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MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State

 The Solid State Important Questions

 The Solid State Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Due to Frankel defect, density of ionic solids :
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Does not change
(d) It changes.
Answer:
(c) Does not change

Question 2.
In CsCl each Cl is surrounded by how many Cs :
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2.
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 3.
Frenkel defect is not shown by :
(a) AgBr
(b) AgCl
(c) KBr
(d) ZnS.
Answer:
(c) KBr

Question 4.
In NaCl crystal number of oppositely charged ions situated at equal distance are:
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 5.
Best conductor of electricity is :
(a) Diamond
(b) Graphite
(c) Silicon
(d) Carbon (non – crystalline).
Answer:
(b) Graphite

Question 6.
Which type of point defect is found in NaCI crystal of KCl crystal: (MP 2009 Set D)
(a) Frenkel defect
(b) Schottky defect
(c) Lattice defect
(d) Impurity defect.
Answer:
(b) Schottky defect

Question 7.
How many space lattices (Bravais lattice) can be obtained from various crystal systems :
(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 32
(d) 230.
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 8.
Diamond is a :
(a) H – bond solid
(b) Ionic solid
(c) Covalent solid
(d) Glass
Answer:
(c) Covalent solid

Question 9.
The Co – ordination number of Ca²⁺ ions in fluoride structure is :
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 3.
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 10.
8 : 8 Co – ordination number is found in which compound :
(a) MgO
(b) A1203
(C) CsCl
(d) All of these
Answer:
(C) CsCl

Question 11.
Co – ordination number of body centred cubic cell is :
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 6
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 12.
Density of unit cell is :
(a) \(\frac { ZM }{ { a }^{ 3 }{ N }_{ 0 } } \)
(b) \(\frac { Z{ N }_{ 0 } }{ { a }^{ 3 }M } \)
(c) \(\frac { { N }_{ 0\quad }{ a }^{ 3 } }{ Z } \)
(d) \(\frac { Z }{ M{ N }_{ 0 } } \)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { ZM }{ { a }^{ 3 }{ N }_{ 0 } } \)

Question 13.
The number of tetrahedral voids in unit cell of cubic close packing :
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 14.
Intra – ionic distance of CsCl will be :
(a) a
(b) \(\frac {a}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } a }{ 2 } \)
(d) \(\frac { 2a }{ \sqrt { 3 } } \)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } a }{ 2 } \)

Question 15.
Number of atoms in a body centred cubic unit cell is : (MP 2011)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 16
Which of the following is Bragg equation :
(a) nλ = 2ϕ sinθ
(b) nλ = 2d sinθ
(c) nλ = sinθ
(d) n\(\frac {θ}{2}\) = \(\frac {d}{2}\) sinθ.
Answer:
(b) nλ = 2d sinθ

Question 17.
Constituents of covalent crystal is :
(a) Atom
(b) Molecule
(c) Ion
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Atom

Question 18.
Number of Na atom present in the unit cell of NaCI crystal is : (MP 2012)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
Answer:
(d) 4.

Question 19.
What type of magnetic substance are Fe, Co, Ni: (MP 2012,18)
(a) Paramagnetic
(b) Ferromagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic
(d) Antiferromagnetic.
Answer:
(b) Ferromagnetic

Question 20.
The correct example of Frenkel defect is : (MP 2012)
(a) NaCI
(b) CsCl
(c) KCl
(d) AgCl.
Answer:
(d) AgCl.

Question 21.
Dry ice (solid CO₂) is a/an : (MP 2012)
(a) Ionic crystal
(b) Covalent crystal
(c) Molecular crystal
(d) Metallic crystal.
Answer:
(c) Molecular crystal

Question 22.
Co – ordination number of Cs in CsCl: (MP2015)
(a) Like Cl i.e., 8
(b) Unlike Cl i.e., 6
(c) Unlike Cl i.e., 8
(d) Like Cl i.e., 6.
Answer:
(a) Like Cl i.e., 8

Question 23.
Structure of NaCI crystal: (MP 2015)
(a) Tetragonal
(b) Cubic
(c) Orthorhombic
(d) Monoclinic.
Answer:
(b) Cubic

Question 24.
Each Na⁺ion in NaCI crystal is surrounded by :
(a) Three Cl^– ions
(b) Eight Cl^– ions
(c) Four Cl^– ions
(d) Six Cl^– ions.
Answer:
(d) Six Cl^– ions.

Question 25.
For increasing of electro conductivity in a solid crystal, mixing of impurities is known as : (MP2016)
(a) Schottky defect
(b) Frenkel defect
(c) Doping
(d) Electronic defect.
Answer:
(c) Doping

Question 26.
Which type of lattice is found in KCl crystal:
(a) Face centred cubic
(b) Body centred cubic
(c) Simple cubic
(d) Simple tetragonal.
Answer:
(a) Face centred cubic

Question 27.
Number of atoms in a body centred cubic unit cell of a monoatomic substance is :
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 28.
Radius ratio limit for tetrahedral symmetry is :
(a) 0155
(b) 0.414
(c) 0.732
(d) 0.225
Answer:
(d) 0.225

Question 29.
The defect produced due to a cation and an anion vacancy in a crystal lattice is known as :
(a) Schottky defect
(b) Frenkel defect
(c) Crystal defect
(d) Ionic defect
Answer:
(a) Schottky defect

Question 30.
If co – ordination number of Cs⁺ is 8 in CsCl then co – ordination number of Cl^– ion is :
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 12
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 2.
Answer in one word / sentence :

1. Give two examples of metallic crystal.
2. Give two examples of covalent crystal.
3. Give two examples of ionic crystal.
4. What is the co – ordination number of F⁺ ion in CaF₁?
5. What is the value of co – ordination number of hexagonal close packing structure?
6. What is the type of structure of NaCl crystal?
7. Give an example of body centred cubic cell.
8. Give an example of a compound which has both Schottky and Frenkel type of defect.
9. What types of crystal is SiC? (MP 2011)
10. Write Bragg equation. (MP2017)
11. What is effect on the density of a substance or crystal due to Schottky defect?
12. Write the formula of radius ratio.
13. Give two examples of amorphous or non – crystalline solid.
14. F – centres give colour of crystal due to whose presence? (MP 2018)

Answer:

1. Copper, Nickel
2. Diamond, Graphite
3. NaCl, NaNO₃
4. 4
5. 12
6. Cubic
7. CsCl
8. AgBr
9. Covalent solid
10. nλ = 2d sinθ
11. Due to Schottky defect density of substance decreases
12. Radius ratio = \(\frac { radiusofcation\quad { r }^{ + } }{ radiusofanion\quad { r- } } \)
13. Glass, plastic
14. Due to presence of free electron.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks :

1. The defect produced due to removal of a cation and an anion from a crystal lattice is called …………………. (MP 2018)
2. If in a crystal lattice a cation leaves its lattice site and occupies a space in the interstitial site then the defect is called ………………….
3. The cause of electric conduction of NaCl in its molten state are its ………………….
4. Due to …………………. defect the density of crystal decreases
5. Total …………………. types of crystal system are there.
6.  …………………. proposed the concept of atom for the first time.
7. The ratio of the cation and anion present in a crystal is known as ………………….
8. The process of adding small amount of impurities in an element or compound is called …………………. (MP 2018)
9. Total 14 types of unit cells are there which are known as ………………….
10. In NaCl crystal structure, co – ordination number of both Na⁺and Cl^– ion is ………………….
11.  …………………. defect is found in ZnS and AgCl crystal.
12. Due to Schottky defect, density of crystal ………………….
13. In metallic solids, conductivity is due to the presence of ………………….
14. Point defects are found in …………………. crystals.
15. Substances which are attracted in magnetic field are called ………………….
16. For a unit cell, if r = \(\frac { a }{ \sqrt { 8 } } \), then it will be …………………. type of unit cell.
17. Conductivity of semiconductor …………………. on increasing temperature.

Answer:

1. Schottky defect
2. Frenkel defect
3. Free ions
4. Schottky
5. Seven
6. Kannad
7. Radius ratio
8. Doping
9. Bravais lattice
10. Six
11. Frenkel
12. Decreases
13. Free electron
14. Ionic
15. Paramagnetic substance
16. Fcc
17. Increases.

Question 4.
Match the following:
I. (MP2014)

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (a)

II.

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)

III.

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)

IV. (MP2017)

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 10 Balance of Payments

Balance of Payments Important Questions

Balance of Payments Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Structure of balance of payment includes which account:
(a) Current account
(b) Capital account
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
Balance of trade means :
(a) Capital transactions
(b)Import and export of goods,
(c) Total credit and debit
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b)Import and export of goods,

Question 3.
Measures to improve adverse balance of payment includes :
(a) Currency devaluation
(b) Import substitution
(c) Exchange control
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 4.
Foreign Exchange Rate is determined by :
(a) Demand of foreign currency
(b) Supply of foreign currency
(c) Demand and supply in foreign exchange market
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Demand and supply in foreign exchange market

Question 5.
Types of Foreign Exchange Market are :
(a) Spot market
(b) Forward market
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Bretton woods system is also known as ………………… border system.
2. There is ………………… relation between foreign exchange rate and the supply of foreign exchange.
3. By devaluation, the value of currency …………………
4.  ………………… items are included in the balance of trade.
5. Balance of payment always remains …………………
6. The value of currency of one country with that of the currency of another country is called …………………

Answer:

1. Adaptable
2. Direct
3. Reduces
4. Visible
5. Balanced
6. Exchange rate.

Question 3.
State true or false :

1. Balance of trade includes both visible and invisible items.
2. Balance of trade is a part of Balance of payments.
3. Devaluation is declared by the government.
4. Balance of payment is always balanced.
5. For export promotion, help of devaluation is taken.
6. The increasing population in developing countries has direct impact on economic growth.
7. Export promotion is one of the ways of correcting Balance of payments.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. False.

Question 4.
Match the following :

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (d)

Question 5.
Answer the following one word/ sentence:

1. New trade policy was declared in which year?
2. What will be the effect of devaluation of Indian currency on Indian imports?
3. In the long run, for what do the importers pay?
4. What does capital account imply?
5. What is the exchange of currency of one country in currency of another country called?

Answer:

1. 1991
2. Costly
3. Exports
4. International exchange and Indebtness
5. Ex – change Rate.

Balance of Payments Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Balance of Payment?
Answer:
The balance of payment of a nation consists of the payments made, within a particular period of time between the residents of the country and the residents of foreign countries.

Question 2.
What do you mean by foreign exchange rate?
Answer:
Meaning:
The rate at which one currency buys or exchanges another currency is known as the rate of exchange. It simply expresses its external value or purchasing power. Foreign exchange rate between the currency units of two countries means the number of units of one national currency that are needed to buy one unit of other national currency.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Balance of Trade and Balance of Payment.
Answer:
Difference between Balance of Trade and Balance of Payment:
Balance of Trade:
The difference between exports and imports is called balance of trade.

Balance of Payment:
The difference between the total receipts of foreign exchange and total payment of foreign exchange is called balance of payment.

Question 4.
What do you mean by unfavourable balance of payment? Explain.
Answer:
Unfavourable balance of payment:
It is also called the deficit balance of payment. It refers to the situation when the total liability for payments of a nation exceeds the total receipts from foreign countries. Hence certain additional transactions are necessary to balance it such as export of gold, withdrawal of deposits in foreign banks etc.

Question 5.
What do you mean by capital account?
Answer:
Capital account is that account of balance of payment which records all such transactions between the residents of a country and rest of the world which cause a change in asset or liability of the country.

Question 6.
What do you mean by current account of balance of payment?
Answer:
Current account is that account of balance of payment which records imports and exports of goods and services and unilateral transfers. It includes visible, invisible and unilateral transfers.

Question 7.
What do you mean by managed floating system?
Answer:
Managed floating system is a mixture of flexible exchange rate system and fixed rate system. (The float part + managed part). Under this system the central bank tend to intervene to buy and sell foreign currencies in an attempt to reduce fluctuation in exchange rate.

Question 8.
What do you mean by protection?
Answer:
When by ending the freedom of foreign trade the ban is put on import and export of goods it is called protection.

Question 9.
Write one advantage of open economy?
Answer:
Investors get the choice of selection among domestic products and foreign goods.

Question 10.
What do you mean by dumping?
Answer:
When the goods are excess than demand then the seller sells this goods in foreign countries on lower rate it is called dumping.

Question 11.
Write points in favour of fixed exchange rate.
Answer:

1. To encourage international trade.
2. Formation of capital.
3. Encouragement to foreign capital
4. Encouragement to export countries.

Question 12.
What do you mean by foreign trade multiplier?
Answer:
Foreign exchange rate multiplier tells us how many times increase takes place in national income by increasing in export.

Question 13.
What does a balance of payment record?
Answer:
The balance of payment records the transaction in goods and services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of the world.

Question 14.
What is dirty floating?
Answer:
When managed floating in the absence of rules and guidelines are implemented, it is called dirty managed floating system.

Question 15.
What do you mean by import and export?
Answer:
Import:
When goods and services are brought from the foreign countries to the domestic countries it is called import.

Export:
Goods and services are send to foreign countries from domestic countries.

Question 16.
What does foreign exchange market include?
Answer:
Foreign exchange market includes banks specialised foreign exchange dealers, brokers, government agencies through which the currency of one country can be exchanged for that of other country.

Question 17.
What do you mean by flexible exchange rate?
Answer:
Flexible rate of exchange:
It is freely determined by the prices of supply and demand in the internal market.

Question 18.
What do you understand by managed floating rate system?
Answer:
It is a hybrid of a fixed exchange rate and flexible exchange rate system. In this system, central bank intervenes in the foreign exchange market to restrict the fluctuations in the exchange rate within certain limits. The aim is to keep exchange rate close to desired target values.

Question 19.
Give arguments in favour of fixed exchange rate.
Answer:
Following points can be studied in favour of fixed exchange rate:

1. Encouragement to international trade.
2. Encouragement to foreign capital.
3. Capital formation.

Question 20.
Write points against fixed exchange rate.
Answer:
Following are the points against fixed exchange rate :

1. Controlled economy.
2. Encouragement to corruption.
3. Sudden change in exchange rate.
4. Unfavourable effect on economic development.

Question 21.
Explain two merits and two demerits of fixed foreign exchange rate.
Answer:
(a) Two merits of fixed foreign exchange rate :

1. Fixed foreign exchange rate ensures stability in exchange rate. The exporters and importers do not have to operate under uncertainty about the exchange rate. Thus, it promotes foreign trade.
2. It also promotes capital movements.

(b) Two demerits of fixed foreign exchange rate :

1. Under this system, countries with deficit in balance of payment run down the stock of gold and foreign currencies. This can create serious problem for them.
2. There may be undervaluation of currency.

Question 22.
Write down the advantages of fixed exchange rate system.
Answer:
Advantages of fixed exchange rate system :

1. This system ensures stability in the international money market/ exchange market.
2. It encourages international trade.
3. It promotes bilateral trade agreements.
4. It avoids speculation.
5. It keeps the government under pressure to combat inflation.

Balance of Payments Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by fixed exchange rate? Write three points against it.
Answer:
A fixed exchange rate is a regime applied by a country whereby the government or central bank ties the official exchange rate to another country’s currency or the price of gold. The purpose of a fixed exchange rate system is to keep a currency’s value within a narrow band.

Following are the different points against the fixed exchange rate:
1. Controlled economic system:
For fixed rate of exchange it is compulsory to have strict control over economic system. If it is not possible then we will have to make changes in exchange rate.

2. Unfavourable effect on economic progress :
The main aim of fixed rate of exchange is to maintain stability in exchange rate. In this situation sometimes national income, employment policy, price level etc. are considered as secondary.

3. Corruption:
To maintain fixed exchange rate many restrictions are imposed in the country. Due to strict restrictions there is always possibility of corruption in the society.

4. Sudden change in the exchange rate:
Some times it becomes evitable to make changes in exchange rate. To keep the exchange rate stable some times currency of the nation becomes weak. In such stuation sometimes the there is devaluation. It has adverse effect on foreign trade and balance of payment.

Question 2.
What is meant by flexible exchange rate? Give arguments in favour and against flexible exchange rate.
Answer:
A system in which rate of exchange is determined by the sources of demand and supply of different currencies in foreign exchange market.

Following points which can be studied in favour of flexible exchange rate :

1. Independent economic policy : If the exchange rates are elastic any country can make their domestic economic policies internal policies) independently.

2. Implementation of monetary policy independently : If the rate of exchange is flexible monetary policy in the nation can be independently and effectively by changing the monetary policy.

Following points which can be studied against the flexible exchange rate :

1. Adverse economic effect:
If the flexible exchange rate is there then the feeling of insecurity comes in the minds of traders. It has an adverse effect on the foreign trade of the country. The tendency of gambling increases. If the exchange rate is reduced the inflation increases. The level of employment opportunities also go down.

2. Misuse of the resouroes:
If exchange rate goes on changing very often then the resources have to distributed again and again sometimes the resources are used in export sometimes for domestic industries. Due to these changes there is always wastage of resources.

Question 3.
What do you mean by balance of payment? What are the causes of adverse balance payment in India?
Or
Explain four causes of adverse balance of payment.
Answer:
Meaning of balance of payment:
The balance of payment of a nation consists of the payments made, within a particular period of time between the residents of the country and the residents of foreign countries.

Following are the causes of adverse balance of payment in India:
1. Increase in imports of petroleum products:
Oil producing countries are increasing the price of petroleum products every year. Along with it the consumption of petroleum products is also increasing day by day. Due to this import is done on lkrge scale.

2. Increase in import of machines:
Due to economic planning there is rapid growth in industrialization and progress in agricultural development. For this the need of machines was felt. Due to this reason more import has to be done.

3. Less increase in export:
The export did not increase according to expectations which is one of the causes of unfavourable balance of payment.

4. International loans and investment:
India has taken loan for developmental purpose. To repay the principal amount and interest, foreign exchange has to be paid. It gave rise to the situation of adverse balance of payment.

Question 4.
Suggest measures to improve the condition of adverse balance of payment
Answer:
Measures or method to correct adverse balance of payment : Following steps should be taken to improve adverse balance of payment in India :

1. Encouragement to export:
The government should encourage the export.

• The trade policy should be export oriented
• For this export tax should be reduced or some concession should be given for export of some goods
• Economic assistance should be provided to the industries of the country
• Advertisement should be done in foreign countries for the products.

2. Reduction in import:
India should reduce imports. For this import duty should be raised so, that imported goods will become expensive and people will be discouraged to purchase them. Domestic products should be discouraged reduce the imports. It will give rise to favourable balance of payment.

3. Foreign debt:
To remove adverse balance payment government can take foreign loan. But taking loan is a temporary solution of it.

4. Exchange control:
For keeping the balance payment exchange control is one method. By controlling exchange we can reduce import and increase export.

Question 5.
Give arguments in favour and against fixed exchange rate.
Or
Give arguments in favour of fixed exchange rate.
Answer:
Follo’wing are the points which can be studied in favour of fixed exchange rate :

1. Encouragement to international trade:
Under fixed exchange rate both importer and exporter know about the amount he has to pay and how much he will be getting. Thus in fixed exchange rate international trade develops in a balance way. Here there is less risk.

2. Encouragement to foreign capital:
If the exchange rate is stable foreign exchange can easily flow into the country because investor is not scared of getting less amount than what is fixed. There is no fear of bearing of loss if the rate of exchange is reduced.

3. Capital formation:
If the foreign exchange rate is fixed there is a favourable effect on internal condition of the country. There is no fear of inflation. In industry demand of capital is increased, savings is also increased. Thus rate of capital formation increases. It gives rise to the development of the country.

4. Exchange system:
If the exchange rate is fixed it does not give encouragement to the tendency of gambling. Thus government can control the exchange system in proper way.

5. Essential for export countries:
Some of the country depend on the income coming from export. Half the national income of such countries comes from exports. For countries like England, Denmark, Japan etc. fixed rate of exchange is very essential otherwise there will be adverse effect on its development.

Following points are there against the fixed rate of exchange :

1. Controlled economic system:
For fixed rate of exchange it is compulsory to have strict controlled over economic system. If it is not possible then we will have to make changes in exchange rate.

2. Unfavourable effect on economic progress:
The main aim of fixed rate of exchange is to maintain stability in exchange rate. In this situation sometimes national income, employment policy, price level etc. are considered as secondary.

3. Corruption:
To maintain fixed exchange rate many restriction are imposed in the country. Due to strict restriction there is always possibility of corruption in the society.

Question 6.
Differentiate between Balance of Trade and Balance of Payment.
Answer:
Differences between Balance of Trade and Balance of Payment:

Balance of Trade:

• The difference between exports and imports is called balance of trade.
• It refers to detailed description of imports and exports only.
• It includes visible items only.
• It may be favourable and unfavourable.
• If balance of trade is not favourable it is not a cause of great concern.
• Balance of trade is a part of balance payment.

Balance of Payment:

• The difference between the total receipts of foreign exchange and total payment of foreign exchange is called balance of payment.
• It comprises not only exports and imports but also services, capital, gold etc.
• It includes visible as well as invisible items both.
• It is always balanced.
• If the balance of payment is not favourable it is a cause of great concern for the nation.
• The concept of balance of payment is broader.

Question 7.
Differentiate between devaluation and depreciation.
Answer:
Differences between devaluation and depreciation:
Devaluation means lowering the value of one’s currency in terms of foreign currency. In this case, the domestic value of currency remains constant but its value in terms of foreign currencies fall. On the other hand, the fall in the price of foreign exchange under flexible exchange rate is known . as depreciation. For instance, if the equilibrium rupee – dollar exchange rate was Rs. 45 and now it has become Rs.50 due to rise in demand for dollars, then the rupee has depreciated against dollar.

Question 8.
What is the marginal propensity to import when M = 60 + 0.06Y? What is the relationship between the marginal propensity to import and the aggregate demand function?
Answer:
M = 60 + 0.6Y (Given)
M = \(\overline { m } \) + mY
Hence, m = 0.6
Where, m = Marginal propensity to import

Relationship:
There is positive relationship between marginal propensity to import and aggregate demand function. Marginal propensity of income spent. Thus,
m = \(\frac {∆m}{∆n}\)

Question 9.
Explain, why:
G -T = (S^g -1) – (X – M)?
Answer:
G -T = (Sf -1) – (X – M)
Here, G = Government expenditure
T = Taxes
S^g = Saving of government
I – Investment
S^g-I = Net Saving
X = Exporters
M = Importers
X – M = Balance of trade.
The given equation states that net government expenditure equals net government savings and balance of trade. It implies that net government expenditure is financed by government savings and trade deficit. Hence, the given equation is correct.

Question 10.
Should a current account deficit be a cause for alarm? Explain.
Answer:
When a country runs a current account deficit, then he must see whether there has been a decrease in saving, increase in investment or an increase in the budget deficit. There is reason to worry about a country’s long prospects of the trade deficit reflects smaller savings or a larger budget deficit. The deficit could reflect higher private or government consumption. In such cases, the country’s capital stock will not rise rapidly enough to yield enough growth it needs to repay its debt. There is less cause to worry, if the trade deficit reflects a rise in investment, which would build the capital stock more quickly and increase future output.

Question 11.
Distinguish between Balance of Trade and Balance on Current Account.
Answer:
Differences between Balance of Trade and Balance on Current Account:

Balance of Trade Account:

• Balance of trade account records the difference between value of imports and exports of material goods (visible items). lateral transfer (visible and invisible)
• Balance of trade is a part of balance on current account. So, it is a narrow concept.

Balance on Current Account:

• Balance on current account records the difference between receipts and payments of foreign exchange on account of goods, services and uni – items).
• Balance on current account is a wide concept.

Question 12.
If inflation is higher in country A than in country B and the exchange rate between the two countries is fixed, what is likely to happen to the trade balance between two countries ?
Answer:
Effect of inflation on the trade balance:
As the inflation is higher in country A than country B, so the prices of country A will be higher as compared to those of country B. In this case exports of A country will fail. The aggregate demand will fall and output and income will fall. Comparatively less price in country B will make its products less expensive and hence again increases w.e.f. net export and domestic output and income. The trade balance of country A will become deficit.

Balance of Payments Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the components of Balance of payment.
Answer:
The Balance of payment of a nation consist of the payments made, within a particular period of time between the residents of that country and the residents of foreign countries. (MPBoardSolutions.com) In other words, it is an account of transactions involving receipts from foreigners on one side and payments to foreigners on the other side. The farmer relates to the international income of a country, they are called “credits” and since the later relates to the international out go, they are call “debits”.

Balance of payment includes all other payments apart from export and import. For example fee of banks, interest, profit, transfer of capital etc. are also included in balance of payment.

Question 2.
Write the main components of capital accounts.
Answer:
The main components of capital accounts are :

1. Borrowings and lending to and from abroad: It includes :
All transactions relating to borrowings from abroad by private sectors, government, etc.
All transactions of lending to abroad by private sectors and government.

2. Investment to and from abroad:
Investments by rest of the world in shares of
Indian companies, real estate in India etc.
Investments by Indian residents in shares of foreign companies, real estate abroad, etc.

3. Change in foreign exchange reserves:
The foreign exchange reserves are the financial assets of the government held in the central bank.

Question 3.
Explain the factors affecting fluctuations in foreign exchange.
Answer:
The factors affecting fluctuations in foreign exchange :

1. Banking related effects:
Banks through their functions affect the exchange rate. If the commercial bank float bank draft and other credit letters in large quantity then the demand for foreign exchange increases and the exchange rate of the country currency decreases. On the other hand, when foreign exchange bank floats credit letters against the country then the demand for home currency increases and the exchange rate becomes favourable for the country.

2. Change in prices:
In comparative view the change in prices results in the change of exchange rate of the country.

3. Impact of imports and exports:
Changes in the import and export quantity of country has a direct impact on the countries exchange rate if export increases in comparison to import the demand for foreign exchange. (MPBoardSolutions.com) If exports increase in comparison to imports the demand for foreign exchange increases and the countries exchange rate becomes favourable. But on the other hand if imports increase then the demand for country currency increases in the foreign country and this becomes unfavourable for the country.

4. Impact of speculation:
The changing trend in speculation trends also have an impact on exchange rate. In short period the.high rate of exchange leads to speculation tendencies. The uncertainty of exchange rate in international money market also encourages speculative motive.

5. Flow of capital:
The flow of capital from a country also affects the exchange rate. Flow of capital from one country to another to earn high profits is possible in short period or flow of capital to foreign countries for investment in the long period in the foreign country is also possible.

Question 4.
Explain visible and invisible export and import.
Answer:
Visible Import and Exports:
Such goods are included in visible imports and exports whose account is maintained in the register of ports. By seeing them we can find out the values of import and export done throughout the year. (MPBoardSolutions.com) In it only the export and imports of goods are kept.

Invisible Import and Exports:
In invisible export and import we include services which exchange are included. They are banking services, insurance, shipping services, education in foreign, medical facilities, tourism, interest, profit, military assistance, foreign donation, penalty etc. whose account is not maintained on ports are included in it.

Question 5.
Suppose C =100 + 0.75Y, 0T = 500, G = 750, taxes are 20% of income. X = 150, M = 100 + 0.2Y. Calculate equilibrium income, the budget deficit or surplus and the trade deficit or surplus.
Answer:
C = 100 + 0.75 YD
Here, C = 100, C = 0.75, I = 500, G = 750, X = 150, M = 100 + 0.2Y
Tax income (r) = 20%
Income (Y) = C + C (1 – t) Y +1 + G + (X – M)
or Y = 100 + 0.75 (1 – 0.2)Y + 500 + 750 + (150 – 100 – 0.2Y)
or Y = 100 + 0.75(0.8) Y + 500 + 750 + 150 – 100 – 0.2Y
or Y= 100 + 0.6Y+ 1300 – 0.2Y
or = 1400 + 0.4Y
or Y – 0.4 Y = 1400
or 0.6Y = 1400
or Y = \(\frac {1400}{0.6}\) = 2333
Deficit budget = Govt. expenditure Tax – (G) – Tax
= 750 – 2333 of 20 %
= 750 – 467 = 283
M = 100 + 0.2Y
= 100 + 0.2 (2333)
= 100 + 467 = 567
So, Trade deficit = M – X = 567 – 150 = 417.

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 9 Government Budget and Economy

Government Budget and Economy Important Questions

Government Budget and Economy Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
The duration of Government budget is :
(a) 5 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 1 year
(d) 10 years.
Answer:
(c) 1 year

Question 2.
Budget is presented in the Parliament by :
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Defence Minister.
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister

Question 3.
Budget speech in Lok Sabha is given by :
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Home Minister.
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister

Question 4.
Professional tax is imposed by :
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Municipal Corporation
(d) Gram Panchayat.
Answers:
(b) State Government

Question 5.
From the following which is included in the direct tax :
(a) Income Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Excise Tax.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
Who issues 1 rupee note in India :
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Finace Ministry of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Finace Ministry of India

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. …………………… is a document containing income and expenditure of the government.
2. Income tax is …………………… tax.
3. …………………… tax is levied on the value of the goods.
4. Service tax is levied by the ……………………
5. budget is considered good for the country.
6. Finance bill contains …………………… proposals.
7. Government budget is presented on the last day of ……………………

Answer:

1. Budget
2. Direct
3. Advalorem
4. Central
5. Deficit
6. Tax
7. February.

Question 3.
State true or false :

1. Deficit budget is not considered as a good budget.
2. Electricity tax is levied by the State Government.
3. Budget speech is given by the Finance Minister.
4. Central excise duty is direct tax.
5. Interest payment is a planned item.
6. During deflation surplus budget is made.
7. Rail budget is generally not included in the annual budget.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. False
6. True
7. True.

Question 4.
Match the following

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (c)

Question 5.
Answer the following in one word/sentence :

1. Write meaning of surplus budget.
2. Expenditure on education is considered as?
3. Who passes the budget presented by the Finance Minister every year?
4. Which tax was levied by the government on July 2017?
5. For how many years government makes budget?
6. What is the full form of G.S.T.?
7. Land Revenue is levied by whom?
8. What is the name gives to budget?

Answer:

1. More income and less expenditure
2. Developmental
3. Parliament
4. G. S. T
5. 1 year
6. Goods and Service Tax
7. By State Government
8. Master Finacial Scheme of Government.

Government Budget and Economy Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by government budget? How many types are there?
Answer:
A budget is the statement of financial plan of the government for a financial year (1st April to 31st March). It indicates the revenue expenditure estimates for the next financial year of the government.

Budget is of two types:

1. Capital budget
2. Revenue budget.

Question 2.
What do you mean by primary deficit?
Answer:
Primary deficit is the difference between fiscal deficit and interest payments. It indicates how much government borrowing is going to meet expenses other than interest payments. It is often used as the basic measure of fiscal responsibility.
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest payments

Question 3.
What is tax?
Answer:
A tax is a compulsory contribution which is given by the people to the government in order to meet the expenditure on the welfare of the citizens.

Question 4.
What is deficit budget?
Answer:
When the expenditure of the government is more than the income of the government, it is called deficit budget.

Question 5.
What do you mean by supplementary budget?
Answer:
Supplementary budget is prepared for the temporary period. It is prepared during the period of emergency like flood, war, earthquake etc.

Question 6.
What do you mean by zero primary deficit?
Answer:
When government has to take loan only to fulfill the liability of interest it is called zero primary deficit.

Question 7.
What do you mean by vote on account?
Answer:
Special arrangement is made under which special power is vested with lok sabha to sanction some amount as advance till the financial budget is passed for the next year.

Question 8.
What is tax evasion?
Answer:
When people do not pay tax by hiding income it is called tax evasion.

Question 9.
What do you mean by surplus budget?
Answer:
When the income of the government is more than expenditure of the government in budget, it is called surplus budget.

Question 10.
What is a balanced budget?
Answer:
Budget in which income and expenditure of the government is equal is called balanced budget.

Question 11.
Write the tax multiplier.
Answer:
Tax multiplier = \(\frac {-c}{1 – c}\)

Question 12.
What do you mean by debt trap?
Answer:
Generally developing countries take loans from foreign countries to fulfill their projects and plans. Developing countries have to pay debt along with the interest on it. To pay this amount again government has to take loan. Thus, principal amount goes on increasing. These countries take loan from one country and pay loan of other country. Thus these countries go in the clutches of debt. This is called debt trap.

Question 13.
Write the main revenue sources.
Answer:
Public revenue:
By public revenue we mean all those income of the government which are essential for government expenditure. Public revenue can be divided into two parts :

1. Revenue receipts
2. Capital receipts.

1. Revenue receipts (Items of income) are of two types :

(A) Tax revenue : It includes all direct and indirect taxes which are imposed by the central government. For example, Income Tax, Corporation Tax, Production tax.

(B) Non – tax revenue :

• Interest receipts
• Dividends and Profits
• Foreign grants
• Fiscal services, Economic services, Subsidiary assistance.

Question 14.
Give the relationship between the Revenue deficit and the Fiscal deficit.
Answer:
Revenue deficit refers to the excess of Government’s revenue expenditure over revenue receipts whereas fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowings.

Question 15.
Explain why public goods must be provided by the government.
Answer:
Public goods must be provided by the government as they cannot be provided through market mechanism i.e., by transactions between individual consumer and producers.

Question 16.
Explain the relation between government deficit and government debt.
Answer:
Relation between government deficit and government debt: The government deficit and government debt are closely related. The government deficit in a flow concept, but it adds to the stocked debt. If the government continues to borrow year after year there is an accumulation of debt. It implies that government has to pay more and more by way of interest. These interest payment contribute to the debt. Thus, deficit is the cause and effect of debt.

Question 17.
Explain the concept of Deficit budget.
Answer:
Deficit budget: It is the budget in which government receipts are more than government expenditure.
Formula = Expected public income < Expected public expenditure.

Government Budget and Economy Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a government budget? Write its objectives. (Delhi, Foreign 2013)
Answer:
“A budget is the statement of the financial plan of the government for a financial year” (1st April to 31st March). It indicates the revenue expenditure estimates for the next financial year of the government. The main objectives of budget are as follows :

1. Reallocation of financial resources.
2. Removal of inequality of income and wealth.
3. Stabilization of price level.
4. Management of public enterprises.
5. Expansion of employment opportunities.

Question 2.
How inequalities in income can be removed through budget?
Or
What is the role of budget in removing income inequalities? (Delhi, All India 2011, Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Fiscal policy implies the income and expenditure policy or the budgetary policy of the government. It is a branch of public finance which deals with the types of financial statements made by any government about its probable revenue and expenditure during a given year.

Through their fiscal policies government can play a significant role in reducing inequality of income and wealth as well as inequality of opportunity. Both tax and spending policies can alter the distribution of income over both short term and medium term. Government need to reform the policies by imposing more taxes oh riches sections and to reduce the burden of tax on poor with the motive of economic welfare of the poor people.

Question 3.
Explain in brief how economic stability can be obtained by government budget? (All India 2011)
Answer:
Government budget is used to prevent business fluctuations of inflation or deflation to achieve the objective of economic stability. The government aims to control the different phases of business fluctuations through the budgetary policy. Policies of surplus budget during inflation and deficit budget during deflation helps to maintain stability of prices in the economy.

Question 4.
What is the role of government in Reallocation of Resources? Explain. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Through the budgetary policy, Government aims to reallocate resources in’ accordance with the economic and social priorities of the government. Government can influence allocations of resources through:

1. Tax concessions or subsidies:
To encourage investment, government can give tax concessions subsidies etc. to the producers, example Government discourages the production of harmful consumption goods through heavy taxes and encourages the use of khadi products ‘by providing subsidies.

There is disequilibrium in the balance of payments when imports are more and exports are less. With demonitization of Indian rupee imports have become costlier, efforts can be made to make balance of payments favourable. But this cannot be done again and again because by this demand of our currency will decrease.

Question 5.
Explain four types of public expenditure.
Answer:
Following are the types of public expenditure :

1. Developmental expenditure:
Under it we include those expenditure which are done for the economic development and social welfare of people. It includes education, medicine, industry agriculture, transportation roads, canals, water welfare, electricity etc.

2. Non – development expenditure:
This expenditure includes that expenditure which is done on administration, on security and legal procedure of the government. It includes salaries of police department, military department, interest on loans, pension etc.

3. Plan expenditure:
It includes expenditure to be incurred during the year on programmes under the five year plan by planning commission. In this expenditure investors and consumers both are included. For example, economic activities like agriculture, industry transportation, communication etc. It also includes social welfare activities like education, family welfare, information and communication, drinking water, cleanliness, health etc.

4. Non – plan expenditure:
It includes all those expenditure other than plan expenditure. It includes debt given to State Government and others, expenditure on maintenance of property, expenditure on purchase of shares.

Question 6.
Differentiate between Direct Tax and Indirect Tax
Answer:

Question 7.
Differentiate between Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure.
Answer:
Differences between Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure :

Revenue Expenditure:

• Revenue expenditure is a current expenditure incured on civil administrations, defence forces, public health and education.
• It is of recurring type of expenditure. It is incurred regularly.
• It is called non – developmental expenditure.

Capital Expenditure:

• It refers to expenditure which leads to creation of assets or reduces liabilities.
• It is a non – recurring type of expenditure.
• It is called developmental expenditure.

Question 8.
Differentiate between Developmental and Non – Developmental Expenditure.
Answer:
Differences between Developmental and Non – Developmental Expenditure:

Developmental Expenditure:

• It is incurred on economic and social development of the country.
• Expenditure on agriculture, industries, transport, etc. are included in it.

Non – Developmental Expenditure:

• Its nature is non – developmental type.
• Expenditure on administrative services like police defence, grants to government, etc. are included in it.

Question 9.
What do you mean by budget? Write its characteristics.
Answer:
Origin of the word in India:
The word ‘budget’ has been derived from the French word ‘Bougette’, which means small bag. It symbolizes a bag containing the financial proposals. In England, the chanceller used to bring economic proposals and statements in a bag; In 1773, finance minister of Britain, Robert Walpole opened his leather bag for the budget proposal to take place in Parliament. From that it becomes popular in India.

Characteristics of budget : Following are the characteristics of budget:

1. Annual plan of income and expenditure : It is a description of annual income and expenditure of the government for the next financial year. It is a detailed description.
2. Fixed period : Budget is prepared before a fixed period. It is presented before the Parliament by finance minister on the last day of the month of February. It is related to the definite fixed period.
3. Financial discussion: In budget only financial discussion takes place.Other matters are not discussed here.
4. In advance : Budget is prepared in advance for the period during which it is to operate. It is an annual financial action plan for the next financial year.
5. Balance budget : Balanced budget is the symbol of economic stability of the country.

Question 10.
Write the objectives of budget.
Answer:
The objectives of budget are as follows :
1. Reallocation of financial resources:
The government reallocates the financial resources to achieve the desired goals. It is the primary responsibility of the government to build a sound socio – economic infrastructure regarding health housing, education and raising the standard of living of people. Government imposed more taxes on those items which are harmful for people on the other hand it may reduce the taxes which are useful from social point of view.

2. Removal of inequality of income and wealth:
Every nation tries to bring equality between the various sections of the people and to bridge the gap between poor and rich. Through subsidies, taxes government can remove their inequalities. The main objective of Budget is to fill the gap of rich and poor.

3. Stabilisation of price level:
It is the responsibility of the government to stabilise the price level in the country. Unnecessary fluctuation in the prices of goods and services adversely affect the economy. Through the budget the government can effectively control the price level and bring about stability in it.

4. Management of public enterprises:
The government looks after certain departments such as railways, post and telegraph, electricity, defence etc. The budget of the government makes special provisions for such public enterprises in order to safeguard the interest of public.

5. Expansion of employment opportunities:
Government throughout budget create the employment opportunities to people. Various employments oriented and productive programs can be implemented for this purpose.

Question 11.
Differentiate between Progressive Tax and Regressive Tax.
Answer:
Differences between Progressive Tax and Regressive Tax :

Progressive Tax:

• In progressive tax the rate of the tax increses as the taxable income increases.
• The burden of it is more on rich people.
• They are justified because they reduce inequalities of income.

Regressive Tax:

• In regressive tax the rate of the tax decreases as the taxable incomes increases.
• The burden of it is on poor people.
• These are not justified because they increase inequalities.

Question 12.
Write difference betw een Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts. (Foreign 2013)
Answer:
Differences between Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts :

Question 13.
Write a note on Surplus budget, Balance budget and Deficit budget.
Answer:
A budget is the statement of the financial plan of the government for a financial year. It indicates the revenue expenditure estimates for the next financial year. The different types of budget are :

1. Surplus Budget – When in budget the income of the government is more than expenditure of the government, it is called Surplus Budget.
2. Balance Budget – Balance budget is said to be balance when government revenue and expenditure are balanced.
3. Deficit Budget – If the expenditure of the government is more than the income of the government, it is called the Deficit Budget.

Question 14.
Does public debt impose a burden? Explain.
Answer:
Public debt does not impose a burden all the times. Only in the following situation, it imposes a burden. When government sectors to public debt, the government transfers the burden to reduce consumption on future generation, because the government may decide to pay off deut in future by raising taxes. Taxes reduce the savings and capital formation and growth. Thus, the debt acts as a burden on future generation.

Question 15.
(a) The fiscal deficit given the borrowing requirement of the government. Explain.
Answer:
Fiscal deficit gives the borrowing requirement of the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing. The fiscal deficit has to be financed through borrowing. Thus, it indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government from all sources.

(b) Are fiscal deficits inflationary? (NCERT)
Answer:
It is not correct to that all deficits are necessarily inflationary. If the fiscal deficit results in higher demand and greater output, the fiscal deficit will not be inflationary. However, if the firms are unable to produce the higher quantities that are being demanded to due fiscal deficits, prices will rise resulting the inflationary.

Question 16.
We suppose that: C= 70 + 0.70YD, I = 90, G = 100, T = 0.10 Y
(a) Find the equilibrium income, (b) What are tax revenues at equilibrium income? Does the government have a balanced budget ?
Solution:
(a) Y = \(\frac {1}{1 – 0.70}\)(70 + 90 + 100)
Y = \(\frac {1}{0.30}\)(260)
Y = \(\frac {260}{0.30}\) = 866.66

(b) Tax revenue on balance budget (T) = 0.10 Y T = 0.10 (866.66) T = 86.66.

Question 17.
Suppose that for a particular economy investment is equal to 200, government purchases are 150, net taxes i.e., lump sum taxes minus transfer in 100 and consumption is given by C = 100 + 0.75. (a) What is the level of equilibrium multiplier? (b) Calculate the value of government expenditure multiplier and the tax multiplier, (c) If government expenditure increases by 200, And the change in equilibrium income.
Answer:
(a) The government directly affects the level of equilibrium income in two specific ways : 1. Purchase of goods and services and 2. Taxes and transfers. Taxes lower the consumption expenditure and disposable income. Hence, we use the following formula for calculating the level of equilibrium income:
Formula: Y = \(\frac {1}{1-c}\)(C – CT + CTR+ 1 + G)

(b) Govt expenditure multiplier:
\(\frac { ∆Y}{∆G}\) = \(\frac {1}{1-c}\)
\(\frac { ∆Y}{∆G}\) = \(\frac {1}{ 1-0.75}\) \(\frac {1}{0.25}\)
Tax multiplier \(\frac { ∆Y}{∆G}\) = \(\frac {-C}{1-c}\)
\(\frac { ∆Y}{∆G}\) = \(\frac {-0.75}{ 1-0.75}\) = \(\frac {-0.75}{ 0.25}\) = – 3

(c) If income of Govt, increases by 200 :

Question 18.
In the equation given in question 9, calculate the effect on output of a 10 increase in transfers and 10 increase in lumpsum taxes. Compare the effects of two.
Solution:
Transfer multiplier, = \(\frac {C}{1-C}\)
= \(\frac {0.80}{1-0.80}\)
= \(\frac {0.80}{0.20}\)
= 4
Increase in transfer = 10%
Hence, increase in output = 10%
Tax multiplier = 4
Decrease in output = 10 x 4 = 40%
or
Y = \(\frac {1}{0.20}\)(20 – 8 + 88 + 30 + 50)
Y = 5 x 188 = 940
Increase lump sum, its effect,
or Y = \(\frac {1}{1-0.80}\)(20 – 8 + 80 + 30 + 50)
Y = 5 x 172 = 860.
Hence, we find that effected change in transfer and change in taxes are equal. It is due to fact that their size of changes as well as multiplier are equal.

Question 19.
What do you understand by Goods and Service Tax (G.S.T.)? How is G.S.T. better than old system of taxation? Explain its types.
Answer:
(a) The Goods and Services Tax (G.S.T.) is a value Added Tax (VAT) levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption. The G.S.T. is paid by consumers, but it is remitted to the government by the businesses selling the goods and services:

G.S.T. in comparison with old taxation system :

1. In place of old taxation system, G.S.T. will become one tax economy.
2. The tax structure will be simplified with G.S.T.
3. G.S.T. will save both time and money.
4. The growth rate of economy will show a rapid increase with G.S.T.
5. But for the time being, the G.S.T. would be expected to increase the inflation rate in comparison to the old tax system.

For Goods and Services Tax, G.S.T., U.T.G.S.T. Act and S.G.S.T. tax are passed.

Government Budget and Economy Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the types of budget.
Answer:
The types of budget are as follows :
1. Central budget:
Central budget is prepared by Central Government. It is the numerical statement of income and expenditure done by central government. In India Central budget is presented in two parts:

• General budget
• Railway budget.

2. State budget:
State budget is prepared by State Government. State Government takes the help from Central Government.

3. Revenue budget and Capital budget:
In revenue budget we include the expenditure and income related to revenue of the government. On the other hand in capital budget the capital expenditure and capital income is included.

4. Supplementary budget:
Supplementary budget is prepared for the temporary period. It is prepared during the period of emergency like flood, earthquake and war etc. There is no fixed time for it.

5. Balanced budget and Imbalanced budget:
Balance budget is that budget where income and expenditure of the government is equal. Imbalanced budget is that budget where expenditure is more or less than income of the government. If the expenditure is more than income it is called deficit budget and if the income is more than the expenditure it is called surplus budget.

Question 2.
Explain the procedure of the budget.
Answer:
Under the budgetary procedure in India we can study the following heads:

1. Preparation of budget : The preparation of budget involves the following steps :

• Sending estimate forms by finance minister to all ministers and their department’s heads to get the estimates of revenue and expenditure required for the next financial year.
• Preparation of estimates by departmental heads : It includes revenue and expenditure of previous year budgetary estimate for next coming year.
• Preparation of consolidated estimate by the various ministers and sending them to finance minister.
  Scruting report estimates by A.G. of India and sending the same to finance ministry.

2. Presentation of the budget : In India the budget is presented in two parts :

• General budget and
• Rail budget.

Rail budget is always present before the general budget. General budget presented on the last day of the month of February at 5 p.m. generally 28th in February.

3. Discussion on the budget:
Budget is put before the Parliament for discussion. In the processes of passing the budget, the discussions on various items continues for 3 – 4 days. Presently different committees are formed. For the discussion and finance minister gives his final reply on the budget.

4. Voting on budget:
After the general discussion the budget is put for voting. The members of parliament give their speeches for and against the budget before voting. There after voting is held for passing the budget.

5. Appropriation bill:
The finance minister presents appropriation bill. According to the constitution no amount from the Reserve fund of India can be withdrawn without passing the appropriation bill in the Parliament.

6. Financial bill:
All the financial proposals for the coming year are included in a bill which is known as financial bill. This bill is generally presented immediately after the presentation of budget in the Lok Sabha. If this bill is not passed by the Parliament f ur government L not supposed to spend any amount.

7. Vote on account:
Special arrangement is made under which special power is vested with Lok shabha to snetion some amount as advance till the final budget is passed for the next year.

8. Implementation of budget:
After the budget is passed, it is implemented by the government for which the following steps are taken :

• Collection of revenue
• Preparation of accounts in
• Audit by A.G. (Auditor General).

Audit by comptroller and Auditor General of India presents their report before the Parliament which comprise the receipt of revenue, expenditure, loans taken.

Question 3.
Write the tax revenue sources of Public Revenue:
Answer:
Following are the sources of Public Revenue :
Tax:
Taxes are neither a fees nor a penalty because it is neither taken by the government to give any additional benefits nor taken as a fine. Taxes are compulsory contribution which are given by the people to the government in order to meet the expenditure on the Welfare of the citizens.

Types of taxes : Taxes are of following types :

• Progressive tax – In progressive tax the rate of my increases as the income increases
• Proportional tax – Proportional taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence falls equally on both the sections of the society.
• Regressive tax – The rate of taxation decreases with the increase in income. The burden of text falls more heavily on poor than on rich.
• Direct taxes – These are those taxes in which the impact of the tax and incidence of tax is on the same person.

Question 4.
What do you understand by Non – tax sources of public revenue?
Answer:
Following are the non – tax sources of public revenue:

1. Fees, licence and permit:
Government gets non – tax revenue from fees licence fee and payment made for permits.

Fees – Registration fee for land, death and birth registration fees, passport fees are included in it.

Licence and permit – Fee is that fee which is paid by people to government after giving permission by the government to the people to do something. For example: Driving licence, import licence etc.

2. Fines:
Fines are collected by the govt, for breaking rules of the country. The main aim of this is not to collect money but to teach people lesson about it.

3. Income from public enterprise: Government may raise funds from many sources like Railways, Postal department, Steel Plants fertilizer Corporations, Indian Oil department etc. Government sells products of it and gets profit from it.

4. Gifts and grants: The government may raise the funds from others. During calamities like flood, earthquake etc. citizens and some NGO’s give help to the government . For example : W.H.O., UNESCO etc. they give assistant also during this period.

5. Notes issues:
Sometimes government prints extra notes and increase the treasury. Reserve Bank of India has got the right of printing notes and minting coins.

6. Stamp, registration and land revenue: The receipts of stamps, registration and land revenue is the another source of non – tax revenue. The stamp receipts of Supreme court is also the income of the central government.

7. Interest, receipts : Interest earned by  the government from the loans given to States, Union territories. Railways, Post and Telegraph are included in it.

8. Dividends: This includes the share from profits of various undertakings in which the central government has done investments example SAIL, ONGC etc.

9. Administrative receipts:
The central government provides a number of services to people like health, medical, education etc. The government earns certain income from these services. For example; court fees, registration fees.

Question 5.
Consider an economy described by the following functions. C = 20 + 0.80 Y, I = 30, G = 50, TR = 100.
(a) Find the equilibrium level of income and the autonomous expenditure multiplier in the model,
(b) If the government expenditure increases by 30, what is the impact on equilibrium income?
(c) If a lump sum tax of 30 added to pay for increase in government purchases, how will equilibrium income change?
Answer:
C = 20 + 0.80y
I = 30
G = 50
TR = 100
(a)
Y = \(\overline { C } \) + CY – (T – TR)
Y = 20 + 0.80 (Y + TR) + I + G
Y = 20 + 0.80 (Y + 100) + 30 + 50
Y = 0.8Y + 180
Y = \(\frac {180×100}{200}\)
= 900
The equilibrium level of income is 900. Autonomous expenditure multiplier.
= \(\frac {1}{1 – C}\)
= \(\frac {1}{1-0.08}\)
= \(\frac {1}{0.20}\)
= 5
Increase in equilibrium income = AG x Expenditure multiplier = 30 x 5 = 150
Tax multiplier = \(\frac {-C}{1 – C}\) = \(\frac {-0.08}{1-0.08}\) = \(\frac {-80}{0-20}\) = -4
Decrease in equilibrium income = ∆T x Tax Multiplier
= 30 x 4 = 120.
or
Y = \(\frac {1}{0.20}\)(180)
Y = 5 x 180 = 900
autonomus multiplier \(\frac { ∆Y}{∆G}\)= \(\frac {1}{1 – C}\)
or
\(\frac { ∆Y}{∆G}\) = \(\frac {1}{1-0.80}\) = \(\frac {1}{0.20}\) = 5

(b) Expenditure of govt, increase by 30 :
(∆Y) = \(\frac {1}{1 – C}\) ∆G
or
∆Y = \(\frac {1}{1-0.80}\) x 30
= \(\frac {1}{0.20}\) x 30 = 5 x30 = 150
New income = 900 + 150 = 1,050
So, it is clear that by 30 it become 150 to 1,050.

(c) Lump sum 30 is added then :
Change in balance income (∆Y) = \(\frac {-C}{1 – C}\) ∆T
or
∆Y = \(\frac {-0.08}{1-0.08}\) x 30
= \(\frac {-0.08}{0.20}\) x 30 = -4 x 30
= 1 – 120
= 900 – 120 = 780

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 8 Money and Banking

Micro Economics Money and Banking Important Questions

Micro Economics Money and Banking Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
“Money is what money does”. Who said this:
(a) Hartley Withers
(b) Harte
(c) Prof. Thomas
(d) Keynes.
Answer:
(a) Hartley Withers

Question 2.
Function of money is:
(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Measure of value
(c) Store of value
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Medium of exchange

Question 3.
Meaning of money supply is:
(a) Money deposits in the bank
(b) Cash available with public
(c) Savings in the post office
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 4.
What is the Central Bank of India:
(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Central Bank
(c) Private Bank
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Commercial Banks

Question 5.
Through which method we can withdraw money from the bank:
(a) Drawing letter
(b) Cheque
(c) A.T.M.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 6.
Who is the guardian of Indian Banking System:
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Unit Trust of India
(d) Life Insurance Company of India.
Answer:
(a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 7.
Narasimham Committee is related to what:
(a) Improvement in Taxation
(b) Improvement in Banking
(c) Improvement in Agriculture
(d) Improvement in Infrastructure.
Answer:
(b) Improvement in Banking

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Central Bank of India is………………..
2. Bank rate is also known as………………..
3. The bank generates……………….. deposits in credit creation.
4. When CRR decreases, credit creation………………..
5. Measure of deferred payment is ……………….. function of money.
6. Medium of exchange is ……………….. function of money.
7. The static and dynamic function of money is divided by………………..

Answer

1. Reserve Bank of India
2. Redemption
3. Derivative
4. Increases
5. Secondary
6. Primary
7. Paul Einzig.

Question 3.
State true or false:

1. Money is needed for day-to-day transactions.
2. The precautionary demand for money increases with the proportionate increase in income.
3. Reserve Bank of India provides loan to public.
4. Along with the Reserve Bank of India, Commercial banks are also authorized to issue currency.
5. Reliable money also include cheques.
6. Reserve Bank of India cannot become the owner of any real estate.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False
6. True.

Question 4.
Match the following:

Question 5.
Answer the following in one word / sentence:

1. Name the bank that provides long term loans to the farmers.
2. Trade cycle is which evil of money?
3. By increasing liquid fund ratio, which will be the effect on money supply?
4. “The Banks are not only generators of money but are also creators of money”.
5. Who has the right to issues paper money?
6. When was NABARD established?

Answer:

1. Agricultural or Cooperative banks
2. Economic
3. Decreases
4. Sayer’s
5. Central Bank
6. 1982.

Micro Economics Money and Banking Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write two taboo works of Reserve Bank of India.
Answer:
Two taboo works of RBI are:

1. Reserve Bank cannot accept deposits on interest from the public.
2. Reserve Bank cannot provide loans for a fixed term.

Question 2.
What do you mean by overdraft facility?
Answer:
Clients who have current account with the bank are granted” the facility of withdrawing more money than actually lying in their accounts. It is called overdraft. This facility is available to reliable person for a short term.

Question 3.
What is commercial bank?
Answer:
Commercial banks are those banks who are established under the Indian Company Act, and they perform all the functions of banks.

Question 4.
Write the meaning of money.
Answer:
According to Prof. J.M. Keynes, Money is that by the delivery of which debt contracts and price contracts are discharged and in the shape of which a store of general purchasing power is held.

Question 5.
Write any two economic defects of Money.
Answer:
Two economic defects of money are:

1. Money gives birth to trade cycle.
2. Currency is the trust worthy custodian of money.

Question 6.
When was Reserve Bank of India nationalised?
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India was nationalised on 1st January 1949.

Question 7.
Which is the Central Bank of India? When was it established?
Answer:
Central Bank of India is Reserve Bank of India. It was established on 1st April, 1935.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Bank?
Answer:
Nowadays, the word ‘Bank’ is very common and popular so, general public is acquainted with it. Generally, bank means that institution which deals with transactions of money.

According to Prof. Wicksell:
“Bank is the heart and central point of modem currency system”.

Question 9.
Write definitions of money.
Answer:
According to Prof. Hartley Withers, “Money is what money does”. According to Prof. Seligman, “Money is one thing that possesses general acceptability”.

Question 10.
What is the problem of double coincidence of wants in barter exchange?
Answer:
1. Problem of double coincidence:
In barter system, goods are to be exchanged for goods, hence, it is essential that both the parties should need the goods which other has in exchange of their goods, then only the exchange is possible.

2. For example, ‘A’ possesses a chair and ‘B’ possesses a table. Now if ‘A’ wants to exchange his change for a table then he has to search a person, who needs chair in exchange of table. Thus, becomes a complex process for him to find such man.

Question 11.
‘Money is the medium of exchange,’ Explain.
Answer:
Medium of exchange:
This is the most important function of money. It acts as a medium of exchange. All the exchanges of goods and services are taken place in terms of money. (MPBoardSolutions.com) By paying predetermined price, money can be exchanged with the desired goods and services. A money has the general acceptability, therefore, all the exchanges in an economy take place in terms of money. It is because of this reason that money has been defined as generally acceptable purchasing power.

Question 12.
“Measure of value is the main function of money”. Explain.
Answer:
“Measure of value is the main function of money”:
The main function of money is that it measures the value of goods and services. In other words, the prices of all goods and services are expressed in terms of money. In ancient times it was not possible to measure the value of clothes and wheat. With the introduction of money, this difficulty of measurement disappeared and it became very convinient to measure the value of money. Money acts as a unit of account for all goods, wages salaries, interests etc. The national income, capital formation and other are measured in terms of money.

Question 13.
Write the importance of the money as the store of exchange value.
Answer:
Money acts also as a store of value because:

1. Money can be stored very easily. Money is a liquid form of capital. It require less place to store.
2. Money has the merit of general acceptibility.
3. It is convinient to store money.
4. Value of money remains relatively stable. Due to all these reasons money is important.

Question 14.
What is meant by money supply? What are its measures?
Answer:
Money supply refers to the total volume of money held by the public at a particular point of time in an economy.
Measures of money supply are:
M₁ = Currency and coins with public + Demand deposits of Commercial banks + Other Deposites with RBI.
M₂ = M₁ + Savings deposits with post office Saving bank.
M₃ = M₂ + Net time deposits with banks.
M₄ = M₃ + Total deposits with post office saving bank.

Question 15.
Write difference between Scheduled Banks and Non – Scheduled Banks.
Answer:
Differences between Scheduled Banks and Non – Scheduled Banks:

Scheduled Banks:

• Scheduled banks are those banks whose names appear in the second schedule of RBI.
• The paid up share capital together with reserve fund must not be less than Rs. 5 lake.

Non-Scheduled Banks:

• Non – scheduled banks are those banks whose names do not appear in the second schedule of RBI.
• The paid up capital of such banks together with cash reserve is less than Rs. 5 lake.

Question 16.
If in an economy, all the customers of the bank deposit their money in the banks and if all of them withdraw their money from the bank then what will be its effect on the economy?
Answer:
If in any economy, bank customers deposit their money in the banks then there will be shortage of money for production and investment activity. As a result, the process of development will come to a stand still. In the same way, if all the customers withdraw their money from the banks, the banking would collapse and economy will face a problem. If in any bank financial crisis arises then central bank is the only bank to settle this problem and all banking systems will collapse.

Question 17,
Write the meaning of Commercial banks?
Answer:
A commercial bank is a financial institution which accepts deposits from the public and gives loans for purposes of consumptions and investment.

Companies Act, 1949:
A banking company is one which transacts the business of banking which means the accepting for the purpose of lending or investment of deposits of money from the public repayable on demand or otherwise and withdrawal by cheque or otherwise.

Question 18.
Write the types of Commercial bank.
Answer:
There are two types of Commercial banks:

1. Scheduled banks:
Scheduled banks are those banks whose names appear in the second schedule of RBI.

2. Non – scheduled banks:
Non – Scheduled banks are those, banks whose names do not appear in the second schedule of RBI. In other words, those banks which do not fulfill the requisite conditions as explained above are called non-scheduled banks.

Question 19.
What is paper money?
Answer:
Paper money is a country’s official paper currency that is circulated for transaction related purposes of goods and services. The printing of paper money is typically regulated by a country’s Central bank / treasury in order to keep the flow of funds in line with monetary policy.

Paper money is that money which is issued by the order of the government. Paper money is in the form of paper notes or currency notes. In India, the Reserve Bank of India enjoys the sole monopoly of issuing currency notes (Paper money).

Question 20.
What do you mean by money supply?
Answer:
Supply of money is a stock concept. It refers to total stock of money (of all types) held by the people of a country at a point of time.

Question 21.
What do you mean by Fiat money or Legal tender money?
Answer:
Fiat money which serves as money on the basis of fiat (order) of the government It is issued by authority of the government. It includes notes, coins.

Question 22.
What do you mean by C.R.R.?
Answer:
Commercial banks are required under law to keep a certain percentage of their total deposit in the Central bank in the form of cash reserves. This is called Cash Reserve Ratio (C.R.R.).

Question 23.
What do you mean by credit money?
Answer:
It refers to that money of which money value is more than commodity value.

Question 24.
Why is paper money called the Legal tender money?
Answer:
Paper money or Paper notes are called as legal tender money because nobody can refuse its acceptance as medium of exchange. It is legal tender. It means people have to accept it legally for different payments.

Question 25.
What do you mean by high powered money?
Answer:
It consist of currency (Notes and Coins in circulation with public and valt cash of commercial banks) and deposits held by the government of India and commercial banks with R.B.I.

Micro Economics Money and Banking Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Money is a good servant but a bad master”. Explain.
Answer:
Money is becoming essential part of life, it is controlling our activities in such a way that we are completely under it. It should be means but is has become end of life. Till money acts as servant it is useful for human being but as money goes out of control it becomes harmful for the entire economy. This situation arises when supply of money exceeds its demand. Money becomes master instead of servant. It has become the only means of satisfying our wants. We cannot think of our life without money that is why, it is said that “money is good servant but a bad master.”

Question 2.
Define Central bank.
Answer:
Central bank of any country is the highest financial institution of that country. All other banks of the country work under its guidance. According to bank of international settlements. “The central bank in any country is that which has been entrusted the duty of regulating the volume of currency and credit in the country”.

Question 3.
What do you mean by clearing house of Central bank?
or
How Central bank does the work of clearing house?
Answer:
Clearing house:
Representatives of different banks in a city meet at the clearing house of the Central bank. Payments from one bank to other bank are settled through a simple book of adjustments without involving transfers of funds. Daily differences in the clearing between the banks are adjusted by means of debit and credit entries in their respective account with the Central bank.

Question 4.
Write two advantages and defects of Commercial banks.
Answer:
Following are the two advantages of commercial banks:

1. Use of savings for production purposes:
Banks collects small and big savings of the country and use them for various purposes. Banks provide timely financial assistance to traders and industries. Banks help in the distribution of surplus capital in regions where it is not wanted to those regions where it can be used. Large scale transactions would be quite impossible without banks.

2. Facility of capital transfer:
Banks spend money from one place to another easily in less time. They send it through draft, cheques, etc. For the development economy money can be transferred from one place to another.

Defects of commercial banks:

1. Less banking facilities:
Compare to other countries there are less banking facilities available in India.
Some banks do not get proper guidance and instructions from reserve bank of India. It has unfavourable effect on banking system. So, Indian Commercial banking system has not succeeded in attracking the Indian public.

2. Inefficiency:
Most of the commercial banking systems are unable to provide efficient and quick services to their customers. Moreover in India the distribution of commercial banks are in imbalance way.

Question 5.
Differentiate between Reserve Bank and Commercial Bank.
Answer:
Differences between Reserve Bank and Commercial Bank:

Reserve Bank:

• It is the highest bank of India. It is a controlling bank.
• There is only one central bank (Reserve bank) in India.
• It enjoys the monopoly right for note issue.
• It has no dealing and direct relation with public.
• The ownership of this bank is in the hands of central government.

Commercial Bank:

• It is a part of banking system. It is con trolled by Reserve Bank of India.
• There are many commercial banks in India.
• A commercial bank does not have such right.
• It has direct relation and dealing with public.
• The ownership of this bank is in the hands of government or public.

Question 6.
Why is speculative demand for money inversely related to the rate of interest?
Answer:
Speculative demand for money is made for return in the form of interest. Hence, rate of interest determiners the speculative demand for money of the rate of interest higher the speculative demand for money will be low and vice-versa. The reason is that people will convert their money in bonds when the interest on bond is higher.

In that case, demand for speculative purpose will be low. On the other hand, the rate of interest is lower than the expected interest, people will not convert their money in bonds and keep money in hand for speculative purpose. In this way, a specular demand for money in inversely related to the of interest.

Question 7.
What role of RBI is known as lender of last resort?
Answer:
Lender of last resort:
The Central Bank aslo plays the role of last resort. Lender of last resort means that a Commercial Bank fails to meet his financial requirements from other sources, it can as a last resort, approaches to the Central Bank for loans and advances. The Central Bank consists such bank through discounting of approved securities and bills of exchange. As a last resort, Central Bank exercise control over the entire banking system of the conuntry.

Question 8.
What is liquidity trap?
Answer:
Liquidity Trap:
Everyone in the economy holds his wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy, it will be used to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand for bond and without further lowering the rate of interest below the flow min. Such a situation is called liquidity trap.

Question 9.
What is barter system? What are its defects?
Answer:
Barter system:
Barter system means the exchange of goods and services directly for goods and services. In other words economic exchange without the medium of money is referred to as Barter system.

Drawbacks of barter system : Following are main drawbacks of the barter system:

1. Lack of double coincidence:
The lack of double coincidence of wants is the major drawback. It is very rare when the owner of same goods or service could find some are who wants his good or service and possessed that good service that the first person wanted. No exchange is possible if the double coincidence is not there.

2. Absence of common unit of measurement:
The second main drawback of barter is the absence of a common unit of measurement in which the value of goods and services can be measured. In the absence of a common unit proper accounting system is not possible.

3. Lacks of standard deferred payments:
Thirdly, the barter system lacks any satisfactory unit to engage in contracts involving future payments. In a barter economy future payments would have to be stated in specific goods of services which may involve disagreement over the quality of goods or even on the commodity used for repayment.

4. Lack of storing wealth:
Fourthly, the barter system does not provide for any method of storing purchasing power.

Question 10.
Suppose a bond promises Rs 500 at the end of two years with no intermediate return. If the rate of interest is 5% per annum, what is the price of the bond?
Answer:
= 500 x \(\frac { 1 }{ \left\lceil 1+\frac { 5 }{ 100 } \right\rceil \left\lceil 1+\frac { 5 }{ 100 } \right\rceil } \)
= 500 x \(\frac { 20 }{ 21 }\) x \(\frac { 20 }{ 21 }\)
=\(\frac { 10,000 x 20 }{ 21 x 21 }\)
=\(\frac { 2,00,000}{ 441 }\)
= Rs 453.51.

Micro Economics Money and Banking Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1
What do you mean by stock of money and flow of money?
or
Write the differences between the stock of money and flow of money.
Answer:
Differences between Stock of money and Flow of money:

Stock:

• Stock is related to a point of time.
• A stock is a quantity measurable at a particular point of time such as 10:00 am etc.
• It has no time dimension.
• National capital is stock.
• It is a static concept.

Flow:

• Flow is related to a period of time.
• A flow is a quantity which is measured over a specific period of time such as an hour, a day, a week etc.
• It has time dimension.
• National income is a flow.
• It is a dynamic concept.

Question 2.
Explain five functions of RBI in detail.
Answer:
Followings are the functions of Reserve Bank of India:

1. Issue of currency notes:
The Reserve Bank of India has been given the monopoly of issuing currency notes. At present, it is authorised to issue currency notes in the denomination of Rs. 5,10,20,50,100,500 and 2,000. One rupee note and coins are issued by government of India. The notes issued by R.B.I. are legal currency.

2. Credit control:
The main functions of R.B.I. is to control and regulate volume of credit and currency in India. It controls the credit granted by commercial banks. It controls the credit inflationary impact of the ever increasing development financing in five year plans. R.B.I. controls the credit by increasing or decreasing bank rates buying and selling government securities in the open market, by increasing the cash reserves, by issuing specific directions to banks etc.

3. Banker agent and advisor to government:
The reserve bank of India acts as banker, agent and advisor to the central and state governments. As a banker to government R.B.I. performs many functions. It manages the public debt, makes all payments, receives all the revenues in government account managing foreign exchange, etc. R.B.I. has appointed experts of all fields of specialization who gives proper advice to central and state governments in various matters from time-to-time.

4. Banker’s bank:
R.B.I. is banker to banks in India. It accepts deposits of commercial banks and lends of them from time – to – time. It extends short term loans and advances against eligible securities and promissory notes. It makes purchases and sales of foreign currencies also. The commercial and other banks have to deposit with R.B.I. a certain percentage of their total liabilities to enjoy various facilities from it.

5. Foreign exchange management:
R.B.I. controls all receipts and payments in foreign exchange under F.E.M. A. All payments to be made in foreign exchange exceeding the limit prescribed under the act must seek RBI’s permission.

Question 3.
Explain the methods to control the credit taken by the reserve bank.
Or
Explain how the Reserve Bank of India controls credit.
Answer:
Followings are the methods to control the credit:

1. Bank rate:
The rate at which Reserve Bank of India gives loan to other banks on the basis of securities is called bank rate. R.B.I. increases or decrease the bank rate for reducing or expanding the credit from time-to-time.

2. Activities of open market:
R.B.I. buys and sells the government securities in the open market for expanding and reducing the volume of credit. This is called open market operation. By this activities R.B.I. increases or decreases the amount of money.

3. Changing the ratio of bank’s reserves:
R.B. I. controls the credit by increasing the percentage of cash reserves which is kept by scheduled commercial banks compulsorily with R.B.I.

4. Liquidity ratio-system:
Reserve Bank of India increases or decreases the liquidity ratio for reducing or expanding credit.

5. Selective credit control policy:
Reserve bank adopts the selective credit control policy in respect of certain commodities which have been sensitive.

6. By issuing specific directions to banks:
R.B.I. issues specific directions to banks in general regarding lending rates.

7. Increase or Decrease refinancing facility:
R.B.I. increases or decreases refinancing facility to commercial banks for credit control. Rigid attitude for refinancing reduces credit and liberal attitude for refinancing expands credit.

Question 4.
Suggest some measures to remove the defects of commercial bank.
Answer:
Following steps should be taken to improve the conditions of Indian commercial banks:

1. For the balance development of commercial banks their new branches should be open in villages and backward areas.
2. To solve the problem of shortage of capital the money deposits schemes of the banks should be made attractive.
3. Knowledge and education regarding the banks should be given clearly.
4. For increasing the banking systems the trained and efficient officers should be appointed.
5. Reserve bank should make such rules which will control the corruption in the banking system.
6. Banks should follow the policy of cooperation with other banks instead of following the policy of competition with each other.

Question 5.
Write any five functions of Commercial Banks.
Answer:
Following are the functions of Commercial banks:

I. Primary Functions

1. Acceptance of deposits:
All commercial banks accept money on deposits. By taking money on deposits a bank provides safe keeping for people’s money. For deposition of money a bank provides facility of five types of customer accounts:

• Current account
• Fixed deposit account
• Savings bank account
• Home savings account and
• Recurring deposit account.

2. Lending and Investment:
The second primary function of a bank is to lend money to borrowers bank keeps a part of the total deposits with itself as cash reserves and lends the balance. Bank charges interest on such lending of money, which is also the main source of profit to most of the banks. Money lending may be in the form of overdrafts, cash credits or loans.

II. Subsidiary Functions

In order to provide several kinds of facilities to their customers commercial banks perform many functions. They are as follows:

1. Issuing of credit instruments:
All commercial banks issue various instruments of credit such as bill of exchange, hundi, draft and cheque etc.

2. Arrangement of foreign exchange:
For foreign trade banks convert the currency of one country into the currency of another country. This work is done by exchange Banks.

3. Keeping valuables safely:
Banks provide the facility of lockers for the customers to keep their valuable things gold, diamonds, Jewellary etc. are kept in these lockers.

4. Discounting of bills of exchange and hundies:
Banks discount the bill and hundies of their customers before the date of maturity of such instruments.

5. Collecting payments:
Commercial banks collect payments of their customers bills, cheques and hundies etc. Banks charge commissions for these services.

6. Making payments:
Banks make payments on behalf of their customers. The make payments of installments of loans, interest, donations, insurance etc.They charge nominal commission for their services.

7. Selling and Purchasing of securities:
Commercial banks sell and purchase shares, debentures Govt.bonds etc.

Question 6.
What are the main functions of money? How does money remove the defect of barter system?
Answer:
Followings are the functions of money:

Primary Functions:

1. Medium of exchange:
This is the most important function of money. It acts as a medium of exchange. All the exchanges of goods and services are taken place in terms of money. By paying predetermined price, money can be exchanged with the desired goods and services.

2. Measure of value:
The second basic function of money is that it measures the value of goods and services. In other words, the prices of all goods and services are expressed in terms of money. In ancient times it was not possible of measure the value of clothes and wheat. With the introduction of money this difficulty of measurement disappeared and it became very convinient to measure the value of money. Money acts as a unit of account for all goods, wages salaries, interests etc. The national income, capital formation and other are measured in terms of money.

3. Store of exchange value:
Money can be stored very easily. Money is a liquid form of capital. It require less place to store. There is very less fluctuation in the value of money in comparison to goods. That is why mentry to save a part of their income for future. Money provides a base for store value.

Store of value means store of wealth.People can now keep their wealth in the form of money. Under barter system, storing of wealth was possible only in terms of commodities which had its defects like perishable nature of some goods, cost of storage etc. But storing of value in the form of money has solved all these difficulties. It was Keynes who first realised the store value function of money. He regarded money as link between the present and the future. Money allows us to store purchasing power which can be used at any time in future to purchase goods and services.

4. Transfer of value:
With the economic development the trade and commerce also increased rapidly. This causes the need of transfer of money from one place to another. Sometimes it crosses the national boundary too. Money is a liquid assets so it can be transferred from one place to another.

Through money, value can be easily and quickly transferred from one place to another because money is acceptable everywhere. For example a person can transfer money from Katakana to Delhi through bank draft, bill of exchange etc. Money thus, facilitates movement of wealth and capital. Under barter system it was difficult to transfer value in the from commodities.

Question 7.
Explain the functions of commercial banks. (Any two)
Answer:
Functions of a Commercial Bank:
Following are main functions of a commercial Bank:

1. Acceptance of deposits:
This is an important primary function of the Commercial Banks. The Commercial Banks accept deposits from individuals, business firms and other institutions. This is economically useful function in the sense that it helps in the mobilization of savings for production purposes. The commercial banks accept deposits in several forms according to the requirements of different sections of the society.

2. Advancing of Loans:
Extending loans is another important primary function of the commercial banks. It is also the main source of their income. Traditionally, bankers charged a service charge from the depositors, as they did not use the deposits for lending purposes. Gradually, they realized that.there is no point in keeping all the money which they received from depositors as revenue. All the depositors never approached bankers to withdraw their money at one point of time. In the beginning, their lending out of deposits were confined to short term loans to provide working funds for current business operations.

Now, banks have extended their lending activities to investment in long term bonds. Furthermore, today, commercial banks lend to consumers and government units besides financing trade and industry to meet the divergent needs of their customers. In the manner, they could find safe and lucrative outlets for their funds. The normal performance for banks is for secured loans, but they often give loans to business firms of high credit standing without security. .

Question 8.
What is money multiplier? How will you determine its value?
Answer:
Money multiplier:
Money multiplier may be defined as “the ratio of the stock of money to the stock of high powered money in an economy.” In equation:
Money multiplier = \({ M }{ H }\)
M = Stock of money
H = Stock of high powered money in an economy
The value of money multiplier is greater than 1. The value of money multiplier is determined by applying the following formula:
Money multiplier = \({ 1- cdr }{ cdr – rdr }\)
Method of finding out multiplier
Supply of money = Money + Deposit
M = Cu + DD
= (1 + Cdr) DD
Cdr = Cu / DD
H = Cu + R
= CdrDD + rdr DD
= (Cdr + rdr) DD
Money multiplier = M/H
\(\frac { (1+Cdr)DD }{ (Cdr+rdr)DD }\) = \(\frac { 1+Cdr }{ Cdr+rdr }\)
1 + Cdr > Cdr + rdr.

Question 9.
What are the methods adopted by Reserve Bank of India to regulate the credit?
Answer:
There are those instruments of monetary policy which after overall supply of money / credit in the economy. They are as follows:

1. Bank Rate:
The bank rate is the minimum rate at which the Central Bank of a country (as a lender of last season) is prepared to give credit to the Commercial Bank. The increase in bank rate increases the rate of interest and credit becomes dear. Accordingly, the demand for credit is reduced. On the other hand, decrease in the bank rate lowers the market rate of interest charged by the commercial banks from their borrowers. Credit becomes cheap. The Reserve Bank adopts dear money policy when the supply of credit needs to be reduced during periods of inflation. It adopts cheap money policy when credit needs to be expanded during deflation.

2. Open Market Operations:
Open Market Operations refer to the sale and purchase of securities in the open market by the Central Bank. By selling the securities (like, National Saving Certificates-NSCs), the Central Bank withdraws cash balances from within the economy. And, by buying the securities, the Central Bank contributes to cash balances in the economy.

3. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
It refers to the minimum percentage of a bank’s total deposits required to be keep with the Central Banks. Commercial Banks have to keep with toe Central Bank a certain percentage of their deposits in the form of cash reserves as a matter of law. When the cash flow or credit is to be increased, minimum reserve ratio is reduced and when the cash flow or credit is to be reduced, minimum cash reserve ratio is increased.

4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
Every bank is required to maintain a fixed percentage of its assets in the form of cash or other liquid assets, called SLR. With a view to reducing the flow of credit in the market, the Central Bank increases this liquidity ratio. However, in case of expansion of credit, the liquidity ratio is reduced.

Qualitative Method of Credit Control
Or
Qualitative Instruments of Monetary Policy

1. Margin Requirement:
The margin requirement of loan refers to the difference between the current value of the security offered for loans and the value of loans granted. Suppose, a person mortgages an article worth Rs 100 with the bank and the bank gives him loan of Rs 80. The margin requirement in this case would be 20 percent. In case, the flow of credit is to be restricted for certain specific business activities in the economy, the margin requirement of loan is raised for those very activities. The margin requirement is lowered in case the expansion of credit is desired.

2, Rationing of Credit:
Rationing of credit refers to fixation of credit quotas for different business activities. Rationing of credit is introduced when the flow of credit is to be checked particularly for speculative activities in the economy. The Central Bank fixes credit quota for different business activities. The Commercial Banks cannot exceed the quota limits while granting loans.

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions

MP Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 3 Current Electricity

Current Electricity Important Questions

Current Electricity Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer of the following:

Question 1.
The flow of current through a conduction is due to:
(a) Protons
(b) Positive ions
(c) Free electrons
(d) Positive and negative ions.
Answer:
(c) Free electrons

Question 2.
The specific resistance of a wire depends upon:
(a) Length
(b) Diameter
(c) Mass
(d) Material.
Answer:
(b) Diameter

Question 3.
A wire is stretched redouble its length. Its resistance will be:
(a) Halved
(b) Doubled
(c) One fourth
(d) Four times.
Answer:
(d) Four times.

Question 4.
The unit of specific resistance is :
(a) Ohm
(b) Ohm^-1
(c) Ohm meter
(d) Ohm^-1
Answer:
(c) Ohm meter

Question 5.
Which of the following is an oh-mic resistance:
(a) Junction transistor
(b) Transistor
(c) LED
(d) Copper wire.
Answer:
(d) Copper wire.

Question 6.
On increasing temperature the resistance of the which of the following decreases :
(a) Semiconductor
(b) Metal
(c) Electrolyte
(d) Alloy.
Answer:
(a) Semiconductor

Question 7.
The conductance of super conductor is :
(a) Infinite
(b) Very high
(c) Very low
(d) Zero.
Answer:
(a) Infinite

Question 8.
In the series combination of two resistance which quantity remains same :
(a) Only potential difference
(b) Only current
(c) Current and potential difference both
(d) Neither current nor potential difference.
Answer:
(b) Only current

Question 9.
Electric cell is source of:
(a) Electrons
(b) Electrical energy
(c) Electric charge
(d) Electric current.
Answer:
(b) Electrical energy

Question 10.
The e.m.f. of a cell depends upon:
(a) Quantity of electrolyte filled in it
(b) Distance between the electrodes
(c) Size of electrodes
(d) Nature of electrolyte and electrodes.
Answer:
(d) Nature of electrolyte and electrodes.

Question 11.
Three cells each having e.m.f. E and internal resistance r are joined in series. One cell by mistake is joined in reverse order. The resultant e.m.f. and internal resistance will be:
(a) 3E, 3r
(b) E,3r
(c) E, r
(d) 3E,r
Answer:
(b) E,3r

Question 12.
The internal resistance of a cell can be decreased by :
(a) Decreasing the size of electrodes
(b) Increasing the distance between electrodes
(c) Decreasing the distance between electrodes
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Decreasing the distance between electrodes

Question 13.
Two cells of e.m.f. and internal resistance E₁r₁ and E₂, r₂ respectively are joined in parallel. Their equivalent e.m.f. will be:
(a) E₁ + E₂
(b) E₁ – E₂
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{1} r_{2}+\mathrm{E}_{2} r}{r_{1}+r_{2}}\)

(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{1}+\mathrm{E}_{2}}{r_{1}+r_{2}} \times r_{1} \cdot r_{2}\)
Answer:

(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{1} r_{2}+\mathrm{E}_{2} r}{r_{1}+r_{2}}\)

Question 14.
Potentiometer measures:
(a) Terminal voltage of cell
(b) Current in circuit
(c) e.m.f. of cell
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) e.m.f. of cell

Question 15.
In the null deflection position:
(a) No current flows through galvanometer
(b) Current flows due to primary circuit through galvanometer
(c) Current flows through galvanometer due to secondary circuit
(d) Nothing can be said.
Answer:
(a) No current flows through galvanometer

Question 16.
The SI unit of potential gradient is:
(a) ohm/cm
(b) volt
(c) volt cm
(d) volt/cm.
Answer:
(d) volt/cm.

Question 17.
To increase the sensitivity of potentiometer:
(a) The potential difference across its wire should be high
(b) The length of its wire should be less
(c) The current through the wire should be high
(d) potential difference across its wire should be low and length of wire should be large.
Answer:
(d) potential difference across its wire should be low and length of wire should be large.

Question 18.
In the balance condition of potentiometer its resistance is :
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) Very small
(d) Very high.
Answer:
(d) Very high.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. According to ……….. law, a if the physical conditions of a conductor remains unchanged then current flowing through it is directly proportional to the applied potential difference.
2. On increasing the length of a conductor its resistance ………..
3. On decreasing the area of cross-section of a conductor its resistance ………..
4. On increasing the temperature of a metallic conductor its resistance ………..
5. KirchhofFs first law is in accordance with the law of conservation of ………..
6. In series grouping of resistors the resistance but in parallel grouping the resistance ………..
7. With increase in length of potentiometer its sensitivity ………..
8. Meter bridge works on the principle of ………..
9. The specific resistance of alloys is ……….. and temperature coefficient of resistance is ………..
10. The Kirchhoff’s first law is in accordance with the law of conservation of ……….. while the second law is in accordance with law of conservation of ………..
11. On increasing the distance between electrodes of a cell, its internal resistance ……….. but on increasing area its internal resistance ………..
12. The phenomenon in which at low temperature the resistivity of a substance becomes zero is celled ………..
13. In Ohm’s law the V-I graph is a ………..

Answers:

1. Ohm’s
2. Increases
3. Increases
4. Increases
5. Charge
6. Increases, decreases,
7. Increases
8. Wheatstone bridge
9. High, low
10. Charge, energy
11. Increases, decreases
12. Super conductivity
13. Straight line.

Question 3.
Match the Column:

Answer:

1. (e) Metre Bridge
2. (c) Law of conservation of charge
3. (b) Ohmic conductor
4. (a) Law of energy conservation
5. (d) Non-ohmic conductor

Answers:

1. (e) coulomb/sec. (or ampere).
2. (d) ampere/metre²
3. (b) joule/coulombx ampere
4. (c) ohm x meter
5. (a) ohm^-1

Answers:

1. (e) I²Rt
2. (a) ohm
3. (b) volt
4. (c) Electrical energy
5. (d) VI

Answer:

1. (c) Potential difference
2. (e) e.m.f.
3. (b) Vector quantity
4. (a) l₁/l₂
5. (d) \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{l_{1}}{l_{2}}-1\right)\)

Question 4.
Write the answer in one word / sentence:

1. What is the direction of electric current ?
2. What is the unit of specific resistance ?
3. Kirchhoffs first law is based upon which law ?
4. Kirchhoffs second law is based upon which law ?
5. On which principle does f&etre bridge works ?
6. Does Kirchhoffs law can be applied for both a.c. and d.c. currents ?
7. In a carbon resistance, there is green, violet, red and silver strip’s. What will be the resultant resistance.
8. What is the relation between 1 kWh and joule.
9. When the potentiometer is in equilibrium, what will be its resistance ?
10. The algebraic sum of current at a point is zero. Then what will be that point ?

Answer:

1. Opposite to flow of electrons,
2. Unit is ohm x meter
3. Laws of conservation of charges
4. Laws of conservation of energy
5. Wheatstone bridge
6. Yes
7. 57 x 10² ± 10% ohm
8. 1 kWh = 3.6 x 106 joule
9. Infinity
10. Junction point.

Current Electricity Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
To flow current in a conducting wire, how much charges is present in it ?
Answer:
On flowing current through the conducting wire, charges becomes zero.

Question 2.
Why Meter bridge is known by these name ?
Answer:
Because in Meter bridge, a wire of one meter length is used.

Question 3.
Two bulb are marked as 25 W and 100 W. Whose resistance will be more ?
Answer:
R ∝ \(\frac {1}{V}\), Resistance of 25 W bulb will be more.

Question 4.
What do you mean by electric power. Write its unit ?
Answer:
In any electrical circuit the rate of energy decay is called as power. Its unit is watt.

Question 5.
On which factor relaxation time depend on ?
Answer:
It depends on nature of the material of the conductor.

Question 6.
Why there is internal resistance in a cell ?
Answer:
Because, inside the cell, the motion of ions get obstacled by the collision of electrolytes molecules.

Question 7.
Why wire of Meter bridge is not made of copper wire ?
Answer:
Since the resistance of copper wire is very less and its temperature coefficient is more, therefore it is not used in Meter bridge.

Current Electricity Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is current ? Write its unit
Answer:
The electric current is defined as the rate of flow of charge through any section of a
Electric current = \(\frac {Total charge flowing}{ Time taken }\)
l = \(\frac {q}{ t}\) The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).

Question 2.
Is electric current a scalar or a vector quantity ? Give reason.
Answer:
Electric current is a scalar quantity. This is because laws of ordinary algebra are used to add electric current and laws of vector addition are not applied for the addition of electric current.

Question 3.
Define current density. Is it scalar or vector ? Write its unit.
Answer:
Current density at a point in a conductor is defined as the amount of current flowing per unit area of the conductor held perpendicular to the flow of current.
Current density J = \(\frac {Current (l)}{ Area (S)}\) (or) \(\frac {l}{ S}\)
Current density is a vector quantity. The SI unit of current density is ampere / meter².

Question 4.
What is drift velocity ? What is its value ?
Answer:
Drift velocity is defined as the average velocity with which the velocity free electrons with which they get drifted towards the positive terminal of the conductor under the influence of the external electric field. Its value is 10^-5ms^-1

Question 5.
Is Ohm’s law applicable to all conductors ? Write conditions for its application
Or
Write the condition or under which Ohm’s law is not obeyed.
Answer:
No, Ohm’s law is not applicable for non – ohmic conductors, e.g., semiconductor diode, discharge tube, etc. It is valid only when there is no change in physical conditions of conductor i.e., temperature, length or mechanical strain etc.

Question 6.
Define specific resistance or resistivity. Write its unit and dimensional formula.
Answer:
Specific resistance or resistivity is numerically equal to the resistance offered by a conductor of unit length and unit cross-sectional area. Its unit is ohm – meter. It depends upon temperature. a’ ‘ The dimensional formula of specific resistance is [ML³T³A^-2].

Question 7.
If you are given two wires of same material, having same length but different diameters, then which wire will have higher resistance and which will have high specific resistance ?
Answer:
The thin wire (having less diameter) will have higher resistance than that of thicker one as R ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ A }\) Both wires will have same specific resistance as they are made of same material and specific resistance is characteristic of the material of wire.

Question 8.
It is easier to start motor car during summer rather than in winter. Why ?
Answer:
The internal resistance of the battery during summer is less as compared to winter, therefore more current can be drawn from the battery.

Question 9.
When a high power heater is connected to mains, bulbs become dim. Why ?
Answer:
All electrical appliances are connected in parallel at home, therefore when power heater is used, very high current passes through it. So, potential difference falls on wires connected through mains (V = E – lr), which results in decreasing intensity of bulbs used in circuit.

Question 10.
What do you measure by meter bridge ? When is its sensitivity maximum ?
Answer:
Resistances are measured by meter bridge. Sensitivity of meter bridge is maximum when the null point is obtained at the center of wire. Moreover, all the resistances must be of same order.

Question 11.
What is the wire of meter bridge made up of ?
Answer:
The wire of meter bridge is made of manganin or constantan because it has low temperature coefficient of resistance and high specific resistance.

Question 12.
How can the sensitivity of potentiometer be increased ?
Answer:
The sensitivity of the potentiometer will be more if the potential gradient is less. For this, V should be less but more than the emf of E. The length of potentiometer should be large.

Question 13.
Write two possible reasons for obtaining deflection on one side in the experiment of potentiometer.
Answer:
The two possible reasons are as follows:

• If the emf of secondary cell in primary circuit is less than the emf of primary cell in the secondary circuit.
• If positive terminals of all the cells are not connected to the same point.

Question 14.
What do you understand by potential gradient of a potentiometer ? Give its unit
Answer:

• Fall in potential per unit length is called potential gradient. If the length of wire be / and potential difference across the wire is v, then
• Potential gradient, K =\(\frac {V}{l}\) Its unit is volt / m.

Question 15.
The potential gradient of potentiometer wire is doubled, what will happen to its null point ?
Answer:
Let emf of cell E is balanced at the length of –
E = Kl = l = \(\frac {E}{ K}\) = l ∝ \(\frac {1}{ K}\)
Hence, the null point will be at the half of the length.

Question 16.
Why the length of wire in potentiometer is more ?
Answer:
For greater sensitivity, the length of null point should be greater, for which the potential gradient should be smaller.
Potential gradient, K =\(\frac {V}{ l}\) To decrease K the value of l should be greater and F should be smaller. But, the value of V can be decreased up to a certain limit, hence the length is increased sufficiently.

Question 17.
Prove that potentiometer is an ideal voltmeter.
Answer:
When the potential difference between two points is measured by the voltmeter, then same current passes through the voltmeter, hence it measures little less than actual potential difference. But, when potentiometer measures the potential difference between two points, no current flows through it. Hence, it measures the accurate potential difference.

Question 18.
A carbon resistance has bands blue, red and green respectively. What is its resistance ?
Answer:

.’. The value of carbon resistance is 62 x 105 ohm with tolerance ± 20% .

Question 19.
A carbon resistance has bands blue, green and red respectively. Write its resistance.
Answer:

The value of carbon resistance is 65 x 102 ohm with tolerance ± 20% .

Question 20.
A carbon resistance has bands red, blue and green. What is its resistance ?
Answer:

The value of carbon resistance is 26 x 105 ohm with tolerance ±20% .

Question 21.
In high tension battery internal resistance should be high. Why ?
Answer:
If high tension battery is used in a circuit having low external resistance, current may go beyond its safety limit. If internal resistance of the battery is high, then current cannot go beyond its safety limit. So, internal resistance of high tension battery must be high.

Question 22.
What is cause of end error in a meter bridge ?
Answer:
The end error in meter bridge is due to following reasons:
The zero mark of the scale provided along the wire may not start from the position where the bridge wire leaves the copper strip and 100 cm mark of the scale may not end at the position where the wire touches the copper strip. The resistance of the copper wire and metal strip of meter bridge has not been taken in account.

Question 23.
What is Ohm’s law ? On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend upon ?
Answer:
If all the physical conditions of any conductor as length, temperature, etc. remain constant, then the current which flows through it is proportional to the potential difference applied across the ends of the conductor. If I is the current in conductor and V is the potential difference, then
V ∝ l = V=RI
Where, R is a constant, called resistance of conductor.
For factors affecting resistance of conductor:

• Length: The resistance of conductor is directly proportional to the length of the conductor i.e., R ∝ l
• Area of cross – section: The resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the area of cross – section of the conductor i.e., R ∝ \(\frac{l}{A}\)
• Temperature: Increase in temperature, increases the resistance.

Combining above two laws, we get,
R ∝ \(\frac{l}{A}\)
R = p \(\frac{l}{A}\)
Where, p= a constant, called specific resistance of the material of the conductor.
Specific resistance:
We have,
R = p \(\frac{l}{A}\)
Let l = 1 And A = l, then
R = P

Thus, the specific resistance of a material is defined by the resistance of unit length and unit area of cross-section of that material.
Unit: Now, p = \(\frac{R.A}{l}\)
= \(\frac{Unit of R x Unit of A}{Unit of l}\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{ohm} \times \mathrm{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = Ohm x m = Ω x m

Question 24.
What are the possible errors of a meter bridge and how can they be removed ?
Answer:
The possible errors and their removal methods are:
1. It might happen that the wire is not uniform. To remove this error, balance point should be obtained at the-middle.

2. During’the experiment, it is assumed that the resistance of L shaped plates are negligible, but actually it is not so. The error created due to this is called end error. To remove this error, the resistance box and the unknown resistance must be interchanged and then the mean reading should be taken.

3. If the jockey is pressed for a long period of time, then it gets heated and its resistance changes. Hence, jockey must not be pressed for a long interval.

Question 25.
Prove Ohm’s law on the basis of free electron theory.
or
Determine the formula for specific resistance in terms of free electron density and relaxation time.
Answer:
Consider a conductor of length l, area of cross-section A having ‘n’ No. of free electron per unit volume. If potential difference V is applied between its opposite ends then,
\(\frac { V }{ l }\)
Force experienced by each free electron will be
F = eE or F = \(\frac { eV }{ l }\)
The acceleration produced on the electron of mass m is
a = \(\frac { F }{ m}\) = \(\frac { eV }{ ml }\)
If the time interval between two successive collisions (relaxation time) is r then drift velocity is
V_d = \(\frac {eEτ }{ m }\)
= \(\frac {eVτ }{ ml }\)
But cuurent l = neAv_d
l = neA\(\left(\frac{e V \tau}{m l}\right)=\frac{n e^{2} \tau}{m} \frac{A}{l}V\)
\(\frac { V }{ l }\) = \(\frac{m}{n e^{2} \tau} \cdot \frac{l}{A}\)
If temperature remains constant, then all terms on R.H.S. will be constant, so
\(\frac { V }{ l }\) = R
This is Ohm’s law. Where R is constant called resistance.
R = \(\frac{m}{n e^{2} \tau} \cdot \frac{l}{A}\) ……….(1)
But resistance is directly proportional to length / and inversely proportional to area of cross-section A of conductor
R ∝ \(\frac { l }{A }\)
R = p\(\frac { l }{A }\) ………..(2)
From eqns. (1) and (2),
p = \(\frac{m}{n e^{2} \tau}\)

Question 26.
Obtain a relationship between current and drift velocity.
Answer:
Consider a conductor of length /and area of cross-section A. Let n be the number of electrons per unit volume.
Volume of conductor = Al
Total number of electrons = nAl.
Total charge of conductor, Q = nAle.
The conductor is now joined to a cell of potential difference V.
So, the electrons get drifted towards the positive terminal of the cell. Let the drift velocity be v_d.
Time taken to cover length l is –

t = \(\frac{l}{v_{d}}\)
l = \(\frac { Q }{t }\)
= \(\frac { nAel }{t }\)
l = nAev_d,
( v_d = \(\frac { distance}{time }\) = \(\frac { l }{t }\)
This is the required relationship.

Question 27.
Write four differences between electromotive force and potential difference.
Or
Define e.m.f. of a cell and potential difference. Give differences between them.
Answer:
e.m.f.: Work done in flowing 1 coulomb charge through a circuit is called e.m.f. of a cell When the terminals are not connected to an external circuit, the maximum potential difference between the terminals is equal to the e.m.f. of the cell. Unit of e.m.f is volt.

Potential difference:
The difference of potentials of any two points of the circuit is called potential difference.
Or
Work done in bringing unit positive charge from one point to another is called potential difference between these two points.

Differences between e.m.f. and potential difference:
e.m.f.:

• The maximum potential difference bet-ween the terminals of a cell is called its e.m.f., when the cell is in open circuit.
• This term is used for the electric sources as generator, cell, battery, dynamo, etc.
• It is established even the circuit is off.
• e.m.f. does not depend upon the resistance of the circuit.

Potential difference:

• Difference of potential of any two points of the circuit is called potential difference.
• This term is used for any two points of the circuit.
• It is established till the current is flowing through the circuit.
• It depends upon the resistance of the circuit

Question 28.
What do you understand by internal resistance of a cell ? On what factors does It depend and how ?
Or
What do you mean by internal resistance of a cell ? Write the factors affecting it.
Answer:
The resistance offered by the electrolyte of the cell during the flow of current inside the cell is called its internal resistance.
The following factors affect the internal resistance:

• Distance between the electrodes:
  As the distance increases, the internal resistance increases.
• Area of the immersed electrodes:
  As the area increases, the internal resistance decreases.
• Concentration of the electrolyte:
  As the concentration is more, the internal resistance is more.
• Temperature:
  The increase of temperature, decreases the internal resistance.

Question 29.
Establish the relationship between internal resistance of a cell, e.m.f. and extecoafresistance.
Or
Establish the relationship between the electromotive force, potential difference and internal resistance of a cell.
Answer:

Let e.m.f. of a cell be E and its internal resistance is r. If current / is flowing through a resistance R, then by Ohm’s law,
l = \(\frac { V}{R }\) ……………(1)
Where, V is the potential difference across the resistance. Now, total e.m.f. of the circuit = E and total resistance of the circuit = R + r
l = \(\frac {E}{R+r }\)
By eqns. (1) and (2), we get
\(\frac {V}{R}\) = \(\frac {E}{R+r }\)
VR + Vr = ER
Vr = ER – VR
r = \(\frac {R(E – V)}{V}\)
r = R(\(\frac {E}{V}\) – 1)
This is the required relationship.

Question 30.
Explain Kirchhoff’s laws of distribution of current through the different conduct^£
Or
Write down the Kirchhoff’s laws relating to the distribution of electric current.
Or
State and explain Kirchhoff’s laws.
Answer:
Kirchhoff’s laws:
(i) The algebraic sum of current meeting at any junction in a circuit is zero. In this law, the currents flowing towards the junction are considered as positive and those flowing  way from the junction as negative. As shown in the figure, we have

i₁ – i₂ – i₃ – i₄ – i₅ = 0
i₁ + i₄ = i₂ + i₃ + i₅

(ii) in any closed mesh (or loop) of an electrical circuit, the algebraic sum of the product of the currents and resistances is equal to the total e.m.f. of the mesh. If we go along the direction of conventional current, the potential difference will be taken as negative and opposite to it will be positive. Inside the cell, if we move from low to high potential, along the direction of conventional current, the e.m.f. will be positive.

For loop 1,
E₂ – i₂R₂ – (i₁ + i₂ )R₃ = 0
or E₂ = i₂R₂ + (i₁ + i₂ )R₃

For loop 2,
i₂R₂ – E₂ – i₁R₁ + E₁ = 0
or E₁ – E₂ = i₁R₁ – i₂R₂

Question 31.
Derive the principle of Wheatstone bridge by Kirchhoffs law.
Or
Explain the principle of Wheatstone bridge and obtain the expression for balance condition by Kirchhoff s laws.
Answer:
Principle of Wheatstone bridge:
Four resistances P, Q, R and S are connected to form a quadrilateral ABCD. A cell E is connected across the diagonal AC and a galvanometer across BD. When the current is flown through the circuit and galvanometer does not give any deflection, then the bridge is said to be balanced. In this condition,
\(\frac { p }{ Q }\) = \(\frac { R }{ S }\)
This is the principle of Wheatstone bridge.

Formula derivation:
Let the current i is divided into two parts and i2, flowing through P, Q and R, S respectively. In the position of equilibrium, the galvanometer shows zero deflection, i.e,, the potential of B and D will be equal. In the closed mesh ABDA, by Kirchhoffs second law, we get

i₁P – i₂R = 0
or i₁ P = i₂R ……….(1)
Similarly, in the closed mesh BCDB, we have
i₁Q – i₂S = 0
or i₁Q = i₂S ……….(2)
Dividing eqn. (1) by eqn. (2), we get
\(\frac{i_{1} P}{i_{1} Q}=\frac{i_{2} R}{i_{2} S}\)
\(\frac{P}{Q}\) = \(\frac{R}{S}\)
This is Wheatstone bridge principle or principle of balance.

Question 32.
Explain the principle of potentiometer.
Answer:
Let AB be the wire of potentiometer of length L. A storage cell C, a key K and a rheostat Rh are connected in series with the resistance wire.
When the key is inserted, the current starts flowing through the circuit and a potential difference is established between A and B, let it is V.
∴ Potential gradient, P = \(\frac{V}{L}\)

Now, the +ve terminal of the experimental cell is connected to A and -ve to galvanometer which is connected to jockey J. When jockey is touched near A, we get the deflection in one side and if it is touched near B, the deflection is in other side. Thus, a point on AB is found such that galvanometer gives no deflection. Hence, no current flows through the galvanometer and get the null point J.

In this balanced position,
e.m.f. of the cell = Potential difference between A and J
If the length of AJ = l.
∴ E = pl
Thus, knowing p and E can be calculated.
This is the principle of potentiometer.

Question 33.
On what factors the resistance of a wire or conductor depends ? Define specific resistance and write its unit.
Or
On what factors the resistance of a conductor depends and how ?
Answer:
The factors affecting the resistance are:

• Length: The resistance of conductor is directly proportional to the length of the conductor i.e., R ∝ l
• Area of cross – section: The resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the area of cross – section of the conductor i.e., R ∝ \(\frac{l}{A}\)
• Temperature: Increase in temperature, increases the resistance.

Combining above two laws, we get,
R ∝ \(\frac{l}{A}\)
R = p \(\frac{l}{A}\)
Where, p= a constant, called specific resistance of the material of the conductor.
Specific resistance:
We have,
R = p \(\frac{l}{A}\)
Let l = 1 And A = l, then
R = P

Thus, the specific resistance of a material is defined by the resistance of unit length and unit area of cross-section of that material.
Unit: Now, p = \(\frac{R.A}{l}\)
= \(\frac{Unit of R x Unit of A}{Unit of l}\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{ohm} \times \mathrm{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = Ohm x m = Ω x m

Question 34.
What do you understand by specific resistance or resistivity of a conductor ? Give its unit and dimensional formula.
Answer:
For specific resistance of a conductor: Refer Short Answer: Type Q. No. 33(iii). Dimensional formula of specific resistance is determined as:
As p = \(\frac{RA}{l}\)
[p] = \(\frac{[R][A]}{[l]}\)
[R] = \(\frac{[V]}{[l]}\) = \(\frac{W/P}{[l]}\) = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{ML}^{2} \mathrm{T}^{-2}\right] /[\mathrm{AT}]}{[\mathrm{A}]}\)
= \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{ML}^{2} \mathrm{T}^{-3} \mathrm{A}^{-1}\right]}{[\mathrm{A}]}\) = [ML²T^-3A^-2
[p] = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{ML}^{2} \mathrm{T}^{-3} \mathrm{A}^{-2}\right]\left[\mathrm{L}^{2}\right]}{[\mathrm{L}]}\)
= \(\left[\mathrm{ML}^{3} \mathrm{T}^{-3} \mathrm{A}^{-2}\right]\)

Question 35.
Give differences between specific resistance and resistance.
Answer:
Differences between specific resistance (resistivity) and resistance:

Specific resistance:

• It is defined by the resistance offered by the conductor of unit length and unit area of cross – ection.
• Its unit is ohm x m.
• It does not depend upon the length and area of cross – ection.

Resistance:

• The hindrance offered by a conductor to the flow of current is called electrical resistance.
• Its unit is ohm.
• It depends upon the length and area of cross-section of the conductor.

Question 36.
Evaluate It and I₂ as shown in the figure.

Solution:
Equivalent figure of fig. (a) is fig. (b)
In closed current BEFC, by Kirchhoff s second law,
2l₁ – 6I₂ = 0
or I₁ = 3I₂ …….(1)
In closed path ABCD
2I₁ + l(l₁ + l₂) = 10
3I₁ + I₂ = 10 …….(2)

From eqns. (1) and (2),
3 x 3I₂ + I₂ = 10
or 9I₂ + I₂ = 10
or I₂ = 1 amp.
Putting the value of 12 in eqn. (1) we get,
I₁ = 3 x l = 3 amp

Question 37.
Three resistors R₁ R₂ and R₃ are connected in series. Obtain the expression for the equivalent resistance.
Answer:
The series combination of three resistors having resistances R₁ R₂ and R₃ are shown in figure.

When this combination is connected to a cell (C) of e.m.f. E volt, then I current flows through combination.
Let the potential difference across R₁ R₂ and R₃ be V₁, V₂ and V₃ respectively. Then, by Ohm’s law,
V₁= IR₁ V₂ = IR₂ and V₃ = IR₃ .
If potential difference across A and B be V, then
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
or V = IR₁ + IR₂ + IR₃
V = I(R₁ + R₂ + R₃) ……(1)
If equivalent resistance of this combination be R, then
V = IR …..(2)
From eqns. (1) and (2), we get
1R = I(R₁ + R₂ + R₃)
or R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ …(3)
Thus, when a number of resistances are connected in series with each other, the equivalent resistance of the combination is equal to the sum of their individual resistances.

Question 38.
Find out equivalent resistance of the three resistances R₁ ,R₂ and R₃ connected in parallel combination.
Answer:
The resistances R₁ ,R₂ and R₃ are connected in parallel as shown in adjacent figure. As all the resistances are connected between two points A and B, hence the potential difference between two points will be same for all. Let it be V. Let I be the total current. This current is divided into three parts at point A. If through R₁, R₂ and R₃; currents I₁ I₂ and I₃ are respectively flowing. Then,

I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
By Ohm’s law,
I₁ = \(\frac{V}{R_{1}}\), I₂ = \(\frac{V}{R_{2}}\), I₃ = \(\frac{V}{R_{3}}\)
I = \(\frac{V}{R_{1}}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_{2}}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_{3}}\) ……….(1)
If the equivalent resistance of this combination be R, then
I = \(\frac{V}{R}\) ……….(2)
From eqns. (1) and (2), we have
\(\frac{V}{R}\) = \(\frac{V}{R_{1}}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_{2}}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_{3}}\)
\(\frac{1}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_{1}}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_{2}}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_{3}}\) …………(3)
Thus, if a number of resistances are connected in parallel, the reciprocal of equivalent resistance of the combination is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of their individual resistances.

Current Electricity Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe an experiment to compare the e.m.f. of two cells by potentiometer onTne following points :

1. Circuit diagram
2. Derivation of formula
3. Two precautions.

Or
Describe an experiment to compare the e.m.f. of two cells using a potentiometer under the following heads :

1. Labelled diagram of electric circuit
2. Formula used
3. Observation table
4. Two main precautions.

Answer:
1. Circuit diagram:
AB → Potentiometer wire
B₁ → Lead accumulator
K₁ → Plug key
Rh → Rheostat
E₁ E₂ → Experimental cells
K₂ → Two ways key
G → Galvanometer
J → Jockey.

2. Derivation of formula:
Let the first cell is having e.m.f. E, and the balancing point is obtained at distance l₁. Then by the principle of potentiometer,
E₁ = pl₁ ……(1)
Where, p is potential gradient.
Let E₂ is the e.m.f. of second cell whose balancing point is at l₂, then
E₂ = pl₂ ……(2)
Dividing eqn. (1) by eqn. (2), we get,
\(\frac{E_{1}}{E_{2}}=\frac{pl_{1}}{pl_{2}}=\frac{l_{1}}{l_{2}}\)

3. Observation tab:

4. Precautions:
The e.m.f. of lead accumulator should be greater than that of experimental cells. All the positive terminals should be connected to one point

Question 2.
Determine the internal resistance of a cell by potentiometer on the following points:

1. Labelled circuit diagram
2. Derivation of formula
3. Precautions.

Or
Determine an experiment to find out the internal resistance of a cell by potentiometer under the following points :

1. Labelled circuit diagram
2. Formula derivation
3. Observation table
4. Precautions (any two).

Answer:
1. Circuit diagram:
AB → Potentiometer wire
C → Storage cell
K → Plug key
Rh → Rheostat
E → Experimental cell
R.B. → Resistance box
G → Galvanometer
J → Jockey.

2. Formula derivation:
Let the e.m.f. of the cell is E and its internal resistance is r. When it is connected to external resistance R, its potential difference is V, then

r = R (\(\frac{E}{V}\) – 1) ……..(1)
When R is not connected, then let the balance point is found at a distance l₁ from A.
∴ E = pl₁
Similarly, when R is also connected, then let the balanced point is obtained at a distance l₂ from A.
∴ V = pl₂
Now, putting these values in eqn. (1), we get
r = R \(\left(\frac{\rho l_{1}}{\rho l_{2}}-1\right)\) = R \(\left(\frac{l_{1}}{l_{2}}-1\right)\)
This is the required formula

3. Observation table :

4. Precautions:

• The e.m.f. of the storage cell (C) must be greater than that of experimental cell (£).
• All the positive terminals must be connected to a single point

Question 3.
How are the cells connected in mixed combination ? Derive an expression for current flowing through external resistance.
Or
Prove that the current in the external circuit for a mixed combination of cells is maximum, when the internal resistance of the combination equals the external resistance.
Answer:
In this combination, series connections of equal number of cells are connected in parallel and finally providing one +ve and one -ve terminal as shown in Fig. (a). These two terminals are connected to the ends of an external resistance R so that current starts flowing through the resistance.

Suppose n cells are connected in series combination and let m be the number of such series connected in parallel. Let the e.m.f. of each cell be E and internal resistance be r. Total e.m.f. of each series combination i.e, for a row, will be nE and total internal resistance will be nr. Hence, the equivalent becomes as given in Fig. (b).

As all the cells are now in parallel, so total e.m.f. of the combination will also be nE and total internal resistance will be r’. This is shown in Fig. (c). As each resistor is of value nr and nr such resistors are connected in parallel, hence total internal resistance r’ will be calculated as:

\(\frac{1}{r’}\) = \(\frac{1}{nr}\) + \(\frac{1}{nr}\) + ………. + m terms = \(\frac{m}{nr}\) or r’ = \(\frac{nr}{m}\)
As R is the external resistance, then r’ and R are in series. Hence, total resistance of combination becomes,
R_total = R + r’ = R + \(\frac{nr}{m}\)
The current through the circuit will be given by Ohm’s law as

l = \(\frac{Total e.m.f.of battery }{Total resistance of circuit}\)

l = \(\frac{n \mathrm{E}}{\mathrm{R}+\frac{n r}{m}}\) = \(\frac{m n \mathrm{E}}{m \mathrm{R}+n r}\) ……….(1)

This is the expression for the current. For the current to be maximum, mR+nr must be minimum

mR + nr = \((\sqrt{m \mathrm{R}})^{2}+(\sqrt{n r})^{2}-2 \sqrt{m \mathrm{R}} \sqrt{n r}+2 \sqrt{m \mathrm{R}} \sqrt{n r}\) (as subtracting and adding \(2 \sqrt{m \mathrm{R}} \sqrt{n r}\))

= \((\sqrt{m \mathrm{R}}-\sqrt{n r})^{2}+2 \sqrt{m \mathrm{R}} \times \sqrt{n r}\)

But \((\sqrt{m \mathrm{R}}-\sqrt{n r})^{2}\) cannot be negative, as it is a perfect square.

mR + nr will be minimum, only when \((\sqrt{m \mathrm{R}}-\sqrt{n r})^{2}\) = 0

or \(\sqrt{m \mathrm{R}}-\sqrt{n r}\) = 0

\(\sqrt{m \mathrm{R}}\) = \(\sqrt{n r}\) ⇒ mr = nr ………(2)
∴ R = \(\frac{n r}{m}\) ………..(3)

Hence, the external resistance should be equal to the internal resistance of the battery. Under this condition the current supplied by the battery to the resistance R is maximum. The value of maximum current can be obtained by putting eqn. (2) in eqn. (1).

∴ I_max = \(\frac{mnE}{mR + mR}\)

= \(\frac{mnE}{2mR}\) = \(\frac{nE}{2R}\)
On substituting mR = nr, we get

I_max = \(\frac{mnE}{nr + nr}\) = \(\frac{mnE}{2nr}\)

= \(\frac{mE}{2r}\) .

Question 4.
explain the experiment of determining the unknown resistance of a wire with he help of meter bridge on the following points:

1. Electrical circuit
2. Principle.

Or
Describe an experiment to determine the unknown resistance by meter bridge on following points :

1. Circuit diagram
2. Description of apparatus
3. Observation table
4. Precautions.

Or
What are the possible errors in performing the experiment with metre bridge and how they can be removed ?
Answer:
1. Circuit diagram:

Where ,
AC→ wire
E → cell
R → resistance box
S → unknown resistance,
G → galvanometer
K → key.

2. Description of apparatus:
It consists of 1 meter long manganin or constant resistance wire, fixed on a wooden plank. Thick steel or brass strips are fixed as shown in the figure with two gaps. In one gap, resistance box R and in other, unknown resistance S are connected. A, C and D are terminals. A jockey slides on the wire.

3. Formula derivation or principle:
Meter bridge consists of 1 m long constant-an wire AC, fixed on a wooden plank. In two gaps resistance R and unknown resistance S are connected. Galvanometer G is connected between B and D, where B is sliding point i. e., jockey.
A cell E, with a plug key K is connected between A and C.
Let null point is obtained at a distance l from A.
∴ AB = l cm
and BC = (100 – l)cm
If x be the resistance per unit length, then Resistance offered by AB is P = lx
and resistance offered by BC is Q = (100 – l)x
Now, by the principle of Wheatstone bridge,

\(\frac{P}{Q}\) = \(\frac{R}{S}\)

\(\frac{lx}{(100 – l)}\)

S = \(\frac{R(100 – l)}{l}\)
Wheatstone bridge is sensitive when all the four resistances are of same order. Hence, metre bridge is also suitable for the resistance of same order.

4. Observation table:

5. Precautions:

• The connection should be tight.
• The plugs of R.B. should not be loose.
• The current should be passed only when readings are to be taken.
• Jockey should not be rubbed with the wire.

Possible errors and their removal:
1. It might happen that the wire is not uniform. To remove this error, balance point should be obtained at the-middle.

2. During’the experiment, it is assumed that the resistance of L shaped plates are negligible, but actually it is not so. The error created due to this is called end error. To remove this error, the resistance box and the unknown resistance must be interchanged and then the mean reading should be taken.

3. If the jockey is pressed for a long period of time, then it gets heated and its resistance changes. Hence, jockey must not be pressed for a long interval.

Question 5.
How are cells connected in series ? Derive an expression for current flowing through outer circuit. When is this combination useful ?
Answer:
In this combination, the -ve terminal of one cell is connected to the + ve terminal of second cell, whose -ve terminal is connected to the +ve terminal of third one and so on as shown in Fig. (a). Let n cells each of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r be connected in series through an external resistance R, then

Total e.m.f. of this combination = n E ’ and total internal resistance
r’ = r + r + r +…………….+ n times
= nr
The series combination of n cells is equivalent to a single cell having e.m.f. «E and internal resistance nr. This is shown in Fig. (b).
Now nr and external resistance R are in series. So, the equivalent resistance of circuit becomes R + nr Applying Ohm’s law, current flowing through the circuit is given by –
l = \(\frac{e.m.f. of battery }{Total resistance}\)
= \(\frac{nE }{nr + R}\)
This is the expression for current flowing through the external resistance R. If r « R, then nr + R * R.
Hence, from eqn. (1), we get
l = n. \(\frac{E }{R}\)
= n x Current flowing through each cell.

Utility:
Thus, if the internal resistance of each cell is negligible as compared to external resistance, the current flowing through the battery is n times the current supplied by each cell.
So, the cells should be connected in series only when the internal resistance of each cell is much less than the external resistance.

Question 6.
n cells are connected in parallel combination with internal resistance. Derive an expression for current flowing through external resistance. When is this combination useful?
Answer:
Let n cells be connected in parallel and e.m.f. of each cell be E and internal resistance be r. Since, all the positive terminals of cells connected to point A and -ve terminals connected to the point B, the total e.m.f. of battery will be E (because in parallel combination potential difference remains same).

Since the cells are connected in parallel, therefore their internal resistance will also be in parallel combination. Let the equivalent internal resistance be r’
∴ \(\frac{1 }{r’}\) = \(\frac{E }{R}\) + \(\frac{E }{R}\) + …………. + n times \(\frac{n }{r}\)
or r’ = \(\frac{r }{n}\)
Hence, the equivalent circuit becomes

Where, r’ is the total resistance of the combination of cells. As R and r’ are in series, so the total resistance of the circuit becomes
= R + r’ = R + \(\frac{r }{n}\)
Current through external resistance R will be given by Ohm’s law as
l = \(\frac{Total e.m.f.of battery }{Total resistance of circuit}\)
l = \(\frac{E}{R+\frac{r}{n}}\) = \(\frac{n E}{n R+r}\)
This is the required expression.
If R << r, then nR + r≈r
Now, from eqn. (1), we have
I = n \(\frac{E}{r}\) = n x Current given by one cell .

Utility:
Thus, if internal resistance of each cell is much greater than the external resistance, then the current flowing through the battery is n times the current through each cell i.e., maximum current is obtained. So, the cells should be connected in parallel when internal resistance of each cell is much greater than the external resistance.

Current Electricity Numerical Questions

Question 1.
The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V. If the internal resistance of the battery is 0.4Ω, what is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery? (NCERT)
Solution:
Given: E = 12 V; r – 0.4 Ω
Current l = \(\frac{E}{R+r}\)
For current to be maximum R = 0
I_max = \(\frac{E}{r}\) = \(\frac{12}{0.4}\) = 30A

Question 2.
A battery of emf 10V and internal resistance 3) is connected to a resistor. If the current in the circuit ¡s 0.5A. What is the resistance of the resistor? What is the terminal voltage of the battery when the circuit is closed? (NCERT)
Solution:
Given:
E =10V; r = 3Ω l = 0.5A

l = \(\frac{E}{R + r}\)
R+r = \(\frac{E}{l}\)
R = \(\frac{E}{l}\) – r = \(\frac{10}{0.5}\) – 3 = 20 – 3 = 17Ω
Now, V = E – lr = 10 – 0.5 x 3 = 10 – 1.5 = 8.5V

Question 3.
(a) Three resistance IΩ, 2Ω and 3Ω are combined in series. What is the total resistance of the combination ?
(b) If the combination is connected to a battery of emf 12V and negligible internal resistance, obtain the potential drop across each resistor. (NCERT)
Solution:
(a) Given:
R₁ = IΩ; R₂ = 2Ω; R₃ = 3Ω
R₂ = R₂ + R₂ + R₂ = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6Ω .
(b) E = 12V; r = 0
l = \(\frac{E}{R+r}\) = \(\frac{E}{R_{S}+0} = \frac{12}{6}\)
I = 2A
Potential difference across (R₁)
V₁ = IR₁ = 2 x l = 2V
Potential difference across (R₂)
V₂ = IR₂ = 2 x 2 = 4V
Potential difference across (R₃)
V₃ = IR₃ = 2 X 3 = 6V.

Question 4.
(a)Three resistors 2Ω, 4Ω and 5Ω are combined in parallel. What is the total resistance of the combination ?
(b) If the combination is connected to a battery of emf 20V and negligible internal resistance, determine the current through each resistor and the total current drawn from the battery. (NCERT)
Solution?:
(a) Given:
R₁ = 20; R₂ = 40; R₃ = 50
Equivalent resistance:
\(\frac{1}{R_{p}}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_{1}}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_{2}}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_{3}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) + \(\frac{1}{4}\) + \(\frac{1}{5}\) = \(\frac{10+5+4}{20}\) = \(\frac{19}{20}\)
∴ \(\frac{1}{R_{p}}\) = \(\frac{20}{19}\) Ω

(b) E = 20V; r = 0
Current through different resistors,
l₁ = \(\frac{E}{R_{1}}\) = \(\frac{20}{2}\) = 10A
l₂ = \(\frac{E}{R_{2}}\) = \(\frac{20}{4}\) = 5A
l₃ = \(\frac{E}{R_{3}}\) = \(\frac{20}{5}\) = 4A
Total current drawn
l = l₁ + l₂ + l₃ = 10 + 5 + 4 = 19A

Question 5.
At room temperature (27°C) the resistance of a heating element is 100Ω. What is the temperature of the element if the resistance is found to be 117 Ω, given that temperature coefficient of the resistor material is 1.70 x 10^-4 °C^-1 ? (NCERT)
Solution:
Given:
t₁ = 27 °C
R₁ = 1000
R₂ = 1170
α = 1.70 x 10^-4 °C^-1
We know that, α = \(\frac{R_{2}-R_{1}}{R_{1}\left(t_{2}-t_{1}\right)}\)
t₂ – t₁ = \(\frac{R_{2}-R_{1}}{R_{1} \alpha}\)
= \(\frac{117-100}{170 \times 10^{-4} \times 100}\)
t₂ – t₁ = 1000
t₂ = 1000 + t₁ = 1000 + 27 = 1027 °C

Question 6.
A negligible small current is passing through a wire of length 15 m and uniform cross – section 6.0 x 10^-7 m² and its resistance is measured to be 5.0ΩWhat is the resistivity of the material at the temperature of the experiment ? (NCERT)
Sol. Given:
l = 15m; A = 6.0 x l0^-7m²; R = 5.0Ω
using R = \(\frac { pl }{ A }\)
p = \(\frac {RA}{ l }\) = \(\frac{5 \times 6 \times 10^{-7}}{15}\) = 2.0 x l0^-7Ωm

Question 7.
Determine the current in each branch of the network shown in figure. (NCERT)

solution:
\(\frac {P}{ Q }\) = \(\frac {10}{5}\) = \(\frac {2}{ 1 }\) and \(\frac {R}{S }\) = \(\frac {5}{ 10 }\) = \(\frac {1}{ 2 }\).
i.e \(\frac {P}{ Q}\) = \(\frac {R}{ S}\)

Therefore, bridge is not in equilibrium. Current flowing through different branches is as shown in fig. Now applying Kirchhoffs loop rule.

For loop ABDA
10I₁ + 5I₂ – 5(I – I₁) = 0
3I₁ + l₂ – I = 0 ……(1)

For loop BCDB.
5(I₁ – I₂) – 10 (I – l₁ + I₂) – 5I₂ = 0
or I₁ – I₂ – 2 (I – I₁ + I₂) I₁ = O
or 3I₂ – 4I₂ – 2I = 0 …..(2)
By eqns. (1) and (2), 5I₂ + I = 0
I = – 5I₂
I₂ = – \(\frac {1}{ 5 }\) I …….(3)
And I₁ = \(\frac {2}{ 5 }\) I …….(4)

For loop ADCA,
5(I – I₁) + 10 (1 – l₁ + l₂) + 10I = 10
5I – 3I + 2I₁ = 2

Question 8.
Find out effective resistance between points A and B for circuit given below:

Solution:
\(\frac {1}{ R}\) = \(\frac {1}{ 2 + 2 + 2 }\) + \(\frac {1}{ 3 }\)

\(\frac {1}{ R}\) = \(\frac {1}{6}\) + \(\frac {1}{3}\)

\(\frac {1}{ R }\) = \(\frac {1 + 2}{ 6 }\) = \(\frac {3}{6}\)
R = \(\frac {6}{3}\) = 2Ω

Question 9.
Find out effective resistance between points A and B for circuit given below:

\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}\) = \(\frac {1}{ 4}\) + \(\frac {1}{ 4}\) = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}\) = \(\frac {2}{ 4}\)

R₁ = \(\frac {4}{2}\) = 2Ω

\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\) = \(\frac {1}{ 6}\) + \(\frac {1}{ 6}\) =\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\) = \(\frac {2}{ 6}\)

R₂ = \(\frac {6}{ 2}\) = 3Ω
Effective resistance R = R₁ + R₂
R = 2 + 3 = 5Ω

Question 10.
10⁹ electrons flows from point A to B in 10^-3 second. Find out magnitude and direction of electric current.
Solution:
Formula: I = \(\frac {ne}{t}\)
Given: n = 10⁹ t = 10^-3 sec.
Putting the given value in the formula, we get
I = \( \frac{10^{9} \times 16 \times 10^{-19}}{10^{-3}}\)
or l = 1.6 x l 0^-7 ampere.
Direction of electric current will be from B to A. Ans.

Question 11.
150 m A current flows through a conductor. How many electrons will flow through it in 20 sec ?
Solution:
Given:
I = 150 mA = 0.15 A, t = 20 sec.
Formula:
n = \(\frac {It}{e}\) = \(\frac{0.15 \times 20}{1 \cdot 6 \times 10^{-19}\)

n = \(\frac{3}{1 \cdot 6} \times 10^{19}\) = 1.875 x 10¹⁹

Question 12.
200 mA current flows through a conductor. How many electrons will flow through it in 5 sec ?
Solution:
Given:
I = 200 mA = 0.2 A, t = 5 sec
Formula:
n = \(\frac {It}{e}\) = \(\frac{0\cdot 2\times 5}{1\cdot 6\times 10^{-19}}\)

n = \(\frac{1}{1 \cdot 6} \times 10^{19}\)
n = 0.625 x 10¹⁹

Question 13.
The length of a wire becomes twice when stretched. How many times resistance will increase ?
Solution:
On stretching the wire, radius of the wire will decrease but volume will remain same. Let l₁ and r₁ be initial length and radius of wire respectively. On stretching, the length becomes l₂ say and radius r₂
Initial volume = Final volume

From the formula, R = p \(\frac {1}{A}\)

Putting the value of \(\left(\frac{r_{2}}{r_{1}}\right)^{2}\) from eqn. (1) in eqn. (2), we get

As per the question, l₂ = 2l₁
\(\frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}\) = \(\left(\frac{l_{1}}{2 l_{1}}\right)^{2}\) = \(\frac {1}{4}\)
R₂ = 4R₁
Hence, the resistance of wire is increased four times.

Question 14.
The ratio of area of cross-section of two wires made of same metal and equal length is 2 : 1. It applied potential difference between their ends are same then what will be the ratio of current among them ?
Solution:

Question 15.
The ratio of length of two wire, made of same metal and equal area of cross-section is 2 : 1. If the applied potential difference between their ends are same, then what will be the ratio of current following among them ?
Solution:

Question 16.
125 mA current flows through a lamp in 10 sec. How many electrons will flow across it ?
Solution:
Given:
I = 125 mA = 0.125 A. t = 10 sec.

MP Board Class 12th Physics Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 16 Environmental Issues

Environmental Issues Important Questions

Environmental Issues Objective Type Questions 

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Disease caused due to mercury pollution is:
(a) Methenamine
(b) Minimata
(c) Asbestosis
(d) Liver inflammation.
Answer:
(b) Minimata

Question 2.
Plants are natural air purifiers because they exhibit :
(a) Respiration
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Transpiration
(d) Drying.
Answer:
(b) Photosynthesis

Question 3.
Metal found in atmosphere is :
(a) Cadmium
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Zinc.
Answer:
(b) Lead

Question 4.
Burning of fossil fuel results in:
(a) SO₂ pollution
(b) NO₂ pollution
(c) N₂O pollution
(d) NO pollution.
Answer:
(a) SO₂ pollution

Question 5.
Increase of the concentration of which gas results greenhouse effect :
(a) CO₂
(b) CO
(c) O₂
(d) Nitrogen oxide.
Answer:
(a) CO₂

Question 6.
Gas responsible for depletion of O₃ in atmosphere is :
(a) CFC
(b) NO₂
(c) CO₂
(d) SO₂
Answer:
(a) CFC

Question 7.
Carbon monoxide is the chief pollutant of :
(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Noise
(d) Soil.
Answer:
(b) Air

Question 8.
Effect of air pollution is seen in :
(a) Leaves
(b) Flower
(c) Forests
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Flower

Question 9.
Shrinking of leaves occurs by :
(a) SO₂
(b) O₂
(C) H₂S
(d) CO.
Answer:
(a) SO₂

Question 10.
Example of greenhouse gas is :
(a) CO₂
(b) CH₄
(c) CFC
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 11.
Gas produced during combustion of fossil fuels is :
(a) CO₂
(b) CH₄
(c) CFC
(d) N₂O
(a) CO₂

Question 12.
Gas used in refrigeration is :
(a) Freon
(b) N₂O
(c) CH₄
(d) CO₂.
Answer:
(a) Freon

Question 13.
Radiation emitted due to heating of earth is:
(a) UV
(b) Infrared
(c) Gamma
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Infrared

Question 14.
Gas responsible for depletion of atmospheric ozone layer is:
(a) CO₂
(b) CH₄
(c) CFC
(d) O₂
Answer:
(c) CFC

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. ………………….. is a chief green house gas.
2. ………………….. is the measurement unit of water pollution.
3. ………………….. and ………………….. gases are responsible for acid rain.
4. ………………….. gas is essential for life. (MP 2009 Set B)
5. The substances which produce pollution are called ………………….. (MP 2013)
6. Strong, loud, unpleasant or untolerable sound is called ………………….. (MP 2013)
7. We can ………………….. the quantity of CO₂ from forestation.
8. CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, CFCs are………………….. gases.
9. ………………….. is discharged in Bhopal gas disaster.
10. In human DDT is reached by …………………..
11. ………………….. is also known as chemical weeds.
12. Pollution is the …………………. changes which occurs in atmosphere.
13. Deficiency of soil nutrients is called …………………..
14. The percentage of CO₂ of atmosphere can be ………………….. by forestation. (MP 2009 Set D)

Answer:

1. CO₂
2. BOD
3. SO₂ and NO₂
4. O₂
5. Pollutant
6. Noise
7. Lost
8. Green house
9. Methyl isocyanate
10. Food chain
11. Ozone
12. Unwanted
13. Negative pollution
14. Reduced.

Question 3.
Match the followings:
I.

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (f)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (d)
6. (a)
7. (g)
8. (h)

II.

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)

Question 4.
Write the answer in one word/sentences:

1. Write full name of BOD.
2. What is the hearing capacity of man?
3. Name the fish used to control mosquito.
4. What is the concentration of CO₂ in environment?
5. When is World Environment Day celebrated?
6. Write the names of two main gases which pollute air.
7. Write the name of highly polluted river of India.
8. Name the term used, for the increase in atmospheric temperature, due to increase in CO₂ concentration.
9. What is the amount of oxygen taken up by microorganisms, that decompose waste matter?
10. Write full name of CFC.
11. Write the name of a chief greenhouse gas.
12. Write the name of gas responsible for ozone layer depletion.
13. Who is the greatest enemy of nature and organism? (MP 2013)
14. When we celebrated ozone day?

Answer:

1. Biological Oxygen Demand
2. 10 – 12 decibel
3. Gambussia
4. 0 03%
5. 5th June
6. SO₂and CO
7. Ganga
8. Green House effect
9. B. O. D
10. Chlorof – luorocarbon
11. CO₂
12. CFC
13. Global warming
14. 16December.

Environmental Issues Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the definition of pollution?
Answer:
Pollution is defined as an undesirable changes in physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air, land, wafer and soil.

Question 2.
What are the essential components of biodiversity?
Answer:
Essential components of biodiversity are:

1. Genetic diversity.
2. Species diversity.
3. Ecological diversity.

Question 3.
When and how photochemical smog is formed?
Answer:
Photochemical smog is the chemical reaction of sunlight, nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds in the atmosphere, which leaves air borne particles and ground level ozone. Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) is present in the photochemical smog. It causes damage to respiratory system and environment system. (The word smog is derived from smoke and fog.)

Question 4.
Name two plants which uses carbon monoxide (CO).
Answer:
Two plants which uses CO are:

1. Daucus carota,
2. Ficus variegata.

Question 5.
Name the types of water pollution based on source of water.
Answer:
Types of water pollution based on source of water:

1. Underground water pollution
2. Surface water pollution
3. Lake water pollution and
4. River water pollution.

Question 6.
How does fertilizers pollute water?
Answer:
Excess fertilizers used in the field are drained into the pond and river, where they proliferate growth of algae, which spread all over the surface of the water and cut off oxygen supply for lower aquatic organisms. Due which lower aquatic organisms dies. This is known as eutrophication.

Question 7.
Give harmful effects of cutting of forest.
Answer:
Harmful effects of cutting of forest are:

1. It increases landscape.
2. It decreases fertility of the soil.
3. Rainfall reduces and become uncontrolled.

Environmental Issues Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is acid rain? Write any two effects of acid rain on human beings.
Answer:
Acid rain:
SO₂ gas is released into the environment by burning of fossil fuels containing sulphide from industries, example Coal. In presence of moisture, SO₂ reacts with water and forms the droplets of sulphurous and sulphuric acid in the environment. Likewise nitrogen oxides released from motor vehicles, burning materials and chemical industries also react with water to produce the droplets of nitric acid. The droplets of sulphurous, sulphuric acid and nitric acids fall down on the earth with rainwater and thus, it is known as acid rain.

• SO₂ + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) O₂ → SO₃
• H₂O + SO₃ → H₂SO₄
• H₂O + NO₂ → HNO₃

Effects on human beings : Skin diseases, irritation, metabolic diseases.

Question 2.
Write the effect of air pollution on plants.
Answer:
Effect of air pollution on plants:

1. Increase in the concentration of SO₂ causes chlorosis of leaves in plants.
2. The cells and chlorophyll of leaves are degraded and fall down.
3. Vegetative and reproductive growth is inhibited.
4. The development of plant is inhibited.

Question 3.
Write short note on pollution caused due to combustion activities.
Answer:
Combustion of fuel, such as wood, coal, natural gas for cooking and for some other puiposes gives out gases like CO₂, CO, SO₂ and consumes oxygen from the air.

Question 4.
Write preventive measures to control air pollution.
Answer:
Preventive measures to control air pollution:

1. Industrial smokes must be filtered before releasing it into the atmosphere.
2. Tree plantation should be increased and deforestation prevented.
3. Use of automobiles should be minimized which reduce the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere.
4. The use of crude fuels should be avoided and use of high quality fuels should be recommended.
5. Nuclear explosions should be avoided.
6. Legal control of air pollution.
7. Plantation of air purifying plants.
8. Development of parks and gardens in cities.

Question 5.
Write any four measures to control greenhouse effect.
Answer:
Following important measures can be sited as the base steps towards controlling greenhouse effect:

1. The aim is achieved to some extent by reducing the consumption of fossil fuels such as coal and petroleum. This can be achieved by depending more on non – conventional renewable sources of energy such as solar, wind, tidal, biogas and nuclear energies.
2. Disposing of the greenhouse gases as they are formed elsewhere than in the atmosphere.
3. By recovering greenhouse gases present already in the atmosphere and disposing them off elsewhere.
4. Prevention of deforestation and planting of more trees.

Question 6.
Write short note:

1. Bio – magnification.
2. UV rays.
3. Biodegradable pollutants.
4. Non – biodegradable.

Answer:
1. Bio – magnification:
Bio – magnification, also known as bio-amplification or biological magnification is the increasing concentration of a substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain.

2. UV rays:
Sunlight is the chief source of ultraviolet rays. The rays of sunlight having a wavelength range from 200 to 390 nm are called as UV rays.

Effect of UV rays:
They have a direct effect on living cells. DNA and other chemical substances in cells are inactivated due to UV rays. Prevention of replication of the DNA molecule and its distortion cause many ill effects.

3. Biodegradable pollutants:
The pollutants which are degraded by natural factors and decomposed by natural activities are known as biodegradable pollutants, e.g., Domestic sewage, heat. The domestic sewage can be rapidly decomposed by natural processes or in engineered system (sewage treatment plant) that enhance natures great capacity to decompose and recycle.

4. Non – biodegradable:
The pollutants which cannot be purified by natural methods are called non-biodegradable pollutants. Plastic products, many chemicals, DDT, long chain detergents, glass aluminium, mercury salt and other synthetic products manufactured by man come under this category. These non – biodegradable pollutants not only accumulate but often “biologically magnified” as they move in biochemical cycles and along food chains.

Question 7.
What is the effect of SO₂ in the environment?
Answer:

Question 8.
Write only the sources of water and air pollution.
Answer:
1. Sources of water pollution : Following are the chief sources of water pollution:

(a) Human sources:

• Domestic sewage
• Industrial effluents
• Agricultural wastes
• Oil pollution
• Thermal and nuclear power station.

(b) Natural sources:
Water pollution takes place by natural ways like soil erosion, mixing of metallic substances, plant leaves, humus and faecal matter of animals etc.

2. Sources of air pollution : Following are the chief sources of air pollution:

(a) Human sources:

• Combustion activities
• Industrial activities
• Agricultural works
• Use of solvents
• Activities concerned with atomic energy.

(b) Natural sources:
Volcano and its lava, ash, dust, smoke of forest fire, winds, cyclone. Decomposition of matters in the swamp water and liberation of methane gas and different compounds of hydrogen from forests plants, various pollen grains etc.

Question 9.
Write a note on the effect of water pollution on aquatic organisms.
Answer:
Effect of water pollution on aquatic plants:

1. Inorganic nitrates and phosphates in excess amount stimulates excessive plant growth in lakes and reservoirs. These plants deplete the oxygen contents of the water during night. This leads to suffocation of fish and other aquatic life.

2. The rapid algal growth leads to the diminishing of nutrient in the medium causing rapid decay of algal filament. This increases productivity of lake and stream water brought about by nutrient enrichment is called eutrophication.

3. The number of microorganisms increases in polluted water.

4. Siltation occurs in water.

5. Temperature of water increases and O₂ ratio is reduced.

Effect of water pollution on aquatic animals : Animal life depends on aquatic plants. Aquatic animals are affected from water pollution as follows:

1. Decrease in the value of B.O.D. resulting in the number of aquatic animals.
2. Animals found in freshwater and killed.
3. Animal diversity is also decreased and fishes suffer from various types of diseases.
4. Terrestrial animals are also affected by the use of polluted water.

Question 10.
Write the measures for control and prevention of water pollution.
Answer:
Measures for control and prevention of water pollution are:

Preventive measures:

1. Use of harmful pesticides and weedicides must be stopped completely.
2. Discharge of effluents into rivers, lakes and sea should be strictly prohibited without treatment.
3. Oil spill should be prevented.
4. Proper disposal of sewage so, that it does not find its way into water bodies.
5. Preventing bathing, washing cloths, throwing dead bodies and other wastes into water source.

Curative measures:

1. Adequate waste water treatment:
The domestic sewage and the industrial waste should be properly treated before its disposal into water ways.

Waste water treatment involves three steps :

(a) Primary treatment – During this treatment large objects and suspended undissolved solids are removed and converted into the sludge, a valuable fertilizer.

(b) Secondary treatment – Aeration is supplied to promote bacterial decomposition, followed by chlorination to reduce its content of bacteria.

(c) Tertiary treatment – During this phase nitrates and phosphates are removed. The treated water is then released. Sewage treatment is quite expensive and in many developing countries only the first two steps are followed.

2. Treatment of industrial effluents:
Industrial effluents should be properly treated to remove the pollutants. These involve neutralization of acids and alkalies, removal of harmful chemicals, coagulation of colloidal impurities, precipitation of metallic compounds and reducing the temperature of wastes to decrease thermal pollution. Chemical oxidation can be achieved by chlorination through reaction with ozone. However, there are certain chemicals which are difficult to remove.

3. Recycling:
One of the best methods of prevention and control of water pollution is the recycling of the various kinds of pollutants and wastes, example Dung of cow and buffalo can be used for the production of gobar gas a cheap source of fuel and also as manure.

Question 11.
Write short notes on air pollution caused due to industries.
Answer:
Industrial pollution is caused by industrial pollutants which are released by the industries such as SO₂, CO₂, CO, H₂S and hydrocarbons together with dust and smoke. These are produced by the burning of coal and petroleum. The chemical industries releases HC₁, Cl₂, nitrogen oxide, oxides of copper, zinc, lead, arsenic etc. Industrial pollutants causes air pollution and water pollution.

Question 12.
Write the effects of noise pollution.
Answer:
Effects of Noise pollution:

1. The more acute and immediate effect of noise pollution is impairing of hearing leading to auditory fatigue and may finally lead to. deafness.
2. Interference with speech communication.
3. Noise pollution leads to neurosis, anxiety hypertension, cardiovascular disease, hepatic stress, giddiness.
4. Annoyance leading to ill – temper, bickering, mental disorientation and violent behaviour.
5. The high intensity of noise pollution can cause blood vessels to contract, skin becomes pale, muscles to contract and adrenaline to be short into blood stream with consequence rise in blood pressure. This ultimately results in tension and nervousness.
6. Affects different metabolic activities.

Question 13.
What are the various constituents of domestic sewage? Discuss the effects of sewage discharge on a river.
Answer:
Domestic sewage are the waste originating from the kitchen, toilet, laundry and other sources. They contain impurities such as suspended solid (sand, salt, clay), colloidal materials (faecal matters, bacteria, plastic and cloth fiber), dissolved materials (nitrate, phosphate, calcium, sodium, ammonia) and disease – causing microbes.

When organic wastes from the sewage enter the water bodies, they serve as a food source for microorganisms such as algae and bacteria. As a result, the population of these microorganisms in the water body increases. Here, they utilize most of the dissolved oxygen. for their metabolism. This results in an increase in the levels of BOD in river water and results in the death of aquatic organisms. Also, the nutrients in the water lead to the growth of planktonic algal, causing algal bloom. This causes deterioration of water quality and fish mortality.

Question 14.
List all the wastes that you generate at home, school or during your trips to other places, could you very easily reduce. Which would be difficult or rather impossible to reduce?
Answer:
Wastes generated at home include plastic bags, paper napkin, toiletries, kitchen wastes (such as peelings of vegetables and fruits, tea leaves), domestic sewage, glass, etc. Wastes generated at school include waste paper, plastics, vegetable and fruit peels, food wrapping, sewage, etc.

Wastes generated at trips or picnics include plastic, paper, vegetable and fruit peels, disposable cups, plates, spoons etc. Yes, wastes can be easily reduced by the judicious use of the above materials. Wastage of paper can be minimized by writing on both sides of the paper and by using recycled paper.

Plastic and glass waste can also be reduced by recycling and re-using. Also, substituting plastics bags with biodegradable jute bags can reduce wastes generated at home, school or during trips. Domestic sewage can be reduced by optimizing the use of water while bathing, cooking, and other household activities. Non – biodegradable wastes such as plastic, metal, broken glass, etc. are difficult to decompose because microorganisms do not have the ability to decompose them.

Question 15.
Write preventive measures of sound pollution.
Answer:
Preventive measures of noise pollution:

1. Noise pollution can be controlled by designing quieter machines, proper lubrication and better maintenance of machines. Noise producing parts of machines may be covered by suitable insulating materials.
2. Noise producing industries should be installed away from residential areas.
3. Use of public addressing systems should be restricted at a fixed intensity and hours of the day.
4. Stuffing of cotton plugs in the ear or use of earmuffs and minimise the danger of occupational exposure of noise.
5. Trees absorb sound vibrations and thus, reduce the noise pollution. Thus, plantation of trees along highways, establishment of parks help in reducing noise pollution.
6. By use of silencer in all automobiles and engines.

Question 16.
How many types of pollution are there? Explain in brief.
Answer:
Pollution are of following five types:

1. Air pollution
2. Noise pollution
3. Water pollution
4. Radioactive pollution
5. Soil pollution.

1. Air pollution – Pyrotechnics results in the release of harmful gases like CO₂, CO and SO₂ in the environment which produces various types of diseases in living beings.

2. Noise pollution – Pyrotechnics produces the unwanted sound dumped into the atmosphere leading to health hazards.

3. Water pollution – Pyrotechnics produces some waste materials, on reaching water it causes water pollution.

4. Radioactive pollution – Pollution created due to radioactive substance is called radioactive pollution. Atomic energy centres and bombarding also causes radioactive pollution.

5. Soil pollution – Any change in physical and chemical characteristics of soil due to addition of unwanted substances which adversely affects productivity of soil is termed as soil pollution.

Question 17.
Discuss the role of women and communities in protection and conservation of forests.
Answer:
Women and Communities have played a major role in environmental conservation movements. The Bishnoi community in Rajasthan strictly believes in the concept of living peacefully with nature. In 1731, the King of Jodhpur ordered his ministers to arrange wood for the construction of his new palace. For this purpose, the minister and the workers went to bishnoi village. There, a Bishnoi woman called Amrita Devi along with her daughter and hundreds of other Bishnoi’s showed the courage to step forward and stop them from cutting trees.

They embraced the trees and lost their lives at the hands of soldiers of the king. This resistance by the people of the village forced the king to give up the idea of cutting trees. The Chipko movement was started in 1974, in the Garhwal region of the Himalayas. In this movement, the women from the village stopped the contractors from cutting forest trees by embracing them.

Question 18.
What measures, as an individual you would take to reduce environmental pollution?
Answer:
The following initiatives can be taken to prevent environmental pollution:

Measures for preventing air pollution:

• Planting more trees.
• Use of clean and renewable energy sources such as CNG and Bio – fuels.
• Reducing the use of fossil fuels.
• Use of catalytic converters in automobiles.

Measures for preventing water pollution:

• Optimizing the use of water.
• Using kitchen waste water in gardening and other household purposes measures for controlling noise pollution :
  Avoid burning crackers on Diwali , Plantation of more trees.

Measures for decreasing solid waste generation:

• Segregation of waste.
• Recycling and reuse of plastic and paper.
• Composting of biodegrable kitchen waste.
• Reducing the use of plastics.

Question 19.
What are the causes of air pollution?
Answer:
The causes of air pollution:
The main causes of air pollutions are fossil fuels industries, factories and particulate matter are produced due to combustion of petrol, diesel, kerosene etc. in vehicles, houses and factories which pollute air. In thermal power plants, steel and glass industries, paper and sugar mills etc. combustion of coal and furnace oil produce carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, ash, dust particles and some heavy metals which are released into atmosphere. Similarly various types of chemicals released from cloth mills, cement industries, asbesters industries, pesticides industries etc. also causes air pollution.

Environmental Issues Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the causes and effects of global warming. What measures need to be taken to control global warming?
Answer:
Global warming:
Global warming is defined as an increase in the average temperature of the Earth’s surface due to greenhouse effect.

Causes of global warming:
Global warming occurs as a result of the increased concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. Greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour. These gases trap solar radiation released back by the earth. Global warming is a result of industrialization, burning of fossil fuels, and deforestation.

Effects of global warming:
Global warming is defined as an increase in the average temperature of the Earth’s surface. It has been observed that in the past three decades, the average temperature of the Earth has increased by 0-6°C. As a result, the natural water cycle has been disturbed resulting in changes in the pattern of rainfall. It also changes the amount of rainwater. Also, it results in the melting of polar ice caps and mountain glaciers, which has caused a rise in the sea level, leading to the inundation of coastal regions.

Control measures for preventing global wanning:

• Reducing the use of fossil fuels.
• Use of bio – fuels.
• Improving energy efficiency.
• Use of renewable source of energy such as CNG, etc.
• Reforestation.
• Recycling of materials.

Question 2.
Write critical notes on the following:

1. Eutrophication,
2. Biological magnification,
3. Groundwater depletion and ways for its replenishment.

Answer:
1. Eutrophication:
It is the natural ageing process of lake caused due to nutrient enrichment. It is brought down by the runoff of nutrients such as animal wastes, fertilizers, and sewage from land which leads to an increased fertility of the lake. As a result, it causes a tremendous increase in the primary productivity of the ecosystem. This leads to an increased growth of algae, resulting into algal blooms. Later, the decomposition of theses algae depletes the supply of oxygen, leading to the death of other aquatic animal life.

2. Biological magnification:
The increase in concentration of harmful non – biodegradable substances into higher tropic level is called biological magnification. DDT used to protect the crops reach the soil and are absorbed by plants with water and minerals from the soil. Due to rain, these chemicals can also enter water sources and into the body of aquatic plants and animals.

As a result, chemicals enter the food chain. Since, these chemicals cannot be decomposed, they keep on accumulating at each trophic level. The maximum concentration is accumulated at the top carnivore’s level. The producers (phytoplankton) were found to have 0 04 ppm concentration of DDT.

Since many, types of phytoplankton were eaten by zooplankton (consumers), the concentration of DDT in the bodies of zooplankton was found to be 0.23ppm. Small fish that feed on zooplankton accumulate more DDT in their body. Thus, large fish (top carnivore) that feed on several small fish have the have the highest concentration of DDT.

3. Groundwater depletion and ways for its replenishment:
The level of ground water has decreased in the recent years. The source of water supply is rapidly diminishing each year because of an increase in the population and water pollution. To meet the demand of water, water is withdrawn from water bodies such as ponds, rivers, etc. As a result, the source of groundwater is depleting.

This is because the amount or groundwater being drawn for human use is more than the amount replaced by rainfall. Lack of vegetation cover also results in very small amounts of water seeping through the ground. An increase in water pollution is another factor that has reduced the availability of groundwater.

Measures for replenishing groundwater:

• Preventing over-exploitation of groundwater.
• Optimizing water use and reducing water demand.
• Rainwater harvesting.
• Preventing deforestation and plantation of more trees.

Question 3.
Why ozone hole forms over Antarctica? How will enhanced ultraviolet radiations affect us?
Answer:
The ozone hole is more prominent over the region of Antarctica. It is formed due to an increased concentration of chlorine in the atmosphere. Chlorine is mainly released from Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s) widely used as refrigerants. The CFC’s release chlorine atoms by the action of UV rays on them. The release of chlorine atoms causes the conversion of ozone into molecular oxygen. One atom of chlorine can destroy around 10,000 molecules of ozone and causes ozone depletion.

• CF₂Cl₂ → CF₂Cl + Cl
• Cl + O_{3 →} ClO + O₂
• ClO + O → Cl + O₂

The formation of the ozone hole will result in an increased concentration of UV – B radiation on the Earth’s surface. UV – B damages DNA and activates the process of skin ageing. It also causes skin darkening and skin cancer. High levels of UV – B cause corneal cataract in human beings.

Question 4.
Discuss briefly the following:

1. Radioactive wastes,
2. Defunct ships and e-wastes,
3. Municipal solid wastes.

Answer:
1. Radioactive wastes:
Radioactive wastes are generated during the process of ‘ generating nuclear energy from radioactive materials. Nuclear waste is rich in radioactive materials that generate large quantities of ionizing radiation such as gamma rays. These rays cause mutation in organisms which often results in skin cancer. At high dosage, these rays can be lethal. Safe disposal of radioactive wastes is a big challenge. It is recommended that nuclear wastes should be stored after pre-treatment in suitable shielded containers, which should then be buried in rocks.

2. Defunct ships and e – wastes:
Defunct ships are dead ships that are no longer in use. Such ships are broken down for scrap metal in countries such as India and Pakistan. These ships are a source of various toxicants such as asbestos, lead, mercury etc. Thus, they contribute to solid wastes that are hazardous to health.

E – wastes or electronic wastes generally include electronic goods such as computers, etc. Such wastes are rich in metals such as copper, iron, silicon, gold, etc. These metals are highly toxic and pose serious health hazards. People of developing countries are involved in the recycling process of these metals and therefore, get exposed to toxic substances present in these wastes.

3. Municipal solid wastes:
Municipal solid wastes are generated from schools, offices, homes and stores. It is generally rich in glass, metal, paper waste, food, rubber, leather and textiles. The open dumps of municipal wastes serve as a breeding ground for flies, mosquitoes and other disease causing microbes. Hence, it is necessary to dispose municipal solid waste properly to prevent the spreading of diseases. Sanitary landfills and incineration are the methods for the safe disposal of solid wastes.

Question 5.
What initiatives were taken for reducing vehicular air pollution.in Delhi? Has air quality improved in Delhi?
Answer:
Delhi has been categorized as the fourth most polluted city of the world in a list of 41 cities. Burning of fossil fuels has added to the pollution of air in Delhi. Various steps have been taken to improve the qualify of air in Delhi

Introduction of CNG (Compressed Natural Gas):
By the order of the Supreme Court of India, CNG powered vehicles were introduced at the end of year 2006 to reduce the levels of pollution in Delhi. CNG is a clean fuel that produces very little unbumt particles.

1. Phasing out of old vehicles
2. Use of unleaded petrol.
3. Use of low – sulphur petrol and diesel.
4. Use of catalytic converters.
5. Application of stringent pollution-level norms for vehicles.
6. Implementation of Bharat stage I, which is equivalent to euro II norms in vehicles of major Indian cities.

The introduction of CNG – powered vehicles has improved Delhi’s air quality, which has lead to a substantial fall in the level of CO₂ and SO₂. However, the problem of Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) and Respiratory Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM) still persists.

Question 6.
Discuss briefly the following:

1. Greenhouse gases
2. Catalytic converter
3. Ultraviolet – B

Answer:
1. Greenhouse gases:
The greenhouse effect refers to an overall increases in the average temperature of the earth due to the presence of greenhouse gases. Greenhouse gases mainly consist of carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour. When solar radiations reach the Earth, some of these radiations are absorbed.

These absorbed radiations are released back into the atmosphere. These radiations are trapped by the greenhouse gases present in the atmosphere. This helps in keeping our planet warm and thus, helps in human survival. However an increase in the amount of greenhouse gases can lead to an excessive increase in the Earth’s temperature, thereby causing global warming.

2. Catalytic converter:
Catalytic converters are devices fitted in automobiles to reduce vehicular pollution. These devices contain expensive metals such as platinum, palladium and rhodium that act as catalysts. As the vehicular discharge passes through the catalytic converter, the unbumt hydrocarbons present in it get converted into carbon dioxide and water. Carbon monoxide and nitric oxide released by catalytic converters are converted into carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas (respectively).

3. Ultraviolet – B:
Ultraviolet – B is an electromagnetic radiation which has a shorter wavelength than visible light. It is a harmful radiation that comes from sunlight and penetrates through the ozone hole on to the earth’s surface. It induces many health hazards in humAnswer: UV – B damages DNA and activates the process of skin ageing. It also causes skin darkening and skin cancer. High levels of UV – B cause comeal cataract in human beings.

Question 7.
Describe the diseases caused due to radioactive pollution.
Answer:
Following diseases are caused by radioactive pollution:

1. Leukaemia and Bone cancer – In human beings and other animals, radioactive pollution causes blood and bone cancer.
2. Ageing – The reproductive capacity of organisms is decreased due to radioactive pollution and ultimately causes ageing.
3. Epidemic disease – Radioactive pollution causes the decreased rate of antitoxin production which affects the immune system and results in the production of epidemic diseases.
4. Nervous system and sensory cells become irritated.
5. Radioactive pollution results skin cancer.
6. Mutations also take place due to radioactive pollution.
7. Thyroid cancer is also produced due to radioactive iodine.

Question 8.
Burning of crackers spread pollution in the environment. Explain.
Answer:
Explosive substances are used in crackers. Crackers are burned for celebration but it causes many harms to the living organisms. Some of the harm effects of burning of crackers are as follows:

1. Air pollution – It releases harmful gases such as CO₂, CO, SO₂ etc. into the atmosphere which causes respiratory diseases.

2. Noise pollution – Burning of crackers produces noise which causes noise pollution which effects our hearing capacity, causes headache, increases heartbeat and blood pressure.

3. Water pollution – Waste of burning of crackers are drained into the pond, river with rainwater or through drain which caused harm to aquatic organisms.

4. Soil pollution – Burning of crackers not only produces smoke of harmful gases but its harmful chemicals mixes with soil and pollute it, which makes the soil sterile and reduced growth of plants.

Question 9.
Write an essay on air pollution.
Answer:
Air pollution:
Any change in the composition of air is called pollution. The chief reason of air pollution is the releasing of harmful gas in the environment that affect our eyes, lungs, skins, heart and brain and produce various disorders in them.

Sources of air pollution : Following are the chief sources of air pollution:

1. Human sources:

• Combustion activities
• Industrial activities
• Agricultural works
• Use of solvents
• Activities concerned with atomic energy

2. Natural sources:
Volcano and its lava, ash, dust, smoke of forest fire, winds, cyclone. Decomposition of matters in the swamp water and liberation of methane gas and different compounds of hydrogen from forests plants, various pollen grains etc.

Effects of air pollution:

• Air pollutant like SO₂ enter the soft tissues causing drying of the mouth, scratching throat and smarting eyes.
• Hydrocarbons and many other pollutants are responsible for causing cancer.
• Oxides of carbon, sulphur and nitrogen diffuse into the blood stream to combine with haemoglobin causing reduction in its oxygen carrying capacity. CO severely damages cardiovascular system and disturbs psychometry functions.
• RA.N. inhibits Hill reaction and thus, decreases photosynthetic production of an ecosystem.

Control of air pollution:

• Industrial smokes must be filtered before releasing it into the atmosphere.
• Tree plantation should be increased and deforestation prevented.
• Use of automobiles should be minimized which reduce the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere.
• The use of crude fuels should be avoided and use of high quality fuels should be recommended.
• Nuclear explosions should be avoided.
• Legal control of air pollution.
• Plantation of air purifying plants.
• Development of parks and gardens in cities.

Question 10.
Name the major air pollutants and their individual effects.
Answer:
Major air pollutants and their individual effects are as follows:

1. Carbon monoxide:
|It is highly poisonous gas. On entering blood stream, it combines with haemoglobin to block oxygen transport function. It causes laziness, headache, disturbance of psychometry functions, decrease in visual perception, serious effects on cardiovascular system etc.

2. Sulphur dioxide:
The animals and human population when exposed to SO₂, suffer from respiratory diseases. It causes chest constriction, headache, vomiting and death from respiratory ailments.

3. Hydrogen sulphide:
Its rotten egg like smell cause nausea, irritation in eyes and throat.

4. Nitrogen oxide:
It inhibits cilia action so that soot and dust penetrate far into the lungs and finally resulting respiratory diseases in human beings and animals. In plants, it causing chlorosis.

5. Aerosoles:
These are the chemicals affecting ozone layer of the atmosphere due to which UV rays enter in the atmosphere and causing various diseases in plants and animals.

6. Ammonia:
It inflame upper respiratory passage in human beings. In plants, it inhibits seed germination, destruction of chloroplast and inhibition of the growth of roots and shoots.

7. Hydrogen chloride:
It affects the leaves of the plants, eyes, respiratory organs of animals and human beings.

8. Hydrocarbons:
It causes yellowing of plants, drying of buds, whereas in man and other animals, mucous glands of eyes and nose are irritated.

Question 11.
Write down the methods to control soil pollution.
Answer:
Methods to control soil pollution:
By following methods soil pollution can be prevented:

1. Government should make provisions for latrines and people should not be allowed to litter in open fields.
2. Solid wastes such as tin, copper, iron, glass etc., should not be dumped into soil.
3. The solid wastes should be recycled to form new materials.
4. Fertilizers and pesticides should be judiciously used.
5. Instead of pesticides to kill pests, biological control methods should be adopted.
6. The,excretory waste of man and cattle should be used to prepare biogas.
7. Clean and well covered dustbins should be used in villages and cities.
8. Closed hollow pipes should be used to collect and discharge liquid wastes.
9. To prevent soil erosion, grass and small plants should be grown.
10. Soil management should be adopted.

Question 12.
What are the sources of soil pollution?
Answer:
Sources of soil pollution:

1. Acid rainwater and water from mines are main sources of soil pollution.
2. Mixing of debris, waste products with the soil cause soil pollution.
3. By excessive use of pesticides and fertilizers, pollute the soil.
4. When industrial wastes are discharged in the soil, they also pollute the soil.
5. Heavy metals example Cadmium, Zinc, Nickel, Arsenic etc., are mixed with the soil from mines. These metals are harmful for plants as well as primary and secondary consumers, in a food chain.
6. Bones of dead animals, paper putrified flesh and food, iron, copper, mercury etc., pollute the soil.
7. In our villages and rural areas, where there are no latrines, people go in fields for being at ease. From their stool also the soil is polluted.
8. Insecticides like D.D.T. is very dangerous substance. When these enter the body of consumers from producers, their concentration is increased because these are non – degradable substances. Moreover, these can remain in the atmosphere for upto 15 years.

Question 13.
What is visible spectrum? Write short note on spectrum of solar light and also write effect of UV rays on the living organisms.
Answer:
The visible spectrum is the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human eye. Electromagnetic radiation in this range of wavelength is called visible light or simply light. It ranges from 390 nm to 760 nm wavelength.

Different spectrum of sunlight (solar light):
Spectrum of sunlight can be divided into three parts :

1. Ultraviolet spectrum – The UV spectrum covers the wavelength range 100 – 390 nm and is divided into three bands. It is invisible.
2. Visible spectrum – It include light of ranges from 390 to 760 nm wavelength.
3. Infrared spectrum – Light ranges 760 nm above is called as infrared ray. It is also invisible.

Effect of UV rays in the living organisms:

1. It make DNA abnormal thus, protein sythesis in the body get effected.
2. It may cause skin cancer.
3. It supress immune system of the body.
4. It causes sunburn and premature ageing of skin.
5. It causes formation of harmful photochemical smog which causes respiratory diseases.
6. It damage eyes.

Question 14.
Explain non – ionising and ionising radiation.
Answer:
Types of radiations on the basis of their action on cells, radiations are of two types :

1. Non – ionising radiations:
These include ultraviolet rays (UV rays; 100-300 nm), these have low penetration capacity. These affect only ‘those cells which absorb them. The cause are as following :

• Sunburn – It includes rupturing of sub – cutaneous blood capillaries, blisters, reddening of skin and injury to stratum germinativum.
• Snow blindness – It damages eyesight due to damage of corneal cells.
• Inactivation of organic bio-molecules and formation of thymin dimer in DNA.
• However they cause cancer, tumor, skin disease, etc.

2. Ionizing radiations :
These include X – rays, cosmic rays and atomic radiations.

These radiations have low wavelengths but high penetration power. These damage the living cells shifting the electron from one to other bio – molecule. Their harmful effects are as follows:

1. Short range effects : These may appear within few days or a few weeks after exposure. The effects include loss of hair, nails, subcutaneous bleeding, metabolic changes, change in proportion of blood cells, dead tissues or death of the organisms in high dose.

2. Long range effects : These appear in several months or even several years after their exposure. These cause tumours, cancers, mutations, genetic deformities, shorter life span and developmental defects.

Question 15.
What are sources of noise pollution? Write any four effects of noise pollution.
Answer:
Sources of noise pollution:
Noise is either natural such as thunder or man – made. The common sources of noise pollution are :

1. Industries such as textile mills, printing-press, engineering establishments, etc.
2. Defence equipment and vehicles such as tanks, artillery and rocket launching explosions, practise firing, etc.
3. Transport vehicles as trains, trucks, buses, two – wheelers, jet planes, etc. and accessory noise produced by horns, sirens.
4. Other applications as dynamite blasting, use of jack hammers, pile drivers, bulldozer, lawn mowers, etc.

Effects of noise pollution:

1. The more acute and immediate effect of noise pollution is impairing of hearing leading to auditory fatigue and may finally lead to deafness.
2. Interference with speech communication.
3. Noise pollution leads to neurosis, anxiety, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, hepatic stress, giddiness.
4. Annoyance leading to ill – temper, bickering, mental disorientation and violent behaviour.
5. The high intensity of noise pollution can cause blood vessels to contract, skin becomes pale, muscles to contract and adrenaline to be shot into blood stream with consequence rise in blood pressure. This ultimately results in tension and nervousness.
6. Affects different metabolic activities.

Question 16.
What is Greenhouse effect? Write any four impacts of Greenhouse effect
Answer:
Greenhouse effect:
The Greenhouse effect may therefore, be defined as “The progressive warming up of the earth’s surface due to blanketting effect of man – made CO₂ in the atmosphere. It means the excessive presence of those gases blocked in the infrared radiation from earth’s surface to the atmosphere leading to an increase in temperature, which in turn would make life difficult on earth to forthcoming future generations.

Four impacts of Greenhouse effects are :

1. Effect on global climate:
The climate of earth has never been free of change. Its composition, temperature and self – cleansing ability have all varied since, the planet first formed. Yet the pace in the past two countries has been remarkable. The atmosphere’s composition in particular has changed significantly faster than it has at any time in human history.

Increase in Greenhouse gases does not increase the temperature of the earth i. e., it is not uniform. Temperature is normal at poles and is very less at tropics. In Iceland, Greenland, Sweden, Norway, Finland, Alaska, Siberia, temperature is more, thus at poles, ice starts melting.

2. Effect of Greenhouse Effect on forests:
When the atmospheric temperature increases, only those plants can survive which can bear high temperature. Because of this, new species of plant also come into existence, Herbaceous plant can not survive in this high temperature. Plants with high wood will increase in number. According to a survey if the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere is doubled, there will be a great decrease in a green biomass.

3. Effect on crops:
The positive aspect of greenhouse effect will be on agriculture. Because, CO₂ is a natural fertilizer, the plants will grow larger and faster with increasing CO₂ in the atmosphere. At first sight, the abnormal growth of plants might be expected to be beneficial because the yields of major crops might increase, however chances of depletion of characters and productivity of soil are also associated with this.

4. Effect on ozone layer:
During depletion, the chlorine, fluorine, or bromine molecules of CFCs and halogens are converted into reactive free radical form by photochemical reactions from their intial non – reactive sites. Oxides of nitrogen generally inactivate Cl but the lowering of stratospheric temperature changes NO₂ into non – reactive nitric acid. Thus, Cl or F are free to react with ozone, distintegrating it into O₂ + O. The tiny ice particles during winter favours the conversion of chlorine into chlorine monoxide, which behaves as a catalytic compound. The abundance of chloromonoxide rich air in stratosphere continues to rise. Chlorine monoxide react with nascent oxygen and thereby gets converted into chlorine. Thus, the cycle continues destroying the ozone level.

MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation

Biodiversity and Conservation Important Questions

Biodiversity and Conservation Objective Type Questions 

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tera biodiversity is used for the first time by :
(a) V. G. Rosseu
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Odum
(d) Theophrastus.
Answer:
(a) V. G. Rosseu

Question 2.
When does wild life conservation Act come in the force in India :
(a) 1883
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1972
Answer:
(b) 1972

Question 3.
When does IBWL is started :
(a) 1952
(b) 1981
(c) 1973
(d) 1972
Answer:
(a) 1952

Question 4.
Where is NBPR is situated :
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Lucknow
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(a) Delhi

Question 5.
The number of biosphere reserves in India is :
(a) 73
(b) 7
(c) 416
(d) 23
Answer:
(b) 7

Question 6.
Which National Park is associated with white tiger:
(a) Kanger
(b) Satpura
(c) Bandhavgarh
(d) Kanha
Answer:
(c) Bandhavgarh

Question 7.
First National Park of M. P. is :
(a) Shivpuri
(b) Bandhavgarh
(c) Kanha
(d) Kanger
Answer:
(c) Kanha

Question 8.
Where is “Plant Fossil” National Park is situated:
(a) Shivpuri
(b) Mandala
(c) Bastar
(d) Bhopal
Answer:
(b) Mandala

Question 9.
The National Park of M.P. which is marked as biosphere reserve is :
(a) Kanha
(b) Shivpuri
(c) Bandhavgarh
(d) Satpura.
Answer:
(b) Shivpuri

Question 10.
First Tiger Project of M.P. is :
(a) Bandhavgarh
(b) Kanha
(c) Sidhi
(d) Shivpuri.
Answer:
(b) Kanha

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. FRI is situated is …………………….
2. Kanjiranga sanctuary is associated with the conservation of …………………….
3. Red data book is related with the ……………………. conservation.
4.  ……………………. is the fust biosphere reserve of India.
5. List of the endangered species are available in ……………………. data book.
6.  ……………………. is the important componant of air for life.
7. Mineral is the example of ……………………. sources.
8. ……………………. percent part of the earth has water.
9. Biodiversity is the source of different types of …………………….
10. Species for which there are no living representative is called …………………….
11. Farming which is develop in fresh water is called …………………….
12. Botanical garden is an ……………………. method of plant conservation.
13. ……………………. conservation is the on site conservation.
14. ……………………. percent part of the mangrove plant are found in India.
15. Gir national park in India is famous for …………………….

Answer:

1. Dehradun
2. Rhinoceros
3. Endangered species
4. Nilgiri
5. Red
6. Oxygen
7. Non – renewable
8. 71
9. Germplasm
10. Extinct
11. Aquatic culture
12. Ex – situ
13. In – situ
14. 5
15. Asiatic lion.

Question 3.
Match the followings:
I.

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)

II.

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (c)

Question 4.
Write the answer in one word/sentences:

1. Where does Kanha National Park situated?
2. From which person Chipko movement is associated?
3. When does Wild life Conservation Act is emenced in force?
4. How many percent contribution of India is in world’s biodiversity?
5. How many species are found in India?
6. Which are known as the lungs of the earth?
7. How many national park in India?
8. How many wild 1 ife sanctuary in India?
9. What is the basic component of biodiversity?
10. Write the full name of IUCN.
11. Which are most helpful in nature balancing?
12. How many species of bamboo found in India?
13. Name any one book associated with the conservation of wild life.
14. Upper surface of the land is called.

Answer:

1. M.P
2. Sunder Lai Bahuguna
3. 1972
4. 8.1%
5. 1200 species
6. Amazon – rain forest
7. 90
8. 448
9. Gene
10. International Union for conservation of nature and natural resourses
11. Wild animal
12. 100 (about)
13. Red data book
14. Soil.

Biodiversity and Conservation Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the three important components of biodiversity.
Answer:
Three important components of biodiversity are:

1. Genetic diversity.
2. Species diversity.
3. Ecosystem diversity.

Question 2.
What is forest?
Answer:
A large area of land covered with trees, shrubs and grasses.

Question 3.
As which day 21st March is observed?
Answer:
21st March is observed as “World Forest Day”.

Question 4.
What are extinct species?
Answer:
Species which are not found at present in the earth but survived in the past in this world are called as extinct species.
Example : Dinosaur.

Question 5.
What are mentioned in the Red Data Book of IUCN?
Answer:
The IUCN Red Data Book contains list of threatened species. It was founded in 1964. Correction was done in 2004.

Biodiversity and Conservation Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do ecologists estimate the total number of species present in the world?
Answer:
The diversity of living organisms present on the earth is very vast.According to an estimate by researchers, it is about seven millions. The total number of species present in the world is calculated by ecologists by statistical comparison between a species richness of a well studied group of insects of temperate and tropical regions. Then, these ratios are extrapolated with other groups of plants and animals to calculate the total species richness present on the earth.

Question 2.
The species diversity of plants (22 %) is much less than that of animals (72 %). What may be the reason that animals achieved greater diversifications?
Answer:
Animals have achieved greater diversification than plants due to following reasons:

1. They are mobile and thus, can move away from their predators or unfavourable, environments. On the other hand plants are fixed and have fewer adaptations to obtain optimum amount of raw materials and sunlight therefore, they show lesser diversity.

2. Animals have well developed nervous system to receive stimuli against external factors and thus, can respond to them. On the other hand, plants do not exhibit any such mechanism, thus they show lesser diversity than animals.

Question 3.
Can you think of a situation where we deliberately want to make a species extinct? How would you justify it?
Answer:
Yes, there are various kinds of parasites and disease causing microbes that we deliberately want to eradicate from the earth. Since, these microorganisms are harmful to human beings, scientists are working hard to fight against them. Scientists have been able to eliminate smallpox virus from the world through the use of vaccinations. This shows that humans deliberately want to make these species extinct. Several other eradication programmes such as polio and hepatitis B vaccinations are aimed to eliminate these disease causing microbes.

Question 4.
Explain conservation of biodiversity.
Answer:
Conservation of biodiversity:
India is one of the richest (among the 12 mega centres of the world) countries in biological diversity. This rich biodiversity is due to a variety of climatic conditions prevailing on different ecological habits ranging from tropical, subtropical, temperate, alpine to desert. These varied conditions harbour a plethora of organisms, which forms an important natures wealth, responsible for socio – economic development of life in our country. But the biodiversity of organisms are under serious threat and there is an urgent need for biodiversity conservation on war foot level.

Question 5.
What is social forestry?
Answer:
The planning of social forestry started in India since 1976, which is related with the conservation of forests. This project ;s useful for local people in various ways, such as it fulfil their requirements, provides work to unemployed, use of wasteland and help to maintain O₂ and CO₂ balance in the atmosphere, etc. Thus, project is started by Indian government, the chief objectives of this project are as follows:

1. Plantation of useful plants in the forest.
2. Development of forests on personal lands by the cooperation of government.
3. To prevent the harmful effects of pollution by development of artificial forest.
4. Preservation of endangered wild animals.

Question 6.
Write importance of forests.
Answer:
Importance of forests:

1. Forests play a vital role in the life and economy of all tribes living in forests, by providing food, medicines and other products of commercial value.

2. Forests are large biotic communities. It provides shelter and sustenance to a larger number of diverse species of plants, animals and microorganisms.

3. Forests prevent soil erosion by wind and water. The trees provide shade which prevents the soil from drying during summer. Trees reduce the velocity of raindrops or wind striking the ground so that dislodging of the slil partiles is reduces. The root system of plants firmly binds the soil.

Question 7.
Write any five features of Indian forests.
Answer:
Indian forests are characterized by:

1. Indian forests are mainly tropical forests.
2. Himalayan forests are characterized by the presence of coniferous trees.
3. In few parts of our country having temperate forests.
4. Our forests contain a large number of useful varieties of plants and animals.
5. A great variations are present in Indian forests.

Question 8.
Enumerate any five reasons for the destruction of wildlife (animals).
Answer:
The main reason of destruction of wildlife (animals) are:

1. Entertainment, personal profit, earning money by wrong methods are the human illattitudes, unkindness toward wild animals has brought the animals at endanger level.
2. Huge reduction in the natural habitat of wild animal so it has reduced their living area due to urbanization, industrialization and deforestation.
3. Exhorbitant extraction and consumption is harmful for wild animals like skin of animals, Teeth of elephant etc.
4. Various types of pollution has force the reduction of wild animals.
5. Very loose and unpunishable wildlife act which has increase poaching, hunting of wild animals.

Question 9.
How is biodiversity important for functioning of ecosystem?
Answer:
An ecosystem with high species diversity is much more stable than an ecosystem with low species diversity. Also, high biodiversity makes the ecosystem more stable in productivity and more resistant towards disturbances such as alien species invasions and floods. If an ecosystem is rich in biodiversity, then the ecological balance would not get affected.

Various tropic levels are connected through food chains. If any one organism or all organisms of any one trophic level is illed, then it will disrupt the entire food chain. For example, in a food chain, if all plants are killed, then all deer’s will die due to the lack of food. If all deer’s are dead, soon the tigers will also die.

Therefore, it can be concluded that if an ecosystem is rich in species, then there will be other food alternatives at each trophic level which would not allow any organism to die due to the absence of their food resource. Hence, biodiversity plays an important role in maintaining the health and ecological balance of an ecosystem.

Question 10.
What are sacred groves? What is their role in conservation?
Answer:
Sacred groves are forest patches for worship in several parts of India. All the trees and wildlife in them are again treated and given total protection. They are found in khasiandjointia hills in Meghalaya. Western Ghat regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra, etc. Tribals do not allow anyone to cut even a single branch of tree in these sacred groves thus, sacred groves have been free form all types of exploitations.

Question 11.
Among the ecosystem services are control of floods and soil erosion, how is this achieved by the biotic components of the ecosystem?
Answer:
Control of soil erosion:
Plant roots hold the soil particles tightly and do not allow the top soil to be drifted away be winds or moving water. Plants increase the porosity and fertility of the soil.

Control of floods:
It is carried out by retaining water and preventing run off rain water. Litter and humus of plants function as sponges thus, retaining the water which percolates down and get stored as underground water. Hence, the flood is controlled.

Question 12.
Give three hypothesis for explaining why tropics show greatest levels of species richness.
Answer:
There are three different hypothesis proposed by scientists for explaining species richness in the tropics:

1. Tropical latitudes receive more solar energy than temperate regions, which leads to high productivity and high species diversity.
2. Tropical regions have less seasonal variations and have a more or less constant environment. This promotes the niche specialization and thus, high species richness.
3. Temperate regions were subjected to glaciations during the ice age, while tropical regions remained undisturbed which led to an increase in the species diversity in this region.

Biodiversity and Conservation Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the significance of the slope of regression in a species – area relationship?
Answer:
The slope regression (z) has a great significance in order to find a species – area relationship. It has been found that in smaller areas (where the species-area relationship is analyzed), the value of slopes of regression is similar regardless of the taxonomic group or the region. However, when a similar analysis done in larger areas, then the slope of regression is much steeper.

Question 2.
What are the major causes of species loss in a geographical regions?
Answer:
The following are the major causes for the loss of biodiversity around the world:

1. Habitat loss and fragmentation:
Habitats of various organisms are altered or destroyed by uncontrolled and unsustainable human activities such as deforestation, slash and burn agriculture, mining, and urbanization. This results in the breaking up of the habitat into small pieces, which effects the movement of migratory animals and also, decreases the genetic exchange between populations leading to a declination of species.

2. Over – exploitation:
Due to over – hunting and over – exploitation of various plants and animals by humans, many species have become endangered of extinct (such as; the tiger and the passenger pigeon).

3. Alien species invasions:
Accidental or intentional introduction of non-native species into a habitat has also led to the declination or extinction of indigenous species. For example, the Nile perch introduced in Lake Victoria in Kenya led to the extinction of more than two hundred species of native fish in the lake.

4. Co – extinction:
In a native habitat, one species is connected to the other in an intricate network. The extinction of one species causes the extinction of other species, which is associated with it in an obligatory way. For example, the extinction of the host will cause the extinction of its parasites.

Question 3.
What do you understand by Threatened species? Explain its types.
Answer:
Species which have been greatly reduced in their number or whose natural habitats have been, disturbed due to which these are near extinction and may become extinct if the causative factors continue are called threatened species. It is estimated that about 25,000 plant species and 1,000 vertebrate species and subspecies and many invertebrate species are threatened with extinction. It is believed that at least 10% of the living species are in danger.

The organisms which are near extinction are of following types:

1. Endangered (E) species:
The species which are facing danger of extinction and whose survival is unlikely if the causal factors continue to operate. These are the species whose number have been reduced to a critical level or whose habitats have been so drastically reduced that they are deemed Lto be in immediate danger of extinction. For example, Indian rhinoceros, Asiatic lion and the great Indian bustard, snow leopard etc.

2. Vulnerable (V) species:
These are the species having sufficient number of individuals in their natural habitats. However, in the near future, they might represent the category of endangered species if unfavourable factors in the environment continue to operate, e.g., Musk deer, black buck, golden langur, etc.

3. Rare (R) species:
These are species with small population in the world. At present these are not endangered and vulnerable but are at risk. These species are usually localize within geographical areas or habitats or are thinly scattered over a more extensive range, e.g., Indian elephant, Asiatic wild ass, gharial, wild yak etc.

4. Threatened (T) species:
The species which do not fall under the endangered or vulnerable categories but indications are available that such species may come under any of these two categories if appropriate measures are not taken to protect them.

Question 4.
What are National Parks? Explain any five National Parks found in India.
Answer:
National Park:
Natinal park is an area which is strictly reserved for the betterment of the wildlife and where activities like forestry, grazing or cultivation are not permitted.

Five national parks of India are:

1. Shivpuri national park – It is located at Shivpuri near Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh). Wildlife present in this park tiger, cheetal, sambhar.
2. Guindy deer national park – It is located near Chennai (Madras) in Tamil Nadu. Wildlife found here ore Alvino deer, black buck, cheetal and famous snake park.
3. Betla national park – It is located in Palamu at Bihar. Wildlife found in this national park are elephant, tiger.
4. Dachigham national park – It is located at Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir. Wildlife leopard, black beer, brown bear, musk deer, hangul, scrow, etc.
5. Bandhavgarh national park – It is located at Shahdol in Madhya Pradesh. Wildlife such as white tiger, panther, cheetal, bison, nilgai, barking deer, wild boar, etc. are found here.

Question 5.
Write in brief, the reasons necessary for conservation of wild species.
Answer:
Necessity for wildlife conservation : The conservation of wildlife is required for the following reasons :

1. To maintain balance in nature:
The wildlife helps us in maintaining the balance of nature. Once this equilibrium is disturbed it leads to many problems. The destruction of carnivores or insectivores often leads to an increase in the herbivores which in turn affects the forest vegetation or crop.

2. Economic value:
The wildlife can be used commercially to earn money example Animal products like hides, ivory, fur etc. are of tremendous economic value. The collection and supply of dead or living specimens of wildlife for museums and zoos fetches good amount of money. Wildlife can increase our earning of foreign exchange if tourism is promoted properly.

3. Scientific value:
The preservation of wildlife helps many naturalists and behaviour biologists to study morphology, anatomy, physiology, ecology and behaviour biology of the wild animals under their natural surroundings.

4. Recreational value:
The wildlife of any country provides best means of sports and recreation. Bird – watching is a hobby of many people all over the world. A visit to the parks and sanctuaries is an enjoyable proposition for children as well as for adults.

5. Cultural value:
The wildlife of India is our cultural asset and has deep rooted impact on Indian art, sculpture, literature and religion. Indus valley civilization shows the use of animals symbols in their seals.

6. Preservation of human race:
The destruction of wildlife in an area may eventually lead to the end of human civilization.

Question 6.
Describe the National and International efforts prescribed for the conservation of forests.
Answer:
The forest conservation is started in India on national level since British government. In 1856, Lord Dalhousi had formulated a policy for the conservation of forest in Burma. In 1894, Indian government also prepared a forest policy on national level. The main points of this policy are:

1. Forest management
2. Proper use of forest land
3. Polity for, protected forests
4. Improved forest production

Indian government established national parks, sanctuaries and zoological parks, The F.A.O. of United Nations is also functioning on forest conservation on international level. This organization also provides financial help for this purpose. In 1952, Indian government also prepared India’s New National Forest Policy under the direction of F.A.O. Forest policy has been planned for :

1. Prevention of deforestation of hill plants.
2. Reforestation of grazing land.
3. Development of grazing land.
4. Plantation of economically useful forest trees.
5. Increase in the profit of government from forests.

Question 7.
Write a short note on wild animals in India.
Answer:
India as a country has a diverse range of wildlife. India is home for many species of wild animals. More than 25% land are dense forest in India and around 400 national parks. Some of the most important and popular wild animals in India are as follows:

(A)
Animals : In Indian forest, below mentioned animals are found:

1. Deer – Its many species are found in India example Musdeer, Sambhar deer, chital, etc.

2. Antelope – These are same as deer example Nilgai, Barasingha (Swamp deer), four homed antelope (Chousingha) etc.

3. Elephant – Elephants are large mammals of the family elephantidae. It is found in Kerela and North India.

4. Rhinoceros – It is found in Himalaya region and in the forest of Bengal and Assam. Humans are the biggest threat to the Indian rhinoceros as the have been hunted to the brink of extinction for their horns.

5. Wild Ass – Wild asses are not found in any part of the world. Now in India, it is found in the little Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat state of India.

6. Carnivorous animals – Some Indian wild carnivores are:

• Indian lion (Asiatic lion) : Now it is confined to forests in the fall.
• Cheetah : It is on the verge of extinction.
• Lion : Lion is a national animal, at present its population in our country are more than 3,000.
• Leopard : It is similar to cheetah but smaller than cheetah.

(B)
Birds:
Peacock, wild fowl, many types of duck, stork, pigeons, partridge, quail, vulture, kite, piquant, owl, indian paradise flycatcher (dudhraj) are found in forests of our country.

(C)
Reptiles:
Crocodiles, alligators, tortoise, lizards, snakes and other reptilians are found in Indian forest. Many vertebrates and invertebrates are also found in Indian forest.

Question 8.
What are the main rules of Indian forest act?
Answer:
The Indian Forest Act, 1927 was largely based on previous Indian forest acts implemented under the British. Things which are included in this act are as follows:

1. Forest arrangement – Due to this Act, give the protection and arrangement to forest and Midlife.
2. Appropriate use of forest land – Uses of extra land for forest animals and grow some plant these are useful in wild animals.
3. Act for protection of forest – This act, stop passion of deforestation and must be conservation of forest and wild animals.
4. Increasing of forest product – Due to this act try to increasing of forest product and discovered new information which are better for wildlife.

Question 9.
Write an essay on measures of forest conservation.
Answer:
Forest conservation:
Forest conservation and management are essential to maintain the forests in their natural state and also to prevent the depletion of wildlife and forest wealth. For the success of conservation it is necessary to know the cause of depletion and destruction of forests. Forests are generally destroyed by fire, improper cutting of trees and by animals.

Essentiality of forest conservation:
Forest is a complex system which is responsible for the ecological balance in nature. Deforestation causing natural imbalance and affects the biotic components of the environment resulting floods, drought, epidemics, environmental pollution. Many ecologically important species of plants and animals are lost due to which economically important substance like wood, medicines, resin, lac and various food materials will not be available for us.

Measures of forest conservation : The following measures or efforts are prescribed for reforestation:

1. Establishment of conserved forests and their conservation in proper way.
2. Reforestation on deforested land. Old and damaged plants would be replaced by new plants.
3. Proper management of forests.
4. By promoting public awareness about forests.
5. Replacement of burnt off areas of the forests.
6. Plantation of trees that increase forest productivity.
7. Forestation of plants on hills and wastelands and prevention of grazing by cattle.
8. Prevent forests from fire, diseases and insects.
9. Providing basic protection for all forests by law.
10. Regulating human activity in the forest such as grazing by cattle and collection of firewood and fodder etc.
11. Provide special attention for the conservation of endangered plant and animal species under the inspection of specialists.
12. Removal of undesirable trees and vegetation for the better growth of desirable species.
13. Forestation of industrially useful plants.
14. The government will arrange the management of useful forests.

MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Thermodynamics Important Questions

Thermodynamics Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas always:
(a) Increase in temperature
(b) ∆H = 0
(c) q = 0
(d) W = 0
Answer:
(c) q = 0

Question 2.
For a reversible process, free energy change at equilibrium:
(a) More than zero
(b) Less than zero
(c) Equal to zero
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Equal to zero

Question 3.
In isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:
(a) 9 = 0
(b) AE = 0
(c) W = 0
(d) dV = Q
Answer:
(b) AE = 0

Question 4.
Hess’s law is an application of the following:
(a) First law of Thermodynamics
(b) Second law of Thermodynamics
(c) Entropy change
(d) Free energy change.
Answer:
(a) First law of Thermodynamics

Question 5.
When the value of heat of neutralization of an acid with a base is 13.7 kcal, then:
(a) Acid and base both are weak
(b) Acid and base both are strong
(c) Acid is strong and base is weak
(d) Acid is weak and base is strong
Answer:
(b) Acid and base both are strong

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Enthalpy is an …………………….. property.
2. Nicely closed thermos flask is an example of an ……………………….
3. Value of heat of combustion (∆H) is always ………………………..
4. Extensive property depend on the ………………………. of matter.
5. Value of heat of neutralization is always …………………………. kilocalorie.

Answer:

1. Extensive
2. Isolation
3. Negative
4. Amount
5. – 13.7

Question 3.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. Tell the value of heat of neutralization of strong acid and strong base?
2. Give two examples of state function?
3. What is entropy?
4. Among NaCl, H₂O_(s) and NH_3(g) value of whose entropy is higher?
5. Expect the system, what is the remaining part of the universe called?
6. System in which changes occur spontaneously and by which entropy of the system increases, what are they called?
7. What is the type of heat of combustion?

Answer:

1. – 57 kJ
2. Enthalpy, Entropy
3. Measure of disorder
4. NH₃
5. Surroundings
6. Spontaneous process
7. Exothermic.

Thermodynamics Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples of state function?
Answer:
Enthalpy and Entropy.

Question 2.
Whose entropy is greater among NaCl, H₂O_(s) and NH_3(g)?
Answer:
NH_3(g).

Question 3.
Who gave the equation ∆G = ∆H – T∆S?
Answer:
Gibbs – Helmholtz.

Question 4.
Write the equation of first law of thermodynamics?
Answer:
∆E = q + W.

Question 5.
What is the value of entropy when ice melts?
Answer:
Entropy increases.

Question 6.
What is Closed system?
Answer:
System which can exchange energy only and not matter with the surroundings.

Question 7.
The value of which enthalpy is always negative?
Answer:
Enthalpy of combustion.

Question 8.
Heat of neutralization of strong acid and strong base is equal to?
Answer:
-13.7 kcal or -57.1 kJ.

Question 9.
What is Adiabatic process?
Answer:
A process in which no exchange of heat between system and surroundings occur is known as adiabatic process.

Question 10.
What is Enthalpy?
Answer:
Heat change at constant pressure is known as enthalpy.

Question 11.
The process in which pressure remains constant is called?
Answer:
Isobaric process.

Question 12.
In Exothermic reaction the value of ∆H is?
Answer:
Negative.

Question 13.
Unit of specific heat capacity is?
Answer:
joule per kelvin per gm.

Question 14.
The relation between ∆G, ∆S and ∆H is given by?
Answer:
∆G = ∆H – T∆S.

Question 15.
Which type of property is heat capacity?
Answer:
Extensive property.

Question 16.
What type of properties are temperature, pressure and surface tension?
Answer:
Intensive property.

Question 17.
What is the unit of molar heat capacity?
Answer:
joule kelvin^-1 mol^-1.

Question 18.
For which process dq = 0?
Answer:
Adiabatic process.

Question 19.
The efficiency of any fuel is measured by which value?
Answer:
Calorific value.

Question 20.
What is entropy?
Answer:
The measurement of degree of disorder or randomness of the molecule of the system.

Question 21.
Write the relation between standard free energy change ∆G° and equilibrium constant (K)?
Answer:
∆G° = -RTlnK.

Question 22.
What is the value of ∆G for Spontaneous process?
Answer:
∆G < 0.

Question 23.
“The electricity obtained from an electrochemical ceil is equivalent to decrease in free energy”. Write expression for this sentence?
Answer:
∆G° = -nE°F.

Thermodynamics Short Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
What is System?
Answer:
System:
A specified portion of the universe which is selected for experimental or theoretical investigations is called the system. (MPBoardSolutions.com) In the system, the effects of certain properties such as pressure, temperature, etc. are observed. A system is said to be homogeneous if it consists of only one phase. On the other hand, it is heterogeneous if it consists of more than one phase.

Question 2.
What is process and what are its kinds?
Answer:
The operation which brings about change in the state of a system is called a thermodynamics process.
Thermodynamics process may be further classified as follows:

1. Isothermal process
2. Adiabatic process
3. Isobaric process
4. Isochoric process
5. Reversible process
6. Irreversible process
7. Cyclic process.

Question 3.
Explain Exothermic reaction with example?
Or, Explain why the value of enthalpy change negative for exothermic reaction?
Answer:
The reactions in which heat is emitted are called exothermic reactions. In such reactions total heat content of products is less than that of reactants. Hence, ∆H is negative.
Example: 2NO_(g) → N_2(g) + O_2(g); ∆H = – 180.5 kJ/mol.

Question 4.
Explain extensive and intensive properties?
Answer:
1. Intensive properties:
The properties of the system which are independent of the amount of matter present in it, are called intensive properties.
Example: Temperature, viscosity, surface tension, refractive index, specific heat, density, etc.

2. Extensive properties:
The properties of the system which depend upon the amount of matter present in it, are called extensive properties.
Example: Mass, volume, energy, etc.

Question 5.
State and Explain Zeroth law of Thermodynamics?
Answer:
According to this law, “Two bodies which are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third body are also in thermal equilibrium with each other”.

Question 6.
Explain Enthalpy of neutralization with example?
Answer:
The enthalpy of neutralization is defined as:
“Change in enthalpy when one gram equivalent of an acid is neutralized with one gram equivalent of base in dilute solution at constant temperature.
Example: NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) ⇄  NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l); ∆H =- 57.1 kJ

Question 7.
The enthalpy of neutralization of weak acid and weak base is less than enthalpy of neutralisation of strong acid and base. Why?
Answer:
If either acid or base weak then its ionisation in solution remains incomplete. As a result a part of energy liberated during combination of H+ and OH” ion is used up for the ionisation of weak acid and weak base. Therefore, the value of enthalpy of neutralisation of weak acid with strong base or vice – versa is numerically less than – 57.1 kJ.

Question 8.
What is Bond enthalpy and bond dissociation energy?
Answer:
It is a well known fact that during the formation of a chemical bond, energy is required. Therefore the breaking of a bond energy is to be supplied. Thus, the energy required to break a particular bond in a gaseous molecule is called bond dissociation energy.
Example: 2HCl_(g) → H_2(g) + Cl_2(g)

Question 9.
What is the first law of thermodynamics? Write its mathematical form?
Or, Write the first law of thermodynamics and derive the mathematical expression of it?
Answer:
First law of thermodynamics is the law of conservation of energy .The common statement of this law is:
“Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but it can be converted from one form to another form.” Let internal energy of the system is E₁ and q calorie heat is supplied to the system. E₂ is the energy of the final stage and work done is W. Therefore,
E₂ – E₁ = q + W
or ∆E = q + W.

Question 10.
Define the term Entropy?
Answer:
A change that brings about disorder or randomness is more likely to occur than one that brings about order. To account for the randomness or disorder of a system a state function called entropy was introduced. It is (MPBoardSolutions.com) defined as the measure of degree of disorder or randomness of the molecule of the system. Entropy is represented by symbol S. It is easier to define entropy change than entropy of a system.

Question 11.
Whose entropy is more: Water vapour, water or ice, why?
Answer:
Entropy is the measure of randomness. In solid state the molecules are completely arranged, therefore its entropy is minimum and in gas the molecules move randomly in all directions, so the value of entropy is more. So
S_(ice) < S_(water) < S_{(water vapour)}.

Question 12.
Among NaCl, H₂O and NH₃ whose entropy will be maximum and why?
Answer:
Entropy is the measure of randomness. In solid state the molecules are regularly arranged, so entropy is minimum whereas in gas the molecules move randomly in all directions, so the entropy is maximum. So, in the above example, NaCl is a solid, H₂O is liquid and NH₃ is a gas. So, the entropy of NH₃ is maximum and entropy of NaCl is minimum.

Question 13.
Prove that: P∆V = ∆ntRT?
Answer:
From ideal gas equation
P V = nRT
If the volume of gas at initial state is V₁ and the number of moles of gas is n₁ then,
PV₁ = ∆n₁RT …………….. (1)
If at final state, the volume of gas is V₂ and number of moles of gas is n₂, then,
PV₂ = ∆n₂RT …………. (2)
From eqn. (i) and (2),
P(V₂ – V₁) = (n₂ – n₁)RT
or P∆V = ∆nRT.

Question 14.
What is relation between ∆H and ∆U?
Answer:
If H be the enthalpy of any system and U is the internal energy, then the relation will be
H = U + PV
For enthalpy change, ∆H = ∆U + P∆V
We know that P∆V = ∆nRT
On putting the value,
∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT.

Question 15.
What do you mean by specific heat capacity?
Answer:
It is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of substance by 1°C. It is denoted by C_s.
C_s = \(\frac{C}{m}\)
Where, C = Heat capacity, C_s = Specific heat capacity, m = Mass of substance.
Its S.I. unit is joule K^-1g^-1.

Question 16.
What do you mean by molar heat capacity?
Answer:
It is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of substance by 1°C.
Molar heat capacity = \(\frac{C}{n}\) \(\frac{q}{∆T × n}\)
Where C = Heat capacity (Absorbed heat), ∆T = Increase in temperature, n = Number of moles.
Its S.I. unit is joule K^-1 mol^-1.

Question 17.
Write Hess’s law?
Answer:
In 1840, G.H. Hess formulated a law known as Hess’s law. According to law, “The enthalpy change in a physical or chemical change is same whether the process is carried out in one step or in several steps.”

Question 18.
What is Adiabatic process?
Answer:
A process in which no exchange of heat between system and surroundings occur is known as adiabatic process. This process mainly occurs in isolated system. For this type of process dq = 0.

Question 19.
What is standard enthalpy of reaction?
Answer:
The enthalpy change takes place at standard state i.e., at 298 K temperature (25°C), 1 atm pressure (760 mm) condition is called standard enthalpy of reaction. It is denoted by ∆H°_r or ∆_rH°.

Question 20.
What is enthalpy of solution? Explain with example?
Answer:
Enthalpy change taking place during the dissolution of one mole of a substance in excess of a solvent such that further addition of solvent does not produce any heat change is known as enthalpy of solution.
Example: KCl_(s) + aq → KCl_(aq)

Question 21.
What is enthalpy of hydration? Explain with example?
Answer:
Enthalpy change taking place when one mole of anhydrous salt combines with the required number of moles of water to form hydrated salt is called enthalpy of hydration.
Example: CuSO_4(s) + 5H₂O_(l) → CuS0₄.5H₂O ∆H = – 78.2kJ.

Thermodynamics Short Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
What is law of energy conservation? Write its mathematical expression. Or, What is the first law of thermodynamics? Deduce its mathematical expression?
Answer:
This law was first expressed by Meyer and Helmholt. According to this law, “Energy cannot be created or destroyed although one form and vice – versa”.
Or
Whenever a certain quantity of energy in one form disappear, an equivalent amount of energy in another form reappear.

Mathematical form:
Let us suppose that system has internal energy equal to U₁. If it absorbs heat energy 17 from the surroundings then internal energy will increase and becomes U₁ + q. If the work is done on the system then its final internal energy will become
U₂ = U₁ + q + w
U₂ – U₁ = q + w,
∆U – q + w, (∴ U₂ – U₁ = ∆U
If the work done on the system is w, then
∆U = q + w
If work done by the system
∆U = q – w

Question 2.
What is Enthalpy of fusion? Explain with example?
Answer:
Enthalpy change taking place during the conversion of 1 mole of a solid substance into liquid at its melting point is known as enthalpy of fusion.
Example: Enthalpy of fusion of ice at 273 K is 6.0 kJ.
H₂O_(s) → H₂O_(l);
i.e 6.0 kJ of energy is absorbed for the conversion of 1 mole of ice into water. ∆H = +6.0 KJ

Question 3.
For an isolated system if ∆U = 0, what will be ∆S?
Answer:
For an isolated system, AU = 0 and for a spontaneous process, the change in entropy should be positive. For example: For a closed container, which is an isolated system, two gases A and B are diffused (MPBoardSolutions.com) Both gases A and B are separated by a kinetic separator. When the separator is removed, the gases starts fusing with each other and randomness increases in the system. For this process, ∆S > 0 and ∆U = 0.
Again ∆S = \(\frac { q_{ rev } }{ T } \) = \(\frac { \Delta H }{ T } \) = \(\frac { \Delta U+P\Delta V }{ T } \) = \(\frac { P\Delta V }{ T } \) [∴∆U = 0]
So, T∆S or ∆S > 0.

Question 4.
On the basis of the following equations, write a note on thermodynamic stability of NO_(g):
\(\frac{1}{2}\) N_2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O_2(g) → NO_(g); ∆_rH° = 90kJ mol^-1
NO_(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O_2(g) → NO_2(g); ∆_rH° = 94kJ mol^-1
Answer:
NO_(g) is unstable, as the preparation of NO is an endothermic reaction. But preparation of NO_2(g) occurs because it is an exothermic reaction (energy evolved). So unstable NO_(g) is converted into NO_2(g).

Question 5.
At equilibrium state, whose value will be zero ArG or ArG°?
Answer:
∆_rG = ∆_rG° + RTlnK
At equilibrium, 0 = ∆_rG° + RTlnK
or ∆_rG° = – RTlnK
∆_rG° = 0 (When K = 1)
For other values K, ∆_rG° will be zero.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of calorific value of any fuel? Explain with example?
Answer:
The heat or energy evolved in joule or calorie by the (combustion) burning of 1 gram food or fuel is known as calorific value of fuel.
C₂H₁₂O_6(s) + 6O_2(g) → 6CO_2(g) + 6H_2(g); ∆H = -2840 kJ
In this process from 1 mole glucose or 180 gm = 2480 kJ energy obtained
So, energy obtained from 1 gm glucose = \(\frac{2480}{180}\) = 15.78 kJ/gm.
So, calorific value of glucose is 15.78 kJ/gm.

Question 7.
Explain heat of vapourization and heat of reaction?
Answer:
Heat or Enthalpy of vapourization : Enthalpy change taking place during the conversion of 1 mole of liquid into vapours at its boiling point and 1 atm pressure is called enthalpy of vapourization.
Example:
H₂O ⇄ H₂O_(g); ∆H = +40.7 kJ

Heat of reaction:
Enthalpy change taking place when number of moles of reactants as represented by the chemical equation have completely reacted is known as enthalpy of reaction. It is denoted by ∆H_f.
Example: C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g); ∆H_f = – 393.5 kJ/mol

Question 8.
Explain enthalpy of fusion and enthalpy of sublimation with example?
Answer:
Enthalpy of fusion:
Enthalpy change taking place during the conversion of I mole of a solid substance into liquid at its melting point is known as enthalpy of fusion.
H₂O_(s) ⇄ H₂O_(l); ∆H = +6.01 kJ
Enthalpy of Sublimation:
Enthalpy change taking place when one mole of solid changes into vapours without passing into intermediate liquid state at a temperature below its melting point is known as enthalpy of sublimation.
I_2(s) ⇄  I_2(g). ∆H = +62.4 kJ

Question 9.
How the change in entropy takes place in vapourisation process?
Answer:
Entropy of vapourisation:
Change in entropy when one mole of a liquid at its boiling point changes to the vapour state at the same temperature.
∆S_vapour = S_(vapour) – ∆S_(liquid) = \(\frac { \Delta H_{ vap } }{ T_{ b } } \)
Here, ∆_vap H is the latent heat of vapourisation (enthalpy of vapourisation) and T_b is the boiling point when liquid is converted into vapour, entropy of the system increases. Thus, ∆S_vap is +ve.

Question 10.
What is Internal Energy? Is its absolute value can be determined?
Answer:
Physical and chemical process occurs by some energy change. This energy may appear in the form of light, heat and work. (MPBoardSolutions.com) This evolution and absorption of energy clearly shows that every’ substance or system is associated with some definite amount of inherent energy’. The actual value of this inherent energy depends upon:

1. Chemical nature of substance
2. Conditions, like temperature, pressure and volume, and
3. Composition of the substance.

Thus, “The energy stored within a substance is called internal energy or intrinsic energy”.
Actually, internal energy is the sum of various forms of energy such as; electronic energy E_e, nuclear energy E_n, chemical bond energy E_c, potential energy E_p and kinetic energy E_k . Kinetic energy is the sum of translational energy (E_t), vibrational energy (E_v) and rotational energy (E_r).
It is represented by the symbol ‘U’,
U = E_e + E_n + E_c + E_p + E_k
It may be noted that, absolute value of internal energy cannot be determined, because it is not possible to determine the exact values for the constituent energies, such as: translational, vibrational, rotational energies etc.

Question 11.
Expansion of any gas in vacuum is called free expansion. 1 L of an ideal gas expands isothermally upto 5 L, then determine the change in internal energy and work done?
Solution:
Work done, W = – P_(external) (V₂ – V₁)
When P_(external) = 0,
So, W = – 0 (5 – 1) = 0
For isothermal expansion,
∆U = 0
So, ∆T = 0.

Question 12.
An ideal gas filled in a cylinder (according to figure.) is compressed in a single step with external pressure P_(external) Then what will be the work done on the gas? Explain with graph?
Solution:
Let the initial volume of the gas is V_i and pressure of cylinder is P. On compressing the gas by pressure P the final volume of gas is V_f.
So, change in volume ∆V = (V_f – V_i)
If W is the work done by the piston on the system
W = P_(external) (- ∆V)
W = P_(external) (V_f – V_i)
This can be shown in the figure by (P – V) graph, The work done is equal to ABV_fV_i. The positive sign shows that the work is done on the system.

Thermodynamics Long Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
What is heat capacity? Deduce the expression C_p – C_v = R?
Answer:
Heat Capacity: It is equal to the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the system through 1°C. Its unit is JK^-1.
Relationship between C^p and C^v:
At constant volume: q_v = C_v∆T = ∆U
At constant pressure: q_p = C_p∆T = ∆H
∆H and ∆U are related to each other as
∆H = ∆U + ∆n_gRT
or ∆H = ∆U + ∆n_g(PV)
For 1 mole of ideal gas PV = RT
∴ ∆H = ∆U + ∆(RT)
or ∆H = ∆U + R∆T
on putting the value of ∆H and ∆U
C_p∆T = C_v∆T = C_v∆T + R∆T
Dividing whole equation by ∆T,
C_p = C_v + R
C_p – C_v = R
Thus, value of C_p is always more than C_v and the difference between them is about 2 calories or 8.314 joule.
This relationship is known as Meyer’s relationship.
The ratio C_p/C_v:
The ratio of molar heat capacities at constant pressure (C_p) to that at constant volume (C_v) is represented by γ. Value of γ gives information about the atomicity of the gas. Thus,
For monoatomic gases γ = 1.67
For diatomic gases γ = 1.40
For triatomic gases γ = 1.30

Question 2.
Explain Enthalpy of combustion? Write its uses also?
Answer:
Enthalpy of combustion:
The enthalpy change taking place when one mole of substance is completely oxidised or burnt in presence of excess of oxygen is known as enthalpy of combustion. For example, the enthalpy of combustion of methane is 890.4 kJ.
CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(g) ∆Hc = – 890.4 kJ

Carbon on the other hand is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.
C_(s) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O_2(g) → CO_(g); ∆H = – 110.5kJ
and C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g); ∆H_c = – 393.5 kJ

In this case enthalpy of combustion of carbon is – 393.5 kJ and not – 110.5 kJ as formation of CO is a result of incomplete combustion of carbon.
Uses of Enthalpy of combustion:

1. To determine the calorific value of fuel.
2. To determine the enthalpy of reaction of compounds.
3. Determination of structure of compounds.
4. To calculate the calorific value of food.

Question 3.
Prove that qr = ∆H_p?
Or, Prove that at constant pressure and constant temperature the heat of reaction is equal to the change in enthalpy of the system?
Answer:
Suppose enthalpy, internal energy and volume of a system in initial state are H₁, U₁ and V₁ respectively and after gaining heat these values becomes H₂, U₂ and V₂ respectively, then according to definition.
H₁ = U₁ + PV₁, (in initial state) ……………… (1)
H₂ = U₂ + PV₂, (in final state) …………….. (2)
Subtracting eqn. (1) from eqn eqn. (2),
H₂ – H₁ = U₂ – U₁ + P(V₂ – V₁)
or ∆H = ∆U + P∆V
Where ∆H is enthalpy change, ∆U is change in internal energy and ∆V is change in volume. Therefore at constant pressure enthalpy change is equal to sum of internal energy change and expansion type of mechanical work.
According to first law of thermodynamics,
∆U = q – P∆V
q = ∆U + P∆V
= (U₂ – U₁) + P(V₂ – V₁)
= (U₂ + PV₂) – (U₁ + PV₁)
= H₂ – H₁
= ∆H
∴ ∆H = q_p
Thus, enthalpy change represents the heat change occurring at constant temperature and pressure. It is noteworthy that though q is path dependent, q_p is not because ∆H is a state function.

Question 4.
Differentiate between Reversible and Irreversible processes?
Answer:
Differences between Reversible and Irreversible process:
Reversible process:

1. It is carried out infinitesimally slowly i.e., the difference between driving force and the opposing force is very very small.
2. It is an ideal process requiring infinite time for completion.
3. Equilibrium is not disturbed at any stage during the process.
4. Work obtained is maximum.
5. It is an imaginary process and cannot be realised in actual practice.

Irreversible process:

1. This process is carried out rapidly /.e.,the difference between driving force and the opposing force and the opposing force is quite large.
2. It is a spontaneous process requiring finite time for completion.
3. Equilibrium may occur only after the completion of the process.
4. Work obtained is not maximum.
5. It is a natural process which occurs in
6. particular direction under given set of conditions.

Question 5.
What are the factors affecting enthalpy of reaction?
Answer:
Factors on which enthalpy of a reaction (∆H) depends: Enthalpy of a reaction i.e., ∆H depends upon the following factors:
1. Physical state of reactants and products:
Enthalpy of reaction is affected by the physical state of reactants and products because latent heat of substance is also involved. For example, value of enthalpy of reaction for the formation of liquid water and water vapour is different.
H_2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O_2(g) → H₂O_(l); ∆H = – 286 kJ
H_2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O_2(g) → H₂O_(l); ∆H = – 249 kJ

2. Quantities of the reactants involved:
Enthalpy of reaction is affected by the physical state of reactants and products because latent heat of substance is also involved. For example, value of enthalpy of reaction for the formation of liquid water and water vapour is different.
H_2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O_2(g) → H₂O_(l); ∆H = – 286 kJ
H_2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O_2(g) → H₂O_(l); ∆H = – 249 kJ

3. Allotropic modifications:
Allotropes of an element may have different enthalpies. For example, enthalpy change during combustion of graphite and diamond is – 393.5 kJ/mol^-1 and – 395.4 kJ/mol^-1 respectively.
C_(graphite) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g); ∆H = – 393.5 kJ
C_(diamond) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g); ∆H = – 395.4 kJ

4. Temperature:
Value of enthalpy of reaction is dependent on the temperature at which the reaction is carried out. For example, at 25°C enthalpy of formation of HCl_(g) is 184.6 kJ while at 75°C it is 184.4 kJ.
H_2(g) + Cl_2(g) → 2Hl_(g); ∆H = 184.6 kJ at 25°C
H_2(g) + Cl_2(g) → 2HCl_(g); ∆H = 184.4 kJ at 75°C

Question 6.
Prove that at constant volume q_v = ∆U?
Answer:
When a reaction occurs at constant volume, then no work is done by the system. So W = 0.
So, ∆U = q + W
On putting the value, ∆U = q
So, at constant volume the energy is absorbed which increases the internal energy of the system. So,
∆U = q + W = q + p∆V, (W = P∆V)
Since, the reaction occurs at constant volume. So, ∆V = 0.
On putting vallue, ∆U = q_v

Question 7.
From following data determine the heat of reaction of CH₄ or enthalpy, ∆H:
C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO₂; ∆H = – 97k cal ………… (1)
2H_2(g) + O_2(g) → 2H₂O_(g) ∆H = – 136k cal …………. (2)
CH₄ + 2O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(g); ∆H = – 212k cal ………………… (3)
Solution:
To determine
C_(s) + 2H_2(g) → cH_4(g); ∆H = ?
On adding eqn.(1) and (2),

Thermodynamics Long Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
What is Hess’s Law of constant heat summation? Explain with an example?
Answer:
In 1840, G.H. Hess gave an important law of constant heat summation according to which, “The enthalpy change in a particular reaction is always constant and does not depend on the path in which reaction takes place”.
Or
“The enthalpy change in a physical or chemical process is the same whether the process is carried out in one or in several steps.”
This law is based on the law of conservation of energy. Suppose that the conversion of substance A to (MPBoardSolutions.com) substance Z takes place in a single step by first method and through several steps in second method. In single step by first method and through several steps in second method. In single step:
A → Z + Q₁

Where, Q₁ is the energy in several steps:
A → B + q₁
B → C + q₂
C → Z + q₃
Total energy evolved in several steps = q₁ + q₂ + q₃
= Q₂ calories (suppose)
Acoording to Hess’s law,
Q₁ = Q₂
Suppose Hess’s law is incorrect and Q₂ > Q₁. In this stage if we convert A to Z by several steps and then Z directly to A, then heat equal to (Q₂ – Q₁) is produced. By repeating this cyclic process several times, an (MPBoardSolutions.com) unlimited amount of heat (energy) may be produced in an isolated system. But this is against the law of conservation of energy.
Practically also, Hess’s law is proved to be true.
Example: Carbon can be directly burnt to produce C0₂ or in the second method it is first converted to carbon monoxide and then oxidized to carbon dioxide.

Energy evolved by both the methods is nearly same. Different of 0.3 kcal is due to experimental error.
∴ ∆H = ∆H₁ + ∆H₂

Question 2.
Prove that ∆H = ∆U + P∆V?
Or, Explain the relationship between ∆H and ∆U?
Answer:
Relation between AH and AU: In case of solids and liquids, the difference between ∆H and ∆U is not significant but in gases it is significant. Let us consider a reaction involving gases. Let the process be isothermal and carried out at constant pressure (P). If V_A is the total volume of the gaseous reactants and V_B be the total volume of gaseous products, also n_A be the number of moles of gaseous reactants and n_B be the number of moles of gaseous products. Then
PV_A = n_ART ……………………. (1)
and PV_B = n_BRT ………………….. (2)
Substarcting eqn. (1) from eqn. (2) we get
PV_B – PV_A = (n_B – n_A)RT
or P(V_B – V_A) = (n_B – n_A)RT
P∆V = ∆nRT
For gaseous reactants PV_R = n_RRT …………………… (3)
and for gaseous products PV_p = n_pRT …………………… (4)
Substracting eqn. (3) from eqn. (4), we get
P(V_p – V_R) = (n_p – n_R) RT
or P∆V = ∆n_gRT ……………………. (5)
But enthalpy change ∆H = ∆U + P∆V …………………….. (6)
Substracting the value of P∆V from eqn. (5) into eqn. (6), we get
∆H = ∆U + ∆n_gRT ………………. (7)
Thus, using above eqn. (7) ∆H can be converted into ∆U or vice – versa.eqn. (7) can be wriien as
q_p = q_v + ∆n_gRT ………………….. (8)
Because ∆H = q_p and ∆U = q_v.
Conditions:

1. If the number of moles of products is greater than that of reactants than ∆n will be +ve and ∆H is greater than ∆U. So,
∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT

2. If the number of moles of reactants is greater than the number of moles of products then ∆n will be – ve and the value of ∆H is less than ∆U.
∆H = ∆U – ∆nRT

3. If the No. of moles of reactants is equal to No. of moles of products then ∆n = 0, then in this condition ∆H = ∆U.

Question 3.
Deduce an expression for PV work done?
Answer:
Let us, consider a cylinder, fitted with a weightless, frictionless piston having a cross – sectional area A, filled with 1 mole of an ideal gas. The total volume of gas is V_i and pressure inside the cylinder is P_in.
Suppose, external pressure on the gas is P_ex which is slightly greater than the internal pressure of the gas. (MPBoardSolutions.com) Due to this difference in pressure the gas is compressed till the pressure inside becomes equal to P_ex Suppose, the change is achieved in one single step and the final volume of the gas is V_f The gas is compressed and suppose the piston moves a distance l. Work done during compression is
W = Force × Displacement = F × l

or F = P × ABV
∴W = P × A × large
or W = – P∆V, [∴ A × l = ∆V]

The negative sign in the expression is required to obtain conventional sign W. In compression, V_f < V_i and therefore, (V_f – V_i) or ∆V is – ve.
Hence, W will come out to be +ve from the above expression. In expansion type work V_f > V_i and value of ∆V is positive, therefore, work done will be negative.

This expression is useful for all types of PVwork and for irreversible flow.
Now, we will calculate, the work done during expansion of ideal gas in a reversible manner and in isothermal condition.

Question 4.
What is free energy? Derive its mathematical form and write Gibbs – Helmholtz equation?
Answer:
The free energy of a system is defined as the maximum amount of energy of the system which can be converted into useful work.
Free energy is related to enthalpy (H), entropy (S) and absolute temperature (T) as,
G = H – TS
Since, we know H = E + PV
∴ G = E + PV – TS
Change in free energy may be given as,
∆G = ∆E + ∆(PV) – ∆(TS)
If the process is carried out at constant temperature and pressure, then
∆(TS) = T∆S and ∆(PV) = P∆V
∆G_Tp = ∆E + P∆V – T∆S or
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
The above equation is called Gibbs – Helmholtz equation and it helps to predict the spontaneity of a process.
Free energy change and spontaneity:
For a system which is not isolated with surroundings
∆S_total = ∆S_system + ∆S_surrounding …………………… (1)
when reaction takes place at constant temperature and constant pressure, heat is supplied to surrounding.
∆S_surrounding = \(\frac { -q_{ p } }{ T } \) = \(\frac { -\Delta H }{ T } \), (q_p = ∆H at constant pressure) ………………………. (2)
From eqns. (1) and (2),
∆S_total = ∆S_system – \(\frac { -\Delta H }{ T } \) …………….. (3)
Since, all the quantities on the right – hand side are system properties, the subscript ‘system’ is not used in equations.
Multiplying both sides by T, we get
T∆S_total = T∆S – ∆H, (Where, ∆S = ∆S_system)
or -T∆Sc = ∆H – T∆S …………………… (4)
For Gibbs free energy (G),
G = H – TS
∆G = ∆H – T∆S – S∆T ………………… (5)
or ∆G = ∆H – T∆S_total
For the process taking place at constant temperature and constant pressure, eqn. (5) will be
So that, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S ……………………… (6)
Comparing eqns. (4) and (6),
∆G = – T∆S_total ………………….. (7)
So that, ∆G = – ve(for sontaneous chnages)
We know that, for spontaneous chemical change ∆S_total is positive. Eqn. (7) shows that the spontaneity of a change can be predicted on the basis of the value of ∆G.
Three special cases may be considered according to eqn. (7):

1. If AG is negative, the change is spontaneous.
2. If AG is zero, the system is in equilibrium.
3. If AG is positive, the change is non – spontaneous.

Conditions for spontaneity of a process (conditions for ∆G to be – ve):

1. If AH is negative and AS is positive, AG would certainly be negative and the process will be spontaneous.
2. If AH is negative and AS is also negative, then AG would be negative if AH is greater than TAS in magnitude.

Question 5.
Explain the determination of internal energy ∆U by Bomb calorimeter under the following heads:

1. Labelled diagram of the apparatus,
2. Explanation of the process
3. Calculations.

Answer:
Experimental determination of change in internal energy:
The change in internal energy in a chemical reaction is determined with the help of an apparatus called bomb calorimeter. (MPBoardSolutions.com) It is made up of steel so that it can bear high pressure developed during the chemical reaction taking place in the calorimeter. The inner side of the steel vessel is coated with some non – oxidizable metal like Pt or Au. It is also fitted with a pressure tight screw – cap. The two electrodes are connected to each other through a platinum wire dipped in a platinum cup.

A small known mass of the substance under investigation is taken in the platinum cup. The bomb is filled with excess of oxygen under a pressure of 20 – 25 atm and sealed. Now it is kept in an insulated water – bath which contains a known amount of water. The water – bath is also provided with a thermometer and mechanical stirrer.

The initial temperature of water is noted and the reaction (i.e., combustion of the sample) is started by passing an electric current through the Pt wire. (MPBoardSolutions.com) The heat evolved during the chemical reaction raises the temperature of water which is recorded by the thermometer. When rise in temperature and the heat capacity of the calorimeter are known, the amount of heat evolved in the chemical reaction can be calculated. This will be equal to the change in internal energy (∆E) of the reaction.

Calculation: Let W = Mass of calorimeter in gm, w = Water equivalent of calorimeter, bomb stirrer, etc. t°C = Rise in temperature, x = Mass of compound ignited in gm and m = Molecular mass of the compound.
Heat produced by x gm compound = (W + w) t calories
∴ Heat of combustion of the compound at constant volume,
∆U or ∆E = \(-\frac { m }{ x } \) (W + w) t calorie/mol.
Heat is evolved so negative sign is used.
Using the equation ∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT heat of combustion ∆H at constant pressure can be caluculated.

MP Board Class 11 Chemistry Important Questions

MP Board 12th Physics Important Questions Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Important Questions Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer of the following:

Question 1.
The SI unit of electrical capacitance:
(a) Stat farad
(b) Farad
(c) Coulomb
(d) Stat coulomb.
Answer:
(b) Farad

Question 2.
The potential difference between the plates of a capacitor is constant. A dielectric medium is filled instead of air in between the plates. The intensity of electric field will:
(a) Decrease
(b) Remains unchanged
(c) Become zero
(d) Increase.
Answer:
(b) Remains unchanged

Question 3.
On replacing the air by an insulating material between the plates of a capacitor its capacity:
(a) Remains unchanged
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) Nothing can be said.
Answer:
(b) Increases

Question 4.
On increasing the separation between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor its capacitance :
(a) Remains unchanged
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) Nothing can be said.
Answer:
(c) Decreases

Question 5.
When two capacitors are joined in series each capacitor will have the same :
(a) Charge
(b) Potential
(c) Charge and potential
(d) Neither charge nor potential.
Answer:
(a) Charge

Question 6.
When two capacitors are joined in parallel each capacitor will have the same:
(a) Charge and potential
(b) Only charge
(c) Only potential
(d) Neither charge nor potential.
Answer:
(c) Only potential

Question 7.
Two capacitors of equal capacitance first connected in parallel then connected in series. What is the ratio of their capacities in both the cases:
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 4.
Answer:
(c) 4 : 1

Question 8.
The formula of capacitance of a spherical conductor is:
(a) C = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4π{ £ }_{ 0 }R } \)
(b) C = 4πt£₀R
(c) C = 4πr£₀R²
(d) C = 4π£₀R³
Answer:
(b) C = 4πt£₀R

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. 1 farad = one coulomb/ ……………
2. 1 farad = …………… stat farad.
3. Dimensional formula of capacitance is ……………
4. is a device in which with or out changing in shape or size of a conductor its capacitance can be increased ……………
5. On increasing the distance between the plater of a parallel plate capacitor its capacity ……………
6. Three capacitor each of 3pF are joined in series their equivalent capacitance will be ……………
7. The dimensional formula of electric potential is ……………
8. The potential due to a point charge q at a distance r is given as ……………
9. The potential difference = Intensity of electric field × ……………
10. The increase in kinetic energy of a charge q when it is accelerated by a potential difference V is ……………
11. Due to presence of dielectric medium the potential ……………
12. The work done in moving a charge perpendicular to the electric field is ……………
13. The potential of earth is considered to be ……………

Answers:

1. 1 Volt
2. 9 × 10¹¹
3. [M^-1L^-2T⁴A²]
4. Capacitor
5.  Decreases
6. lµF
7. [ML²T^-3 A^-11]
8. V = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4π{ £ }_{ 0 }R } \) \(\frac { q }{ r}\)
9. Distance between the two point
10. qV
11. Decreases
12. Zero
13. Zero.

Question 3.
Match the Column:

Answers:

1. (c) Q/V
2. (d) \(\frac { 1}{2}\) C/V²
3. (e) 4π£₀R
4. (a) £₀A/d
5. (b) 4π£₀ab / (b – a)

Question 4.
Write the answer in one word / sentence:

1. What is the potential of earth. Write SI units ?
2. What will be the electric field intensity inside a hallow sphere ?
3. In which direction of electric dipole, electric potential is zero ?
4. What is the net charge of a charge condenser ?
5. What quantity remains constant when the condenser are connected in series ?
6. What quantity remain constant when the conductor are connected in parallel ?

Answers:

1. Zero, volt
2. Zero
3. Broad-side-on position
4. Zero
5. Charge
6. Potential difference.

Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by equal potential surface ?
Answer:
The surface of the conductor where potential is in every point is called equal potential surface.

Question 2.
Write the name of the physical quantity whose SI unit in J/C. Is it a scalar or vector ?
Answer:
Electric potential, it is a vector quantity.

Question 3.
Draw a equi potential surface for a unit charge.
Answer:

Question 4.
Define farad.
Answer:
If the potential of a conductor increases by one volt when one coulomb of charges is given to it, then the capacity of the conductor is said to be one farad.

Question 5.
On going in direction of electric lines of force, electric potential decreases or increases.
Answer:
Electric potential decreases.

Question 6.
Give an example in which electric field is non-zero but potential is zero.
Answer:
At broad-side-on position of an electric dipole electric field is non-zero and potential is zero.

Question 7.
Does electron try to go toward high potential area or low potential area ?
Answer:
Since electron is negatively charge so it tries to go toward high potential area.

Question 8.
Potential between two parallel surface are same. The distance between them is R. If a charge q is bought from one surface to another, then what will be the work I done to do this ?
Answer:
Amount of work done will be zero on both the surface are equipotential.

Question 9.
If area of a plate of a parallel plate condenser in made half. Will it behave as condenser.
Answer:
When area of the plate if a parallel plate condenser is made half. Its capacity become half. Therefore it will not act as condenser.

Question 10.
A capacitor of capacity C is charged with potential difference V. What will be the magnitude of electric flux passing through the surface of it ?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 11.
Why condenser are used in computer’s ?
Answer:
Condenser are used as memory chip in computer.

Question 12.
Write one use of capacitor ?
Answer:
To accumulate electric charge.

Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is potential ? Is it a vector or scalar quantity ?
Answer:
Work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to a point in the I electric field is called potential at that point. If charge q is brought from infinity to a point and IT work is done.
∴ V = \(\frac {W}{p}\)
It is a scalar quantity.

Question 2.
Can same amount of charge be given 1 and a solid sphere of same radii, if they have same potential ?
Answer:
No, because capacities of both spheres of same radii are always equal. Therefore i both the spheres can hold same amount of charge at same potential.

Question 3.
What is meant by capacity of a conductor ? Give its unit.
Answer:
The capacity of a conductor is defined by the charge given to the conductor, which increases its potential through unity.
Capacity = \(\frac {Charge}{Potential}\)
or C = \(\frac {q}{v}\)
Its SI unit is farad.

Question 4.
The surface of any conductor is always equipotential. Why ?
Or
The potential at every point on a charged conductor is same. Why ?
Answer:
All the points of the surface of a conductor are in electrical contact with one another. If the potential is not equal then the charges will flow from higher potential to lower potential till the potential of both the points on the surface becomes same. This will give rise to electrodynamics situations. Thus, the surface of a conductor is always equipotential.

Question 5.
What would be the work done if a point charge +q is taken from a point A to point B on the circumference of a circle with another point charge +q at the center:
Answer:
The points A and B are at same distance from the charge + q at the center, so V_A = V_B So, work done, W= q₀ (V_A – V_B) = 0.

Question 6.
Explain the meaning of capacity of a capacitor. What will be the effect on capacity of a parallel plate capacitor if a dielectric medium of dielectric constant k is filled in between the plates ?
Answer:
The capacity of a capacitor, is equal to charge given to one of its plates which produces unit potential difference across the plates. In this case capacity increases, it becomes k times its initial value.

Question 7.
What will be the change in the value of charge and potential difference between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, if after charging its battery is removed and distance between its plates is reduced ?
Answer:
Charge remains same but potential difference decreases.

Question 8.
Two equipotential surface does not intersect each other, why ?
Answer:
Electric lines of forces are always perpendicular to equipotential surface. If two equipotential surface intersect each other then at the point of intersection there will be two direction of electric fields which is impossible. Therefore they does not intersect each other.

Question 9.
Why must electrostatic field be normal to the surface at every point of a charged conductor ?
Answer:
If electric field is randomly directed, then it can be resolved, into two components. The horizontal component on this surface is E sin θ.
For electrostatic situation
£ sin θ = 0
⇒ sin θ = 0
⇒ θ = 0°

So, the electric field is normal to surface.

Question 10.
The potential at any point inside the hollow conductor remains same. Why ?
Answer:
When charge is given to a hollow conductor then the distribution of charge takes place on its upper surface. Therefore the intensity of electric field inside the conductor is zero. Hence, no work is done in moving unit positive charge inside it. Therefore potential at every point inside the conductor remains same.

Question 11.
Can the potential be zero where electric field is not zero ?
Answer:
Yes, the electric field on the equatorial line of a dipole is not zero but potential is zero.

Question 12.
What will be the effect on electric field, potential, difference, electric capacity and energy if a dielectric of dielectric constant K is filled between the plates of a capacitor ?
Answer:
The electric field will become \(\frac {1 }{ K }\)times, potential difference will become \(\frac {1 }{ K }\) times, electric field will become K time and energy will become \(\frac {1 }{ K }\) times.

Question 13.
Can 1 coulomb charge be given to a sphere of radius 1cm ?
Answer:
As we know that the formula of potential ¡s V = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4π { £ }_{ 0 } } \) \(\frac { q }{ r }\) …(1)
Given,q = lC, r = lcm = 10^-2m
Putting these values in eqn. (1)
V = 9 × 10⁹ × \(\frac{1}{10^{-2}}\) = 9 x 10¹¹volt
Where = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) =  9 × 10⁹ in SI unit.
This value of potential is greater than barrier potential of air. Therefore IC charge cannot be given to a sphere of radius 1cm.

Question 14.
In the shown figure what will be the work done to bring a z point charge from the point X to Y to Z ?
Answer:
There the point Z and Y are situated on same equaipotential surface. Therefore work done to bring a point charge from A’to Zand from X to Z will be same.
.’. W_y= W_z.

Question 15.
Derive an expression for electric potential due to a point charge. Is it scalar or vector and why ?
Answer:
Consider a point charge q placed at origin O. Potential at P has to be found out. Let the medium between charge ‘q’ and P has dielectric constant E_r.

Electric field at P due to charge q is
E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{r}} \cdot \frac{q}{r^{2}}\)
The electric field \(\vec{E}\) points away from the charge q. A force \(\vec{F}\) = -q₀ \(\vec{E}\) has to be applied on the charge so that it can be brought near to q. The small work required to move the test charge q₀ from P to Q through a small distance dr is given by dW = Fdr
= -q₀ Edr
The total work done in moving the charge q0 from infinity to point P will be obtained by integrating the above equation as –

But electric potential is defined as work done per unit test charge.

Potential at P is V = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{r}} \cdot \frac{q}{r}\)
If medium between q and q₀ is vacuum then £_r = 1
Then , V =\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r}\)
This is the required expression.

Question 16.
What are the factors affecting the potential of a charged
Answer:
The factors affecting the potential of a charged conductor are:
1. Amount of charge on conductor:
By the formula V = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r}\) it is clear that
V ∝ q, hence more is the charge, more will be the potential of charged conductor.

2. Shape of conductor (Area of conductor):
If the charge is kept constant on a conductor and its surface area is decreased then the potential of conductor increases whereas on increasing the surface area its potential decreases. So the potential of a conductor is inversely proportional to the radius.

3. Presence of other conductor near the charged conductor:
If an uncharged conductor is brought near a charged conductor then the potential of the charged conductor decreases.

4. Medium surrounding the conductor:
Due to presence of insulating medium near the charged conductor its potential will decrease.

Question 17.
Define equipotential surface. Write its properties.
Answer:
Equipotential surface:
An equipotential surface is the locus of all those points at which the potential due to distribution of charge remains same.

Properties:

• Potentials on every point are equal
• No work is done in moving a positive charge from one point to another
• The electrical lines of force are normal to the equipotential surface
• Two equipotential surfaces do not intersect each other.
• All the points on the surface of a conductor are in electric contact. If the potentials are not same then the
• charge will flow from higher potential to lower potential till the potential of both the points become same.
• Thus the surface of a conductor is always equipotential.

Question 18.
Obtain a relation between electric Held intensity and potential difference.
Or
Prove that E = \(\frac { dv }{ dr }\)where symbols have their usual meanings.
Answer:
Suppose A and B are two points in the electric field of charge q. The direction of electric field is radially outwards from A to B. Suppose the distance between A and B is very small (i. e., dr) then the electrie field between A and B can be taken as uniform. As the potential is inversely proportional to distance hence potential at A is more than that of B. Let the potential at B is V then that at A is V + dV.

Work done in bringing the test charge q0 from B to A is –
dW = q₀dV …….(1)
Force acting on q₀ will be
F = q₀ E
Work done in bringing the test charge against the repulsion force will be
dW = -q₀Edr
(Work = Force x Displacement) ………(2)
The negative sign shows that the direction of displacement and direction of force are opposite to each other.
From eqns. (1) and (2), we get,
q₀dV = q₀Edr
or dV = -Edr
E = – \(\frac { dv }{ dr }\)
This is required relation between intensity of electric field and potential difference.

Question 19.
Prove that capacity of an isolated spherical conductor is directly proportional to its radius.
Or
Derive an expression for the capacity of a spherical conductor.
Answer:
The capacity of a conductor is its ability to store electrical energy and it is equal
to that charge which increases its potential by unity.
∴ Capacity = \(\frac { Charge }{ Potential }\)

Capacity of an isolated spherical conductor:
Let us consider about a spherical conductor of radius r. The charge + Q is given to it. The charge will be distributed on its surface uni- formly. Therefore the lines of force will be emitted normally to the surface seem to becoming from its center. Hence, we can suppose that all the charges are kept at the centre.
∴ Potential on the surface V = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q}{r}\)
But capacity C = \(\frac { Q }{ V }\)
Putting the value of V, we get
C = \(\frac{Q}{\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q}{r}}\)
C = 4πE₀r
C ∝ r.
Thus, the capacity is proportional to the radius of the spherical conductor.

Question 20.
What do you mean by a capacitor ? Explain its principle.
Answer:
The capacitor is a device by which the capacitance of a conductor is increased without changing its size or volume. Actually it stores electrical energy.
Principle of capacitor:
Let A be a charged conducting plate. Another uncharged conductor plate B is brought near to A, therefore due to induction negative charges will be induced on the front surface and positive charges on the other side of plate B.
Now, the negative charge reduces the potential while the positive charge increases.

As the negative charge is nearer therefore the potential of plate A decreases. Now, the plate B is earthed then the free positive charge will go to earth and hence the potential of A decreases by more value.
C = \(\frac { Q }{V}\)
As V decreases, C will increase. This arrangement is called capacitor or condenser.

Question 21.
Derive an expression for parallel plate capacitor.
Answer;
Let A and B be two plates of a parallel plate capacitor separated by a distance d apart. Area of each plate is A and dielectric constant of the medium between them is E_r Now, plate A is given + Q charge. Therefore, – Q charge will be induced on the nearer surface of the plate B and + Q charge on the other side. As B is connected to earth, + Q charge of B will go to earth. Let the charge density of A is cr, therefore that of B will be -σ.

Now, σ = \(\frac { Q }{A}\)
Intensity between the plates will be given by
E = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{\mathrm{r}}}\)
E = \(\frac{Q}{A \varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{r}}\)
But, potential difference between the plates A and B is
V = Electric field intensity ×
Distance between to plates = Ed
V = \(\frac{Q}{A \varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{s}} \cdot d\)
But, C = \(\frac{Q}{V}=\frac{Q}{\frac{Q d}{A \varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{r}}}\)
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{r} \varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\)
This is the required relation.
For air or vacuum, E_r = 1
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\)

Question 22.
Three capacitors of capacitance’s C₁ C₂ and C₃ are connected in series. Derive an expression for the equivalent capacitance.
Answer:
The given figure shows three capacitors of capacitances C₁ C₂ and C₃ con – nected in series. A potential difference of V is applied across the combination, charges of + Q and – Q are developed on the plates of the capacitor.
Potential difference across the individual capacitors will be

V₁ = \(\frac{Q}{C_{1}}\) , V₂ = \(\frac{Q}{C_{2}}\), V₃ = \(\frac{Q}{C_{3}}\) …….(1)
The sum of these must be equal to the applied potential difference V.
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃ ………(2)
Let C be the equivalent capacitance of the series combination
∴ C = \(\frac { Q }{ V }\) or V = \(\frac { Q }{ C }\) ………..(3)
V₁ + V₂ + V₃ = \(\frac { Q }{ C }\) [from equ..(2)]
\(\frac{Q}{C_{1}}\) + \(\frac{Q}{C_{2}}\) + \(\frac{Q}{C_{3}}\) = \(\frac{Q}{C}\) [from equ..(1)]
Q(\(\frac{1}{C_{1}}\) + \(\frac{1}{C_{2}}\) + \(\frac{1}{C_{3}}\)) = \(\frac{Q}{C}\)
\(\frac { 1 }{ c }\) = \(\frac{1}{C_{1}}\) + \(\frac{1}{C_{2}}\) + \(\frac{1}{C_{3}}\)
This is the required expression.

Question 23.
Three capacitors of capacitance’s C₁ C₂ and C₃ are connected in parallel. Derive an expression for the equivalent capacitance C.
Answer:
Consider three capacitor of capacitance’s C₁ C₂ and C₃ connected in parallel. A potential difference V is applied across the combination. Charges set up in the individual capacitor will be.

Q₁ = C₁V, Q₂ = C₂V,Q₃ = C₃V …(1)
Total charge stored in the parallel combination is
Q = Q₁ + Q₂ + Q₃ ……….(2)
If C is the equivalent capacitance of the combination
Then, C = \(\frac { Q }{ V }\) Q = CV …………(3)
Q₁ + Q₂ + Q₃ = CV [from eq. (2)]
C₁V + C₂V + C₃V = CV [from eq. (1)]
V(C₁ + C₂ + C₃) = CV
C = C₁ + C₂ + C₃
This is the required expression.

Question 24.
Derive an expression for the energy of a charged conductor.
Or
Prove that energy of a charge conductor is directly proportional to its square of potential.
Answer:
The work done in charging a conductor is stored as energy in it. This energy is called electrostatic potential of conductor.

Formula derivation:
Let us consider about a conductor of capacity C which is given charge +Q due to which its potential becomes V. As the charge increases work done also increases. Let at any instant the potential of conductor be V due to charge q.
∴ C = \(\frac { q }{ v}\)
or v = \(\frac { q }{ C}\)
Now, at potential Kthe work done in giving the charge dq will be dW
∴ dw = Vdq
or dw = \(\frac { q }{ C}\)dq
Work done in charging the conductor from 0 to Q

This work done is stored as potential energy on the conductor. Energy of a charge conductor
U = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{Q^{2}}{C}\)
But Q = CV
∴ U = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{C^{2} V^{2}}{C}\)
or U = \(\frac{1}{2} C V^{2}\)
∴ U ∝ V² because C is constant

Question 25.
Prove that on connecting two charged conductors, charges distribute on them according to their capacities.
Answer:
When two isolated charged conductors A and B are connected by a thin wire, charge flows from the conductors at high potential to the conductor at low potential till the potential of both A and B became equal. The phenomenon involved is called distribution of charges and the total charge of the entire system remains conserved. Let the capacitance of A and B be C₁ and C₂, the charges be Q₁ and Q₂ respectively. Then the potentials are V₁ and V₂ respectively.
∴ Initially, Q₁ = C₁V₁ and Q₂ = C₂V₂

The conductors are joined by a wire of negligible capacitance, the charges flow from- the conductor at higher potential to the conductor at lower potential till the potentials on each conductor become equal.
The net charge on the system,
Q = Q₁ + Q₂
The common potential, V = \(\frac { Total charge }{ Total capacitance }\)

After the potential becomes equal let the charge on A ₁ be Q₁ and charge on A₂ be Q₂.

Dividing eqn. (2) by eqn. (3), we get

When the conductors are joined, then the charges get distributed in the ratio of their capacities.

Question 26.
Obtain an expression for potential due to a group of point charges.
Or
Derive the expression for potential energy.
Answer:
Consider a group of point charges q₁,q₂,q₃……..q_n which are situated at a dis-tance of r₁, r₂, r₃…….. _nn respectively from the point P. The potential due to these point charges is to be obtained at P. Now potential at P due to q₁ is

potential due to q₂,q₃, ……… q_netc

Total potential at P will be V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃ + ……….. + V_n

This is the required expression.

Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Derive the expression for the capacity of a parallel plate capacitor, when the medium between the plates is partially filled by a dielectric medium.
Answer:
Let A and B are parallel plates of a capacitor. The distance between the plates is d and plate of thickness t and dielectric constant Er is introduced.

Now, plate A is given charge +Q.
Let the charge density be σ.
∴ σ = \(\frac { Q}{ A}\)
Intensity of field in air ,
E_{0}=\(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0} A}\)
If the intensity of field inside the dielectric medium be E, then
Dielectric constant = \(\frac {Electric field in vacuum}{ Electric field in medium}\)
or \(\varepsilon_{r}=\frac{E_{0}}{E}\)
or E = \(\frac{E_{0}}{\varepsilon_{r}}=\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0} \varepsilon_{r} A}\)
Now, potential difference between A and B,
V=E₀ (d – t) + Et, [(d – t) is vacuum distance]

This is the required expression.
Metal is a conductor. When metal is used in place of the dielectric, it will conduct electricity and the potential difference will become zero. So, capacitor will not work.

Question 2.
Calculate the loss of energy, when two charged conductors are connected.
Or
The capacities of two conductors are C₁ and C₂, Q₁ and Q₂ charges are given to them so that their potentials become V₁ and V₂ respectively. If they are connected by a wire, then calculate the following:

• Common potential
• Loss of energy.

or
prove that when two charged conductors are connected, there will be a loss of energy
Or
In redistribution of charges, is there a loss of energy ? Deduce an expression to confirm the answer.
Answer:
Let A and B be two conductors of capacities C₁ and C₂ respectively. When charges Q₁ and Q₂ are given separately the potentials become V₁ and V₂ respectively.Total charges, Q = Q₁ + Q₂ ………..(1)
But, Q₁ = C₁V₁ and Q₂ = C₂V₂
By eqn. (1), we get
Q = C₁V₁ + C₂V₂
Total capacity, C = C₁ + C₂

(1) Common potential:
Let the conductors are connected by a wire and the common potential becomes-V.
Q₁ + Q₂ = (C₁ + C₂)V
V = \(\frac{Q_{1}+Q_{2}}{C_{1} + C_{2}}\)
V = \(\frac{C_{1} V_{1}+C_{2} V_{2}}{C_{1}+C_{2}}\) ……..(2)
This is the expression for the common potential.

(2) Loss of energy: Total energy of the conductors before connection:

and total energy after connection,

Putting the value of V from eqn. (2) in eqn. (4), we get

Hence, difference of energy’,

(V₁ – V₂)² is positive, hence (V₁ – V₂) is positive. Hence, during redistribution, there will be always loss of energy.
i.e., U₁ – U₂>0 ⇒ U₁>U₂
i.e., energy before joining is greater than energy after joining.
The loss in energy,

Question 3.
Explain the construction and working of Van de Graaff generator. Write its uses.
Answer:
Van de Graaff generator is a machine which produces electricity of about 107 V or more potential difference.
Construction:
It consists of a large metallic sphere S of diameter 5 m, mounted on high insulating support PP about 15 m high. An endless insulating belt made up of rubber passes over the pulleys p₁ and P₂. A motor rotates p₁ C₁ and C₂ are two metallic combs called spray comb and collecting comb respectively. C₁ is connected to S. To prevent the leakage of charge, the generator is put inside a large enclosure filled with gas at 15 atm. pressure. This iron enclosure is connected to earth.

Working:
The comb C₁ is connected to the positive terminal of the battery, therefore the surface density of the points becomes very high which causes the wind present nearby it to get charged. Thus, the spray comb sprays the charge on the belt. Now, the electric wind moves up to the collector comb C₂ When it reaches in front of the collector comb C₂ opposite charge induces on the tip to neutralize the same type of charge. The negative charge wind of C₂, cancels the positive charge of the belt. Thus, by the repeated actions more and more positive charge is induced on sphere, hence its potential increases to about 10⁷volts or more.

Uses:

• To generate high potential.
• To accelerate the positive particles such as protons, Deuteronomy, are particle etc. and used in nuclear disintegration.

Question 4.
When Anil opened the cap of the tap, then he found no water in coming out of it. Then he opened the cap of the water tank and found no water in the tank. To fill up water in the water tank he switch on the switch of the motor and found motor is not starting. Then he called the electric technician. The technician said him on checking that the condenser of the motor is not functioning. On replacing capacitor, the motor start working.

Answer the following questions:

1. What values does Anil exhibits ?
2. What is the function of condenser ?
3. What is total charge on a charged condenser ?
4. The capacity of a capacitor is 3pF. If it is charged up to 100 V potential difference, then what will be charged stored in it ?

Answer:

1. Anil exhibited his presence of mind.
2. It accumulate charge and hence it conserved energy.
3. Net charge on a condenser is zero.
4. C = 3µF = 3 × l0^-6 F, V = 100V

∴ By formula Q = CV = 3 × l0^-6 × l00
or Q = 3 × 10^-4C.

Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Important Questions Numerical Questions

Question 1.
Can 1 coulomb charge be given to a sphere of radius 1cm ?
Answer:
No.
As we know that the formula of potential is V = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r}\) …(1)
Given, q = 1C, r = 1cm = 10^-2m
Putting these values in eqn. (1)
V = 9 × 10⁹ x \(\frac{1}{10^{-2}}\) = 9 × 10¹¹volt
Where = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}\) = 9 × 10⁹ in SI unit.
This value of potential is greater than barrier potential of air. Therefore lC charge cannot be given to a sphere of radius 1cm.

Question 2.
You are given three capacitor of 4pF each. How they will be combined to obtain resultant capacity of 6pF ?
Solution:
Given : Q = C₂ = C₃ = 4µF
When two capacitor is joined in series and third capacitor joined parallel with them, then resultant capacity is obtained as 6µF.

C₁ ,C₂ is in series, its resultant (C’) is
\(\frac { 1 }{ c}\) = \(\frac{1}{C_{1}}+\frac{1}{C_{2}}\)
or \(\frac { 1 }{ c}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4}\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 4}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 4}\)
or C = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2}\) = 2µF.
C and C₃ is in parallel combination,
Its resultant C is C = C + C₃
C = 2 + 4 or C = 6µF.

Question 3.
A hollow metallic sphere of radius 0-1 m is given 6pC. Calculate its potential:

1. At the surface of sphere
2. At the center.

Solution
Given, r = 01 m, q = 6µC = 6 x 10^-6 C
Formula: V = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{r}\)

1. Potential at the surface:
V = 9 × 10⁹ × \(\frac{6 \times 10^{-6}}{0 \cdot 1}\)
V = 54 × 10⁴
V- 5.4 × 10⁵ volt.

2. At the center:
Inside the sphere the potential remains same and equal to that on the surface hence V = 5 . 4 x 10⁵volt.

Question 4.
A test charge is moved from A to B, B to C and A to C in an electric field E as shown in the figure :

Find (1) Potential difference between A and C
(2) At which point electric potential will be high and why ?
Solution:
1. In right angled ∆ABC
AB² = AC² – BC² = 5² – 3²
∴ AB = 4 = dr
BC is perpendicular to electric field, therefore potential will be same at B and C.
V_A – V_C = V_A – V_B = -Edr = -4E
2. Therefore potential at point C will be more than potential of point A.

Question 5.
Identical water droplets, having equal charge on each are combined to form a big drop. Compare the capacity of bigger drop with that of a small drop.
Solution:
Let radius of small droplet = r
Radius of the big drop = R
Volume of big drop = Volume of 27 droplets
\(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) πR³ = 27 × \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) πR³
or R³ = 27r³
or R³ = (3r)³
or R = 3r
or \(\frac { R }{ r }\) = \(\frac { 3}{ 1 }\)
Since, C ∝ radius
or \(\frac{C_{1}}{C_{2}}=\frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}}\)
or \(\frac{C_{1}}{C_{2}}\) = \(\frac { 3}{ 1}\) = 3
or C₁ = 3C₂
The capacity of bigger drop is three times that of smaller one.

Question 6.
How three capacitor of 3pF each can be combined such that their resultant capacity is :

1. 9pF,
2. 4.5pF.

Solution:
1. When the three capacitor is joined in parallel, then
C = C₁ + C₂ + C₃
= 3 + 3 + 3 = 9µF.

2. When two capacitor are joint in series, then resultant C’ is
\(\frac { 1 }{ c}\) = \(\frac{1}{C_{1}}+\frac{1}{C_{2}}\)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 3}\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 3}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 3}\)
C = \(\frac { 3 }{2}\) = 1.5 µF
Now C is joined in parallel with C₃
C = C + C₃ = 1.5 + 3 = 4.5µF.

Question 7.
The potential difference between two points is 10V. How much work is required to move a charge 100 pC from a point to the other ?
Solution:
Given, V= 10 volt, q = l00µC = l00 × l0^-6C
Formula : w = qV
= 100 × 10^-6 × 10
= 10^-3 joule.

Question 8.
Find the area of the plate of a 2F parallel plate capacitor, if the separation between the plates is 0.5 cm ?
Solution:
As C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\)
A = \(\frac{C d}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
Here, C = 2F, d= 0.5cm = 0.5 x 10^-2m
A = \(\frac{2 \times 0 \cdot 5 \times 10^{-2}}{8.85 \times 10^{-12}}\)
= 1.13 × 10⁹ m² = 1130Km²

Question 9.
Two charges 5 x 10^-8C and -3 x 10^-8C are located 16 cm apart At what point, on the line joining the two charges, is the electric potential zero ? Take the potential at infinity to be zero. (NCERT)
Solution:
Case I.
Let electric potential be zero at point C lying at distance x from the positive charge.

Given, q₁ = 5 × 10^-8 C;
q₂ = -3 × l0^-8 C
AC = x cm : CB = (16 – x) cm
Now, Potential at C is zero i. e.,
V₁ + V₂ = 0

-8x + 80 = 0
8x = 80
x = 19 cm
i.e., electric potential at a distance of 10 cm from positive charge will be zero.

Case II.
The other possibility is that the point C may also lie on produced AB.

Now, V₁ + V₂ = 0

5(x – 16) – 3x = 0
5x – 80 – 3x = 0
2x – 80 = 0
x = 40 cm from the positive charge

Question 10.
Determine the equivalent capacitance between A and B in the following circuits:

Solution:
(i). Mark the junctions as C and D.

(But C will be A and D will be B)
Draw the equivalent network, which is given below

Equivalent capacitance,
C = C₁ + C₂ + C₃
or C = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3µF

(ii). To move from A to B, there are two paths P -1 and P – II.

(As A and B, the path is dislocated temporarily)
The capacitors in P -II are in series. So, the equivalent becomes

The resultant capacity of series combination is
\(\frac { 1 }{ C’ }\) = \(\frac { 1}{ 3 }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 3}\) + \(\frac { 1 }{3 }\)
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 3 }\) = 1µF = C’ = 1µF
The equivalent further becomes

Total capacity C = 3 +1 = 4µF.

MP Board Class 12th Physics Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Ecosystem Important Questions

Ecosystem Objective Type Questions 

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The flow of energy in ecosystem: (MP2011)
(a) Unidirection
(b) Bidirectional
(c) Tridirectional
(d) Four directional
Answer:
(a) Unidirection

Question 2.
Chief source of energy in ecosystem :
(a) Solar energy
(b) Green plants
(c) Food substances
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Solar energy

Question 3.
The term ‘ecosystem’ was used for the first time by : (MP 2015)
(a) Tansley
(b) Odum
(c) Reiter
(d) Mishra and Puri.
Answer:
(a) Tansley

Question 4.
The pyramid of number of tree ecosystem is :
(a) Inverted
(b) Upright
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Inverted

Question 5.
Correct food chain is :
(a) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
(b) Grass → Frog → Snake → Peacock
(c) Grass → Peacock → Grasshopper → Hawk
(d) Grass → Snake → Rabbit.
Answer:
(a) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

Question 6.
Pyramid of biomass of lake ecosystem is :
(a) Upright
(b) Inverted
(c) Upright or inverted
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Inverted

Question 7.
Vegetation present between two communities :
(a) Ecad
(b) Ecotype
(c) Ecotone
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Ecotone

Question 8.
Xerosere is started from :
(a) Water
(b) Naked rock
(c) Swamp
(d) All of these.
(b) Naked rock

Question 9.
Serial development of plant community is called :
(a) Attack
(b) Succession
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Succession

Question 10.
Plants starting succession in any area are called :
(a) Pioneer
(b) Sere
(c) Displacer
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Pioneer

Question 11.
In forest ecosystem, the pyramid of energy is : (MP 2012,17)
(a) Always inverted
(b) Always upright
(c) First upright then inverted
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Always upright

Question 12.
The study of ecology of a species is called :
(a) Ecology
(b) Autecology
(c) Synecology
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Autecology

Question 13.
Food chain starts from :
(a) Respiration
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Decomposers
(d) Nitrogen fixation.
Answer:
(b) Photosynthesis

Question 14.
Man is:
(a) Autotrophic
(b) Carnivorous
(c) Herbivorous
(d) Omnivorous.
Answer:
(d) Omnivorous.

Question 15.
In any ecosystem, solar energy is conserved by :
(a) By producers
(b) By consumers
(c) By decomposers
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) By producers

Question 16.
The two components of ecosystem are: (MP 2013)
(a) Organism and Plant
(b) Weeds and trees
(c) Frog and man
(d) Biotic and Abiotic.
Answer:
(d) Biotic and Abiotic.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The transitional zone present between to adjacent communities is called ………………….
2. All the plants of a particular area constitute …………………. of that place.
3. Only …………………. % energy is transferred from one trophic level to another.
4. Pyramid of …………………. is always upright. (MP 2013)
5.  …………………. and …………………. are the examples of omnivorous animals.
6. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by ………………….
7. The chief source of energy ecosystems is (MP 2016)
8. N₂ fixing bacteria is called …………………. (MP 2009 Set A)
9. All ecosystems are depended for energy on …………………. (MP 2009 Set D)
10. In forest trees basically function as ………………….
11. Establishment of organisms in new habitat is called ………………….
12. A sereal development of plant community is called ………………….
13. Succession which takes place in baren rock is called ………………….
14. Succession in soil is called ………………….

Answer:

1. Ecotone
2. Flora
3. 10
4. Energy
5. Man, Pig
6. Tansley
7. Sunlight
8. Nitrifying bacteria
9. Sun (solar energy)
10. Producers
11. Ecesis
12. Succession
13. Lithosere
14. Psamosere.

Question 3.
Match the followings:
I.

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (b)

II.

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)

Question 4.
Write the answer in one word/sentances:

1. What is called the study of ecology of a species?
2. What is called the process of soil formation?
3. What type of energy pyramid found in nature?
4. Give one example of an omnivorous animal.
5. Who proposed the term ecosystem?
6. Who gave the 10% rule of ecosystem?
7. In an ecosystem, producer is known as.
8. What is the direction of the flow of energy in an ecosystem?
9. When many food chains operate simultaneously and interlock such patterns is termed as?
10. Give an example of autotrophic componant.
11. Which gas is used by green plants in photosynthesis?
12. Name the special nutrient which is present in metheonine amino acid.
13. Name the cycle in which nitrogen is converted into multiple chemicals and circulated among atmosphere.
14. Due to an ecosystem fungus and bacteria are known as.
15. What is T₂?

Answer:

1. Autecology
2. Pedogenesis
3. Upright
4. Man
5. A.G. Tansley
6. Lindman
7. Biotic componant
8. Leanear
9. Food web
10. Plants
11. CO₂
12. Sulfer
13. Nitrogen cycle
14. Decomposer
15. Herbivorous animal.

Ecosystem Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the name and ratio of different components of biosphere.
Answer:
Name and ratio of different components of biosphere is:

Some gases are also found in biosphere example Helium, Neyon and Crypton are found in less quantity.

Question 2.
Differentiate between detritivore and decomposer.
Answer:
Detritivore are organisms which feed on detritus and break them into smaller particles, example earth worm. And decomposer are organisms which by secreting enzymes break down complex organic matter into in organic substance example some bacteria and fungi.

Question 3.
Explain consumers of ecosystem
Answer:

1. Producers – All the green plants.

2. Consumers – Depends on others for food.

• Primary consumer: Depends on plants called herbivores.
• Secondary consumers : Depends on herbivores for food.
• Tertiary consumers : Depends on secondary consumers.

3. Decomposers – They decomposed dead organic matter.

Question 4.
Differentiate between biome and ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is the interaction of living and non – living things in an environment. A biome is a specific geographic area notable for the species living there.

Question 5.
What are transducers according to some ecologists?
Answer:
Some ecologists call green plants as transducers of the ecosystem as they convert solar energy into chemical energy.

Question 6.
Name four submerged plants.
Answer:

1. Hydrilla
2. Vallisneria
3. Elodea
4. Potamogeton.

Question 7.
Name the stages of xerosere.
Answer:
Stages of xerosere:

1. Crustose lichen stage
2. Foliose lichen stage
3. Moss stage
4. Herb stage
5. Shrub stage
6. Climax forest stage.

Question 8.
When many food chain operate simultaneously and interlock such pattern is formed.
Answer:
Food web.

Question 9.
Name the ecosystem which shows most productivity.
Answer:
Tropical ecology.

Question 10.
What are fungi and bacteria called in an ecosystem?
Answer:
Micro – consumer or Decomposer.

Question 11.
Which part of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to other in ecosystem?
Answer:
10%.

Question 12.
Name the type of chemosynthetic bacteria.
Answer:
Autotrophic.

Question 13.
Name the word which is similar to ecosystem given by Prof. R. Mishra.
Answer:
Ecocosm.

Question 14.
Name the trophic level in which green plants are found.
Answer:
Primary trophic level.

Question 15.
Who gave the word transformer for producer?
Answer:
E.J. Kormondy.

Question 16.
Name any two sedimentary cycle.
Answer:

Phosphorus cycle
Sulphur cycle.

Question 17.
The energy pyramids are always.
Answer:
Upright.

Question 18.
Give examples of decomposers.
Answer:
Bacteria and Fungi.

Question 19.
Who gave 10% rule of energy?
Answer:
Lindeman.

Question 20.
Which form of nitrogen is absorbed by plants?
Answer:
In the form of nitrate ion (NO₃^–)

Ecosystem Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Draw a pyramid of energy of grassland ecosystem.

Answer:

Question 2.
Explain nitrogen cycle in nature.

Answer:

Question 3.
Explain sulphur cycle by diagram.
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the effect of light on plants.
Answer:
Effect of light on plants:
Light is the source of energy. It is essential for life. It is an important factor of an ecosystem. The existence of life on earth is because of light obtained from sun. Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis, help in preparation of food for the whole living world. Light effects biological activities of plants by its intensity, period and duration. Plants are classified into following two categories on the basis of requirement of light intensity:

1. Heliophytes – Plants, which can grow better in bright light are called heliophytes.
2. Sciophytes – Plants, which require relatively less of light and they can grow better in shades are called sciophytes.

Question 5.
Explain the meaning of food web and draw its diagram.
Answer:
Food Web:
In nature, foodchains are not isolated sequences, but are interrelated and interconnected with one another. When many foodchains operate simultaneously and interlock such pattern is termed as food web. Thus, the food web is a description of feeding connections between the organisms which make up a community. Energy passes through one trophic level to next via these food web links, example a rat feeds on various kinds of grains, fruits, stems, roots, etc.

A rat in its turn is consumed by a snake which is eaten by a falcon. The snakes feed on both frogs and rats. Thus, a network of food – chains exists and this is called food web. The food web gets more complicated because of variability in taste and preference availability and compulsion and several other factors at each level. For example, tigers normally do not feed on fishes or crabs but in Sunderbans they are forced to eat them.

Question 6.
Explain calcium cycle with well labelled diagram.
Answer:

Question 7.
Draw ecological pyramid of number of a tree ecosystem and grassland ecosystem.
Answer:

Question 8.
What do you mean by ecosystem? Describe the important components of a pond ecosystem.
Or
Write about role of decomposers in an ecosystem with example.
Answer:
Ecosystem:
The system resulting from the interaction between organisms and their environment is called as ecosystem.

Components of a pond ecosystem:
A pond ecosystem should contain all components of ecosystems like:

1. Producers:
Organism, which can synthesize their own food are included under producers, example Volvox, Pandorina, Oedogonium, Saggitaria, Utricularia, Azolla, Trapa, Lemna, Typha, Nymphaea etc. form the producer class of the pond ecosystem.

2. Consumers:

• Primary consumer – Animals, which feed on producers are included into this category example Daphnia, Cyclops, Paramoecium, Amoeba and small fishes.
• Secondary consumers – Primary consumers also serve as food for water snakes, a few tortoise, few types of fish etc. hence, these are carnivores.
• Tertiary consumers – Secondary consumers also serve as food for aquatic birds like kingfisher, cranes, big fish and these together form a top class carnivorous group and called as tertiary consumers.

3. Decomposers:
All producers and consumers die and accumulate on the floor of the pond. Even the waste material and faeces of these animals get accumulated on the floor of the pond. Similarly, the floor of pond is also occupied by decomposers, which include bacteria and fungi. These decomposers decompose complex organic compounds of their bodies into simpler forms which are finally mixed with soil of floor of ponds. These are again absorbed by the roots of producer plants and thus matter is recycled.

Question 9.
Explain pyramid of biomass of pond ecosystem.
Answer:
The biomass, i.e., the living weight of the organisms in the foodchain present at different trophic levels in an ecosystem forms the pyramid of biomass. When biomass of consumers is greater than biomass of producer then pyramid is called as inverted pyramid of biomass. example pyramid of biomass of pond ecosysyem is always inverted.

Ecosystem:
The system resulting from the interaction between organisms and their environment is called as ecosystem.

Question 10.
Distinguish between:

1. Grazing food chain and Detritus food chain
2. Production and Decomposition
3. Upright and Inverted pyramid
4. Food chain and Food web
5. Litter and Detritus,
6. Primary and Secondary productivity

Answer:
1. Differences between Grazing food chain and Detritus food chain :

Grazing food chain:

• Energy for the food chain comes from the sun.
• First trophic level organisms are producers.

Detritus food chain:

• Energy comes from detritus (organic matter).
• First trophic level organisms are detritivores and decomposers.

2. Differences between Production and Decomposition :

Production:

• It refers to the process of synthesis of organic compounds from inorganic substances utilising sunlight.
• Example: Plants perform the function of production of food.

Decomposition:

• It is the phenomenon of degradation of waste biomass.
• Example : Bacteria and fungi decompose dead organic matter.

3. Differences between Upright pyramid and Inverted pyramid:
Upright pyramid:
When the number of producers or theirbiomass is maximum in an ecosystem and it decreases progressively at each trophic level in a food chain, an uprightpyramid is formed.

Inverted pyramid:
When the number of individuals or their biomass at the producer level is minimum and it Increases progressively at each trophic level in a food chain, an inverted pyramid is formed.

4. Differences between Food chain and Food web:

Food chain:

• A food chain is a single pathway where energy is transferred from producers to successive orders of consumers.
• All food chains start with green plants which are the original source of all food.
• Energy flow is unidirectional.

Food web:

• A food web is a network of various food chains which are interconnected with each other like an interlocking pattern.
• It has many linkages and intercrosscs among producers and consumers.
• Energy flow in multidirectional.

5. Differences between Litter and Detritus:
Litter:
The dead remains of plants (leaves, flowers etc.) and animals excreta which falls on the surface of the earth in terrestrial ecosystems is called litter.

Detritus:
The dead remains of plants and animals constitute detritus. It is differentiated into litter fall (above ground detritus) and below ground detritus.

6. Differences between Primary and Secondary productivity:

Primary productivity:

• It is the rate at which organic matter is built up by producers.
• It is due to photosynthesis.
• Primary productivity is two types :
  Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and Net Primary Productivity (NPP) GPP – R = NPP (R = loss in Respiration)

Secondary productivity:

• It is the rate of synthesis of organic matter by consumers.
• It is due to herbivory and predation.
• Secondary productivity is two types :
  Gross Secondary Productivity (GSP) and Net Secondary Productivity (NSP) NSP = GSP – R (Loss in Respiration)

Question 11.
What is primary productivity ? Give brief description of factors that affect primary productivity.
Answer:
The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
It is expressed in terms of g^-2yr^-1 or (kcal – m^-2) yr^-1 to compare the productivity of ecosystems. It can be divided into Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and Net Primary Productivity (NPP).

Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP). GPP – R = NPP

Primary productivity depends on:

• The plant species inhabiting a particular area.
• The environmental factors.
• Availability of nutrients.
• Photosynthetic capacity of plants.

Question 12.
Define decomposition and describe the processes and products of decomposition.
Answer:
Decomposition:
Decomposition is the process that involves the breakdown of complex organic matter or biomass from the body of dead plants and animals with the help of decomposers into inorganic raw materials such as carbon dioxide, water, and other nutrients.

The various processes involved in decomposition are as follows :

1. Fragmentation:
It is the first step in the process of decomposition. It involves the breakdown of detritus into smaller pieces by the action of detritivores such as earthworms.

2.Leaching:
It is a process where the water soluble nutrients go down into the soil layers and get locked as unavailable salts.

3. Catabolism:
It is a process in which bacteria and fungi degrade detritus through various enzymes into smaller pieces.

4. Humification:
The next step is humification which leads to the formation of a dark coloured colloidal substance called humus, which acts as reservoir of nutrients for plants.

5. Mineralization:
The humus is further degraded by the action of microbes, which finally leads to the release of inorganic nutrients into the soil. This process of releasing inorganic nutrients from the humus is known as mineralization. Decomposition produces a dark coloured, nutrient rich substance called humus. Humus finally degrades and releases inorganic raw materials such as CO₂, water, and other nutrient in the soil.

Question 13.
Given account of explain energy flow in ecosystem.
Answer:
Energy flow:
In the ecosystem, energy is transferred in an orderly sequence. The flow of solar energy from producers to consumers and to decomposers subsequently in an ecosystem is known as energy flow. Energy flow is an ecosystem is always unidirectional. Sun is the sole source of solar energy in an ecosystem. Green plants utilize this energy in photosynthesis and convert it in the form of chemical energy and store it.

Plants utilize maximum part of this energy to do its biological functions. Some of it is converted into heat and released in the environment. Remaining part of the energy is stored in various components of the body. When a consumer eats these producer plants, the energy is then transferred into its body.

In any food chain energy flows from primary producers to primary consumers, from primary consumers to secondary consumers and secondary consumers to tertiary consumers and so on. Because every organism of a trophic level continuously converts chemical energy into heat, there is always a loss of energy with each step in a food – chain. According to an estimate only 10% of the total energy obtained is transferred from one trophic level to another.

Question 14.
Write important features of a sedimentary cycle in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Sedimentary cycles have their reservoirs in the earth’s crust or rocks. Nutrient elements are found in the sediments of the earth. Elements such as sulphur, phosphorus, potassium, and calcium have sedimentary cycles. Sedimentary cycles are very slow. They take a long – time to complete their circulation and are considered as less perfect cycles. This is because during recycling, nutrient elements may get locked in the reservoir pool, thereby taking a very long – time to come out and continue circulation. Thus, it usually goes out of circulation for a long – time.

Ecosystem Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe various components of ecosystem.
Answer:
Ecosystem has following components:

1. Abiotic components:
The physical conditions of the ecosystem depends upon latitude, overall climatic and edaphic factors. The physical deficiencies are overcome by artificial irrigation and use of fertilizers. Thus, like natural ecosystem all organic, inorganic substances and climatic factors together forms abiotic component of the ecosystem.

• Organic substances : Such as carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, etc.
• Inorganic substances : Such as C, H, N, P, K, Ca, I, etc.
• Climatic factors : Such as temperature, light, water, humidity, wind, pH, minerals, soil structure, etc.

2. Biotic factors:
Three types are there

(a) Producers :
This type of crop (dominant species) depends upon the climate, season and the choice of the farmer.

(b) Consumers:

• Primary consumers : Insects, beetles, fishes, etc.
• Secondary consumers : Frog and fishes.
• Tertiary consumers : Snakes and cranes.

(c) Decomposers:
Bacteria, fungi etc.

Question 2.
Explain consumer components ecosystem of a pond in brief.
Answer:
Consumers:
They feed on producers directly or indirectly. It is of following categories:

1. Primary consumers:
Varied forms of zooplanktons are found in the water surface. Most of them are unicellular protists, such as Amoeba, Paramoecium whereas some are multicellular crustaceans, such as Daphnia, Cyclops, etc. Animals which are found under the surface of water are called as benthos, such as many types of fishes, crustaceans, molluscs, insects, beetles, etc. They too feed on producers.

2. Secondary consumers:
They feed on primary consumers, example big fishes, water snakes, etc.

3. Tertiary consumers:
They feed on secondary consumers, example kingfisher, cranes, omnivorous man, etc.

Question 3.
Describe carbon cycle in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Carbon Cycle:
Importance of carbon:
Carbon is considered as the basis of life. Carbon is the most important constituent of proteins, fats and nucleic acids which form the essential constituents of protoplasm.

Sources of carbon – The three sources of carbon in non – living world are:

• The carbon dioxide of the air and that which is dissolved in water.
• The rocks of the earth crust containing carbonates.
• The fossil fuel like coal and petroleum.

Recycling of carbon:
Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the main source of carbon for the living beings. The carbon of coal, graphite, petroleum are insoluble and carbonates are not available to the organism until they are burnt or chemically changed. Most of the carbon dioxide enters the living world through photosynthesis. In this process green plants trap CO₂ from atmosphere and convert it into carbohydrates by using water and solar energy.

The amount of the carbon fixed by photosynthesis is nearly 7 x 10¹³ kg/year. The organic compounds synthesized in photosynthesis are passed from plants to the herbivores and carnivores. It is estimated that one hectare of a healthy forest produces about 10 tonnes of oxygen and absorbs 30 tonnes of carbon dioxide annually.

Question 4.
What do you mean by trophic levels? What are ecological pyramids ? Explain various types of ecological pyramids.
Answer:
Trophic level:
In an ecosystem, the producer consumer arrangement is a kind of structure known as trophic structure and each food level in the food chain is called as trophic level or energy level. In other words each level of food in food chain is called its trophic level. The first trophic level (T₁) in an ecosystem is occupied by producers. Herbivores (primary consumers) form second trophic level (T₂), secondary consumers form third trophic level (T₃), tertiary consumers form fourth trophic level (T₄) and decomposers form fifth trophic level (T₅) in an ecosystem.

Food or Ecological pyramids:
If we express the organisms of various trophic levels according to their number, biomass and ratio of energy stores within it, then we obtain a cone or pyramid like structure which is known as food or ecological pyramid. Ecological pyramids represent the trophic structure and function of an ecosystem. In base and successive trophic levels the tiers which make up the apex. Ecological pyramids are of the following three types:

1. Pyramid of biomass
2. Pyramid of number
3. Pyramid of energy.

1. Pyramid of Biomass:
Biomass is the dry weight of living organisms per unit of space. The ecological pyramid, which shows the quantitative relationship of the standing crop at each trophic level/The pyramid of biomass shows gradual reduction in biomass at each trophic level from base to apex.

The pyramid of biomass may be :

• Upright – example all terrestrial ecosystems.
• Inverted – example all aquatic ecosystems.

2. Pyramid of Number:
The ecological pyramid which shows the number of individual organisms at each trophic level. It represents numerical relationship between different trophic level of a food chain. In this pyramid more abundant species from the first trophic level and from the base of pyramid and the less abundant species remain near the top. The pyramid of number may be:

• Upright : example grassland, pond, forest ecosystem.
• Inverted : example ecosystem of tree.

3. Pyramid of Energy:
It indicates the total amount of energy at each trophic level of the food chain. At each producer level, the total energy available is relatively more than at the higher trophic levels because of the loss of the energy at each trophic level. Thus, there is a gradual loss of energy at each trophic level. The pyramid of energy of each types of ecosystem is always upright.

Question 5.
What is meant by terrestrial biomes? What are its types? Explain any one biomes in detail.
Answer:
Terrestrial biome:
Large area occupying ecosystems in nature are called biomes. If biomes are on land than they are called terrestrial biomes.
Terrestrial biomes may be :

1. Forest biomes – They may be as below :

• Topical rain forest
• Cold tropical forest
• Taiga forest.

2. Grassland biomes – They may be as below:

• Tropical rain forest
• Cold tropical forest

3. Desert biomes

4. Tundra biomes.

Grassland biome – Grassland biome or ecosystem has long grasses, Its, land is fertile. It receives approximately 25 to 75 cm average rainfall. Its component are:

1. Abiotic component:
All organic, inorganic substances and climatic factors together form abiotic component.

2. Biotic component:

• Producers – Grasses, herb, shrubs.
• Primary consumers – Herbivore like cow, buffalo, goats, sheep, deer, rabbit, rat insect.
• Secondary consumers – Carnivore animals which eat primary consumers, like snake, birds, foxes, jackal etc.
• Tertiary consumers – These organism which eat secondary consumers because no other one eats them, like Hawk, Peacock etc.
• Decomposers – Micro fungus, Bacteria, Actinomycetes are decomposer of grassland biomes and recycle the material back to soil and used by producers.

Question 6.
What are biogeochemical cycles? Write in short sulphur and calcium cycle.
Answer:
Biogeochemical cycles:
All living organisms get matter from the biosphere components i.e., lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere. Essential elements or inorganic substances are provided by earth and are required by organisms for their body building and metabolism, they are known as biogeochemicals or biogenetic nutrients.

Sulphur cycle:
Producers (green plants) need sulphur in the form of sulphates from soil or from water (aquatic plants). The animals get sulphur through food. Some animals get sulphur from water also. Sulphur is found in three amino acids hence, sulphur is component of most proteins, some vitamins and enzymes. Plants pick up sulphur in the form of sulphates. They are converted to organic form mostly as component of some amino acids. It is found in nature as element and also as sulphates in soil, water and rocks. After the death of plants and animals, they are decomposed by microbes like Asperigillus, Neurospora and Escherichia releasing hydrogen sulphide.

Calcium cycle:
Calcium is slowly released from the rocks by water and wind action. These are either blown into the air or absorbed by plants through their roots. Animals obtain it directly as compounds and also from plants. Calcium is released from plant and animal bodies by decomposition after death. Molluscs and Corals deposit a large quantity of calcium in their shells and skeletons making it unavailable for quick cycling.

MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions