. They are autotrophs.

Nutrition in Plants Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do the exchange of gases occur in plants?
Answer:
In case of plants the lower surface of leaves have small pores called stomata. These are provided by two guard cells which control the opening or closing of the stomata. When the concentration of O₂ gas increases during photosynthesis the guard cells open and O₂ gas is given out and if concentration of CO₂ gas increases during respiration, the guard cells cause CO₂ gas to go out of the cells. This is how the exchange of gases occur in plants.

Question 2.
How many types of heterotrophs are there? Give examples.
Answer:
Organisms which depend upon plants and other organisms for their food are called heterotrophs. Heterotrophs can further be classified as:

1. Herbivorous Animals:
The organisms or animals who eat plants and plant products.
Examples: cow, horse, goat, etc.

2. Carnivorous Animals:
The animals who eat flesh of other animals are called carnivorous.
Examples: lion, tiger, wolf, etc.

3. Omnivorous Animals:
The animals who eat both plant and animals are called ominivorous animals.
Examples: man, cat, dog, crow, etc.

Question 3.
W’hat is the difference between ‘heterotrophs and autotrophs’?
Answer:
The differences between two are:

Heterotroph:

1. These are organism which can not make their own food.
2. They do not have chloroplast.

Autotroph:

1. They can make their own food.
2. They have chloroplast.

Question 4.
Give two examples of insectivorous plants?
Answer:
The plants which have the special system to trap the insects and kill them are called insectivorous plants. The pitcher plant and venus faly trap plants. In the pitcher plant, the leaf is modified in form of a pitcher. When any insect visits this pitcher it is trapped and killed in it.

Question 5.
What is the difference between holophytic and holozoic type of nutrition?
Answer:
Those living beings such as plants who prepare their own food are called autotrophic and this type of nutrition is called as holophytic type of nutrition.

Those living beings who cannot prepare their own food but depend on food prepared by some other living beings are called heterotopic. This type of nutrition is called holozoic nutrition.

Question 6.
How is Sun the ultimate source of energy for all the living beings?
Answer:
Green plants prepare food utilising sunlight. All other organisms depend on green plants directly or indirectly for their nutrition. Thus, Sun is the ultimate source of energy.

Question 7.
How is holophytic nutrition different from holozoic nutrition?
Answer:
1. Holophytic nutrition is found in plants and lower forms of animals they consume liquid food as they lack digestive systems.

2. Holozoic nutrition is found in man and other higher forms of animals. There is a well developed digestive system in all of them. Hence, they can consume solid food.

Nutrition in Plants Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Draw a diagram of stomata?
Answer:

Question 2.
Give an experiment to demonstrate that light is necessary for photosynthesis?
Answer:
Take a broad leaved potted plant and keep it under dark for 24 – 48 hours. The plant is kept in dark to make the plant free from starch. After this fix a leaf still attached to the plant with a paper clip having paper black as shown in figure. Now keep the plant in light for few hours and test the leaf for starch. To test the leaf for starch, pluck the lgaf and kill its cells in boiling water. Remove the chlorophyll by boiling in alcohol. Wash the boiled leaf in water and treat with iodine solution.

It is believed that the portion of the leaf, exposed to sunlight turned blue in colour while the covered portion did not undergo any change. You know that starch give blue colour with iodine solution. This was because the covered portion did not receive any sunlight. This shows that sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis.

Question 3.
Describe the process of nutrition in hydra?
Answer:
In hydra, the tentacles help in ingesting the food (taking the food inside). The cells inside the body cavity wall secrete certain chemicals and enzymes to digest the food. The digested food is absorbed by the cells of the wall in the body cavity by diffusion. On eating food the hydra grows and reproduces by forming buds.

Question 4.
Define cell with their structure
Answer:
The bodies of living organisms are made of tiny units called cells. Cells can be seen only under the microscope. Some organisms are made of only one cell. The cell is enclosed by a thin outer boundary, called the cell membrane. Most cells have a distinct, centrally located spherical structure called the nucleus (Fig.). The nucleus is surrounded by a jelly – like substance called cytoplasm.

MP Board Class 7th Science Solutions