Prasanna

MP Board Class 11th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 8 Redox Reactions

Redox Reactions Important Questions

Redox Reactions Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Metals used in Daniel cell are:
(a) N and Cu
(b) Zn and Ag
(c) Ag and Cu
(d) Zn and Cu
Answer:
(d) Zn and Cu

Question 2.
Which of the following is strongly reducing:
(a) r
(b) cr
(c) Bf
(d) r
Answer:
(d) r

Question 3.
Oxidation in electrolyte occurs:
(a) At anode
(b) At cathode
(c) At both the electrodes
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) At anode

Question 4.
Which of the following statement is correct? Galvanic cell converts:
(a) Chemical energy to electrical energy
(b) Electrical energy to chemical energy
(c) Electrical state of metal to combined state
(d) Electrolytes to ions
Answer:
(b) Electrical energy to chemical energy

Question 5.
Oxidation number of chlorine in HOCl is:
(a) – 1
(b) 0
(c) +I
(d) +2
Answer:
(c) +I

Question 6.
Oxidation number of Mn in K₂MnO₄ is:
(a) +2
(b) +6
(c) +7
(d) 0
Answer:
(b) +6

Question 7.
Oxidation number of Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇ is:
(a) -6
(b) +6
(c) +2
(d) -2.
Answer:
(b) +6

Question 8.
Oxidation number of Ni in Ni(CO)₄ is:
(a) 0
(b) +2
(c) +1
(d) – 1.
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 9.
Unit of cell constant is:
(a) ohm^-1cm^-1
(b) ohm cm
(c) cm
(d) cm^-1
Answer:
(d) cm^-1

Question 10.
Oxidation state of nitrogen is maximum in:
(a) N₃H
(b) NH₂OH
(c) N₂H₄
(d) NH₃
Answer:
(a) N₃H

Question 11.
Oxidation state of oxygen is zero in:
(a) CO
(b) O₃
(c) SO₂
(d) H₂O₂
Answer:
(b) O₃

Question 12.
Oxidation state of Fe in K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is:
(a) +2
(b) +6
(c) +3
(d) +4
Answer:
(a) +2

Question 13.
Oxidation state of S In H₂S₂O₈ is:
(a) +2
(b) +4
(c) +6
(d) +7
Answer:
(c) +6

Question 14.
Oxidation state of Mn in KMnO₄ is:
(a) +4
(b) +6
(c) +7
(d) +5
Answer:
(c) +7

Question 15.
oxidation state of chlorine is in:
(a) HCl
(b) HClO₄
(c) ICI
(d) Cl₂O
Answer:
(d) Cl₂O

Question 16.
Oxidation state of Cl in ClO₃^– ion is:
(a) +4
(b) +5
(c) +3
(d) +2
Answer:
(b) +5

Question 17.
Halogen which is reduced most easily is:
(a) I₂
(b) Br₂
(c) Cl₂
(d) F₂
Answer:
(a) I₂

Question 18.
Oxidation state of C in CCl₄ is:
(a) +4
(b) -4
(c) +6
(d) – 6
Answer:
(a) +4

Question 19.
Oxidation state of S in S0₄^-2 is:
(a) +6
(b) -6
(c) +5
(d) – 5
Answer:
(a) +6

Question 20.
Oxidizing agent are:
(a) Electron acceptor
(b) Electron donor
(c) Proton acceptor
(d) Neutron acceptor
Answer:
(a) Electron acceptor

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Process of loss of electrons is called ……………………..
2. Process of gain of electrons is called …………………….
3. The deterioration of metals in presence of atmospheric gases and moisture is called …………………………
4. A device in which electric energy gets converted to chemical energy is called …………………….. cell
5. In electrochemical series the ability to reduce ………………………… on moving down
6. Most strong reducing element is ………………………….
7. Most strong oxidizing element is ………………………..
8. Theory of dissociation of electrolyte was proposed by ……………………….

Answer:

1. Oxidation
2. Reduction
3. Corrosion
4. Electrochemical cell
5. Decreases
6. Lithium
7. Fluorine
8. Arrhenius

Question 3.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. What is balanced redox reaction?
2. Why does iron displaced copper from its salt solution?
3. What is the oxidation state of chlorine in Cl₂O?
4. Why does an electrolyte dissociate into ions when dissolved in water?
5. A saturated solution of KNO₃ is used for the formation of salt bridge. Why?
6. In SnCl₂ + 2 FeCl₃ → SnCl₄ + 2 FeCl₂, reaction which element is oxidizing agent?
7. What is oxidation state of Xe in XeO₃?

Answer:

1. Redox reaction in which amount of oxidation and reduction is to the same extent.
2. Because standard eletrode potential value of iron is less then the standard electrode potential of copper.
3. +1
4. Because the electrostate attractive force between the ions break due to water.
5. Because the speed of K⁺ and NO₃ and is almost same.
6. FeCl₃
7. +6

Question 4.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (e)

Redox Reactions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why iron displaces copper from its salt solution?
Answer:
Because the standard electrode potential of iron is less than copper.

Question 2.
What is the oxidation number of Cl in Cl₂O?
Answer:
+1.

Question 3.
When an electrolyte is dissolved in water, it dissociates into ions? Why?
Answer:
Because due to water the electrostatic attraction force between the ions breaks.

Question 4.
Why the saturated solution of KNO₃ is used to prepare salt bridge?
Answer:
Because the speed of K⁺ and NO₃^– ions is similar.

Question 5.
In SnCl₂ + 2FeCl₃ → SnCl₄ + 2FeCl₂, which is oxidizing agent?
Answer:
FeCl₃.

Question 6.
What is the oxidation number of Xe in XeO₃?
Answer:
+6.

Question 7.
Which metal is used in Daniel cell?
Answer:
Lithium.

Question 8.
What is the oxidation state of Mn in K₂MnO₄?
Answer:
+6.

Question 9.
Which is the most reducing element?
Answer:
Lithium.

Question 10.
Who maintains the neutrality among the two half cells?
Answer:
Salt bridge.

Question 11.
What is the standard electrode potential of SHE?
Answer:
0.00V (Zero).

Question 12.
Which is the best conducting metal?
Answer:
Silver (Ag).

Question 13.
The reaction 3ClO^–_aq → Cl₃^– + 2Cl^– is an example of?
Answer:
Disproportionation reaction.

Question 14.
Which halogen reduces very easily?
Answer:
F₂.

Question 15.
Which reaction is called electron acceptance reaction?
Answer:
Reduction.

Question 16.
Where oxidation occurs in electrolysis?
Answer:
At anode.

Redox Reactions Short Answer Type Questions – I

Counting atoms calculator in my website step-by-step explanation.

Question 1.
What is oxidation process? Explain redox reaction with example?
Answer:
Oxidation state of an element is defined as “The residual charge left on its atom”. When all the other atoms are removed from the molecule as ion.

2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO [Addition of oxygen]
2FeCl₂ → 2FeCl₃ [Addition of electronegativity element]
H₂S + Cl₂ → S + 2HCl [Removal of hydrogen]
2Ki + H₂O₂ → 2KOH + I₂ [Removal of electropositive element]

Question 2.
What is reduction process? Explain with example?
Answer:
The ability of any substance to accept hydrogen atom or +ve electrolytic element or to release oxygen or – ve element is called reduction process.
CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O [Remove of oxygen]
2FeCl₃ + H₂ S → 2FeCl₂ + 2HCl + S [Removal of electromagnetive element]
Cl₂ + H₂S → 2 HCl + S [Addition of H]
S + Fe → Fes [Addition of electropositive element]

Question 3.
AgF₂ is unstable compound, but if it is formed then it will acts as strong oxidising agent Why?
Answer:
In AgF₂, Ag has oxidation state +2, it is highly unstable, it very easily accept electron and forms oxidation state +1. Because Ag⁺ has stable configuration so it is stable.
Ag2⁺ + e^– → Ag⁺
This is the reason why AgF₂ behaves as a strong oxidizing agent.

Question 4.
By the structure of S₄O₆^2-clarify that the oxidation state of S is +5?
Answer:
The oxidation state of two central sulphur atom is 0. As the electron pair remains in the centre cf the bond. So the remaining sulphur atom has oxidation state 4 – 5.

⇒ 6(-2) + 2x = -2
⇒ -12 + 2x = -2
⇒ 2x = -2 + 12 = 10
⇒ x = \(\frac{10}{2}\) = 5.

Question 5.
What is electrochemical series?
Answer:
Electrochemical series:
When different elements and ions are arranged in increasing order of their standard electrode potential, a series is obtained which is called electrochemical series as activity series.

Question 6.
What is salt bridge? Write its two uses?
Answer:
1. It connects the solution in two half ceil and completes the cell circuit

2. The salt bridge which contains the solution of an electrolyte say K⁺NO₃^– maintains the electrical neutrality by diffusion of ion through it. As positive ion begins to be formed in oxidation half cell negative ion from the salt bridge diffuse out into this half cell. Similarly, as the positive Ion begin to be consumed in the reduction.

Hair cell positive:
On from the salt bridge diffuse out into this half cell. As a result the solution in the two half cell remain electrically neutral and the current continous to flow.

Question 7.
On the basis of electron transfer explain oxidation and reduction reactions?
Answer:
Reactions involving exchange of electrons are called redox reaction. Reaction given below
2FeCl₃ + SnCl₂ → 2FeCl₂ + SnCl₄
It is an example of redox reaction in which FeCl₃ is oxidizing agent while SnCl₂ is a reducing agent.

According to electronic concept during oxidation substance loses one or more electron and its positive oxidation number increases while negative oxidation number decreases. (MPBoardSolutions.com) On the other hand, during reduction substance gains one or more electron and is positive oxidation number decreases while negative oxidation number increases.

Question 8.
What is electrochemical equivalent?
Answer:
According to Faraday’s first law:
The mass of any substance deposited at any electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed.

Thus, if W gm substance is deposited on passing Q coulomb electricity, then W ∝ Q or W = ZQ
Where, Z is a constant of proportionality and is called electrochemical equivalent of the substance deposited. If a current of I ampere is passed for t second, then Q = I × t. (MPBoardSolutions.com) So that, W = Z × Q = Z × I × r

Thus, if, Q = 1 coulomb, 1=1 ampere and t = 1 second, then W = Z. Hence, electrochemical equivalent of a substance may be defined as, “The mass of the substance deposited when a current of one ampere is passed for one second”.

As one Faraday (96500 C) deposits one gram equivalent of the substance, hence, electrochemical equivalent can be calculated from the equivalent mass.
\(\frac { Equivalentmassofthesubstance\quad }{ 96500 } \)

Question 9.
What happens when Zn is kept in CuS0₄ solution? Explain with equation?
Answer:
The reaction occurring in the beaker may be written as

Cancelling the common S0₄²⁺ ions
Zn_(s) + Cu²⁺_(eq) → Zn²⁺_(eq) + Cu_(s)
In this case Zinc metal loses electron and gets oxidised to Zn⁺⁺ ions which goes into the solution. Due to this, weight of zinc plate gradually decreases. On the other hand, electrons lost by Zinc atom are taken up by Cu²⁺ ions of CuS0₄ solution.

Question 10.
What do you mean by standard electrode potential?
Answer:
Standard electrode potential: Standard electrode potential (E°) of a half cell (electrode) is the potential difference which is produced when one electrode is dipped in the solution of molar concentration of its ion at 298 K. (MPBoardSolutions.com) If electrode is gaseous, the pressure of gas must be one atmosphere.
In IUPAC system reduction potentials are known as standard electrode potential.

Question 11.
The reaction Cl_2(g) + 2OH^–_(aq) → ClO^–_(aq) + Cl^–_(aq) + H₂O_(l) represents the process of bleaching. Identify and name species that bleaches the substances due to its oxidizing action?
Answer:

In this reaction, O. N. of Cl increases from 0 in Cl₂ to +1 in ClO^– and decreases to -1 in Cl^–. Therefore, Cl₂ is both oxidized to ClO^– and reduced to Cl^– (Disproportionation reaction). Since, Cl^– ion cannot act as oxidizing agent (Because it cannot decrease its O.N. lower than -1) therefore, Cl₂ bleaches substance due to oxidizing action of ClO^– (Hypochlorite) ion.

Question 12.
Define oxidizing agent and reducing agent?
Answer:
Oxidizing agent:
A substance which brings oxidation is called oxidising agent. On the basis of electronic theory, an oxidizing agent may be defined as an electron acceptor. i.e. (MPBoardSolutions.com) in the reaction between Zn atom and Cu²⁺ ion in aqueous solution of Cu²⁺ salt, Cu²⁺ ion is the oxidizing agent as it brings about the oxidation of Zn atom by gaining the electron lost by it.
Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn² + Cu
(Gains e^–)
(∴ Oxidising agent)
Thus, oxidizing agent or oxidant undergoes gain of electrons during the reaction.
Reducing agent:
A substance which brings about reduction is called a reducing agent. On the basis of electronic theory, a reducing agent may be defined as an electron donor, e.g., in reaction between Zn atom (MPBoardSolutions.com) Cu²⁺ ion in an aqueous salt solution of Cu²⁺, Zn atom is the reducing agent as it brings about reduction of Cu²⁺ ion by losing the electrons.
Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu
(Loses e^–)
(∴Reducing agent)

Question 13.
If iron rod is dipped in CuS0₄ solution then copper is displaced from its solution by iron but when copper rod is dipped in FeS04 solution. Why iron is not displaced by copper? Explain?
Answer:
Fe occupies higher position in electrochemical series than Cu. So, Fe is more active than Cu. That is why Fe displaces Cu from CuS0₄ solution, but Cu is not able to displace Fe from FeS0₄ solution.

Question 14.
What is oxidation number?
Answer:
Oxidation number of an element is defined as, “The residual charge left on its atom when all the other atoms are removed from the molecule as ions.” Atoms can have positive, negative or zero oxidation state depending upon their state of combination. (MPBoardSolutions.com) In fact, oxidation number is the charge assigned to the atom in a species according to some rules. It is also known as oxidation state.

Question 15.
In electrochemical series, the activity of metals increases or decreases in which sequence?
Answer:
Species present in the right of electrochemical series are reducing agent. Smaller the value of E°, stronger is the reducing agent. The activity of metals decrease on going down the electrochemical series.

Question 16.
What is E° value be + ve shows in Galvanic cell?
Answer:
The positive value of E° shows:

1. Oxidation occurs at anode and
2. The electrode where reduction occurs can be taken as cathode.

Question 17.
What is electrode potential? Its value depends on what factors?
Answer:
The electrical potential difference setup between the metal and its solution is known as electrode potential.
The electrode potential depends upon:

1. Concentration of ions in the solution
2. Temperature.

Question 18.
On the basis of standard electrode potential given below, arrange the metals in their increasing reducing power?
K⁺/ K = – 2.93V, Ag⁺/ Ag = 0.80V, Hg²⁺/ Hg = 0.79V, Mg²⁺/ Mg = -2.37V, Cr³⁺/ Cr = -0.74V?
Answer:
Less the value of E°, the reducing power increases of the metal. So the sequence is Ag < Hg < Cr < Mg < K.

Question 19.
Among MgO, ZnO, CuO and CaO which oxide will reduce by hydrogen?
Answer:
Mg, Zn and Ca are more reactive than H in electrochemical series. So they will not reduced by H. Cu is present below H, so the reactivity of Cu is less than H. So CuO will easily get reduced by H.

Question 20.
The electrode potential (E°) of Ag, Ba, Mg and Au are +0.80, -2.90, -2.37 and +1.42 volt. Among these metals which will displace H from acids and which will not?
Answer:
Those metals which have E° value negative they are more reactive than hydrogen and can easily displace H from weak acids. So, Ba and Mg can displace H from acid solution.

Question 21.
Can be put CuSO₄ solution in silver container? Why?
Answer:
In electrochemical series Ag comes below Cu, so reactivity of Ag is less than Cu. There Ag will not displace Cu from CuSO₄ solution. CuSO₄ can be kept in Ag container.

Redox Reactions Short Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
Fluorine reacts with ice as follows:
H₂O_(s) → HF_(g) + HOF_(g)
Justify that, this reaction is a redox reaction.
Answer:

Since, fluorine can undergo oxidation as well as reduction, it is an example of redox reaction.

Question 2.
In acidic medium MnO₄^2- shows disproportionation reaction but MnO₄^– does not show why?
Answer:
In oxidation state of Mn in MnO₄^-2 is +6. It can increase oxidation state (+7) and decrease (+4, +3, +2, 0 etc.). So in acidic medium it shows disproportionation reaction.

In MnO₄^–, Mn has maximum oxidation state (+7). It can only decrease its oxidation state. Due to which it cannot show disproportionation reaction.

Question 3.
In the following reaction whose oxidation and whose reduction occur:
PbS + 4H₂O₂ → PbSO₄ + 4H₂O
Answer:
In this reaction PbS is oxidized as PbSO₄ and H₂O₂ is reduced to form H₂O.

Question 4.
Differentiate between oxidation number and valency?
Answer:
Differences between Oxidation number and Valency:
Oxidation:

1. It is the residual charge left on the atom of an element when all other atoms are removed from molecule or ion.
2. It refers to charge and can be positive, negative or zero, e.g., oxidation number of C in CO₂ is +4 and that of oxygen is -2.
3. It may have fractional value.
4. Elements like C, N, O have variable oxidation number.

Valency:

1. It is the combining capacity of the element expressed as number of H – atom or double the number of oxygen atoms which combine with one atom of the element.
2. It refers to number only and does not carry any sign, e.g., in CO₂ valency of carbon is 4 and that of oxygen is 2.
3. It is always a whole number.
4. Elements like C, N, O exhibit constant valency.

Question 5.
Why fluorine doesn’t show disproportionation reaction?
Answer:
Like chlorine, bromine and iodine also undergo similar disproportionation reactions but fluorine does not. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that fluorine being the strongest oxidizing agent does not show positive oxidation states. It, therefore, reacts in a different way forming oxygen difluoride (OF2).
2F_2(g) + 2OH^–_(g) → 2F^–_(aq) + OF_2(g) + H₂O_(l)

Question 6.
Show that galvanic cell where following reaction occurs:
Zn_(s) + 2Ag⁺_(aq) → Zn²⁺_(aq) + 2 Ag_(s)
Now explain :

1. Which electrode is -ve?
2. What is the motive of electricity in cell?
3. What is the reaction occurring on each electrode?

Answer:
Galvanic cell Zn_{(s) ∥} Zn²⁺_(aq)Ag(aq) ∥ Ag⁺_(aq) ∥ Ag_(s)

1. Zn electrode is negatively charged. Zn is oxidized into Zn⁺².
2. Electricity flows from Ag electrode to Zn electrode and electrons flow from Zn to Ag electrode.
3. Reactions on electrode:

Cathode — Zn_(s) → Zn⁺²_(s) + 2e^–
Anode — 2Ag⁺_(aq) + 2e^– → 2Ag_(s)

Question 7.
Write the definition of electrochemical cell? Write the chemical reactions of Daniel cell?
Answer:
An electrochemical cell (Galvanic cell) is a device in which the redox reaction takes place indirectly and the decrease in free energy appears in the form of electrical work i.e. chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.

Question 8.
Write the factors affecting electrode potential?
Answer:
The factors affecting electrode potential are:

1. Tendency of metal to donate electrons: More the tendency to release electron more will be electrode potential.
2. Temperature: With increasing temperature electrode potential increases.
3. Concentration of solution: More the concentration of solution more will be electrode potential.

Question 9.
Determine the oxidation number of following:

1. Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇
2. Mn in KMnO₄
3. S in Na₂S₄O₆.

Solution:
1. Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇
2 (+1) + 2x + 7 (-2) = 0
or 2 + 2x – 14 = 0
or 2x = 12
or x = +6.

2. Mn in KMnO₄
1 (+1) + 1x + 4(-2) = 0
or 1 + x – 8 = 0
or x = +7.

3. S in Na₂S₄O₆
2 (+1) + 4x + 6 (-2) = 0
or 2 + 4x – 12 = 0
or 4x = 10
or x = 2.5.

Question 10.
Why does the following reactions occur:
XeO_6(aq)^4- + 2F^–_(aq) + 6H⁺_(aq) → XeO_3(g) + F_2(g) + 3H₂O_(l)?
What conclusion about the compound Na₄XeO₆ (of which XeO₆^4- is a part) K₂MnF₆ can be drawn from the reaction?
Answer:

O.N. of Xe decreases from +8 to +6. This shows that XeO₆^4- is an oxidizing agent. It oxidises F^– to F₂. This reaction shows that Na₂XeO₆ (or XeO₆^–) is a stronger oxidizing agent than F₂.

Question 11.
Chlorine is used to purify drinking water. Excess of chlorine is harmful. The excess chlorine is removed by treating with sulphur dioxide. Present a balanced equation for this redox change taking place in water?
Answer:

Multiplying Cl^– by 2 (As 2 atoms are in Cl₂)
Cl_2(aq) + SO_2(aq) + H₂O_(l) → 2Cl^–_(aq) + SO₄^2-_(aq)
On adding 4H⁺ in left side and multiplying in H₂O by 2,
Cl_2(aq) + SO_2(aq) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2Cl^–_(aq) + SO₄^2- + 4H⁺
It is a balanced disproportionation reaction.

Question 12.
Differentiate between electrochemical cell and electrolytic cell?
Answer:
Differences between electrochemical cell and electrolytic cell:
Electrochemical (Galvanic) cell:

1. In Galvanic cell, chemical energy is changed into electrical energy.
2. Reaction in Galvanic cell is spontaneous.
3. Oxidation and reduction occurs in different half cell.
4. Anode is negative while cathode is positive terminal.
5. The electrons move from anode to cathode in the external circuit.

Electrolytic cell:

1. In electrolytic cell, electrical energy is changed into chemical energy.
2. Reaction in electrolytic cell is non – spontaneous.
3. Oxidation and reduction occurs in same container.
4. Anode is positive while cathode is negative terminal.
5. The electrons are supplied by the external circuit which enter through the cathode and came out through anode.

Question 13.
What is Nernst equation? Derive relation between E and E°?
Answer:
In Standard cell, the concentration of the solution used is 1M and the temperature is maintained at 25°C (For 298K). But the Galvanic cells are often constructed under non standard condition. In such cases the cell voltage (or EMF) is calculated by Nernst equation as follows:
E = E° – \(\frac{RT}{nF}\) log_e \(\frac { M_{ (s) } }{ M^{ n+ }_{ (aq) } } \)
or E = E° + \(\frac{RT}{nF}\) log_e \(\frac { M^{ n+ }_{ (aq) } }{ M_{ (s) } } \)
In changing log_e in log₁₀
or E = E° + \(\frac{2.303}{nF}\) log₁₀ \(\frac { M^{ n+ }_{ (aq) } }{ M_{ (s) } } \) [M_(s) = 1]
or E = E° + \(\frac{2.303RT}{nF}\) log₁₀[Mⁿ⁺_(aq)]
or E = E° + \(\frac{0.0591}{nF}\) log₁₀ [Mⁿ⁺_(aq)].

Question 14.
Consider the reactions:
2S₂O₃^2-_(aq) + I_2(s) → S₄O₆^2-_(aq) + 2I^–_(aq)
S₂O₃^2-_(aq) → 2SO₄^2-_(aq) + 4Br^–_(aq) + 10H⁺_(aq)
Why does the same reductant, thiosulphate reacts differently with iodine and bromine?
Answer:
Br₂ is stronger oxidizing agent than I₂, it oxidises SO₃^2- to SO₄^2- i. e. from +2 state to +6 state of sulphur. However, I₂ being weaker oxidizing agent, oxidises S₂O₃^2- to S₄O₆^2- ion i.e. from + 2 to + 2.5 state of sulphur.

Redox Reactions Long Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
What is standard hydrogen electrode? How it is prepared?
Answer:
Standard hydrogen electrode: This consists of gas at 1 atmospheric pressure bubbling over a platinum electrode immersed in 1 M HCl at 25°C (298 K) as shown in figure. The platinum electrode is coated with platinum black to atmospheric increase its surface. (MPBoardSolutions.com) The hydrogen electrode thus Pressure constructed forms a half cell which on coupling with any other half cell begins to work on the principle of oxidation or reduction. Electrode depending upon the 1 M H+solution circumstances works both as anode or cathode.

Cell reaction of standard hydrogen electrode platinum electrode (SHE) when it acts as anode is
H_2(g) → 2H⁺ + 2e^–
It is represented as
H_2(g)(1 atm) Pt | H₃O⁺_(aq)(1.0 M)
When it acts as cathode, the cell reaction is
2H⁺ + 2e^– → H_2(aq)
and it is represented as
H₃O⁺_(aq) (1.0 M) | H_2(g) (1 atm) Pt
Standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) is arbitarily assigned a potential of zero.

Question 2.
On the basis of electrode potential explain which reaction is feasible:
E°_Cu2+/Cu = 0.34 V, E°_Zn2+/Zn = -0.76 V, E°_Mg2+/Mg = 2.37 V, E°_Fe2+/Fe = -0.74V

1. Cu + Zn²⁺ → Cu²⁺ + Zn
2. Mg + Fe²⁺ → Mg²⁺ + Fe.

Solution:
1. Cu + Zn²⁺ → Cu²⁺ + Zn
E°_Cu²⁺/Cu = 0.34 V and E°_Zn2+/Zn = – 0.76 V
In given cell, Cu oxidised to Cu²⁺. So Cu²⁺/Cu will act as anode and Zn²⁺/Zn acts as cathode.
E°_cell = E°_cathode – E°_anode
E°_cell = – 0.74 – (-2.37) = +1.63V
E°_cell = +Ve, shows that the reaction is feasible.

2. Mg + Fe²⁺ → Mg²⁺ + Fe
E°_Mg²⁺_/Mg = 2.37 V and E°_Cu²⁺/Cu = – 0.74 V
Mg oxidised to Mg²⁺ and acts as anode Mg²⁺/Mg.
Fe²⁺ reduced to Fe and acts as cathode Fe²⁺/Fe.
E°_cell = E°_cathode – E°_anode
E°_cell = – 0.74 – (-2.37) = +1.63 V

Question 3.
While sulphur dioxide and hydrogen peroxide can act as oxidizing as well as reducing agents in their reactions, ozone and nitric acid act only as oxidants, why?
Answer:
In sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂), the oxidation states of sulphur and oxygen are +4 and -1 respectively. Since, they can increase as well as decrease when there compounds take part in chemical reaction, they can act as oxidizing as well as reducing agents. For example,
Increase in O.N.

In ozone (O₃), the oxidation state of oxygen is zero while in nitric acid (HNO₃), the oxidation state of nitrogen is +5. Since, both of them can undergo decrease in oxidation state and not an increase in its value, they can act only as oxidizing agents and not as reducing agents.

In ozone (O₃), the oxidation state of oxygen is zero while in nitric acid (HNO₃), the oxidation state of nitrogen is + 5. Since both them can undergo decrease in oxidation state and not an increase in its value, they can act only as oxidizing agents and not as reducing agents.

Question 4.
How do you count for the following observation though alkaline potassium permanganate and acidic potassium permanganate both are used as oxidants, yet in manufacture of benzoic acid from toluene we use alcoholic potassium permanganate as an oxidant, why? Write a balanced redox equation for the reaction?
Answer:
Toluene can be oxidized to benzoic acid in acidic, alkaline and neutral medium by using potassium permanganate.

1. In acidic medium:
[MnO^–_4(aq) + 8H⁺_(aq) + 5e^– → Mn²⁺_(aq) + 4H₂O_(l)] × 6

In the manufacture of benzoic acid alcoholic KMnO₄ is more useful.
Alcohol if used as solvent will help in the formation of a homogeneous mixture between toluene (non – polar) and KMnO₄ (ionic). Actually alcohol has non – polar alkyl group as well as polar OH^– group.

Question 5.
How the redox reactions are balanced by ion – electron method?
Answer:
The redox reactions are balanced by ion – electron method are as follows:
1. Indicate oxidation number of each element and identify the elements which undergoes change in oxidation number.

2. Indicate increase and decrease in oxidation number per atom. Multiply the increase or decrease in oxidation number with number of atoms undergoing the change.

3. Multiply the formula with suitable integer to equalise the increase and decrease in oxidation number.

4. Balance O atoms:
K₂Cr₂O₇ + 6HCl + xHCl → 2KCl + 2CrCl₃ + yCl₂ + H₂O + 6H₂O

5. Balance H atoms:
K₂Cr₂O₇ + 6HCl + 8 HCl → 2KCl + 2CrCl₃ + 3Cl₂ + 7H₂O
Here x = 8 and y = 3 to balance Cl atoms
K₂Cr₂^2-O₇ + 14 HCl → 2KCl + 2rCl₃ + 3Cl₂ + 7H₂O.
Example 2. Cr₂O₇^2- + Fe²⁺ + H⁺ → Cr³⁺ + Fe³⁺ + H₂O.
Solution:
Step 1. (Cr₂O₇)^2- + Fe²⁺ + H⁺ → Cr³⁺ + Fe³⁺ + H₂O.

Step 2.

Step 3.
Multiply Fe by 6 to equalise increase or decrease in O.N.
Cr₂O₇^2- + 6Fe²⁺ + H⁺ → Cr³⁺ + Fe³⁺ + H₂O

Step 4.
Balance atoms other than O and H
Cr₂O₇^2- + 6Fe²⁺ + H⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 6Fe³⁺ + H₂O

Step 5.
Balance O atoms
Cr₂O₇^2- + 6Fe²⁺ + H⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 6Fe³⁺ + H₂O + 6H₂O

Step 6.
Balance H atoms
Cr₂O₇^2- + 6Fe²⁺ + 14H⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 6Fe³⁺ + 7H₂O.

Question 6.
On the basis of electrode potential values given below? Determine reaction between reactants will occur or not?

Answer:
For feasibility of any reaction E° = +ve.
E°_cell = E°_cathode – E°_anode
(a) Fe³⁺_(aq) and I^–_(aq):
2Fe³⁺ + 2I^–_(aq) → 2Fe²⁺_(aq) + 2I_2g
Half cell reaction (oxidation)
2I^–_(aq) → I_2(g) + 2e^– E° = – 0.54 V
Reducion half cell,
2Fe³⁺_(aq) + 2e^– → 2Fe²⁺_(aq) E° = +0.77 V
Complete reaction,
2Fe³⁺_(aq) + 2I^–_(aq) → 2Fe²⁺_(aq) + I_2(g) E°_cell = +0.23 V
E° = +ve, reaction is feasible.

(b) Ag⁺_(aq) and Cu_(s)²⁺:
2Ag_(aq) + Cu_(s) → Cu²⁺_(aq) + 2Ag_(aq)
Oxidation half reaction,
Cu_(s) → Cu²⁺_(aq) + 2e^– E° = – 0.34 V
Reduction half reaction,
2Ag⁺_(aq) + 2e^– → 2Ag_(s) E° = – 0.80 V
Complete reaction,
Cu_(s) + 2Ag⁺_(aq) → Cu²⁺_(aq) + 2Ag_(s) E°_cell = +0.46 V

Question 7.
Give the main characteristics of electrochemical series?
Answer:
The main characteristics of electrochemical series are:

1. Tendency to loose electron becomes greater and the corresponding element or ion behaves as strong reducing agent if it has greater negative value of E°.
2. The substances above hydrogen are weak oxidising agents and substances below it are strong oxidising agents.
3. If the reducing agent of electrode pair is strong reducing agent, its oxidising agent is weak and when reducing agent of electrode pair is weak, its oxidising agent is strong.
4. In series the reducing efficiency decreases from above to downwards.
5. The more the positive value of E°(MPBoardSolutions.com) the stronger is its oxidising properties. In the series the oxidising power of cation decreases as we move upwards from downwards.
6. In series the electropositive character of metals decreases from upwards to downwards.
7. Along the series the electronegative character of non – metal increases from upward to downwards.
8. The metals which come prior to hydrogen displaces hydrogen from acids,
9. The metals which occupy higher position in the series displaces metals which come later in series from their salt solution.

Question 8.
Balance the equation by oxidation number method and identify the oxidising agent and reducing agent?
Cl₂O_7(g) → ClO₂^–_(aq) + O_2(g).
Answer:
Oxidation number method:

Balance the increase and decrease in O.N. multiply H₂O₂ by 4,
Cl₂O₇ + 4H₂O₂ → ClO₂^– + O₂
Balance atom other,
Cl₂O_7(g) + 4H₂O_2(aq) → 2ClO₂^–_(aq) + 4O_2(g)
Balance ‘H’,
Cl₂O_7(g) + 4H₂O_2(aq) + 2OH^–_(aq) → 2ClO₂^–_(aq) + 4O_2(g) + 5H₂O.

Question 9.
Whenever a reaction between an oxidizing agent and a reducing agent is carried out compound of lower oxidation state is formed if the reducing agent is ¡n excess and compound of higher oxidation state is formed if the oxidising agent is in excess. Justify this statement by giving three illustrations?
Answer:
1. Let us consider the reaction between carbon and oxygen.
Reducing agent + Oxidising agent

2. Let us consider the reaction between white phosphorous (P₄) and Cl_2(g)

3. Let us consider the reaction between sulphur and oxygen.
Reducing agent + Oxidising agent

Redox Reactions Long Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
Balance the following reaction by ion – electron method:
Cr₂O₇^2- + Fe²⁺ + H⁺ → Cr⁺³ + Fe⁺³.
Solution:
Cr₂O₇^2- + Fe²⁺ → Cr⁺³ + Fe⁺³ + H₂O

1. Write the oxidation number of each atom in skeleton equation.

Species undergo change is Cr and Fe.

2. Dividing the equation into two half reaction.
Cr₂O₇^2- → Cr⁺³ (Reduction half)
Fe⁺² → Fe⁺³ (Oxidation half)

3. Balancing reduction half:
(a) Balancing Cr atom,
Cr₂O₇^2- → 2Cr⁺³

(b) Adding e to make up the difference in O.N.

(Since each Cr atom gain 3e^– ∴ for 2 Cr atom 6e^–)

(iv) Balancing oxidation half:
(a) Balancing Fe atom (Balanced)
(b) Adding e^– to make up the difference in O.N.
Fe⁺² → Fe⁺³ + e^–

(v) Balancing ‘O’ atom,
Cr₂O₇^2- + 6e^– → 2Cr⁺³ + 7H₂O
Fe⁺² → Fe⁺³ + e^–

(vi) Balancing H by adding H⁺ ions to the side which is deficient on H atoms.
Cr₂O₇^2- + 6e^– + 14H⁺ → 2Cr⁺³ + 7H₂O
Fe²⁺ → Fe⁺³ + e^–

(vii) Equalising e^–,

Question 2.
To determine the oxidising power/reducing power in a solution which method is used? Explain with example?
Answer:
Determination of standard electrode potential ; To determine electrode potential of an electrode, a cell is setup using this electrode and standard hydrogen electrode. The EMF of the cell is measured with the help of a voltameter (or more accurately by potentiometer). (MPBoardSolutions.com) The electrode potential of hydrogen electrode is taken as zero. Therefore, the E.M.F. of such a cell will directly give the value for electrode potential for the given electrode at standard condition (298 K, 1M, 1 atm pressure).

1. If the deflection in galvanometer is towards metal electrode (experimental electrode) then it is anode (-ve terminal) of the cell. It is allotted negative value of standard reduction electrode potential.
For example, in the determination of E° value of zinc, zinc acts as anode and has got negative value of E°.

E°_cell = E°_cathode – E°_anode
∴ 0.76 V = 0.00V – E°_zn⁺²/Zn = -0.76V

Question 3.
What is oxidation number? Write its main rules of determination?
Answer:
Oxidation number of an element is defined as, “The residual charge left on its atom when all the other atoms are removed from the molecule as ions”. Atoms can have positive, negative or zero oxidation state depending upon their state of combination. (MPBoardSolutions.com) In fact, oxidation number is the charge assigned to the atom in a species according to some rules. It is also known as oxidation state.

Rules for assigning oxidation number:
The assignment of oxidation numbers is arbitrary and is usually governed by the following conclusions:

1. The oxidation number of an element in free state i. e., elementary state is regarded as zero. For example,
Oxidation state of hydrogen in H₂ = 0
Oxidation state of helium in He = 0
Oxidation state of sulphur in S₈ = 0
Oxidation state of sodium in Na = 0
Oxidation state of magnesium in Mg = 0

2. In a compound, the more electronegative elements are assigned negative (-) oxidation state and less electronegative elements are assigned positive (+) values. For example, in HCl as chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen its oxidation state will have negative value while that of hydrogen will be positive.

3. In the formula of a compound, the sum of the negative oxidation states is equal to the sum of the positive oxidation states.

4. The sum of oxidation number of all the atoms in a neutral molecule is taken as zero.

5. Hydrogen has an oxidation state +1 in compounds like H₂S, H₂O, HCl, etc. Exceptionally it has the oxidation number -1 in metallic hydrides, such as NaH, CaH₂, etc.

6. Oxygen is usually assigned oxidation number -2, except in H₂O₂ and in oxide of fluorine [F₂O], in which the oxidation number -1 and +2 respectively. In all, oxidation number of oxygen is -1.

7. Fluorine being the most electronegative element is assigned oxidation number -1 in all its compounds. Other halogens also show -1 oxidation number.

8. The number of monoatomic ion in an ionic compound is equal to its electric charge. Thus, the elements of group IA of the periodic table (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs) all have oxidation number + 1, while the alkaline earth metals of group IIA (Ca, Sr, Ba) have oxidation number + 2.

Question 4.
Balance the following reaction by ion – electron method?
Answer:
Ion – electron method:
Oxidation half equation is:

The oxidation number is balanced by adding 2 electrons as:
H₂O_2(aq) → O_2(g) + 2e^–
The charge is balanced by adding 2OH^– ions as:
H₂O_2(aq) + 2OH^–_(aq) → O_2(g) + 2e^–
The oxygen atoms are balanced by adding 2H₂O as:
H₂O_2(aq) + 20H^–_(aq) → O_2(g) + 2H₂O_(s) + 2e^– ……………… (1)
The reduction half equation is:

The Cl atoms are balanced as:
Cl₂O_7(g) → 2ClO₂^–_(aq)
The oxidation number is balanced by adding 8 electrons as:
Cl₂O_7(g) + 8e^– → 2ClO₂^–_(aq)
The charge is balanced by adding 6OH^– as:
Cl₂O_7(g) + 8e^– → 2ClO₂^–_(aq) + 6OH^–_(aq) ………………………… (2)
The balancing equation can be obtained by multiplying equation (1) with 4 and adding equation (2) to it as:
Cl₂O_7(g) + 4H₂O_2(aq) + 2OH^–_(aq) → 2ClO₂^–_(aq) + 4O_2(g) + 5H₂O_(l)

Question 5.
Write the main uses of electrochemical series?
Answer:
Electrochemical series:
When different elements and ions are arranged in increasing order of their standard electrode potentials, a series is obtained which is called electrochemical series or activity series.
The uses of electrochemical series are:
1. Electropositive character of metal:
Metal which loses electron easily from its outermost shell shows high electropositive character while the atom which loses electron with difficulty shows least electropositive character. In electrochemical series, Li shows maximum electropositive character while fluorine shows least electropositive character.

2. Comparison of reactivity of metals:
Metal having negative value of E° loses electron easily. Hence, greater the negative value of E° more is the reactivity and reducing character of a metal.

3. Knowledge of oxidizing agent and reducing agent:
Substance which gains electron and shows maximum value of standard electrode potential E° is strongest oxidizing agent. On the basis of this F is strongest oxidizing agent while Li is weakest oxidizing agent.

4. Displacement of elements:
Metal having greater tendency to form ion displaces others. Therefore, elements getting priority in the series displace ions of the elements following them. For example. When Cu turnings are added to AgNO₃ solution, Ag gets precipitated.
2AgNO_3(aq) + Cu_(s) → Cu(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2Ag_(s)

5. Electroplating:
Process of depositing layer of gold or silver on copper, brass, iron etc. is called electroplating. It makes articles lustrous and attractive.

6. Metallurgy:
More reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from their aqueous salt solution.

7. Corrosion of metals:
Destruction of metals due to action of chemicals, air and moisture is called corrosion.
e.g., iron rust in moist air. To prevent this a layer of more reactive metal like Sn or Zn is deposited on iron. Coating iron with zinc is called galvanization.

Question 6.
What information did you get from the following reaction:
(CN)_2(g) + 20H^–_(aq) → CN^–_(aq) + CNO^–_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
Answer:
(CN)_2(g) + 2OH^–_(aq) → CNO^–_(aq) + H₂O_(l).
1. Let the O.N. of C in (CN)₂ = x
2x + 2 (-3) = 0
or x = +3.

2. Let the O.N. of C in CN^– = x
x + (-3) = -1
or x = +2.

3. Let the O.N. of C in CNO^– = x
x + (-3) + (-2) = -1 or
x = +4.

Following informations obtained from above equation:

1. It is a disproportionation reaction.
2. The reaction occurs in basic medium.
3. O.N. of N in (CN)₂ is -3 and that in CN^– is -2 and in CNO^– it is -5.
4. Cyanogen (CN)₂ gets simultaneously reduced to CN^– ion as well as oxidized to cyanate, CNO^– ion.

Question 7.
The Mn³⁺ ion is unstable in solution and undergoes disproportionation to give Mn²⁺, MnO₂ and H⁺ ion. Write a balanced ionic equation for the reaction?
Answer:
The reaction is:
Mn³⁺_(aq) → Mn²⁺_(aq) + MnO_2(s) + H⁺_(aq)
Reduction half cell:
Mn³⁺_(aq) + e^– → Mn²⁺ …………. (1)
Oxidation half cell:
Mn³⁺_(aq) → Mn⁺⁴ + O_2(s) + e^–
To balance the equation added 4H⁺ in right and in left 2H₂O is added:
Mn³⁺_(aq) + 2H₂O_(l) → MnO_2(s) + e^– + 4H⁺_(aq) ……………….. (2)
Adding eqns. (1) and (2),
2Mn³⁺_(aq) + 2H₂O_(l) → Mn²⁺ + MnO_2(s) + 4H⁺_(aq)
This is last equation balanced (disproportionation reaction).

MP Board Class 11 Chemistry Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Biomolecules NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Glucose or sucrose are soluble in water but cyclohexane or benzene (simple six membered ring compounds) are insoluble in water. Explain.
Answer:
Glucose and sucrose have – OH groups while cyclohexane and benzene do not. Thus glucose and sucrose can form hydrogen bonds with water and are soluble in water. While cyclohexane and benzene do not form hydrogen bonds with water and thus insoluble in water.

Question 2.
What are the expected products of hydrolysis of lactose?
Answer:
Galactose and glucose are the products of hydrolysis of lactose.

Question 3.
How do you explain the absence of aldehyde group in the penta acetate of D-glucose?
Answer:
The pentacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine indicating the absence of the free – CHO group.

Question 4.
The melting points and solubility in water of amino acids are generally higher than that of the corresponding haloacids. Explain.
Answer:
The amino acids exist as Zwitter ionsDue to this dipolar salt like character they have strong dipole – dipole attractions or electrostatic attractions. There fore, their melting points are higher than haloacids which do not have salt like character. Further, due to salt like character, they interact strongly with H₂O. As a result, solubility in water of amino acids is higher than that of the corresponding haloacids which do not have salt like character.

Question 5.
Where does the water present in the egg go after boiling the egg ?
Answer:
About three-fourth of an egg is plain water in which the albumin protein and fats are suspended. At room temperature, the protein strands are tightly folded in a complex three-dimensional shape. Because the individual proteins are able to move freely, both the egg white and yolk remain liquid. But when egg is boiled, the protein strands straighten out.

The protein ends, normally protected within the folds, become exposed and the open ends join together in bridge-like bonds forming a giant structure. These new bonds prevent the molecules to move thereby making the egg material solid and the water seems to be disappeared.

Question 6.
Why cannot vitamin C be stored in our body ?
Answer:
Vitamin C is soluble in water. It cannot be stored in our body because it is easily excreted in the urine.

Question 7.
What products would be formed when a nucleotide from DNA containing thiamine is hydrolysed?
Answer:
D – 2 – deoxyribose (sugar), thymine (nitrogenous base) and phosphoric acid are formed when a nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is hydrolysed.

Question 8.
When RNA is hydrolysed, there is no relationship among the quantities of different bases obtained. What does this fact suggest about the structure of RNA?
Answer:
When RNA is hydrolysed, there is no relationship between the quantities of four bases, i.e., cytosine (C), guanine (G), adenine (A) and uracil (U) are obtained, therefore, the base-pairing principle, i.e., (A) pairs with (T) and (C) pairs with (G) is not followed (as in DNA). This suggest that unlike DNA (a double-stranded structure), the RNA has a single-stranded molecule.

Biomolecules Ncert Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
What are monosaccharides?
Answer:
Monosaccharides are carbohydrates which cannot be hydrolysed further to give simpler units of polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones.

Question 2.
What are reducing sugars?
Answer:
Carbohydrates which reduce Fehling’s solution to red p.pt of Cu₂O or Tollen’s reagent to shining metallic Ag are called reducing sugars. All monosaccharides (both aldoses and ketoses) and disaccharides except sucrose are reducing sugars.

Question 3.
Write two main functions of carbohydrates in plants.
Answer:

• Cellulose is a predominant constituent of cell wall of plant cells.
• Starch is the main food storage polysaccharide of plants.

Starch is stored in seeds and acts as the reserve food material for the small plant unless it is capable of making its own food by photosynthesis.

Question 4.
Classify the following into monosaccharides and disaccharides: Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, maltose, galactose, fructose and lactose.
Answer:
Monosaccharide: Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, galactose and fructose.
Disaccharide: Maltose and lactose.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the term glycosidic linkage?
Answer:
The oxygen (ethereal) linkage through which two monosaccharide units are joined together by the loss of a water molecule to form a molecule of a disaccharide is called glycosidic linkage. For example, sucrose (a disaccharide) is composed of C₁ of α – glucose and C₂ of β – fructose through the glycosidic linkage.

Question 6.
What is glycogen? How is it different from starch?
Answer:
Glycogen-like starch is a condensation polymer of α – D glucose. Just as glucose is stored in plants in the form of starch it is stored in the form of glycogen in human beings. It is present in liver, muscles and brain. When body needs glucose, enzymes breakdown glycogen to provide glucose. It is also present in yeast and fungi.

The main difference between glycogen and starch is that starch is made up of amylose and amylopectin whereas glycogen consists of a structure almost same as amylopectin with large number of branching, (amylose has a linear structure and amylopectin has a branched structure with branching after every 25-30 molecules). Glycogen has branching after every 10-15 molecules.

Question 7.
What are the hydrolysis products of:
1. Sucrose
2. Lactose
Answer:
1. Glucose and fructose:

2. D-Glucose and D-Galactose:

Question 8.
What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose ?
Answer:
Starch consists of two components :
amylose and amylopectin. Amyiose is a long linear polymer of 200-1000 α-D-(-) glucose units held by C₁ – C₄ glycosidic linkage. It is soluble in water. Amylopectin is a branched chain polymer of α-D-(+) glucose linkage whereas branching occurs by C₁– C₆ glycosidic linkage. It is insoluble in water. On the other hand cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide composed only of β – D- (+) glucose units which are formed by glycosidic linkage between C₁ of one glucose unit and C₄ of next glucose unit.

Question 9.
What happens when D – glucose is treated with the following reagents:
(i) HI
(ii) Bromine water
(iii) HNO₃?
Answer:
(i) When glucose is treated with HI, it forms n-hexane, suggesting that all the six carbon atoms are linked in straight chain.

(ii) On heating glucose with bromine water, it gets oxidized to six carbon carboxylic acid, gluconic acid.

(iii) Glucose on treatment with nitric acid gives a dicarboxylic acid, saccharic acid.

Question 10.
Enumerate the reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain structure.
Answer:
Following reactions could not be explained by open chain structure of D – glucose:

1. The penta-acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine indicating the absence of free – CHO group.
2. Despite having the aldehyde group
   • Glucose does not form the hydrogen sulphide addition product with NaHSO₃.
   • Glucose does not give Schifts test.

Question 11.
What are essential and non-essential amino acids ? Give two examples of each type.
Answer:
(a) Essential amino acids:
The amino acids which our body cannot make and must be obtained through diet.
Examples:
Valine, Isoleucine, Arginine, Lysine, Threonine etc.

(b) Non-essential amino acids:
These are the amino acids which our body can make.
Examples:
Glycine, Alanine, Glutamic acid, Aspartic acid, Glutamine, Serine etc.

Question 12.
Define the following as related to proteins :
(i) Peptide linkage
(ii) Primary structure
(iii) Denaturation.
Answer:
(i) Peptide linkage:
A peptide bond is an amide linkage formed between – COOH group of one a-amino acid and NH₂ group of the other a-amino acid by loss of a molecule of water. It units two amino acids unit in a peptide bond (molecule).

(ii) Proteins are the polymers of a-amino acids. These polymers (also known as polypeptide) consist of amino acids linked with each other in a specific sequence. This sequence of amino acids is known as the primary structure of proteins. Any change in this sequence of amino acids (i.e., primary structure) creates a different proteins.

(iii) A process that changes the physical and biological properties of proteins without affecting the chemical composition of proteins is called denaturation. The denaturation is caused by certain physical and chemical treatment such as changes in pH, temperature, presence of some salts or certain chemical agents.

Question 13.
What are the common types of secondary structure of proteins ?
Answer:
The conformation of polypeptide chain assumed as a result of hydrogen bonding is called secondary structure of proteins. The two types of secondary structures are a-helix and β – pleated sheet structure. (For detail refer your NCERT text-book.)

Question 14.
What type of bonding helps in stabilizing the a-helix structure of proteins ?
Answer:

(Refer your NCERT text-book for details and structure.)

Question 15.
Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins.
Answer:
Difference between globular and fibrous protein:
Globular protein:

• They have foilded ball like structure.
• They have three-dimensional structure
• They are soluble in water and aq. solution of salt and base.
• These proteins are inactive towards temperature and pH value.

Fibrous protein:

• These molecule have long threads like structure.
• They have sheet like structure.
• These are insoluble in water.
• Fibrous protein are active towards temperature and pH value.

Question 16.
How do you explain the amphoteric behaviour of amino acids ?
Answer:
Due to dipolar or Zwitter’s ion structure, amino acids are amphoteric in nature. The acidic character of the amino acids is due to the – NH₃ group and the basic character is due to the – COOH group as shown below:
Acidic character:

Basic character:

Question 17.
What are enzymes ?
Answer:
The enzymes are globular proteins which act as bio-catalyst. They are very specific and efficient in their action. Almost all the reactions that occur in the body are catalyzed by enzymes.

Question 18.
What is the effect of denaturation on the structure of proteins ?
Answer:
During denaturation, 2° and 3° structures of proteins are destroyed but 1° structure remains intact. As a result of denaturation, the globular proteins (soluble in H₂O) are converted into fibrous proteins (insoluble in H₂O)) and their biological activity is lost. The coagulation of egg white on boiling is a common example of denaturation.

Question 19.
How are vitamins classified ? Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.
Answer:
On the basis of solubility in water or fat, the vitamins are generally classified into two types:

• Water soluble vitamins:
  These include vitamin B-complex. (B₁ B₂, B₃, B₄, B₆, B₁₂ and nicotinic acid etc.) and vitamin C etc.
• Fat soluble vitamins:
  These include vitamins A, D, E and K. Liver cells are rich in fat soluble vitamins. Vitamin K is responsible for coagulation of blood.

Question 20.
Why are vitamin-A and vitamin-C essential to us ? Give their important sources.
Answer:
Vitamin – A:
It is essential for us because its deficiency causes Night blindness and Xerophthalmia (Hardening of cornea of eye).

Sources:
Carrots, milk, butter, fish liver oil, egg yolk, green and yellow vegetables.

Vitamin – C:
It is essential for us because its deficiency causes Scurvy (bleeding gums), Tooth decay’s and Pyorrhoea etc.

Sources:
Lemon, orange (citrous fruits), amla, tomatoes, potatoes and green leafy vegetables.

Question 21.
What are nucleic acids ? Mention their two important functions.
Answer:
Nucleic acids are long chain polymers of nucleotides. They are also called poly-nucleotides. Nucleic acids are mainly of two types, the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA).

Functions:
(i) DNA is responsible for transmission of hereditary effects from one generation to another. This is due to unique property of replication, during cell division and two identical DNA strands are transferred to the daughter cells.

(ii) DNA and RNA are responsible for synthesis of all proteins needed for the growth and maintenance of our body. Actually, the proteins are synthesized by various RNA molecules (m-RNA and t-RNA etc.) in the cell but the message for the synthesis of a particular protein is present in DNA.

Question 22.
What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide ?
Answer:
A nucleoside contains only basic component of nucleic acids namely a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base. A nucleotide contains all the three basic components of nucleic acids namely a phosphoric acid group, a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base.

Question 23.
The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary. Explain.
Answer:
The two strands in DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds beetween purine base of one strand and pyrimidine base of the other and vice-versa. Because of different sizes and geometries of the bases, the only possible pairing in DNA are G (guanine) and C (cytosine) through three H-bonds i.e., (C = G) and between A (adenine) and T (thiamine) through two H-bonds i.e., (A=T) (for figure refer your NCERT text book). Due to this base pairing principle, the sequence of bases in one strand automatically fixes the sequence of bases in the other strand. Thus, the two strands are complimentary and are not-identical.

Question 24.
Write the important structural and functional differences between DNA and RNA.
Answer:
Differences between DNA and RNA:
DNA:

• Occurs mainly in the nucleus of the cell.
• It contains the sugar deoxyribose.
•  Does not contain nitrogenous base, uracil.
• It has a double strand helix
• It is responsible for the transmission of heredity character.
• Alkaline hydrolysis is quite slow.
• Ratio A/T = 1 and G/C = 1.

RNA:

• Occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• It contains the sugar ribose.
• Does not contain nitrogenous base thymine.
• It has double as well as single strand helix.
• It helps in protein biosynthesis.
• Alkaline hydrolysis takes place readily.
• Such ratio is not present.

Question 25.
What are the different types of RNA found in the cell ?
Answer:
There are three types of RNAs:

• Ribosomal RNA (r-RNA)
• Messenger RNA (m-RNA)
• Transfer RNA (t-RNA).

Biomolecules Other Important Exercises

Biomolecules Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which protein transports oxygen in blood flow:
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Insulin
(c) Albumin
(d) Myoglobin.
Answer:
(d) Myoglobin.

Question 2.
Beri-beri diseases is caused due to deficiency of which vitamin:
(a) Vitamin – A
(b) Vitamin – C
(c) Vitamin – B₂
(d) Vitamin – D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin – B₂

Question 3.
Enzyme which enhances the conversion of glucose to ethanol is:
(a) Zymase
(b) Invertase
(c) Maltase
(d) Diastase.
Answer:
(a) Zymase

Question 4.
In human body carbohydrate is stored:
(a) In the form of glucose
(b) In the form of glycogen
(c) In the form of starch
(d) In the form of fructose.
Answer:
(b) In the form of glycogen

Question 5.
Change in optical rotation of a freshly prepared solution of sugar after some time is called:
(a) Optical activity
(b) Inversion
(c) Specific rotation
(d) Mutation.
Answer:
(b) Inversion

Question 6.
Formula of most familiar disachharide is:
(a) C₁₀H₁₈O₉
(b) C₁₀H₂₀O₁₀
(c)C₁₈H₂₂O₁₁
(d) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁.
Answer:
(d) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁.

Question 7.
The following statement is false in relation to Ribose:
(a) It is a polyhydroxy compound
(b) It is a aldehydic sugar
(c) It contain 6 carbon atoms
(d) It has optical rotation.
Answer:
(c) It contain 6 carbon atoms

Question 8.
In the formation of carbohydrate are required:
(a) 2 carbon
(b) 3 carbon
(c) 4 carbon
(d) 6 carbon.
Answer:
(d) 6 carbon.

Question 9.
Haemoglobin is:
(a) Enzyme
(b) Globular protein
(c) Vitamin
(d) Carbohydrate.
Answer:
(d) Carbohydrate.

Question 10.
Which carbohydrate is an essential constituent of plant cells:
(a) Cellulose
(b) Starch
(c) Sucrose
(d) Vitamin.
Answer:
(b) Starch

Question 11.
How many subunits are present in haemoglobin:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5.
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 12.
Starch is a polymer of:
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Glucose

Question 13.
Which sugar is present in maximum amount in human blood:
(a) d-fructose
(b) d-glucose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Lactose.
Answer:
(b) d-glucose

Question 14.
Element present in Vitamin B₁₂ is:
(a) Pb
(b) Zn
(c) Fe
(d) CO.
Answer:
(d) CO.

Question 15.
Amount of glucose in blood is determined by:
(a) Tollen’s reagent
(b) Benedict solution
(c) Alkaline iodine solution
(d) Bromine water.
Answer:
(b) Benedict solution

Question 16.
Deficiency of which Vitamin causes rickets:
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin D.
Answer:
(d) Vitamin D.

Question 17.
In metabolic processes which of the following provide maximum energy :
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamin
(c) Thiamine
(d) Pyrimidine.
Answer:
(d) Pyrimidine.

Question 18.
Vitamin B₁ is:
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Cobaltamine
(c) Thiamine
(d) Pyrimidine.
Answer:
(a) Riboflavin

Question 19.
Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to:
(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Pyorrhoea
(d) Anaemia.
Answer:
(a) Scurvy

Question 20.
Most effective energy reservoir in a living cells is:
(a) A.M.P.
(b) A.T.P.
(c) A.D.P.
(d) U.D.P.
Answer:
(b) A.T.P.

Question 21.
Disaccharide present in milk is:
(a) Sucrose
(b) Lactose
(c) Maltose
(d) Cellulose.
Answer:
(b) Lactose

Question 22.
Which is not glyceroid:
(a) Fat
(b) Oil
(c) Phospholipid
(d) Soap.
Answer:
(d) Soap.

Question 23.
Which is not found in R.N.A.:
(a) Thymine
(b) Uracil
(c) Adenine
(d) Guanine.
Answer:
(a) Thymine

Question 24.
Enzymes are:
(a) Nitrogen containing complex compound
(b) Carbohydrate
(c) Co-ordination compounds
(d) Metallic compound.
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen containing complex compound

Question 25.
Chemical name of vitamin C is:
(a) Cyano cobaltamine
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Tocopherol
(d) Biotin.
Answer:
(b) Ascorbic acid

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. By the oxidation of glucose …………… molecules of ATP are produced.
2. The breaking of complex molecules in organisms is known as ……………
3. In hyperglycaemia the amount of …………… in blood increases.
4. Deficiency of …………… leads to eye disease.
5. Deficiency of iodine leads to …………… disease.
6. Blood …………… the temperature of the entire body.
7. …………… hormone balances the amount of sugar in blood.
8. …………… is responsible for the clotting of blood.
9. Denaturation does not affect …………… structure of protein.
10. Protein is a polymer of ……………
11. …………… is the basic unit of protein.
12. …………… is not present in D.N.A.
13. Haemoglobin is a …………… compound of iron.
14. Oil and fats obtained from organisms are known as ……………

Answers:

1. 38
2. Catabolism
3. Sugar
4. Vitamin A
5. Goitre
6. Balance
7. Insulin
8. Vitamin K
9. Primary
10. Amino acids
11. Amino acid
12. Uracil
13. Complex
14. Lipid.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (f) Vitamin A
2. (c) Vitamin D
3. (b) Vitamin E
4. (e) Vitamin B
5. (d) Vitamin B₁₂
6. (a) Biotin
7. (g) Lactose.

Question 4.
Answer in one word / sentence:

1. Write the chemical name of Vitamin C.
2. Tell the source of Vitamin K.
3. Is responsible for clotting of blood ?
4. Which bond links amino acids together ?
5. How many amino acids are synthesized by human body ?
6. Cellulose is a linear polymer of which glucose ?
7. In RNA molecule which pyrimidine is present in place of Thymine ?
8. Lactose on hydrolysis gives.
9. Glucose contains Pyranose ring whereas Fructose contain.
10. In polysaccharides, monosaccharide units are linked to each other by which bond ?
11. Which protein helpful for clotting of blood known as ?
12. Write one example of Monosaccharide Carbohydrate.
13. What is the name of Disaccharides sugar present in milk ?

Answers:

1. Ascorbic acid
2. Green leafy vegetables
3. Vitamin K (Phylloquinone)
4. Peptide bond
5. Ten
6. 2-glucose
7. Uracil
8. Glucose and Lactose
9. Furanose ring
10. Glycosidic
11. Fibrinogen
12. Glucose or Fructose
13. Lactose.

Biomolecules Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the effect of deficiency of proteins on our body ?
Answer:
Deficiency of protein causes following diseases:

• Anaemia:
  The deficiency of haemoglobin protein in the body creates lack of enough blood which causes paleness in body.
• Kwashiorkar:
  This disease is mainly found in children, in this body of patient swells up and deforms.

Question 2.
Define carbohydrates.
Answer:
Substances which are polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy ketones or which give these compounds on hydrolysis are called carbohydrates.

Question 3.
Sucrose on enzymatic hydrolysis gives one mole of glucose and one mole of fructose.

1. Which enzyme catalyses this hydrolysis?
2. Write down the monosaccharides present in maltose and lactose.
3. Which is the sweetest sugar, glucose, or fructose?

Answer:

1. Invertase
2. Maltose contains two units of glucose while lactose is glucose + galactose.
3. Fructose

Question 4.
Write the diseases caused by the following Vitamins:
(a) Vitamin-A, (b) Vitamin-B, (c) Vitamin-D, (d) Vitamin-E.
Or,
Write the functions of the following vitamins:
(a) Vitamin-A, (b) Vitamin-D, (c) Vitamin-E, (d) Vitamin-K.
Answer:
Diseases caused by the above Vitamins:
(a) Vitamin-A: Night blindness
(b) Vitamin-B: Beri-beri, loss of appetite and vigour
(c) Vitamin-D: Rickets, osteomalacia
(d) Vitamin-E: Loss of reproductive ability.

Functions caused by the above Vitamins:
(a) Vitamin-A: For vision and growth develops resistance against diseases.
(b) Vitamin-D: For bones, control of metabolism of calcium and phosphorus.
(c) Vitamin-E: Virility in man and reproduction.
(d) Vitamin-K: Coagulation of blood.

Question 5.
Write a note on the structure of DNA.
Answer:
The three-dimensional structure of DNA was elucidated by James Watson and Francis Crick. They proposed that the DNA chain consists of two strands of polynucleotides coiled around each other in the form of the double helix.

The nucleic acid backbone consists of alternating sugar-phosphate residues. One of the four bases is attached to each of the sugar residues in the backbone. The bases are held together by hydrogen bonding between them. The hydrogen bonding is very specific as the structure of bases is such that they permit only one mode of pairing with other bases.

The pairing is A – T, C – G. i.e., adenine pairs only with thymine, cytosine pairs only with guanine. Two strands of DNA are complementary to each other in the sense that the sequence of bases in one strand automatically decides that of the other.

Question 6.
What are enzymes? Give applications.
Answer:
Enzymes are complicated organic molecules which are produced by living cells and are also called biological catalysts. They are complex nitrogenous molecules, unlike inorganic catalysts, they take part in the reaction and get destroyed.
Example:
Enzyme invertase catalyse the hydrolysis of sucrose.

Factors affecting the activity of catalyst:

• Temperature
• pH
• Concentration of enzyme
• Concentration of substance
• Concentration of the product formed.

Functions of enzymes:
Enzymes play a very important role in many biological reactions. The names of some important enzymes and the biochemical reactions catalysed by them are given below:

1. Role of enzymes in the process of digestion:
Enzymes play an important role in digestion resulting in the breakdown of macromolecules into simple molecules.

2. Industrial applications:
Enzymes play an important role in many industrial processes such as the manufacture of ethanol from sugar or starch, the manufacture of acetic acid, the manufacture of cheese, leather, tanning, etc.

Question 7.
What are monosaccharides? Explain with examples.
Answer:
These are the simplest carbohydrates which cannot be hydrolysed into small molecules. Their general formula is C_nH_2nO_n (there are some exceptions also). Here n = 2 to 10. These are sweet in taste and soluble in water. These contain either one – CHO group or one > C = O group.

Aldopentose – Ribose, Zylose etc. (C₅H₁₀O₅)
Aldohexose – Glucose, Galactose, Mannose etc. (C₆H₁₂O₆)
Ketohexose – Fructose, Sorbose etc. (C₆H₁₂O₆).

Protein Molecular Weight Calculator makes it easy for you to determine the theoretical yield value of the chemical reaction in fraction of seconds.

Question 8.
What are proteins?
Answer:
The word protein is derived from the greek word protious (Protious = to take the first) i.e. first or very important. Proteins are high molecular mass nitrogen containing complex organic compounds found in the protoplasm of all animal and plants.
Chemically protein is the condensation polymer of a-amino acid.

Question 9.
What are carbohydrates? Which unit of carbohydrate provide energy to human body?
Answer:
Carbohydrates are compound of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. General formula of carbohydrate is (C_xH₂O)_y where x and y are integers. These compounds have ratio of hydrogen and oxygen 2: 1 like water (H₂O). Therefore the name of these compounds is given carbohydrates. Examples of carbohydrates are glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆), fructose (C₆H₁₂O₆), sucrose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) etc.

Glucose is the unit of carbohydrates which is responsible to provide energy. Glucose decomposes slowly with the help of oxydase enzyme present in the body into CO₂ and water. Energy is released in this process.

Question 10.
Fibrous protein present in hair is elastic while in silk it is not elastic. Explain.
Answer:
Protein present in hair has α – helical structure. If it is stretched, the hydrogen bonder broken, thereby increasing the length of the helix. On releasing the tension, the hydrogen bonus are formed again, giving back the original shape. So proteins having α – helix structure are elastic. Proteins in silk have β – pleated structure and they are not elastic because stretching leads to pulling of the peptide (covalent) bonds.

Question 11.
Explain the formation of amide and peptide bonds in the structure of proteins.
Answer:
(1) Amide bond:
Protein is a complicated organic compound which is formed by the combination of different amino acids. When the – CONH – link resulting from the reaction between a compound containing a carboxylic group (- COOH) and that with an amine group (- NH₂) it forms an amide bond.

(2) Peptide linkage:
When the – CONH – like resulting from the reaction between two molecules of a-amino acids, is called peptide bond. Such a bond involves only the alpha-amino and a-carboxylic group. Thus, two molecules of a-amino acid on reaction yield a peptide bond.

Question 12.
Define polysaccharides. Give examples also.
Answer:
Polysaccharides are natural isomers which have a molecular weight of up to many lacks, General formula of polysaccharides is (C₆H₁₀O₅)_n  where the value of n is from 12 to thousands. These are complex material which is formed by condensations of monosaccharides. These compounds contain glycosidic bonds.
Example: Starch, cellulose, etc.

Question 13.
What is invert sugar?
Answer:
Cane – sugar is dextrorotatory [D or +] which gives an equimolar mixture of monosaccharides. This mixture is laevorotatory [D or-]. Hence the mixture of glucose and fructose obtained as a result of hydrolysis of cane-sugar is called invert sugar.

Question 14.
What are disaccharides? Write the general formula of disaccharides.
Answer:
Disaccharides are sugar which is formed by the combination of two monosaccharides by the removal of one molecule of water. Both monosaccharides are of hexose type in which one unit is glucose. Thus, disaccharides are of aldose-aldose or aldose-ketose type. The general formula of disaccharides is C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
Example: Sucrose, maltose, lactose, etc.

Question 15.
Give the pyranose structure of sucrose and maltose.
Answer:
In sucrose two monosaccharides (glucose and fructose) are combined through a glycosidic bond which is present between C₁ of α-glucose and C₂ of β-fructose.

Whereas maltose molecule is obtained by the condensation of two glucose molecules.

Question 16.
Clarify the structure of protein.
Answer:
Molecule of protein is made up of amino acids. Basically protein molecules are linear polymers of amino acids. Their entire structure can be expressed in four steps:

1. Primary structure:
   It provides knowledge of mutual combination of various amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
2. Secondary structure:
   It provides knowledge of conformations of peptide chains of protein.
3. Tertiary structure:
   It explains how protein molecule coils to obtain a specific shape.
4. Quarternary structure:
   By this, arrangement of two polypeptide chains with respect to each other is known.

Question 17.
What do you understand by nucleoside and nucleotide ?
Answer:
Nucleoside: When a purine or pyrimidine base joins with a pentose sugar molecule, then it is known as nucleoside.

Question 18.
What are carbohydrates ? Explain mono, di and polysaccharides with example.
Answer:
Carbohydrates are polyhydric aldehydes or polyhydric ketones or substances which on hydrolysis produce such compounds. The carbohydrates are classified into three major classes on the basis of hydrolysis.

1. Monosaccharides:
These are the simples carbohydrates. They cannot be hydrolysed further to give more simple carbohydrates. Monosaccharides have the general formula (CH₂O)_n These are crystalline solids, soluble in water and are sweet in taste. Example: Glucose, Fructose.

2. Disaccharides:
Disaccharides are sugar which are formed by combination of two monosaccharides by removal of one molecule of water. Both monosaccharides are of hexose type – in which one unit is glucose. General formula of disaccharides is C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁.
Example: Sucrose, Maltose etc.

3. Polysaccharides:
General formula of polysaccharides is (C₆H₁₀O₅)_n where value of n is from 12 to thousands. These are complex material which are formed by condensation of monosaccharides. Example: Starch, Cellulose etc.

Question 19.
What happens when protein is denatured ?
Answer:
Denaturation of Protein:
Disruption of tertiary structure of protein is called denaturation. These reactions take place by heating in presence of acids or highly concentrated salts or heavy metals. Denaturation does not affect the primary structure of protein. Denaturation takes place in the rearrangement of secondary and tertiary structures. As a result of this, protein losses its biological actvity.

During denaturation the protein molecule uncoils from an ordered and specific conformation into a more disordered conformation. Denaturation takes place when proteins are heated or treated with acids, bases, alcohols, KI, urea, acetone etc. or when exposed to UV or X-ray radiations.

Question 20.
Write functions of vitamin B and name two diseases caused due to its deficiency.
Answer:
Vitamin B include a group of vitamins which are as follows:
‘Vitamin-B₁ (Thiamine), Vitamin – B₂ (Riboflavin), Vitamin B₃ (Pentothenic acid), Vitamin-B₆ (Pyridoxine), Vitamin B₁₂ (Cyano cobalamin)

Vitamin B₁ (Thiamine)- Source: husk of rice, green vegetables, egg.
Function: Maintenance of activity of nervous system.

Deficiency disease:
(i) Beri-Beri (swelling in hands and legs).
(ii) Gastric (disorder in digestion).

Vitamin B₂ (Riboflavin)- Source: egg yolk, milk etc.
Function: Growth of body.
Deficiency disease: Dermatitis, weakness in eye sight.

Question 21.
What are vitamins ? Name the vitamins whose deficiency lead to following diseases:

• Haemorrhage (No clotting of blood)
• Night blindness
• Anaemia
• Ricket
• Pyrohea
• Loss of reproductive ability
• Convulsions.

Answer:
Vitamins are complex organic molecules which act as essential nutrients for body. Though these vitamins are not formed in our body but deficiency of these vitamins causes various diseases in our body. The vitamins are classified according to solubility.

• Fat soluble vitamins: Vitamin A, D, E and K.
• Water soluble vitamins: Vitamin C and vitamin B complex.

Name the vitamins deficiency lead to following diseases :

• Haemorrhage (No clotting of blood) : Vitamin K (Phylloquinone)
• Night blindness: Vitamin A (Retinol)
• Anaemia: Vitamin B₁₂ (Cyanocobalamin)
• Ricket: Vitamin D (Calciferol)
• Pyorrhoea: Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
• Loss of reproductive ability: Vitamin E (a -Tocopherol)
• Convulsions: Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine).

Question 22.
Write about the following:

1. Testosterone
2. Thyroxine
3. Insulin
4. Cortisone.

Answer:

1. Testosterone:
   Testosterone hormone is secreted by the gland testes and its function is to control the reproductive organs in males.
2. Thyroxine:
   This hormone is secreted by the thyroid gland. Its function is to control metabolic activity and growth.
3. Insulin:
   Insulin hormone is secreted by pancreas and its function is to control the amount of glucose in the blood.
4. Cortisone:
   Cortisone is secreted by adrenal cortex and its function is to control the metabolism of protein and water.

Question 23.
Write the name of two-two diseases caused due to deficiency of retinol, thiamine, ascorbic acid and riboflavin.
Answer:
Retinol: Night blindness, Xerophthalmia
Thiamine : Beri-Beri, growth of body stops
Ascorbic acid: Scurvy, Tooth loss
Riboflavin: Weak eye sight, dermititis.

Question 24.
Write two-two source of vitamin A and C. Write one-one disease caused due to its deficiency.
Answer:

• Vitamin Source Disease
• Vitamin-A Milk, butter, cheese Night blindness
• Vitamin-C Lemon, Tomato Scurvy.

Question 25.
Write the functions of vitamin A, D, E and K.
Answer:

• Vitamin-A : It participate in the formation of visible pigment named Rhodopsin and Iodopsin.
• Vitamin-D : It is useful in the formation of bones.
• Vitamin-E : It prevents the breaking of RBCs.
• Vitamin-K : It is helpful in the clotting of blood.

Question 26.
Write functions and sources of the following bio-molecules/elements :

1. Protein
2. Carbohydrates
3. Fat
4. Calcium.

Answer:

1. Protein:
   Formation of new tissues, and their repairing with the body
   Source: Milk, egg, meat, cheese, fish.
2. Carbohydrates: Carbohydrates provides energy to the body.
   Source: Rice, potato, fruits, cane sugar etc.
3. Fats: They provides energy to the body.
   Source: Ghee, oils, milk, egg. etc.
4. Calcium: Increase the bones and teeth.
   Source: Green leafy vegetables, milk.

Question 27.
Write two Differences between a – Amino acid and Protein.
Answer:
Differences between a – Amino acid and Protein:
α – Amino acid:

• They are simple compounds having amino and Carboxylic acid group.
• On combining amino acid gives dipeptide,polypeptide and then protein e.g. glucose, lysine etc.

Protein:

• Proteins are complex nitrogenous compounds.
• Protein on hydrolysis gives amino acid. e.g. Haemoglobin, casein etc.

Question 28.
Explain in brief:
(a) Name of two enzymes and their function.
(b) Name of two water soluble enzymes and disease caused due to their deficiency.
Answer:
(a) Name of enzyme and function:
1. Amylase (ptyalin): It converts starch into glucose:

2. Pepsin: It converts protein into amino acid:

(b) Water soluble vitamin:
1. Vitamin B₁: Thiamine
Deficiency disease: Beri-Beri

2. Vitamin C: Ascorbic acid
Deficiency disease: Scurvy Other examples are vitamin B₂, B₆, B₁₂ and K.

Biomolecules Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Nucleic acid.
Answer:
Nucleic acid:
It is found in nucleus of the cell. It has large amount of phosphorus. Nucleic acid are poly nucleotides which is formed by the combination of various nucle otide units. Each nucleotide is formed by three chemical components:

1. Phosphate group
2. Pentose ribose sugar or De – oxyribose
3. Heterocyclic base: Like derivative of pyrimidine (Thiamine, uracil, cytosine) and derivatives of purine (Adinine and Guanine).

Nucleic acid are of two types:
(A) DNA: De-oxy ribonucleic acid.
(B) RNA: Ribonucleic acid.

Components of DNA:

• De-oxyribose sugar molecule
• Phosphoric acid molecule
• Nitrogenous base:

It is of two types:

1. Pyrimidine base: It includes cytosine (C) and Thymine (T)
2. Purine base: It includes Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)

Components of RNA:
RNA contains Ribose and nitrogen base like Adenine (A), Guanine (G), Uracil (U) and Cytosine (C).

Question 2.
What are carbohydrates ? Write its classification and four main functions.
Answer:
Definition:
Optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or substances which yield these on hydrolysis are known as carbohydrates.
Example: Glucose, starch, cellulose, sucrose etc.

Classification of Carbohydrate:

Functions of carbohydrates:

• It is the main structural component of cell.
• It acts as a bio-fuel and provides energy to organisms for doing work.

• Carbohydrate is stored in the liver as glycogen, which hydrolysis to provide the energy required.
• Cellulose is found in grass and plants which provide energy to animals grazing grass because these animals possess specific enzymes which hydrolyses cellulose to glucose.

Question 3.
Give the diseases caused by ascorbic acid, thiamine retinol and nicotinic acid.
Or
Give the source and diseases caused by Vitamin A, B, C and D.
Answer:
Name of Vitamins, its functions and deficiency diseases are given in the ahead chart: Chemical names of Vitamins, their sources, functions and diseases due to deficiency

Question 4.
Give differences between monosaccharide, disaccharide and polysaccharide.
Answer:
Difference between monosaccharide, disaccharide and polysaccharide:

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

In this article, we share MP Board Class 12th Maths Book Solutions Chapter 9 Differential Equations Ex 9.3 Pdf, These solutions are solved by subject experts from the latest MP Board books.

MP Board Class 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 9 Differential Equations Ex 9.3

In this article, we share MP Board Class 12th Maths Book Solutions Chapter 9 Differential Equations Ex 9.6 Pdf, These solutions are solved by subject experts from the latest MP Board books.

MP Board Class 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 9 Differential Equations Ex 9.6

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 संगठन Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 संगठन

संगठन Important Questions

संगठन वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए –

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित में कौन-सा अंतरण का तत्व नहीं है –
(a) उत्तरदेयता
(b) अधिकार
(c) उत्तरदायित्व
(d) अनौपचारिक संगठन
उत्तर:
(d) अनौपचारिक संगठन

प्रश्न 2.
कार्य करते हुए अंतःक्रिया में अचानक बना सामाजिक संबंध तंत्र कहलाता है –
(a) औपचारिक संगठन
(b) अनौपचारिक संगठन
(c) विकेन्द्रीकरण
(d) अंतरण।
उत्तर:
(b) अनौपचारिक संगठन

प्रश्न 3.
संगठन को देखा नहीं जा सकता –
(a) प्रबंध के एक कार्य के रूप में
(b) संबंधों के एक ढाँचे के रूप में
(c) एक प्रक्रिया के रूप में
(d) उद्यम वृत्ति के रूप में।
उत्तर:
(d) उद्यम वृत्ति के रूप में।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा संगठन प्रक्रिया का एक चरण नहीं है –
(a) क्रियाओं का विभाजन
(b) कार्य सौंपना
(c) कार्यों एवं विभागों का निर्माण
(d) नेतृत्व प्रदान करना।
उत्तर:
(d) नेतृत्व प्रदान करना।

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित में से कौन संदेशवाहन के अधिकारिक मार्ग का प्रयोग नहीं करता –
(a) औपचारिक संगठन
(b) अनौपचारिक संगठन
(c) कार्यात्मक संगठन
(d) प्रभागीय संगठन
उत्तर:
(b) अनौपचारिक संगठन

प्रश्न 6.
किस संगठन में क्रियाओं को उत्पादों के आधार पर समूहों में बाँटा जाता है –
(a) विकेन्द्रित संगठन
(b) प्रभागीय संगठन
(c) कार्यात्मक संगठन
(d) केन्द्रित संगठन।
उत्तर:
(b) प्रभागीय संगठन

प्रश्न 7.
एक लंबा ढाँचा होता है –
(a) प्रबंध की सिकुड़ी हुई शृंखला
(b) प्रबंध की फैली हुई श्रृंखला
(c) प्रबंध की कोई भी श्रृंखला
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(a) प्रबंध की सिकुड़ी हुई शृंखला

प्रश्न 8.
उत्पादन रेखा पर आधारित सामूहिक क्रिया अंग है –
(a) अंतरित संगठन का
(b) प्रभागीय संगठन का
(c) कार्यात्मक संगठन का
(d) स्वायत्त शासित संगठन का।
उत्तर:
(b) प्रभागीय संगठन का

प्रश्न 9.
केन्द्रीयकरण से तात्पर्य है –
(a) निर्णय लेने के अधिकारों को सुरक्षित रखना
(b) निर्णय लेने के अधिकारों का बिखराव करना
(c) प्रभागों का लाभ केन्द्र बनाना
(d) नये केन्द्रों अथवा शाखाओं को खोलना।
उत्तर:
(a) निर्णय लेने के अधिकारों को सुरक्षित रखना

प्रश्न10.
प्रबंध के विस्तार से तात्पर्य है –
(a) प्रबंधकों की संख्या में वृद्धि
(b) एक प्रबंधक की नियुक्ति के समय की सीमा जिसके लिये उसे नियुक्ति दी गई है
(c) एक उच्चाधिकारी के अंतर्गत कार्य करने वाले अधीनस्थों की गणना
(d) शीर्ष प्रबंध के सदस्यों की गणना।
उत्तर:
(c) एक उच्चाधिकारी के अंतर्गत कार्य करने वाले अधीनस्थों की गणना

प्रश्न 2.
रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

1. अधिकार अंतरण या भारार्पण का आशय …………. सौंपना है।
2. विकेन्द्रीकरण में …………. के वितरण पर बल दिया जाता है।
3. विकेन्द्रीकरण अधिकारियों के कार्यभार में …………. करता है।
4. कार्यात्मक संगठन संरचना की अवधारणा …………. के मस्तिष्क की उपज है।
5. बैंक …………. संरचना संगठन का उदाहरण है।
6. संगठन संरचना से आशय संस्था में …………. संबंधों की व्याख्या करने से है।
7. संस्था को उसके द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तुओं के आधार पर विभक्त करना ……….. संगठन कहलाता है।
8.  …………. संगठन में अधिकार तथा कर्तव्यों की स्पष्ट व्याख्या की जाती है।

उत्तर:

1. अधिकार
2. सत्ता
3. कमी
4. टेलर
5. भौगोलिक
6. अधिकार कर्तव्य
7.  संभागीय
8. औपचारिक।

प्रश्न 3.
एक शब्द या वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए –

1. उच्च अधिकारियों द्वारा अधीनस्थों में अपने कार्यों-अधिकारों का वितरण, सीमित रूप से किया जाना क्या कहलाता है ?
2. संस्था में शीघ्र निर्णयन को प्रोत्साहित करने हेतु क्या अपनाया जाना चाहिए?
3. ऐसी संस्था जो विभिन्न प्रकार के उत्पाद बनाती है उसे कौन-सा संगठन अपनाना चाहिए ?
4. किस स्थिति में अधिकारों का हस्तांतरण होता है परन्तु उत्तरदायित्वों का नहीं?
5. संगठन का वह स्वरूप जो कर्मचारियों के मध्य पारस्परिक संबंध के कारण स्वतः ही विकसित होता है, उसे क्या कहते हैं ?
6. उस संगठन का नाम बताइए जो नियमों एवं कार्य विधियों पर आधारित है।
7. संगठनात्मक ढाँचे में किस प्रकार के संबंध को दिखाया जाता है ?
8. प्रबंध का संगठन का कार्य प्रबंध के किस कार्य के बाद आता है ?
9. विभागीय संगठन प्रक्रिया का कौन-सा चरण है ?
10. अनौपचारिक संगठन में सदस्यों में किस प्रकार का संबंध होता है ?

उत्तर:

1. भारार्पण
2. विकेंद्रीयकरण
3. संभागीय संगठन
4. भारार्पण
5. अनौपचारिक संगठन
6. औपचारिक संगठन
7. अधिकारी व अधीनस्थ संबंध
8. नियोजन के बाद
9. दूसरा चरण
10. मधुर संबंध।

प्रश्न 4.
सत्य या असत्य बताइये

1.  संगठन की स्थापना निम्न स्तर के प्रबन्ध द्वारा होती है।
2. संगठन भ्रष्टाचार को जन्म देता है।
3. अधिकार का भारार्पण दिया जा सकता है।
4. जवाबदेही का भारार्पण नहीं किया जा सकता है।
5. संगठन का प्रबन्ध में वही महत्व है जो मानव शरीर में हड्डियों के ढाँचे का होता है।

उत्तर:

1. असत्य
2. असत्य
3. सत्य
4. सत्य
5. सत्य।

प्रश्न 5.
सही जोड़ी बनाइये –

उत्तर:

1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

संगठन लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
संगठन के उद्देश्य बतलाइये।
उत्तर:
संगठन के उद्देश्य –

1. उत्पादन में मितव्ययिता – संगठन का प्रमुख उद्देश्य उत्पादन में मितव्ययिता लाना है अर्थात् न्यूनतम लागत पर अधिकतम उत्पादन करना प्रत्येक उपक्रम का उद्देश्य होता है।

2. समय तथा श्रम में बचत – संगठन में श्रेष्ठ मशीनें व यंत्र तथा श्रेष्ठ प्रणाली अपनाई जाती है जिससे कार्य के समय व श्रम में काफी बचत की जाती है। संगठन द्वारा बड़े पैमाने में उत्पादन के लाभ भी लिए जा सकते हैं।

3. श्रम तथा पूँजी में मधुर संबंध – श्रमिकों तथा प्रबंध के बीच मधुर संबंध स्थापित करना भी संगठन का एक उद्देश्य है, इस हेतु कुशल संगठनकर्ता की नियुक्ति कर श्रम व पूँजी के हितों की रक्षा की जाती है।

4. सेवा भावना – वर्तमान सामाजिक चेतना एवं जन जागरण के कारण प्रत्येक व्यवसायी का उद्देश्य “प्रथम सेवा फिर लाभ” हो गया है वैसे भी प्रत्येक व्यवसायी को समाज सेवा कर अपने उत्तरदायित्व का निर्वहन करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 2.
संगठन के कोई चार सिद्धान्तों का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
संगठन के सिद्धान्त –

1. विशिष्टीकरण का सिद्धान्त प्रत्येक सदस्य की क्रियाएँ विशेष कार्य को पूरा करने तक ही सीमित होनी चाहिए, अर्थात् एक व्यक्ति को एक कार्य सौंपा जाये तो इससे कुशलता में वृद्धि होगी।

2. एकरूपता का सिद्धान्त – प्रत्येक पद से संबंधित अधिकारों तथा उत्तरदायित्वों में एकरूपता होनी चाहिए, परन्तु एक अधिकारी के अधिकार दूसरे से टकराने नहीं चाहिए, इससे संस्था का अनुशासन ढीला होगा और कार्य कुशलतापूर्वक सम्पन्न नहीं हो सकेगा।

3. अपवाद का सिद्धान्त – इस सिद्धान्त का प्रतिपादन प्रो. टेलर वैज्ञानिक प्रबंध के जन्मदाता ने किया था। इस सिद्धान्त के अनुसार दिन-प्रतिदिन के कार्यों को करने के लिये अधीनस्थों को अधिकार दे दिये जाने चाहिए तथा अपवादपूर्ण एवं महत्वपूर्ण मामलों पर निर्णय करने के कार्य को उच्च अधिकारियों पर छोड़ देना चाहिये।

4. सरलता का सिद्धान्त – संगठन का ढाँचा सरल होना चाहिये ताकि प्रत्येक कार्य के निष्पादन में कमसे-कम समय एवं व्यय लगे। सरलता के अभाव में संदेशों के आदान-प्रदान में भी कठिनाई सामने आती हैं तथा कार्य शीघ्रता व सरलता से नहीं हो पाएगा।

प्रश्न 3.
कार्यात्मक संगठन संरचना के गुण/लाभ समझाइये।
उत्तर:
कार्यात्मक संगठन ढाँचे के गुण / लाभ निम्नलिखित हैं

1. कार्यात्मक संगठन में व्यावसायिक क्रियाओं का विभाजन तर्क संगत होता है।
2. प्रत्येक विभाग के प्रबन्धक अपने विभाग के कार्य के लिए उत्तरदायी होते हैं।
3. कार्यात्मक संगठन द्वारा सर्वोच्च प्रबन्ध का उपक्रम पर नियंत्रण रखना आसान हो जाता है।
4. इस ढाँचे का आधार श्रम विभाजन है अर्थात् प्रबन्धकों को कार्य उनकी योग्यता एवं सूची के अनुसार दिये जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
संगठन के कोई चार लाभ लिखिए।
उत्तर:
संगठन वह तंत्र है, जिसकी सहायता से प्रबंध व्यवसाय का संचालन, समन्वय तथा नियंत्रण करता है। यह प्रबंध की आधारशिला है। संगठन का महत्व निम्नलिखित बातों से स्पष्ट हो जाता है

1. उपक्रम के विकास में सहायक-श्रेष्ठ संगठन के माध्यम से उपक्रम का विकास तेज गति से होने लगता है, बड़े पैमाने के उत्पादन की सफलता के पीछे श्रेष्ठ संगठन का हाथ होता है।

2. समन्वय स्थापित होना-संगठन की सहायता से विभिन्न विभागों, उपविभागों, विभिन्न व्यक्तियों एवं क्रियाओं में उचित समन्वय एवं सामंजस्य स्थापित होता है। जिससे प्रशासन द्वारा निर्धारित नीति का पूर्ण परिपालन संभव होता है।

3. भ्रष्टाचार पर नियंत्रक-स्वस्थ एवं कुशल संगठन भ्रष्टाचार पर प्रभावी नियंत्रण करने में भी सफल रहता है, जिससे कर्मचारियों की दक्षता बढ़ती है और उनका मनोबल तथा उत्साह बढ़ता रहता है।

4. मनोबल में वृद्धि-कुशल संगठन से कर्मचारियों के मनोबल में वृद्धि होती है। प्रत्येक व्यक्ति अपने अधिकार, दायित्व तथा कर्तव्य से सुपरिचित रहता है तथा वह उपक्रम की नीतियों व उद्देश्यों को भली-भाँति समझ जाता है।

प्रश्न 5.
श्रेष्ठ संगठन से प्रशासकीय तथा प्रबंधकीय क्षमता में वृद्धि होती है। स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
प्रशासन द्वारा उपक्रम की नीतियों एवं लक्ष्यों का निर्धारण किया जाता है व इनका क्रियान्वयन प्रबंध द्वारा संगठन के सहयोग से किया जाता है। श्रेष्ठ संगठन में सहयोग, समन्वय, कार्यनिष्ठा व अनुशासन की भावना भरी होती है, जिससे संगठन के मानवीय प्रयासों को एक निश्चित दिशा देकर अधिक सार्थक व प्रभावी बनाया जा सकता है। उपक्रम की क्रियाओं एवं उद्देश्यों को सरलता व शीघ्रता से समय पर पूर्ण कराया जा सकता है। इस प्रकार श्रेष्ठ संगठन से प्रशासकीय व प्रबंधकीय क्षमता में वृद्धि होती है।

प्रश्न 6.
रेखा एवं कर्मचारी संगठन क्या है ? इसकी तीन विशेषताएँ लिखिए।
उत्तर:
रेखा एवं कर्मचारी संगठन में काम का विभाजन स्वतंत्र विभागों में किया जाता है तथा उत्तरदायित्व का विभाजन भी लम्बवत् होता है किन्तु कार्यदक्षता तथा सहकारिता को प्रोत्साहन देने के लिए प्रत्येक विभाग में विशेषज्ञ नियुक्त किये जाते हैं, जो परामर्श का कार्य करते हैं।
रेखा व कर्मचारी संगठन की विशेषताएँ

1. इस संगठन में अधिकार व उत्तरदायित्व ऊपर से नीचे की ओर प्रवाहित होता है।
2. इस संगठन में योग्य कर्मचारियों को उन्नति के अच्छे अवसर प्राप्त होते हैं।
3. इसमें सोचने एवं परामर्श देने व करने के कार्य दोनों पृथक्-पृथक् होते हैं।

प्रश्न 7. रेखा संगठन के दोष लिखिए।
उत्तर:
रेखा संगठन के दोष :

1. इस संगठन में पक्षपात की आशंका बनी रहती है। इसमें सर्वोच्च अधिकारी अपने अधीनस्थों की नियुक्ति, पदोन्नति आदि में पक्षपात कर सकता है।
2. आधुनिक उद्योग इतने जटिल व मिश्रित हैं कि एक ही व्यक्ति सारे कार्य दक्षतापूर्वक सम्पन्न नहीं कर सकता है,
3. विशिष्टीकरण इसमें संभव नहीं है।
4. दक्ष अधिकारी के बिना विभिन्न विभागों में समन्वय स्थापित करना कठिन हो जाता है।
5. अनुशासन पर अधिक ध्यान देने के कारण इस प्रणाली में तानाशाही की बुराइयाँ आ जाती हैं।
6. उच्चाधिकारी के गलत निर्णय लेने पर उपक्रम विफल हो सकता है।

प्रश्न 8.
रेखा संगठन के लाभों को समझाइये।
उत्तर:
रेखा संगठन के प्रमुख लाभ निम्नलिखित हैं

1. इस संगठन में प्रत्येक सदस्य को अपने उत्तरदायित्व व कर्तव्यों की स्पष्ट जानकारी रहती है।
2. इस संगठन में निर्णय प्रायः एक व्यक्ति द्वारा लिए जाते हैं, अतः निर्णय सरलतापूर्वक व शीघ्र होते हैं।
3. विभिन्न विभागों को एक ही व्यक्ति के निर्देशन में कार्य करना होता है, अतः उनमें समन्वय आसानी से किया जा सकता है।
4. इस संगठन प्रणाली में आवश्यकतानुसार समायोजन भी किया जा सकता है अर्थात् यह लोचपूर्ण है।

प्रश्न 9.
कार्यात्मक संगठन प्रभागीय संगठन से किस प्रकार असमानता रखता है ?
उत्तर:
संगठनात्मक ढाँचा (Organisational structure)- संगठनात्मक ढाँचा संगठन में विभिन्न पदों के बीच अधिकार और उत्तरदायित्व संबंध प्रदर्शित करता है और साथ ही स्पष्ट करता है कि कौन किसको रिपोर्ट करेगा। हर्ले (Hurley) के अनुसार, “संगठन ढाँचे, एक संस्था में विभिन्न पदों एवं उन पदों पर काम करने वाले व्यक्तियों के मध्य संबंधों के स्वरूप होते हैं ।” संगठन ढाँचे को प्रायः संगठन चार्ट पर प्रदर्शित किया जाता है। संगठन ढाँचे के दो रूप हैं-

1. कार्यात्मक ढाँचा तथा
2.  प्रभागीय ढाँचा।

प्रश्न 10.
औपचारिक संगठन तथा अनौपचारिक संगठन किस प्रकार आपस में संबंधित हैं?
उत्तर:
अनौपचारिक संगठन और औपचारिक संगठन में संबंध (Relation between formal organization and informal organization)- अनौपचारिक संगठन औपचारिक संगठन का एक अंग होता है। औपचारिक संगठन के अंदर सदस्य अपने कार्यों को एक-दूसरे के सहयोग से पूरा करते हैं। वे एक-दूसरे से बातचीत करते हैं। इससे उनमें मैत्रीपूर्ण संबंध बन जाते हैं। मित्रता के आधार पर सामाजिक समूह का एक संजाल (Network) बन जाता है।

इस संजाल को अनौपचारिक संगठन कहते हैं। इस प्रकार औपचारिक संगठन अनौपचारिक संगठनों को जन्म देते हैं। अनौपचारिक संगठन के अंदर काम करने वाले सदस्यों के बीच सामाजिक संबंधों की एक व्यवस्था होती है। औपचारिक ढाँचे के अंदर ही अनौपचारिक संगठन की उत्पत्ति होती है।

औपचारिक संगठन में अनौपचारिक संगठन की उत्पत्ति के कई आधार होते हैं- जैसे समान रूचि, भाषा, संस्कृति आदि। ये संगठन पूर्व-नियोजित नहीं होते। ये लोगों की आवश्यकताओं और संस्था के वातावरण के अनुसार स्वतः ही बन जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
केंद्रीयकरण और विकेंद्रीयकरण की अवधारणा अधिकार अंतरण की अवधारणा से संबंधित है। कैसे?
उत्तर:
अधिकारों के केंद्रीयकरण से अभिप्राय उच्च प्रबंध स्तरों पर अधिकारों के संकेद्रण (Centralization) से है। यहाँ अधिकांश निर्णय उच्च स्तर के प्रबंधकों के द्वारा लिए जाते हैं। अधीनस्थ प्रबंधको के द्वारा निर्देशों के अनुसार करते हैं। इसके विपरीत अधिकार विकेंद्रीयकरण से अभिप्राय केवल केंद्रीय बिंदुओं पर ही प्रयोग किये जा सकने वाले अधिकारों को छोड़कर शेष सभी अधिकारों को व्यवस्थित रूप से निम्न स्तरों को सौंपने से है।

केंद्रीयकरण और विकेंद्रीकरण की दोनों अवधारणाएँ अधिकार अंतरण की अवधारणा से संबंधित हैं। जब अधिकार अधीनस्थों को हस्तांतरण नहीं हो जाते और सारे अधिकार उच्च प्रबंध पर संकेद्रित हैं, तब केंद्रीयकरण कहलायेगा और जब अधिकारों का अंतरण अधीनस्थों को किया जाता है तब विकेंद्रीयकरण की स्थिति उत्पन्न होती है।

प्रश्न 12.
अनौपचारिक संगठन औपचारिक संगठन की किस प्रकार सहायता करता है ? स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
अनौपचारिक संगठन का जन्म औपचारिक संगठन से होता है, जब व्यक्ति अधिकारिक तौर पर बतलाई गई भूमिकाओं से परे आपस में मेल-मिलाप से कार्य करते हैं। जब कर्मचारी सगंठन की ओर नहीं धकेला जा सकता बल्कि वे मैत्रीपूर्ण व सहयोगपूर्ण विचारों से एक ग्रुप बनाने की ओर झुकते हैं। यह उनके आपसी हितों की अनुरूपता को प्रकट करता है।

ऐसे समूहों का प्रयोग संगठन की उन्नति तथा सहयोग के लिए किया जा सकता है। ऐसे समूह उपयोगी तथा कर्मचारियों एवं उच्चाधिकारियों के मध्य झगड़े सुलझाने का कार्य अनौपचारिक संप्रेषण के द्वारा भली-भाँति किया जा सकता है। प्रबंधकों को औपचारिक तथा अनौपचारिक दोनों प्रकार के संगठनों का युक्ति पूर्ण उपयोग करना चाहिए ताकि संगठन का कार्य सुगमतापूर्वक चल सके। औपचारिक संगठन को यदि भली-भाँति नियंत्रित किया जाए तो औपचारिक संगठन के द्वारा बनाये गये उद्देश्यों की प्राप्ति में अनौपचारिक संगठन अत्यंत उपयोगी है।

प्रश्न 13.
केंद्रीयकरण एवं विकेंद्रीयकरण में अंतर्भेद कीजिए।
उत्तर:
बहुत से संगठनों में सभी निर्णयों को लेने में शीर्ष प्रबंध की मुख्य भूमिका होती है जबकि अन्य संगठनों में यह अधिकार प्रबंध के निम्नतम स्तर को भी दिया जाता है। जिन उपक्रमों में निर्णय लेने का अधिकार केवल शीर्ष स्तरीय प्रबंध को ही होता है वे केंद्रीकृत संगठन कहलाते हैं। जबकि उन संगठनों में जहाँ इस प्रकार के निर्णयों को लेने में निम्न स्तर तक के प्रबंध को भागीदार बनाया जाता है, विकेंद्रीकृत संगठन कहते हैं।

विकेंद्रीयकरण से तात्पर्य उस विधि से है जिसमें निर्णय लेने का उत्तरदायित्व सोपानिक क्रम में विभिन्न स्तरों में विभाजित किया जाता है। सरल शब्दों में विकेंद्रीयकरण का अर्थ संगठन के प्रत्येक स्तर पर अधिकार अंतरण करना होता है। निर्णय लेने का अधिकार निम्नतम स्तर तक के प्रबंध को दिया जाता है जहाँ पर वास्तविक रूप में कार्य होना है। दूसरे शब्दों में निर्णय लेने का अधिकार आदेश की श्रृंखला में नीचे तक दिया जाता है।

केंद्रीयकरण (Centralization) – जिस संगठन में निर्णय लेने का अधिकार केवल उच्चस्तरीय प्रबंधन को ही होता है तो वह संगठन केंद्रीकृत कहलाता है। कोई भी संस्था कभी भी न तो पूर्णरूपेण केंद्रीकृत हो सकती है और न विकेंद्रीकृत। जब कोई संस्था आकार तथा जटिलताओं की ओर अग्रसर होती है तो यह देखा गया है · कि वे संस्थाएँ निर्णयों में विकेंद्रीयकरण को अपनाती हैं। यह इसलिए होता है क्योंकि बड़ी-बड़ी संस्थाओं में जहाँ कर्मचारियों को प्रत्यक्ष तथा अतिनिकट से कार्य संचालन में आल्पित किया जाता है उनका ज्ञान तथा अनुभव उन उच्चस्तरीय प्रबंधकों से कहीं अधिक होता है जो संस्थान से अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से जुड़े हुए होते हैं।

श्रेष्ठ नियंत्रण (Best control)- विकेंद्रीयकरण से प्रत्येक स्तर पर कार्य निष्पादन के मूल्यांकन का अवसर मिलता है जिससे प्रत्येक विभाग व्यक्तिगत रूप से उसके परिणामों के लिए जवाबदेह बनाया जा सकता है। संगठन के उद्देश्यों की उपलब्धि किस सीमा तक हुई या समस्त उद्देश्यों को प्राप्त करने में प्रत्येक विभाग कितना सफल हो सका इसका भी निर्धारण किया जा सकता है। सभी स्तरों से प्रतिपुष्टि द्वारा भिन्नताओं का विश्लेषण करने तथा सुधारने में सहायता मिलती है। विकेंद्रीयकरण में निष्पादन की जवाबदेही एक बड़ी चुनौती है। इस चुनौती का सामना करने के लिए संतुलन अंक कार्ड तथा प्रबंध सूचना विधि।

प्रश्न 14.
विकेंद्रीयकरण के महत्व लिखिए।
उत्तर:
एक संगठन निम्न कारणों से विकेंद्रीयकरण होना पसंद करता है

1. उच्च अधिकारियों की अत्यधिक कार्यभार से मुक्ति (More capacity utilization)विकेंद्रीयकरण के अतंर्गत दैनिक प्रबंधकीय कार्यों को अधीनस्थों को सौंप दिया जाता है। इसके फलस्वरूप उच्च प्रबंधकों के पास पर्याप्त समय बचता है जिसका प्रयोग वे नियोजन, समन्वय, नीति निर्धारण, नियंत्रण आदि में कर सकते हैं।

2. विभिन्नीकरण में सुविधा (Ease to expansion)- इस बात से इंकार नहीं किया जाता कि एक व्यक्ति का नियंत्रण सर्वश्रेष्ठ होता है लेकिन इसकी भी एक सीमा होती है। सीमा का अभिप्राय व्यवसाय के आकार से है अर्थात् जब तक व्यवसाय का आकार छोटा है उच्च स्तर पर सभी अधिकारियों को केंद्रित करके व्यवसाय को कुशलतापूर्वक चलाया जा सकता है लेकिन जब उसमें उत्पादन की जाने वाली वस्तुओं की मात्रा अधिक हो जाती है तब केंद्रीय नियंत्रण से काम नहीं चल सकता क्योंकि अकेला व्यक्ति सभी वस्तुओं की समस्याओं की ओर पर्याप्त ध्यान नहीं दे सकता।

3. प्रबंधकीय विकास (Managerial development)- विकेंद्रीयकरण का अभिप्राय है निम्नतम स्तर के प्रबंधकों को भी अपने कार्यों के संबंध में निर्णय लेने के अधिकार होना। इस प्रकार निर्णय लेने के अवसर प्राप्त होने से सभी स्तरों के प्रबंधकों के ज्ञान एवं अनुभव में वृद्धि होती है और इस प्रकार कहा जा सकता है कि यह व्यवस्था प्रशिक्षण का काम करती है।

4. कर्मचारियों के मनोबल में वृद्धि (Increase in employees morale)- विकेंद्रीयकरण के कारण प्रबंध में कर्मचारियों की भागीदारी बढ़ती है। इससे संस्था में उनकी पहचान बनती है। जब संस्था में किसी व्यक्ति की पहचान बने अथवा उसका महत्व बढ़े तो उसके मनोबल में वृद्धि होना स्वाभाविक है। मनोबल में वृद्धि होने से वे अपनी इकाई की सफलता के लिए बड़े से बड़ा त्याग करने से भी नहीं घबराते।

प्रश्न 15.
औपचारिक तथा अनौपचारिक संगठन में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
औपचारिक संगठन एवं अनौपचारिक संगठन में अन्तर:
औपचारिक संगठन

1. इसका निर्माण किसी योजना को पूरा करने के लिए विचार-विमर्श करके किया जाता है। होता है।
2. इसे किसी तकनीकी उद्देश्य को पूरा करने के उद्देश्य से बनाया जाता है।
3. इसका आकार बड़ा हो सकता है।
4. इसमें सत्ता का प्रवाह ऊपर से नीचे की ओर होता है।

अनौपचारिक संगठन

1. इसका निर्माण स्वतः ही सामाजिक संबंधों द्वारा
2. इसका निर्माण सामाजिक संतोष प्राप्त करने
3. यह प्रायः छोटे आकार का होता है।
4. इसमें सत्ता का प्रवाह नीचे से ऊपर की ओर होता है।

प्रश्न 16.
औपचारिक संगठन से क्या आशय है ? इसकी कोई चार विशेषताएँ बताइए।
उत्तर:
औपचारिक संगठन – इसका आशय एक ऐसे संगठन से है जिसमें प्रत्येक स्तर के प्रबन्धकों के अधिकारों, कर्तव्यों तथा दायित्वों की स्पष्ट सीमा निर्धारित होती है। इस संगठन को संगठनात्मक लक्ष्यों की प्राप्ति हेतु प्रबंध द्वारा बनाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 17.
अनौपचारिक संगठन किसे कहते हैं ? विशेषताओं सहित बताइए।
उत्तर:
अनौपचारिक संगठन से अभिप्राय ऐसे संगठन से है जिसकी स्थापना जानबूझकर नहीं की जाती अपितु, अनायास ही सामान्य हितों, संबंध, रुचियों तथा धर्म के कारण हो जाती है।
अर्ल. पी. स्ट्रांग के अनुसार, “अनौपचारिक संगठन एक ऐसी सामाजिक संरचना है जिसका निर्माण व्यक्तिगत आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए किया जाता है।”
अनौपचारिक संगठन की विशेषताएँ- इसकी प्रमुख विशेषताएँ निम्नलिखित हैं.

1. निर्माण स्वतः-इसका निर्माण जानबूझकर नहीं किया जाता बल्कि व्यक्तियों के आपसी संबंधों तथा रुचियों के आधार पर स्वयं हो जाता है।

2. व्यक्तिगत संगठन-व्यक्तिगत संगठन से अभिप्राय है कि इसमें व्यक्तियों की भावनाओं को ध्यान में रखा जाता है, उन पर किसी भी बात को थोपा नहीं जाता।

3. अधिकार-इसमें अधिकार व्यक्ति से जुड़े रहते हैं तथा उनका प्रवाह नीचे से ऊपर की ओर या समतल रूप में चलता है।

4. स्थायित्व का अभाव-इसमें जब तक व्यक्ति एक समूह में है तभी तक वह संगठन है जब व्यक्ति अलग होता है तो संगठन समाप्त हो जाता है। इसमें स्थायित्व का अभाव रहता है।

प्रश्न 18.
अधिकार अन्तरण या भारार्पण से क्या तात्पर्य है ? इसके प्रमुख तत्वों ( प्रक्रिया) को समझाइए।
उत्तर:
अधिकार अंतरण से आशय, अधीनस्थों को निश्चित सीमा के अन्तर्गत कार्य करने का केवल अधिकार देना है। अधिकार अंतरण प्रक्रिया का एक महत्वपूर्ण अंग है। इसकी आवश्यकता उस समय उत्पन्न होती है जब एक प्रबंधक के पास कार्यभार अधिक होने के कारण वह सभी कार्यों का अधीनस्थों में विभाजन करता है। अतः उसे अधिकार अंतरण का सहारा लेना पड़ता है। जब कुछ कार्यों का निष्पादन करने के लिए दूसरे व्यक्तियों को अधिकृत किया जाता है तो इसे अधिकार अंतरण कहते हैं।
विभिन्न विद्वानों ने अधिकार अंतरण को निम्न प्रकार से परिभाषित किया है

1. एफ. जी. मूरे, “अधिकार अंतरण से अभिप्राय दूसरे लोगों को कार्य सौंपना और उसे करने के लिए अधिकार देना है।”
2. मैस्कॉन, “अधिकार अंतरण किसी व्यक्ति को कार्य तथा सत्ता सौंपना है, जो उनके लिए दायित्व ग्रहण करता है।”

अधिकार अंतरण के तत्व-अधिकार अंतरण के पाँच तत्व हैं

1. कार्यभार सौंपना – अधिकार अंतरण प्रक्रिया का पहला कदम कार्यभार सौंपा जाना है क्योंकि कोई भी अधिकारी इतना सक्षम नहीं होता कि वह अपना सारा कार्य स्वयं पूरा कर ले इसलिए अपने कार्य का सफलतापूर्वक निष्पादन करने के लिए वह अपने कार्य का विभाजन करता है, विभाजन के समय अधीनस्थों कीयोग्यता एवं कुशलता का ध्यान में रखा जाना अत्यंत आवश्यक होता है।

2. अधिकार प्रदान करना-कार्य का सफलतापूर्वक निष्पादन करने हेतु अधिकार सौंपे जाते हैं क्योंकि . जब तक अधीनस्थों को अधिकार प्रदान नहीं किए जाएँगे तब तक कार्यभार सौंपना अर्थहीन होता है। अतः कार्य को पूरा करने के लिए अधिकार सौंपे जाने चाहिए।

3. प्रत्यायोजन की स्वीकृति-जिस व्यक्ति को कार्य दिया गया है वह उस कार्य को स्वीकार या अस्वीकार कर सकता है। यदि अधिकार अंतरण स्वीकार नहीं किया जाता तो प्रत्यायोजक प्रबन्धक किसी अन्य अधीनस्थ व्यक्ति को कार्य सौंपने की कार्यवाही करेगा। इसलिए प्रत्यायोजन की स्वीकृति अत्यंत आवश्यक होती है।

4. जवाबदेही निर्धारित करना-जवाबदेही, अधीनस्थों को सही ढंग से कार्य करने के लिए जिम्मेदार ठहराता है, प्रत्येक अधीनस्थ केवल उस अधिकारी के समक्ष ही जवाबदेह होता है जिससे उसे कार्य करने के अधिकार प्राप्त होते हैं।

प्रश्न 19.
विकेन्द्रीयकरण से क्या तात्पर्य है ? विकेन्द्रीयकरण के कौन-कौन से लाभ होते हैं ?
उत्तर:
विकेन्द्रीयकरण से तात्पर्य है, निर्णय लेने के अधिकार को संगठन के निम्न स्तर पर पहुँचाना है। विकेन्द्रीयकरण, अधिकार अंतरण का ही विस्तृत रूप है। जब किसी उच्च अधिकारी के द्वारा अपने अधीनस्थों को अपेक्षाकृत अधिक भाग में अधिकारों का भारार्पण किया जाता है, तो यह विकेन्द्रीयकरण कहलाता है। इसके अंतर्गत केवल ऐसे अधिकार जो उच्च अधिकारियों के लिए सुरक्षित रखना जरुरी है, को छोड़कर शेष सभी अधिकार अधीनस्थों को स्थाई रूप से सौंप दिए जाते हैं।
विकेन्द्रीयकरण के लाभ-विकेन्द्रीकरण के लाभों को निम्न बातों से स्पष्ट किया जा सकता है

1. उच्च अधिकारियों का कार्य भार कम होना-विकेन्द्रीयकरण की सहायता से उच्च अधिकारियों के कार्यभार में बहुत कमी आ जाती है, वे अपना पूरा ध्यान महत्वपूर्ण कार्यों में लगा सकते हैं उन्हें छोटे-छोटे कार्यों में उलझना नहीं पड़ता है, जिस कारण व्यावसायिक उपक्रम उच्च अधिकारियों की योग्यता, कुशलता तथा विवेक का अधिकारिक लाभ उठा सकते हैं।

2. विविधीकरण की सुविधा-विकेन्द्रीयकरण में विविधीकरण की पर्याप्त सुविधा होती है क्योंकि अलग-अलग क्रियाओं के लिए अलग-अलग अध्यक्षों की नियुक्ति की जा सकती है।

3. अनौपचारिक संबंधों का विकास-विकेन्द्रीयकरण के द्वारा अनौपचारिक संबंधों का विकास होता है।

4. अभिप्रेरण-विकेन्द्रीयकरण के द्वारा कर्मचारियों को स्वतंत्र रूप से निर्णय लेने का अधिकार होता है जिससे वह बेहतर परिणाम लाने के लिए अभिप्रेरित होते हैं।।

प्रश्न 20.
कार्यात्मक संगठन तथा प्रभागीय संगठन में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
कार्यात्मक संगठन तथा प्रभागीय संगठन में अन्तर –

प्रश्न 21.
औपचारिक संगठन के लाभ तथा दोषों का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
औपचारिक संगठन के लाभ (Advantages of Formal Organisation)

1. व्यवस्थित कार्यवाही (Systematic Working)-इस ढाँचे का परिणाम एक संगठन की व्यवस्थित और सरल कार्यवाही होता है।

2. संगठनात्मक उद्देश्यों की प्राप्ति (Achievement of Organisational Objectives)-इस ढाँचे को संगठनात्मक उद्देश्यों को प्राप्त करने के लिए स्थापित किया जाता है।

3. कार्य का दोहराव नहीं (No Overlapping of Work)-औपचारिक संगठनात्मक ढाँचे में विभिन्न विभागों और कर्मचारियों के बीच कार्य व्यवस्थित ढंग से विभाजित होता है। इसलिए कार्य के दोहराव का कोई अवसर नहीं होता है।

4. समन्वय (Coordination)-इस ढाँचे का परिणाम विभिन्न विभागों की क्रियाओं को समन्वित करना होता है।

औपचारिक संगठन के दोष (Disadvantages of Formal Organization)

1. कार्य में देरी (Delay in Action) – सोपान श्रृंखला और आदेश श्रृंखला का अनुसरण करते समय कार्यों में देरी हो जाती है।

2. कर्मचारियों की सामाजिक आवश्यकताओं की अवहेलना करता है (Ignores Social Needs of Employees)-यह ढाँचा कर्मचारियों की सामाजिक और मनोवैज्ञानिक आवश्यकता को महत्व नहीं देता ‘जिससे कर्मचारियों के अभिप्रेरण में कमी हो सकती है।

3. केवल कार्य पर बल (Emphasis on Work Only) – यह ढाँचा केवल कार्य को महत्व देता है इसमें मानवीय संबंधों, सृजनात्मकता, प्रतिभाओं इत्यादि को महत्व नहीं दिया जाता है।

प्रश्न 22.
विकेंद्रीयकरण एवं भारार्पण में अंतर लिखिए।
उत्तर:
विकेंद्रीयकरण एवं भारार्पण में अंतर

प्रश्न 23.
अधिकार अंतरण तथा विकेन्द्रीयकरण में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
अधिकार अंतरण तथा विकेन्द्रीयकरण में अंतर

अधिकार अंतरण

1. उच्च अधिकारी के द्वारा सत्ता का अधीनस्थों को हस्तांतरण, अधिकार अंतरण कहलाता है। करण कहलाता है।
2. इसमें अंतिम उत्तरदायित्व अधिकार सौंपने उत्तरदायित्व कावाले का ही होता है अर्थात् इसमें उत्तर भी हस्तांतरण हो जाता है।दायित्व का हस्तांतरण नहीं होता।
3. यह सभी संस्थाओं के लिए आवश्यक होता है क्योंकि अधीनस्थों से काम लेने के लिए उन्हें अधिकार देना पड़ता है।
4. अधिकार अंतरण, विकेन्द्रीयकरण पर नहीं होता।

विकेन्द्रीयकरण

1. पूरे संगठन में सत्ता का फैलाव करना विकेन्द्रीय
2. इसमें अधिकार के साथ-ही-साथ
3. विकेन्द्रीयकरण प्रत्येक संस्था के लिए आवश्यक नहीं है।
4. विकेन्द्रीयकरण, अधिकार अंतरण के बिना संभव आधारित नहीं होता है।

प्रश्न 24.
अधिकार एवं उत्तरदायित्व में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
अधिकार एवं उत्तरदायित्व में अन्तर –

अधिकार

1. अधिकार का अर्थ है, निर्णय लेने की शक्ति।
2. अधिकार वह शक्ति है जो अधीनस्थों के कर्तव्य को पूरा करने से है।
3. अधिकार का प्रत्यायोजन किया जा सकता है।
4. अधिकार, संस्था में औपचारिक पद के कारण उत्पन्न होता है।

उत्तरदायित्व

1. उत्तरदायित्व का अर्थ है, सौंपे गये कार्य को सही
2. उत्तरदायित्व का आशय किसी व्यक्ति द्वारा अपने व्यवहार को प्रभावित करती है।
3. उत्तरदायित्व दूसरों को सौंपे जा सकते हैं।
4. उत्तरदायित्व, उच्चाधिकारी अधीनस्थ सम्बन्ध से उत्पन्न होता है।

प्रश्न 25.
प्रभावी भारार्पण की अनिवार्य अपेक्षाओं को समझाइए।
उत्तर:
प्रभावी भारार्पण की अनिवार्य अपेक्षाएँ – अधिकार सौंपने की व्यवस्था को प्रभावी बनाने के लिए निम्नांकित निर्देशों का पालन करना चाहिए

1. अधिकार और दायित्वों की स्पष्ट सीमा – अधीनस्थों को जो कार्य सौंपे जाएँ तो उन्हें यह पूरी तरह मालूम होना चाहिए कि उनके दायित्व तथा अधिकारों का क्षेत्र क्या है तथा उनकी सीमा कहाँ तक है।

2. अधिकार और दायित्वों की स्पष्ट व्याख्या – अधीनस्थों को स्पष्ट रूप से यह ज्ञान होना चाहिए कि उन्हें क्या करना है तथा सौंपे गए कार्य के लिए कितने अधिकार दिये गये हैं तथा उनसे किस प्रकार के कार्य की आशा की जाती है।

3. उचित नियन्त्रण – अधिकार सौंपने की व्यवस्था के पश्चात् भी वरिष्ठ अधिकारी का उत्तरदायित्व समाप्त नहीं होता। इसलिए उच्च अधिकारियों को अपने अधीनस्थों के कार्यों पर उचित नियंत्रण रखना चाहिए।

4. योग्य व्यक्ति का चयन – अधिकार हमेशा योग्य व्यक्ति को ही सौंपने चाहिए तभी सौंपा गया कार्य सही ढंग से पूर्ण होता है।

प्रश्न 26.
संगठन के उद्देश्य लिखिए।
उत्तर:
किसी भी व्यावसायिक एवं औद्योगिक इकाई में संगठन के निम्नलिखित उद्देश्य होते हैं…

1. उत्पादन में मितव्ययिता (Economy in production) संगठन का प्रमुख उद्देश्य, उत्पादन में मितव्ययिता लाना है, अर्थात् न्यूनतम लागत पर अधिकतम उत्पादन करना प्रत्येक उपक्रम का उद्देश्य होता है, यहाँ यह ध्यान रखना है कि न्यूनतम लागत के साथ-साथ वस्तु की गुणवत्ता (Quality) व मात्रा (Quantity) में गिरावट नहीं आनी चाहिये।

2. समय व श्रम में बचत (Saving in time and labour)-संगठन में श्रेष्ठ मशीनें व यंत्र तथा श्रेष्ठ प्रणाली अपनाई जाती है जिससे कार्य के समय व श्रम में काफी बचत हो जाती है, संगठन द्वारा बड़े पैमाने में उत्पादन के लाभ भी लिये जा सकते हैं।

3. श्रम व पूँजी में मधुर सम्बन्ध (Cordial relations between labour and capital)- श्रमिकों व प्रबन्ध के बीच मधुर सम्बन्ध स्थापित करना भी संगठन का एक उद्देश्य है, इस हेतु कुशल संगठनकर्ता की नियुक्ति कर श्रम व पूँजी के हितों की रक्षा की जाती है।

4. सेवा भावना (Spirit of service) वर्तमान सामाजिक चेतना एवं जन-जागरण के कारण प्रत्येक व्यवसायी का उद्देश्य ‘प्रथम सेवा फिर लाभ’ हो गया है वैसे भी प्रत्येक व्यवसायी को समाज सेवा कर अपने उत्तरदायित्व का निर्वहन करना चाहिये। इसलिये वर्तमान में प्रत्येक संगठन चाहे वह आर्थिक हो या अनार्थिक सभी का उद्देश्य सेवा करना होता है।

प्रश्न 27.
संगठन प्रक्रिया का संक्षेप में विवेचन कीजिये।
उत्तर:
संगठन के निर्माण के प्रमुख चरण

1. उद्देश्यों की स्थापना-संगठन के साथ उद्देश्यों का होना अति आवश्यक है। संगठन के उद्देश्यों में उन कार्यों की स्पष्ट व्याख्या होनी चाहिए जिनके कारण संगठन की संरचना की जाती है।

2. क्रियाओं का निर्धारण-संगठन का दूसरा कदम क्रियाओं का निर्धारण एवं उनका विभाजन करना होता है। कार्यों को उपकार्यों में विभाजित कर प्रत्येक कार्य की स्पष्ट व्याख्या करनी चाहिए।

3. क्रियाओं का वर्गीकरण-तृतीय चरण में क्रियाओं का वर्गीकरण किया जाता है। इस हेतु विभिन्न क्रियाओं को अलग-अलग समूह में बाँट दिया जाता है। जैसे-क्रय, विक्रय, विज्ञापन, निरीक्षण, उत्पादन, मजदूरी, वेतन आदि।

4. कार्य का विभाजन-इसके अन्तर्गत सही कार्य के लिए सही व्यक्ति के सिद्धान्त के अनुसार कार्य विभाजन किया जाता है। साथ ही कर्मचारियों की जिम्मेदारी भी निश्चित की जाती है।

प्रश्न 28.
विकेन्द्रीयकरण के उद्देश्य लिखिए।
उत्तर:
विकेन्द्रीयकरण के निम्न उद्देश्य होते हैं

1.शीर्ष स्तर पर कार्यभार में कमी-सामान्यतः निर्णय उच्च प्रबन्धक या शीर्ष स्तर पर लिये जाते हैं। संगठन का विस्तार होने पर शीर्ष स्तर का कार्य और बढ़ जाता है अतः इस कार्यभार को कम करने के लिये विकेन्द्रीयकरण किया जाता है। इससे शीर्ष अधिकारियों का कार्यभार कम होगा और वे अति महत्वपूर्ण कार्यों के लिये अच्छा निर्णय ले सकते हैं।

2. प्रजातान्त्रिक व्यवस्था के लाभ प्राप्त करने के लिये-विकेन्द्रीयकरण से अधिकारों का फैलाव छोटे-छोटे स्तर तक हो जाता है इससे प्रजातान्त्रिक व्यवस्था के समस्त लाभ सभी वर्ग को प्राप्त होते हैं।

3. कार्यों के शीघ्र निष्पादन के लिये-उच्चाधिकारियों के अधिक कार्यों को कम कर दिया जाये तो वे अपने कार्यों को ठीक ढंग से व शीघ्र उसका निपटारा कर सकते हैं इसी के साथ प्रतिस्पर्धा में आगे बढ़ने के लिये प्रत्येक स्तर पर अधिकारों का होना आवश्यक है इससे कार्य शीघ्र पूर्ण किये जा सकते हैं।

4.सर्वांगीण विकास-विकेन्द्रीयकरण से शीर्ष स्तर एवं निम्न स्तर के समस्त अधिकारियों को अधिकार प्राप्त होने से उन्हें अपने विकास का पूर्ण अवसर प्राप्त होता है। इसमें पूर्ण कार्यक्षमता से कार्य निष्पादित किये जा सकते हैं। अतः संगठन के सर्वांगीण विकास के लिये भी विकेन्द्रीयकरण आवश्यक है।

प्रश्न 29.
अनौपचारिक संगठन के विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
अनौपचारिक संगठन में सामान्यतः निम्न विशेषतायें होती हैं

1. इन संगठनों को बनाया नहीं जाता अपितु विशेष परिस्थितियों के कारण ये बन जाते हैं।
2. इन संगठनों के समान उद्देश्य होते हैं।
3. ये अस्थायी होते हैं कभी भी संगठन समाप्त हो जाते हैं।
4. इनका अपना कोई चार्ट, विधान या मैन्यूवल नहीं होता अपितु सामान्य परम्परा ही इनके कानून होते हैं।
5. ये संगठन व्यक्तिगत सम्बन्धों पर आधारित होते हैं।
6. ये वैध एवं अवैध दोनों हो सकते हैं ।
7. इसमें अधिकार एवं सत्ता को ऊपर से नीचे समर्पित किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 30.
संगठन की विशेषताएँ लिखिए।
उत्तर:

1. दो या दो से अधिक व्यक्ति का होना-एक व्यक्ति अपने आपको संगठन नहीं कह सकता। अतः संगठन हेतु कम से कम दो व्यक्तियों का होना अति आवश्यक है। अधिकतम संख्या पर कोई प्रतिबन्ध नहीं है।

2. निश्चित उद्देश्य का होना-संगठन में निश्चित उद्देश्य का होना अति आवश्यक है, बिना उद्देश्य के व्यक्तियों का समूह, संगठन नहीं हो सकता। जैसे कि किसी स्थान पर एक हजार लोग बिना उद्देश्य के एकत्र हैं तब वह संगठन न होकर मात्र भीड़ (Crowd) होगी।

3. लक्ष्य का पूर्व निर्धारित होना- संगठन के लिये यह आवश्यक है कि लक्ष्य या उद्देश्य पूर्व निर्धारित हो, लक्ष्य की प्राप्ति के लिये ही संगठन बनाया जाता है। अत: संगठन के पूर्व लक्ष्य (Targets) निर्धारित होना चाहिये।

4. व्यक्तियों का समूह होना-पशु-पक्षी या अन्य प्राणियों का समूह संगठन नहीं हो सकता। संगठन केवल व्यक्तियों का ही हो सकता है। यद्यपि फर्म या कम्पनियों के भी विधान द्वारा व्यक्ति (Person) कहा गया है, किन्तु ये सब कृत्रिम (Artificial) व्यक्ति हैं इसलिये 4 या 14 कम्पनियों का एक साथ कार्य करने को समूह (Group) कहेंगे संगठन नहीं।

प्रश्न 31.
संगठन के किन्हीं चार सिद्धांतों को संक्षिप्त रूप में समझाइए।
उत्तर:
संगठन के सिद्धांत (Principles of Organization)

1.सोपानिक सिद्धांत (Principle of scalar chain)- कौन व्यक्ति किस प्रबंधक की अधीनस्थता में काम करेगा और किससे आदेश लेगा इस बात का स्पष्ट उल्लेख होना चाहिए ताकि कोई भी व्यक्ति इस आदेश श्रृंखला का उल्लंघन न करे।

2.अपवाद का सिद्धांत (Principle of exception)- प्रत्येक अधीनस्थ को इतने अधिकार दिये जायें कि वह दैनिक कार्यों को स्वयं निपटा सके। केवल असाधारण मामले ही अधीक्षक के पास आने चाहिए। इस प्रकार प्रबंधक का समय अधिक महत्वपूर्ण मामलों के लिए सुरक्षित रहता है।

3. लोच का सिद्धांत (Principle of flexibility)- संगठन में पर्याप्त लोच होनी चाहिए ताकि इसमें परिस्थितियों व समय के अनुसार आसानी से परिवर्तन किये जा सकें।

4. अधिकार एवं दायित्व (Rights and responsibility)- संगठन के प्रत्येक सदस्य को उसके अधिकार व दायित्व साथ-साथ दिये जाने चाहिए। अधिकार व दायित्व में तालमेल के बिना कोई भी व्यक्ति कुशलतापूर्वक कार्य नहीं कर पायेगा। अधीनस्थों को पर्याप्त अधिकार सौंपे जाने चाहिए।

प्रश्न 32.
रेखा एवं रेखा तथा कर्मचारी संगठन में अंतर लिखिए।
उत्तर:
रेखा एवं रेखा तथा कर्मचारी संगठन में अन्तर
(Difference between Line and Line and Staff Organization)

प्रश्न 33.
अधिकार, उत्तरदायित्व तथा उत्तरदेयता/जवाबदेही में तुलना करें।
अथवा
अधिकार प्रत्यायोजन के तत्वों में तुलना करें।
उत्तर:
अधिकार, उत्तरदायित्व एवं उत्तरदेयता में अंतर

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 India and the United Nations Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 India and the United Nations

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 21 Text Book Exercise

Choose the correct option of the following questions

Question 1.
When UN was established?
(a) 24 October 1945
(b) 10 December 1945
(c) 1 May 1945
(d) 3 December 1950
Answer:
(a) 24 October 1945.

Question 2.
Which countries are permanent members of UN Security Council?
(a) US, Russia, France, Britain and China
(b) Russia, France, India, China and Pakistan
(c) Saudi Arab, Bangladesh, Britain, US and Russia
(d) Britain, India, China, France and U.S
Answer:
(a) US, Russia, France, Britain and China.

Fill in the blanks:

1. The Headquarter of UN are in ………….
2. At present total number of members in UN ………….

Answer:

1. New York
2. 191

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 21 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who elects the Non-Permanent members of UN Security Council?
Answer:
The Security Council is the important organ of the United Nations. It after the Security and peace in the World. It 15 members, out of them 5 are permanent members and 10 are non-permanent. These N Permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a duration of two years.

Question 2.
What is the International Court Justice?
Answer:
The International Court of Justice consists of 15 judges for a period of 9 years, retiring every 5 years. The court decided disappoint among its member nations. It gives advice the different organs of the United Nations.

Question 3.
By which name the administration officer UN is known?
Answer:
Administrative head of UN is known as the Secretary General.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 2 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the works of UNICEF?
Answer:
The main function of UNICEF, provide help to children in need regardless their race and religion. It works in the field health, nutrition and education.

Question 2.
Write two objectives of UN?
Answer:
Two objectives of UN are:

• To maintain international peace security to do joint effort to clearly hurdles in the way of peace.
• To co-operate in solving international problems of an economic social cultural or humanitarian character in promoting respect for human and fundamental freedom for all.

Question 3.
Write the names of the major of UN?
Answer:
There are six organs of the United Nations:

• The General Assembly.
• The Security Council.
• The Economic and Social Council.
• The Trusteeship Council.
• The International Court of Justice, and
• The Secretariat.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 2 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What efforts have been taken up by UN for world peace?
Answer:
The major objective of the United Nations is to maintain peace in the world. During its existence of more than sixty years the United Nations has been called upon to take action in several disputes. The United Nations was helpful in avoiding several wars.

It reduced tension in many critical situation. UN operated peacekeeping operations by sending peace keeping forces. By sending goodwill mission UN has been successful to reduce tension between tense countries It prevented large scale wars in Kashmir. Congo, West Asia, Cyprus, Yaman etc. ts peace-keeping efforts in Greece, Indonesia, Lebanon, Egypt, Gaza Strip, Congo, Korea, Iran, Iraq are some of its significant achievements.

The united nations has also been making efforts to stop nuclear weapons race. It, is an important effort to keep peace in the world.

Question 2.
Mention India’s role in UN?
Answer:
India is one of the founder members f the United Nations. It has made significant contribution in making the United Nations more meaningful. It is participated in peace-keeping mission whenever required. It has always committed to the principals and working of the United Nations.

India greatly participated in the administration of two most worst systems of partheid and colonialism with the United nations and got success. Apart from this, it undertook various peace-keeping mission in various countries in establishing peace, and maintaining human rights. It also advocated of inducing more and more countries to make it unable. It is India’s effort that made the inclusion

China to the United Nations. It is also supported the United Nations efforts on Nuclear n-proliferation. So we can concluding that india play a vital role in the UN activities to take it successful.

Question 3.
Write about three bodies of UN
Answer:
The three bodies of UN are:.

1. General Assembly
2. Security Council
3. WHO

1. General Assembly:
A General Assembly consists of all members of the United Nations. Every member-state can send a maximum of five representatives to the General Assembly but at the time of voting a state is entitled to cast only one vote. It discuss and makes recommendations on various important issues brought before it.

2. Security Council:
The Security Council is the most important organ of the United Nations. It looks after the security and peace m the world it has 15 members. These members fall in two categories. Five members viz. France and People’s Republic of China, the Russian Federation, the United Kingdom and the United States of America are permanent members. The other ten members are elected by the General Assembly for the duration of two years.

3. WHO:
Who is special agency of the UN that works for the improvement of health and prevention and control diseases.

Here you will find Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 with Answers PDF Free Download based on the important concepts.

MP Board Class 11th Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 Sets

Sets Important Questions

Sets Objective Type Questions

(A) Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
A set is defind as:
(a) Collection of an object
(b) Collection of well defind object
(c) Nothing can be said
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Collection of well defind object

Question 2.
If A = {1, 2, 3},B = {2, 3, 4} and U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6},then A’ ∩ B’ =
(a) {2, 3}
(b) {1, 5,6}
(c) {5, 6}
(d) {1, 4, 5, 6}.
Answer:
(c) {5, 6}

Question 3.
A and B are two sets, then A ∩ (A ∪ B) =
(a) A
(b) B
(c) ϕ
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) A

Question 4.
A set A = {x : x ∈ R, x² = 16 and 2x = 6} =
(a) ϕ
(b) {14,3,4}
(c) {3}
(d) {4}.
Answer:
(a) ϕ

Question 5.
For a non – empty set A:
(a) A∪A’ = A
(b) A∪A’ = A’
(c) A∪A’ = U
(d) A∪A’ = ϕ .
Answer:
(c) A∪A’ = U

Question 6.
If two non – empty sets A and B are not equal, then:
(a) A⊂A∩B
(b) B⊂A∩B
(c) A∩B⊂B
(d) A∩B⊂ϕ.
Answer:
(c) A∩B⊂B

Question 7.
A and B are two sets and n(A) = 70, n(B) = 60 and n(A∪B) = 110, then n(A∩B) =
(a) 240
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 20.
Answer:
(d) 20.

Question 8.
If A = {1,2,3,4,5}, then the number of proper subsets:
(a) 120
(b) 30
(c) 31
(d) 32.
Answer:
(d) 32.

Question 9.
If A, B and C are three sets, then A – (B∪C) is equal to:
(a) (B – A)∩C
(b) (A – B) ∪C
(c) (A – B) ∩(A – C)
(d) (A – B) ∪(A – C)
Answer:
(c) (A – B) ∩(A – C)

Question 10.
Let S = {1,2,3,4}. The total numbers of unordered pair of disjoint subsets of S is equal to:
(a) 25
(b) 34
(c) 42
(d) 41.
Answer:
(d) 41.

(B) Match the following:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (f)
6. (d)

(C) Fill in the blanks:

1. If the elements of A mid B are 3 and 6, then minimum number of elements in A∪B is …………………………….
2. If X and Y are two sets such that n(X) = 17, n(Y) = 23 and n(X∪Y) = 38, then n(X∩Y) = …………………………
3. If sets A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and B = {2, 4, 6, 8}, then B – A = ……………………………..
4. A set which does not contain any element is called ………………………….
5. If set A has n elements, then the number of subsets of A are …………………………..
6. If A = {1, 2} and B = {3, 4}, then (A∪B)∩ϕ = ……………………………..

Answer:

1. 6
2. 2
3. {8}
4. Empty set
5. 2ⁿ
6. ϕ

(D) Write true/false:

1. If A ∩ B = B, then B ⊂ A.
2. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, then A ∆ B = {1, 5, 6}.
3. If n(A – B) = n(A) – n(A n B).
4. For a non – empty sets A is A∩A’- A’.
5. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, then n[P(A)] = 16.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True.

Question (E)
Write answer in one word/sentence:

1. If A = {1, 2}, then write all the subsets of set A.
2. If A = {4, 5, 8, 12} and B = {1, 4, 6, 9}, then find the value of A – (B – A).
3. If n(U) = 700, n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300, and n(A∩B) = 100, then find the value of n(A’∩B’). ‘
4. Find the value of n[P{P{P(ϕ}}]
5. If A = {a, b, c, d}, then find all subsets of set A.
6. If U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, B = {2, 4, 6, 8} and C = {3, 4, 5, 6}, then find the value of (B – C)’.

Answer:

1. ϕ, {1}, {2}, {1,2}
2. {4, 5, 8, 12}
3. 300
4. 4
5. 16
6. {1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}.

Sets Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the following sets in set builder form: (NCERT)

1. {3, 6, 9, 12}
2. {2, 4, 8, 16, 32}
3. {5, 25, 125, 625}
4. {2, 4, 6,},
5. {1, 4, 9, ………… 100}.

Solution:

1. A = {x : x is a natural number, multiple of 3 and x < 15}
2. B = {x : x = 2ⁿ, x∈N and n < 6}
3. C = {x : x = 5ⁿ, and x∈N and n ≤ 4}
4. D = {x : x is an even natural number}
5. E = {x : x = n², x ∈ N and n < 11}.

Question 2.
Write the following sets in roster form: (NCERT)

1. A = {x : x is an odd natural number}
2. B = {x : x is an integer – \(\frac{1}{2}\) < x < \(\frac{9}{2}\)
3. C = {x : x is an integer x² ≤ 4}
4. D = {x : x is a letter of a word LOYAL}
5. E = {x : x is a month of year which does not have 31 days}
6. F – {x : x is a consonant of English alphabet which comes before k}

Solution:

1. A = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}
2. B = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}
3. C = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 2}
4. D = {L, 0, Y, A}
5. E = {FEBRUARY, APRIL, JUNE, SEPTEMBER, NOVEMBER}
6. F = {b, c, d, f, g, h, j}.

Question 3.
From following find whether A = B. (NCERT)

1. A = {a, b, c, d}, B = {d, c, b, a}.
2. A = {4, 8, 12, 16}, B = {8,4, 16, 18}.
3. A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}, B = {x : x is a positive even integer x < 10}.
4. A = {x : x is a multiple of 10}, B = {10, 15, 20, 25, 30}.

Solution:
1. A = {a, b, c, d}, B = {d, c, b, a}
All the elements of set A is in set B
A = B.

2. A = {4, 8, 12, 16}, B = {8, 4, 16, 18}
All the elements of A is not in set B.
∴ A≠B.

3. Here A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} and B = { x : x is an even number and x ≤ 10}
B = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
i.e., The elements of set A and B are same.
∴ A = B

4. Here A = {x : x is a multiple of 10} = {10, 20, 30, 40}
and B = {10, 15, 20, 25, 30, …}
The elements of set A and B are not same.
∴ A≠B.

Question 4.
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6}, C = {5, 6, 7, 8} and D = {7, 8, 9, 10} then find the following: (NCERT)

1. A∪B
2. A∪C
3. B∪C
4. B∪D

Solution:

1. A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6} = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.
2. A ∪ C = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8} = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}.
3. B ∪ C = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8} = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
4. B ∪ D = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {7, 8, 9, 10} = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

Question 5.
If A = {3, 5, 7, 9, 11}, B = {7, 9, 11, 13}, C= {11, 13, 15} and D = {15, 17} then, find the following:

1. A ∩ B
2. B ∩ C
3. A ∩ C
4. B ∩ D

Solution:

1. A ∩ B = {3, 5, 7, 9, 11} ∩ {7, 9, 11, 13} = {7, 9, 11}
2. B ∩ C = {7, 9, 11, 13} ∩ {11, 13, 15} = {11, 13}
3. A ∩ C = {3, 5, 7, 9, 11} ∩ {11, 13, 15} = {11}
4. B ∩ D = {7, 9, 11, 13} ∩ {15, 17} = ϕ

Question 6.
If A = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21}, B = {4, 8, 12, 16, 20}, C = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16} and D = {5, 10, 15, 20} then, find the following: (NCERT)

1. A – B
2. A – C
3. A – D
4. B – A
5. C – A
6. D – A
7. B – C
8. B – D
9. C – B
10. D – B
11. C – D
12. D – C?

Solution:
Let A and B are two sets and A – B is a set of those elements which one present in A and not in B.

1. A – B = {Those elements present in A and not in B}
= {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21} – {4, 8, 12, 16, 20}
= {3, 6, 9, 15, 18, 21}.

2. A – C = {Those elements present in A and not in C}
= {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21} – {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16}
= {3, 9, 15, 18, 21}.

3. A – D = {The elements which are in A but not in D}
= {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21} – {5, 10, 15, 20}
= {3, 6, 9, 12, 18, 21}.

4. B – A = {The elements which are in B but not in A}
= {4, 8, 12, 16, 20} – {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21}
= {4, 8, 16, 20}.

5. C – A = {The elements which are in C but not in A}
= {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16} – {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21}
= {2, 4, 8, 10, 14, 16}.

6. D – A = {The elements which are in D but not in A}
= {5, 10, 15, 20} – {3, 6,9, 12, 15, 18, 21}
= {5, 10, 20}.

7. B – C = {The elements which are in B but not in C}
= {4, 8, 12, 16, 20} – {2, 4,6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16}
= {20}.

8. B – D = {The elements which are in B but not in D}
= {4, 8, 12, 16, 20} – {5, 10, 15, 20}
= {4, 8, 12, 16}.

9. C – B = {The elements which are in C but not in B}
= {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16} – {4, 8, 12, 16, 20}
= {2, 6, 10, 14}.

10. D – B = {The elements which are in D but not in B}
= {5, 10, 15,20} – {4, 8, 12, 16, 20}
= {5, 10, 15}.

11. C – D = {The elements which are in C but not in D}
= {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16} – {5, 10, 15, 20}
= {2, 4, 6, 8, 12, 14, 16}.

12. D – C = {The elements which are in D but not in C}
= {5, 10, 15, 20} – {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16}
= {5, 15, 20}.

Question 7.
Let U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {2, 4, 6, 8} and C then find the following:

1. A’
2. B’
3. (A ∪ C)’
4. (A ∩ B)’
5. (A’)’
6. (B – C)’
7. (B – C)’

Solution:
1. A’= U – A
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {1, 2, 3, 4}
⇒ A’= {5, 6, 7, 8, 9}.

2. B’ = U – B
⇒ {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {2, 4, 6, 8}
⇒ B’ = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}.

3. (A ∪ C) = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6}
⇒ A ∪ C = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
(A ∪ C)’= U – (A ∪ C)
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
⇒ (A ∪ C)’ = {7, 8, 9}

4. A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {2, 4, 6, 8} = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8}
(A ∪ B)’ = ∪ – (A ∪ B)
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8}
⇒ (A ∪ B)’ = {5, 7, 9}

5. (A’)’ = ∪ – A’
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
⇒ (A’)’= {1, 2, 3, 4} = A

6. B – C = {2, 4, 6, 8} – {3, 4, 5, 6} = {2, 8}.
(B ∪ C)’ = U – (B – C)
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} – {2, 8}
⇒ (B – C)’= {1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9}.

Sets Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
If X and Fare two sets, n(X) = 17, n(Y) = 23 and n(X ∪ F) = 38, then find n(X ∩ F)? (NCERT)
Solution:
We know that n(X ∪ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) – n(X∩Y)
Given: n(X) = 17, n(Y) = 23, n(X ∪ Y) = 38, n(X ∩ Y) = ?
∴ 38 = 17 + 23 – n(X ∩ Y)
⇒ 38 = 40 – n(X ∩ Y)
⇒ n(X ∩ Y) = 40 – 38
⇒ n(X ∩ Y) = 2.

Question 2.
If X and Y are two sets, such that X∪Y has 18 elements, X has 8 elements and F has 15 elements, then how many elements does X ∩ Y have? (NCERT)
Solution:
Given: n(X ∪ Y) = 18, n(X) = 8, n(Y) = 15.
Applying formula n(X ∪ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) – n(X ∩ Y)
18 = 8 + 15 – n(X ∩ Y)
⇒ n(X ∩ Y) = 23 – 18 = 5.

Question 3.
If S and Tare two sets, such that S has 21 elements, T has 32 elements and S∩T has 11 elements, how many elements does S∪T have? (NCERT)
Solution:
Given: n(S) = 21, n(T) = 32, n(S ∩ T) = 11, n(S ∪ T) = ?
∵ n(S ∪ T) = n(S) + n(T) – n(S ∩ T)
⇒ n(S ∪ T) = 21 + 32 – 11 = 42.

Question 4.
If X and Y are two sets such that X has 40 elements, X∪Y has 60 elements and X∩Y has 10 elements, then how many elements does Y have? (NCERT)
Solution:
Given: n(X) = 40, n(X ∪ Y) = 60, n(X ∩ Y) = 10, n(Y) = ?
Applying formula n(X ∪ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) – n{X ∩ Y)
⇒ 60 = 40 + n(Y) – 10
⇒ 60 = 30 + n(Y)
⇒ n(Y) = 30.

Question 5.
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6}, C = {5, 6, 7, 8} and D = {7, 8, 9, 10}, then find the following: (NCERT)

1. A ∪ B ∪ C
2. A ∪ B ∪ D
3. B ∪ C ∪ D.

Solution:
1. A ∪ B ∪ C = {1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8}
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8}
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}.

2. A ∪ B ∪ D = { 1, 2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪{7, 8, 9, 10}
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {7, 8, 9, 10}
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}.

3. B ∪ C ∪ D = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8} ∪ {7, 8, 9, 10}
= {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
= {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}.

Sets Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In a survey of 600 students in a school, 150 students were found to be taking tea and 225 taking coffee, 100 were taking both tea and coffee. Find how many students were taking neither tea nor coffee? (NCERT)
Solution:
Let C and T be the students taking coffee and tea.
Here, n(T) = 150, n(C) = 225, n(C ∩ T) = 100.
Applying formula n(C ∪ T) = n(T) + n(C) – n(C ∩ T)
n(C ∪ T) = 150 + 225 – 100 = 375 – 100
⇒ n(C ∪ T) = 275
Total number of students = 600 = n(U).
Number of students taking neither tea nor coffee = n(C ∪ T)’
n(C ∪ T)’ = n(U) – n(C ∪ T)
= 600 – 275 = 325.

Question 2.
In a group of 70 people, 37 likes coffee, 52 likes tea and each person likes at least one of these two drinks. Find the number of persons who likes both coffee and tea? (NCERT)
Solution:
Let C and T be the persons who likes coffee and tea.
Given: n(C) = 37, n(T) = 52, n(C ∪ T) = 70, n(C ∩ T) = ?
Applying formula n(C ∪ T) = n(C) + n(T) – n(C ∩ T)
⇒ 70 = 37 + 52 – n(C ∩ T)
⇒ 70 = 89 – n(C ∩ T)
⇒ n(C ∩ T) = 89 – 70
⇒ n(C ∩ T) = 19
∴ Number of people who likes both coffee and tea = 19.

Question 3.
In a group of 65 people, 40 likes cricket, 10 likes both cricket and tennis. How many like tennis only and not cricket? How many like tennis? (NCERT)
Solution:
Let C and T denotes the people who likes cricket and tennis respectively.
Given: n(C ∪ T) = 65, n(C) = 40, n(C ∩ T) = 10
We know that
n(C ∪ T) = n(C) + n(T) – (C ∩ T)
65 = 40 + n(T) – 10
⇒ n(T) = 65 – 30 = 35.
∴ Number of people who likes only tennis and not cricket
= n(T ∩ C)’ = n(T) – (C ∩ T)
= 35 – 10 = 25.

Question 4.
In a survey of 60 people, it was found that 25 people read newspaper H, 26 read newspaper T, 26 read newspaper I, 9 read both H and I. 11 read both H and T, 8 read both T and 1.3 read all three newspapers. Find

1. The number of people who read at least one of the newspapers.
2. The number of people who read exactly one newspaper. (NCERT)

Solution:
Given: n (H) = 25, n (T) = 26, n(I) = 26, n(H ∩ I) = 9, n(H ∩ T) = 11, n(T ∩ I) = 8, n(H ∩ T ∩ I) = 3

1. The number of people who reads at least one of the newspaper = n(H∪T∪I)
= n(H) + n(T) + n(I) – n(H ∩ T) – n(T ∩ I) – n(H ∩ I) + n(H ∩ T ∩ I)
= 25 + 26 + 26 – 11 – 8 – 9 + 3
= 77 – 28 + 3 = 80 – 28 = 52.

2. The number of people who reads exactly one newspaper.
= n(H) + n(T) + n(I) – 2n(H ∩ I) – 2n(H ∩ T) – 2n(T ∩ I) + 3n(H ∩ T ∩ I)
= 25 + 26 + 26 – 2 × 9 – 2 × 11 – 2 × 8 + 3 × 3 = 77 – 18 – 22 – 16 + 9
= 86 – 56 = 30.

Question 5.
In a survey it was found that 21 people liked product A, 26 liked product B and 29 liked product C. If 14 people liked products A and B, 12 people liked products C and A, 14 people liked products B and C and 8 liked all the three products. Find how many liked product C only? (NCERT)
Solution:
Let A, B and C denotes the people liked the products A, B and C respectively.
Given: n(A) = 21, n(B) = 26, n(C) = 29, n(A ∩ B) = 14, n(C ∩ A) = 12, n(B ∩ C) = 14, n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 8
n(only C) = n(C) – n(C ∩ A) – n(B ∩ C) + n(A ∩ B ∩ C)
= 29 – 12 – 14 + 8
= 37 – 26 = 11.

MP Board Class 11 Maths Important Questions

In this article, we share MP Board Class 12th Maths Book Solutions Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions Miscellaneous Exercise Pdf, These solutions are solved by subject experts from the latest MP Board books.

MP Board Class 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions Miscellaneous Exercise

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions Unit 3 Statistical Tools and Interpretation

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Important Questions

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option:

Question (a)
The most common measurement of central tendency is:
(a) Median
(b) Multiple
(c) Mean
(d) Weighted mean.
Answer:
(c) Mean

Question 2.
Division of one column in ten equal parts is called:
(a) Decile
(b) Quartile
(c) Percentile
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Decile

Question 3.
Which of the following equation is correct:
(a) Anova = σ
(b) Anova = σ ^-2
(c) Anova = σ ⁴
(d) Anova = √σ × 2.
Answer:
(b) Anova = σ ^-2

Question 4.
Where is correlation multiple placed:
(a) Between 0 and + 1
(b) Between – 1 and 0
(c) Between – 1 and + 1
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Between – 1 and + 1

Question 5.
Base year is:
(a) Comparison year
(b) Present year
(c) Any year
(d) One year previous to present year.
Answer:
(a) Comparison year

Percentage Difference calculator is a free online tool to find the percent difference between two numbers.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Rule of ……………………….. is supposed to be idle for creation of index.
2. Multiple is the value of column in which ……………………… comes repeatedly.
3. The value which divides the column into more than two parts is called ……………………………
4. ………………………. is the difference between maximum and minimum value.
5. …………………………. is the simple ray that shows relation between two values.

Answer:

1. Fisher
2. Maximum
3. Division
4. Range
5. Analogical relation.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b).

Question 4.
State true or false:

1. Cumulative frequency shows “less than” or “more than” of any sequence.
2. 5 is the mode of the numbers 3, 4, 3, 5, 5, 3, 2.
3. Range is found by adding highest value and smallest value.
4. Money inflation is measured on changes of index number of whole sale market of weekly statement.
5. High income leads high savings.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True.

Question 5.
Answer in one word:

1. Graphic method of studying dispersion.
2. Definite relation between two or more groups.
3. One which divides column in ten equal parts.
4. In India which index helps to measure average change in prices.
5. Saving is directly related to.

Answer:

1. Lorenz curve
2. Correlation
3. Deciles
4. Consumer Price Index
5. Income.

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Measure of central tendency is the single value which represents the characteristics of the entire universe.

Question 2.
Which is the popular measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Arithmetic mean.

Question 3.
Define Arithmetic mean?
Answer:
It is defined as the sum of the values of all observations divided by the number of observations.

Question 4.
Find out mode from the following data:
7, 12, 8, 5, 9, 10, 9, 11, 96
Answer:
9 is the number which is repeated maximum number of times. Hence, mode is 9.

Question 5.
Write the formula of weighted arithmetic mean?
Answer:
Weighted Arithmetic Mean = \(\frac{ΣWx}{ΣW}\)

Free Online Polynomial in Descending Order Calculator determines the polynomial.

Question 6.
Arrange the following series in descending order:
5, 16, 18, 2, 13, 15, 3, 19, 17, 20.
Answer:
20, 19, 18, 17, 16, 15, 13, 5, 3, 2

Question 7.
Name any two positional averages?
Answer:

1. Median and
2. Mode.

Question 8.
What is median?
Answer:
Median is that value which divides a series into two equal parts.

Question 9.
Write the formula of median in discrete series?
Answer:
Median (M) = size of (\(\frac{N+1}{2}\))^th item.

Question 10.
Write the formula of median in continuous series?
Answer:
Median (M) =

Question 11.
What is Quartile?
Answer:
It divides the series into four equal parts. These are three quartiles Q₁, Q₂ and Q₃.

Question 12.
Write the formula of first quartile?
Answer:
First Quartile (Q₁) =

Question 13.
Write the formula of third quartile?
Answer:
Third quartile (Q₃) =

Question 14.
What is a mode?
Answer:
Mode is defined as that value which occurs the most frequently in the distribution.

Question 15.
Write the formula to calculate mode?
Answer:
Mode Z =

Question 16.
Write the names of two measures of central tendency which can be determined from graph paper?
Answer:

1. Median and
2. Mode.

Question 17.
Which is the mostly used measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Mean.

Question 18.
Which measure of central tendency is not affected by extreme values?
Answer:
Median.

Question 19.
What is Percentile?
Answer:
Percentile divides the series into 100 equal parts.

Question 20.
Which measure of central tendency is used to explain qualitative data?
Answer:
Mode.

Question 21.
Name the measure of central tendency which is based on all items?
Answer:
Mean.

Question 22.
Define measure of dispersion?
Answer:
Dispersion measures that extent to which different items tend to disperse away from an average.

Question 23.
What is Range?
Answer:
Range is the difference between the highest value and lowest value in a series.

Question 24.
Write the formula of range?
Answer:
Range = Highest value in series – Lowest value in series.

Question 25.
Define Quartile deviation?
Answer:
Quartile deviation is the half of inter quartile range.

Question 26.
Write the formula of quartile deviation?
Answer:
Quartile deviation = \(\frac { Q_{ 3 }-Q_{ 1 } }{ 2 } \)

Question 27.
Write the formula of coefficient of quartile deviation?
Answer:
Coefficient of quartile deviation = \(\frac{Q_{3}-Q_{1}}{Q_{3}+Q_{1}}\)

Question 28.
Define mean deviation?
Answer:
It is the arithmetic mean of the deviations of various items from their average.

Question 29.
Write the formula of coefficient of mean deviation?
Answer:
Coefficient of mean deviation = \(\frac { MD }{ \overline { XorMorZ } } \)

Question 30.
Define standard deviation?
Answer:
Standard deviation is the square root of the arithmetic mean of the squares of all deviation.

Question 31.
Write the formula of standard deviation?
Answer:
Standard deviation =

Question 33.
What is coefficient of variation?
Answer:
It is the percentage variation in the mean, the standard deviation being considered as the total variation in the mean.

Question 34.
Write the formula of coefficient of variation?
Answer:
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac { \sigma }{ \overline { X } } \) × 100.

Actual yield calculator of products formed in reactions that involve limiting reagents.

Question 35.
What does Lorenz curve show?
Answer:
Lorenz curve is the graphic representation of dispersion in a distribution. It shows the actual distribution of items.

Question 36.
What is coefficient of correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is an analysis of covariation between two or more variables.

Question 37.
What is positive correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is said to be positive when two variables move together in the same direction.

Question 38.
What is negative correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is said to be negative when two variables move together in the opposite direction.

Question 39.
If coefficient of correlation is zero then what does it mean?
Answer:
There is no correlation between two variable.

Question 40.
Write the formula of Karl Pearson to calculate correlation?
Answer:
\(r=\frac{\sum x y}{N \sigma_{1} \sigma_{2}}\)

Question 41.
When is Spearman’s rank difference method used?
Answer:
When variables are qualitative like Beauty, Bravery, Ability, Intelligence etc.

Question 42.
Write the formula of Spearman’s rank difference method?
Answer:

Question 44.
What is the measure of Index in base year?
Answer:
100.

Question 45.
What is base year?
Answer:
Base year is the year of reference with which the extent of change in the current year is measured.

Question 46.
Write two types of Index number?
Answer:

1. Simple Index number and
2. Weighted Index number.

Question 47.
What is simple index number?
Answer:
These are the index numbers in which all items of the series are accorded equal importance.

Question 48.
What is weighted index number?
Answer:
These are the index numbers in which different items of the series are accorded different weightage, depending upon their relative importance.

Question 49.
Who publishes wholesale price index in India?
Answer:
Central statistics organization (CSO).

Question 50.
What does wholesale price index show?
Answer:
It measures the relative changes in the prices of commodity traded in the wholesale markets.

Question 51.
On which basis wholesale price index is available in India?
Answer:
Weekly basis.

Question 52.
What is the other name of consumer price index?
Answer:
Cost of living index.

Question 53.
Define consumer price index?
Answer:
Consumer price index is the index number which measures the average change in prices paid by the specific class of consumers for goods and services consumed by them in the current year in comparison with base year.

Question 54.
What is base year of Index number of Industrial production?
Answer:
1993 – 1994.

Question 55.
What is Assumed mean?
Answer:
Assumed mean is the value of a series which helps in calculating the arithmetic mean.

Question 56.
What is senses?
Answer:
Sensex is an index representing the movement in share price of major companies listed in Bombay stock exchange.

Question 57.
What is the base year of sensex?
Answer:
1978 – 1979.

Question 58.
How many companies are included in sensex?
Answer:
30.

Question 59.
What does it mean when sensex goes up?
Answer:
If sensex goes up it means that the prices of the stocks of most of the companies under BSE sensex have gone up.

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A measure of dispersion is a good supplement to the central value in under – standing a frequency distribution? Comment?
Answer:
Dispersion is the extent to which values in a distribution differ from the average of the distribution. Knowledge of only average is insufficient as it does not reflect the quantum of variation in values. Measures of dispersion enhance the understanding of a distribution considerably by providing information about how much the actual value of items in a series deviate from the central value, e.g., per capita income. Thus, a measure of dispersion is a good supplement to the central value in understanding a frequency distribution.

Question 2.
Which measure of dispersion is the best and how?
Answer:
Standard deviation is considered to be the best measure of dispersion and is therefore the most widely used measure of dispersion.

1. It is based on all values and thus provides information about the complete series.
2. It is independent of origin but not of scale.
3. It is useful in advanced statistical calculations like comparison of variability in two data sets.
4. It can be used in testing of hypothesis.
5. It is capable of further algebraic treatment.

Question 3.
Some measures of dispersion depend upon the spread of values whereas some calculate the variation of values from a central value. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, it is true that some measures of dispersion depend upon the spread of values, whereas some calculate the variation of values from the central value. Range and Quartile Deviation measure the dispersion by calculating the spread within which the value lie. Mean deviation and standard deviation calculate the extent to which the values differ from the average or the central value.

Question 4.
In town, 25% of the persons earned more than? 45,000 whereas 75% earned more than 18,000. Calculate the absolute and relative values of dispersion?
Answer:
25% of the persons earned more than 45,000. This implies that upper quartile Q₃ = 45,000 75% earned more than 18,000. This implies that lower quartile Q₁ = 18,000. Absolute measure of dispersion = Q₃ – Q₁ = 45,000 – 18,000 = 27,000
Relative measure of Dispersion:
Co – efficient of Quartile Deviation = \(\frac { Q_{ 3 }-Q_{ 1 } }{ Q_{ 3 }+Q_{ 1 } } \) where Q₃ = 3rd Quartile Q₁ = 1st Quartile
= \(\frac{45,000-18,000}{45,000+18,000}\) = \(\frac{27,000}{63,000}\)

Question 5.
When is rank correlation more precise than simple correlation coefficient?
Answer:
Rank correlation is more precise than simple correlation coefficient in the following situations:

1. When the measurement of the variables are suspect e.g., in a remote village where measuring rods or weighing scales are not available, height and weight of people cannot be measured precisely but the people can be easily ranked in terms of height and weight.

2. When data is qualitative: It is difficult to quantify qualities such as fairness, honesty etc.

3. When data has extreme values: Sometimes the correlation coefficient between two variables with extreme values may be quite different form the coefficient without the extreme values. Under these circumstances rank correlation provides a better alternative to simple correlation.

Question 6.
Does zero correlation mean independence?
Answer:
No, zero correlation does not mean independence. If there is zero correlation (r_XY= 0), it means the two variables are uncorrelated and there is no linear relation between them. However, other types of relation may be there and they may not be independent.

Question 7.
Why do we need on Index number?
Answer:
Index number are needed due to the following reasons:

1. Measurement of change in the price level or the value of money.
2. Information of foreign trade.
3. Calculating real wages.
4. Measuring and comparing output.
5. Policy making of government.

Question 8.
What are the desirable properties of the base period?
Answer:
Base period should have the following properties:

1. The base year should be a normal period and periods in which extraordinary events have occurred should not be taken as base periods as they are not appropriate for general comparisons.
2. Extreme value should not be selected as base period.
3. The period should not be too far in the past as comparison with current period cannot be done with such base year as policies, economic and social conditions change with time.
4. It should be updated periodically.

Question 9.
Why is it essential to have different CPI for categories of consumers?
Answer:
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India is calculated for different categories as under:

1. CPI for industrial workers.
2. CPI for urban non – manual employees.
3. CPI for agricultural labourers.

Question 10.
What is the difference between a price index and a quantity index?
Answer:
The difference between a Price index and a Quantity index:
Price Index:

1. It measure and allow for comparison of the prices of certain goods.
2. Its widely used.
3. It is known as unweighted index numbers.

Quantity Index:

1. It measure the changes in the physical volume of production construction or employment.
2. Its narrowly used.
3. It is known as weighted index numbers.

Question 11.
“Index numbers are Economic Barometers”? Explain?
Answer:
Index numbers are used to measure the level of economic activities like barometers. They are called as barometers due to following reasons:

1. Wholesale price index number shows the changes in general price level which can be used for any consumer category.
2. Index number of agricultural production is a weighted average of quantity relatives.
3. Index number is a useful guide to help in decision making while investing in the stock market.

Question 12.
What is “mode”? Explain its merits?
Answer:
The word “mode” has been derived from the French word “La mode” which means fashion. In statistics, mode means the value, which occurs most frequently in the series. Following are the merits of mode:

1. Simple calculation:
Calculation of mode is simple. Sometimes in individual and discrete series it can be found out by inspection only.

2. Least effect of extreme values:
Mode is not affected by extreme values. If the groups are unequal even then mode can be calculated.

3. Representative measure:
Mode is a representative and real measure of the series because this is one of the values from the group itself.

4. Use in quantitative facts:
Mode is also used for describing the quantitative data.

Question 13.
Explain the merits and demerits of Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation?
Answer:
Merits:

1. This method gives us precise magnitude of the correlation due to which interpretation of result becomes easy.
2. It is the most popular method of measuring relationship between the two variables.
3. It expresses the direction and degree of change in two variables.

Demerits:

1. It cannot be used to quantity qualities such as honesty fairness, etc.
2. The value of correlation are largely affected by the values of extreme items.

Question 14.
Explain the merits and demerits of Spearman rank difference method?
Answer:
Merits:

1. Simple:
Spearman’s ranking method is very simple compare to Pearson’s method. It can be easily calculated and understood than Pearsonian coefficient of correlation. In Karl Pearson’s method more calculation are required

2. Compulsory calculations:
In case ranks of values in the series are given rank methods is the only way to compute coefficient of correlation.

3. Useful for data of qualitative nature:
In case the data is related to ability, performance, beauty, honesty, intelligence and honesty etc. So this is the most suitable method to calculate coefficient of correlation.

4. Same result:
The answer obtained by rank method equals the answers determined through Pearsonian method, if values are not repeated.

5. Convenient:
This method can be used convenient by even if numbers in series are given in irregular way.

6. Best method:
This method is the best method in cases where the correlation is found by personal data.

7. This method is appropriate when number of elements is only 20 or 30.

Demerits:
Though the method is good but still there are certain drawbacks in it. They are as follows:

1. Unsuitable of grouped frequency distribution:
This method cannot be used for finding out correlation in grouped frequency distribution. This method is applicable only in individual observation.

2. Unsuitable if the values of the series exceed 30:
In such cases, obtaining ranks their difference and square becomes difficult so Pearsonian coefficient of correlation method is recommended. When N becomes more than thirty the counting becomes complicated. The scope of this method is limited.

3. Lack in precision:
This method is based on ranks. All the information related to data is not used, so it lacks precision as compared to Pearsonian method of coefficient of correlation.

Question 15.
The monthly expenditure of some families in a village are as follows:

Calculate range and its coefficient?
Answer:
Range = H – L
= 5,000 – 500 = 4,500 Rs.
Coefficient of range = \(\frac{H – L}{H + L}\) = \(\frac{5000 – 500}{5000 + 500}\) =\(\frac { 4500 }{ 5500 }\) = 0.82

Question 16.
Two factories A and B are established in one industry? Following information are available about them:

In which of factory wages rates are more?
Answer:
To find out the difference in wage rates we will have to find out coefficient of variation.
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{S D}{\bar{X}} \times 100\)
Coefficient of variation of factory A = \(\frac{3}{120}\) × 100 = 2.5 %
Coefficient of variation of factory B = \(\frac{4}{85}\) × 100 = 4.7 %
Wage rates of factory B is more.

Question 17.
Explain the importance of correlation in statistics?
Answer:
Some importance features about the correlation:

1. The correlation of a sample is represented by the letter r.
2. The range of possible values for a correlation is between – 1 to +1.
3. A positive correlation indicates a positive linear association. The strength of the positive linear association increases as the correlation becomes closer to +1.
4. A negative correlation indicates a negative linear association. The strength of the negative linear association increases as the correlation becomes closer to -1.
5. A correlation of either +1 or -1 indicates a perfect linear relationship. This is hard to find with real data.

Question 18.
Explain the utility of index numbers?
Answer:

1. Index numbers help in framing suitable policies:
Index numbers provide various type of information on the basis of which various policies suitable to our economy are framed. On the basis of index number the insurance companies fix their premiums and banks fix their interest rates. Railways fixed their fare on this index only. It gives knowledge about the purchasing power, industrial and agricultural production about other countries.

2. Make the difficult facts easy:
By index number, sometimes we make some facts and events easy which is not possible by any other method. For example, measurement of trading activities is not possible by studying single fact. But by analysing the progress of industrial production, Banking and transportation the trading index can be found out. Many emotional facts take the concrete form with the help of index. Thus, they are made simple and easier for general people.

3. Comparative study is possible:
By index number comparative study is possible. This is because they express changes in relative form so it is not difficult to compare two things.

4. Indication towards future economic tendency:
Index number expresses not only the present conditions but on the basis of it we can find out the conclusions of the facts of future also. Thus, we reach to the present facts with the help of future inferences and thus we get the indication of future economic tendency.

Question 19.
Define base year? What are the guidelines to be observed while determining the base year?
Answer:
Base year is the period with respect to which change is measured. Following guidelines are to be observed while determining the base year:

1. Base year should be a normal year i.e. it should be free form abnormalities like wars, earthquakes, floods, etc.
2. Base year should not be too old.
3. Base year should be clearly defined.

Question 20.
Construct price index for 1990 taking 1989 as base year from the following information:

Answer:
Calculation of Price Index by simple aggregative method:

Price Index for year 1990 (P₀₁) = \(\frac { \Sigma P_{ 1 } }{ \Sigma P_{ 0 } } \) x 100
= \(\frac{360}{300}\) x 100
= \(\frac{36000}{300}\) = 120
These is a net increase of (120 – 100) = 20% in prices in 1989 as compared to 1990.

Question 21.
Calculate Index for 1989 taking base year 1989 by average of price relatives method?

Answer:
Calculation of Price Index by average of price relatives method:

Question 22.
Calculation of Index by Laspeyre’s method from the following:

Answer:
Calculate of Index by Laspeyre’s method:

Question 23.
Calculate index by Paasche’s method the following:

Answer:
Calculation of index by Paasche’s method:

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
If the arithmetic mean of the data given below is 28. Find:

1. Missing frequency
2. Median of the series.

Answer:
Calculation of missing frequency:

\(\overline { X } \) = \(\frac{Σfm}{Σf}\)
or 28 = \(\frac{2100+35x}{80+x}\)
or or 2240+ 28x = 2100 + 35x
or 2240 – 2100 = 35x – 28x
or 7x = 140
x = \(\frac{140}{7}\)
Hence, missing frequncy is 20.

Question 2.
Calculate median from the following:

Answer:
Calculation of median:

Median = Size of (\(\frac{N}{2}\))^th items.
= \(\frac{100}{2}\)^th item.
= 50^th item.
50th median class is 20 – 30.

= 20 + \(\frac{20}{27}\) x 10 = 20 + 7.41 = 27.41

Question 3.
Calculate arithmetic mean by shortcut method:

Answer:
Calculate of mean by shortcut method:

Formula: \(\overline { X } \) = A + \(\frac { \Sigma fdx }{ N } \)
Here, \(\overline { X } \) = ?, N = 100, A = 25, Σfdx = 620.
∴ \(\overline { X } \) = 25 + \(\frac{620}{100}\) = 25 + 6.2 = 31.2.

Question 4.
Calculate mode from the following data:

Answer:
From the following table modal class is 20 – 30 as its frequency is the highest.

Question 5.
Calculate quartiles from the followings:

Answer:
Calculate of quartiles:

Q₁ = \(\frac{N+1}{4}\) th item = \(\frac{100+1}{4}\) th item.
= 25.25 th item
= 25 th item + 0.25 (26 th item – 25 th item)
= 7 + 0.25 (7-7)
= 7 + 0.25(0) = 7 + 0 = 7.
Q₂ = 2 (\(\frac{N+1}{4}\)) th item = 50.50 th item.
= 50 th item + 0.5 (51th item – 50th item)
= 9 + 0.5 (9 – 9) = 9 + 0.5(0) = 9 + 0 = 9.
Q₃ = 3 (\(\frac{N+1}{4}\)) th item = 75.75 th item
75th item + 0.75 (76 th item – 75 th item)
= 16 + 0.75 (16 – 16)
= 16 + 0.75(0) = 16 + 0
= 16.

Question 6.
Calculate dispersion and relative measures of dispersion:

Answer:
Calculating relative measure of dispersion:

Here, R = ?, L = 35.5, S = 3.5.
Formula: R = L – S = 35.5 – 3.5 = 32
∴ Relative measure of dispersion = \(\frac{L-S}{L+S}\)
= \(\frac{35.5-3.5}{35.5+3.5}\)
= \(\frac{32}{39}\) = 0.8205 (Approx).

Question 7.
Calculate quartile deviation and its coefficient from the following data:

Answer:
Calculation of quartile deviation and its coefficient:

Q₁ = Size of \(\frac{N+1}{4}\) th item = Size of \(\frac{87+1}{4}\) th item.
= Size of \(\frac{88}{4}\) th item.
= Size of 22 th item, which lies in C.F. 38
∴ Q₁ =9

∴ Coefficient of Q.D. = 0.5.

Question 8.
The yield of wheat and rice per acre for 10 districts of a state:

Calculate mean deviation about mean.
Answer:

Question 9.
The yield of wheat and rice of 10 districts of a state are:

Calculate mean deviation from median.
Answer:

Question 10.
The yield of rice and wheat of 10 districts of a state are:

Calculate standard deviation and its coefficient?
Answer:

Question 11.
A batsman is to be selected for a cricket team? The choice is between X and Y on the basis of their scores in five previous scores which are:

Which batsman should be selected if we want?

1. A higher run gether or
2. A more reliable batsman is the team

Answer:

Question 12.
Calculate the correlation coefficient between the heights of fathers in inches (x) and their son (y):?

Answer:

Question 13.
Calculate coefficient of correlation between x and y, and comment on their relationship?

Answer:

These are perfectly positive correlation between x and y.

Question 14.
There are 80 students in a class. Average marks of statistics in class is 65 marks. There are two sections in the class, first have 50 students whose average marks is 60. Calculate the average marks of other section?
Answer:
Total students N = 80
Average of marks \(\bar{X}_{1}\) = 65
Students of 1st section N₁ = 50
Students of second section N₂ = 80 – 50 = 30
Average marks of students of 1st section \(\bar{X}_{1}\) = 60
N \(\bar{X}_{1}\) = + N₁ \(\overline { X } _{ 1 }\) + N₂ \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\)
80 x 65 = 50 x 60 + 30 \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\)
5,200 – 3,000 = 30 \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\)
30 \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\) = 2,200
Average marks of students of 2nd section \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
\(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\) = 73.33.

Question 15.
Calculate mode from the following data:

Answer:
Modal class is 30 – 40 as from observation highest frequency is 32?

Question 16.
The median in following table is 42? Determine the missing frequency?

Answer:
Let the frequency of class 20 – 30 be f₂ Unknown frequency of class 50 – 60 f₂.

N = 288 = 106 + f_{1 +} f₂
160 + f₁ + f₂ = 288
f₁ + f₂ = 288
f₁ + f₂ = 288 – 106 = 182
Median 42 is in class 40 – 50.

= 5 (42 – 40) = 94 – f₁
= 210 – 200 = 94 – f₁
= 10 – 94 = – f₁
f₁ = 84
f₁ + f₂ = 182
f₂ = 182 – f₁ = 182 – 84
f₂ = 98

Question 17.
Compare the arithmetic mean, median and mode as measures of central tendency?
Answer:
Following table shows the comparison of arithmetic mean, median and mode as measures of central tendency:

Question 18.
Distinguish between mean deviation and standard deviation?
Answer:
Following are differences between mean deviation and standard deviation:

1. Algebraic sign like plus (+) and minus (-) are ignored while calculating mean deviation, they are taken into account in the calculation of standard deviation.
2. Mean deviation can be calculated by any of the three averages i.e., mean, median and mode standard deviation can be calculated only by the Arithmetic mean.
3. Mean deviation cannot be used for further algebraic treatment while standard deviation is capable of further algebraic treatment.
4. Standard deviation is considered to be superior to mean deviation.
5. Mean deviation is easy to calculated and to understand as compared to standard deviation.

Question 19.
Calculate standard deviation from the following data:

Answer:

Question 20.
Calculate coefficient of correlation by Karl Pearson method from following data:

Answer:

Question 21.
Calculate coefficient of correlation by Karl Pearson method from following data:

Answer:

Question 22.
Calculate coefficient of correlation by Spearman rank difference method?

Answer:

Question 23.
In a drama competition two judges gave the following marks to 10 participants? Calculate rank coefficient?

Answer:

Question 24.
What is index number? What is its importance in statistics?
Answer:
An index number is a specialised average designed to measure the net change in a group of related variables over a period of time. Following are the main uses of index number which show its importance in statistics:

1. To simplify complicated matters:
Index numbers present the given information in such a manner that it can be easily understood.

2. To measure comparative changes:
Index numbers facilitate comparison of changes from time to time, among different places and in series expressed in different units. The changes in price level, cost of living etc. which are not capable to measurement directly are measured with the help of index numbers.

3. To frame suitable policies:
Index numbers guide a lot in framing suitable economic policies. For example, wholesale and retail price index number help in economic and business policy – making regarding, price, output, demand, sales etc. The indices of consumption of various commodities help in the planning of their future production. Index numbers are applied with advantage for formulating and revising their policies from time to time.

4. To measure the purchasing power of money:
Index numbers are helpful in measuring the purchasing power, i. e., value of the money. This helps in fixing proper wage policy in the country.

5. To study trends and to make forecast:
Index number are most widely used for measuring changes over a period of time. On the basis of present indices, the forecast for the future can be made.

Question 25.
What is the purpose of constructing an index number of price and quantities?
Answer:
The purpose of constructing and index number of prices is to enable us to compare prices of certain goods over a period of time. It is used to measure change in the price level or the value of money during different periods of time.

The purpose of constructing an index number of quantities is to enable us to compare physical quantity of goods produced, consumed or distributed over a period of time. It is used to show whether the level of agricultural and industrial production in the economy is increasing or decreasing.

Question 26.
What are the limitations of index number?
Answer:
The limitation of index numbers are as follows:

1. Since index numbers are based on sample data, they only provide approximate results which may not exactly represent the changes in relative levels.
2. There are more chances of errors in construction of index numbers. It may be any where from level of selection of commodities to choice of the formula.
3. Index numbers often find difficulty to record change in the quality of a variable.
4. There does not exist a unique index number method which is acceptable to all.
5. Index numbers are also misused by dishonest persons to draw desirable conclusion for their selfish motives.

Question 27.
Throw light on importance of consumer price index?
Answer:
The importance of consumer price index is:

• It is used to determine the purchasing power of money and real wages.
• It is also used to analyze the market of specific commodities.
• It helps to formulate government policies.
• It helps in estimation of national income.
• Cost of living index numbers are used as basis for the wage adjustments.

Question 28.
Calculate Price Index by Fisher’s method from following data:

Answer:

Question 29.
What are the points to be kept in mind while constructing index number?
Answer:
The points to be kept in mind while constructing Index number are:

1. Purpose:
The purpose of construction of Index numbers should be clearly defined because every index number has a specific use.

2. Selection of a base years:
Selection of base year is important for construction of index number. It should be selected carefully.

3. Selection of number of Items:
It refers to collection of data which should be determined by the purpose for which the index is constructed.

4. Selection of an average:
As Index number are specialized averages. We need to decide on the average to be used. We need to select from various averages such as
arithematic mean, geometric mean, etc.

5. Selection system of weighing:
Weighing is having an important place in construction of index number. In this various goods are weighed according to their weights.

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions

In this article, we share MP Board Class 12th Maths Book Solutions Chapter 10 Vector Algebra Ex 10.4 Pdf, These solutions are solved by subject experts from the latest MP Board books.

MP Board Class 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Vector Algebra Ex 10.4