Class 7

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities Ex 8.1

Question 1.
Find the ratio of:
(a) ₹ 5 to 50paise
(b) 15 kg to 210 g
(c) 9 m to 27 cm
(d) 30 days to 36 hours
Solution:
(a) ₹ 5 to 50 paise
1 rupee = 100 paise
∴ 5 rupee = 500 paise
Hence, the required ratio is

(b) 15 kg to 210 g
1kg = 1000g
15 kg = 15000 g
Hence, the required ratio is

(c) 9 m to 27 cm
1m = 100 cm
9 m = 900 cm
Hence, the required ratio is

(d) 30 days to 36 hours
1 day = 24 hours
30 days = 24 × 30 = 720 hrs
Hence, the required ratio is

Question 2.
In a computer lab, there are 3 computers for every 6 students. How many computers will
be needed for 24 students?
Solution:
For 6 students, number of computers required = 3
For 1 student, number of computers required = \(\frac{3}{6}\)
For 24 students, number of computers required = \(24 \times \frac{3}{6}=12\)
Hence, 12 computers are required for 24 students.

Question 3.
Population of Rajasthan = 570 lakhs and population of UP = 1660 lakhs.
Area of Rajasthan = 3 lakhs km² and Area of UP = 2 lakhs km²
(i) How many people are there per km² in both these states ?
(ii) Which states is less populated?
Solution:
(i) Population of Rajasthan in 3 lakhs km²
area = 570 lakhs
Population of rajasthan in 1 km² area
\(=\frac{570}{3}=190\) lakhs
Population of U.P. in 2 km² = 1660 lakhs
Population of U.P. in 1 km² = \(\frac{1660}{2}\)
= 830 lakhs

(ii) It can be observed that population per km² area is lesser for Rajasthan. Therefore, Rajasthan is less populated.

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Algebraic Expressions Ex 12.3

Question 1.
If m = 2, find the value of:
(i) m – 2
(ii) 3m – 5
(iii) 9 – 5m
(iv) 3m² – 2m – 7
(v) \(\frac{5 m}{2}\) – 4
Solution:
(i) m – 2 = 2 – 2 = 0
(ii) 3m – 5 = (3 × 2) – 5 = 6 – 5 = 1
(iii) 9 – 5m = 9 – (5 × 2) = 9 – 10 = -1
(iv) 3m² – 2m – 7 = 3 × (2 × 2) – (2 × 2) – 7
= 12 – 4 – 7 = 1
(v) \(\frac{5 m}{2}\) – 4 = \(\left(\frac{5 \times 2}{2}\right)\) – 4 = 5 – 4 = 1

Question 2.
If p = -2, find the value of:
(i) 4p + 7
(ii) -3p² + 4p + 7
(iii) -2p³ – 3p² + 4p + 7
Solution:
(i) 4p + 7 = 4 × (-2) + 7 = -8 + 7 = -1
(ii) -3p² + 4p + 7 = -3 × (-2) × (-2) + 4 × (-2) + 7 = -12 – 8 + 7 = -13
(iii) -2p³ – 3p² + 4p + 7
= -2 × (-2) × (-2) × (-2) – 3 × (-2) × (-2) + 4 × (-2) + 7
= 16 – 12 – 8 + 7 = 3

Question 3.
Find the value of the following expressions, when x = -1:
(i) 2x – 7
(ii) -x + 2
(iii) x² + 2x + 1
(iv) 2x² – x – 2
Solution:
(i) 2x – 7 = 2 × (-1) – 7 = -2 – 7 = -9
(ii) – x + 2 = – (-1) + 2 = 1 + 2 = 3
(iii) x² + 2x + 1 = (-1) × (-1) + 2 × (-1) + 1 = 1 – 2 + 1 = 0
(iv) 2x² – x – 2 = 2 × (-1) × (-1) – (-1) – 2 = 2 + 1 – 2 = 1

Question 4.
If a = 2, b = -2, find the value of:
(i) a² + b²
(ii) a² + ab + b²
(iii) a² – b²
Solution:
(i) a² + b² = 2 × 2 + (-2) × (-2) = 4 + 4 = 8
(ii) a² + ab + b² = (2 × 2) + 2 × (-2) + (-2) × (-2) = 4 – 4 + 4 = 4
(iii) a² – b² = 2 × 2 – (-2) × (-2) = 4 – 4 = 0

Question 5.
When a = 0, b = -1, find the value of the given expressions:
(i) 2a + 2b
(ii) 2a² + b² + 1
(iii) 2a²b + 2ab² + ab
(iv) a² + ab + 2
Solution:
(i) 2a + 2b = 2 × (0) + 2 × (-1) = 0 – 2 = – 2
(ii) 2a² + b² + 1 = 2 × (0) × (0) + (-1) × (-1) + 1 = 0 + 1 + 1 = 2
(iii) 2a²b + 2ab² + ab = 2 × (0) × (0) × (-1) + 2 × (0) × (-1) × (-1) + 0 × (-1)
= 0 + 0 + 0 = 0
(iv) a² + ab + 2 = (0) × (0) + 0 × (-1) + 2
= 0 + 0 + 2 = 2

Question 6.
Simplify the expressions and find the value, if x is equal to 2.
(i) x + 7 + 4 (x – 5)
(ii) 3(x + 2) + 5x – 7
(iii) 6x + 5(x – 2)
(iv) 4(2x – 1) + 3x+ 11
Solution:
(i) x + 7 + 4(x – 5) = x + 7 + 4x – 20
= (1 + 4)x + (7 – 20) = 5x – 13
Putting x = 2 we get,
5x – 13 = (5 × 2) – 13 = 10 – 13 = -3

(ii) 3 (x + 2) + 5x – 7 = 3x + 6 + 5x – 7
= (3 + 5)x + (6 – 7) = 8x – 1
Putting x = 2 we get,
8x – 1 = (8 × 2) – 1 = 16 – 1 = 15

(iii) 6x + 5(x – 2) = 6x + 5x – 10
= (6 + 5)x – 10 = (11x – 10)
Putting x = 2 we get,
11x – 10 = (11 × 2) – 10 = 22 – 10 = 12

(iv) 4(2x – 1) + 3x + 11 = 8x – 4 + 3x + 11
= (8 + 3) × + (11 – 4) = 11x + 7
Putting x = 2 we get,
11x + 7= (11 × 2) + 7 = 22 + 7 = 29

Question 7.
Simplify these expressions and find their values if x = 3, a = -1, b = -2.
(i) 3x – 5 – x + 9
(ii) 2 – 8x + 4x + 4
(iii) 3a + 5 – 8o + 1
(iv) 10 – 3b – 4 – 5b
(v) 2a – 2b – 4 – 5 + a
Solution:
(i) 3x – 5 – x + 9 = (3 – 1) x + (-5 + 9)
= 2x + 4 = (2 × 3) + 4 [∵ x = 3]
= 6 + 4 = 10

(ii) 2 – 8x + 4x + 4 = 2 + 4 + (- 8 + 4)x
= 6 – 4x = 6 – (4 × 3) = 6 – 12 = -6 [∵ x = 3]

(iii) 3a + 5 – 8a +1 = (3 – 8)a + (5 + 1)
= -5a + 6
= -5 × (-1) + 6     [∵ a = -1]
= 5 + 6 = 11

(iv) 10 – 3b – 4 – 5b = 10 – 4 + (- 3 – 5)b
= 6 – 8b = 6 – 8 × (-2) [∵ b = -2]
= 6 + 16 = 22

(v) 2a – 2b – 4 – 5 + a = (2 + 1)a – 2b – 4 – 5
= 3a – 2b – 9
= 3 × (-1) – 2 × (-2) – 9 [∵ a = -1, b = -2]
= -3 + 4 – 9 = -8

Question 8.
(i) If z = 10, find the value of z³ – 3(z – 10).
(ii) If p = -10, find the value of p² – 2p -100.
Solution:
(i) For z = 10,
z³ – 3z + 30
= (10 × 10 × 10) – (3 × 10) + 30
= 1000 – 30 + 30 = 1000

(ii) For p = -10,
p² – 2p – 100
=(-10) × (-10) – 2 × (-10) – 100
= 100 + 20 – 100 = 20

Question 9.
What should be the value of a if the value of 2x² + x – a equals to 5, when x = 0?
Solution:
When x = 0; 2x² + x – a = 5,
∴ (2 × 0) + 0 – a = 5
⇒ 0 – a = 5
⇒ a = -5

Question 10.
Simplify the expression and find its value when a = 5 and b = -3.
2(a² + ab) + 3 – ab
Solution:
2(a² + ab) + 3 – ab = 2a² + 2ab + 3 – ab
= 2a² + (2 – 1) ab + 3 = 2a² + ab + 3
= 2 × (5 × 5) + 5 × (-3) + 3       [ ∵ a = 5, b = – 3]
= 50 – 15 + 3 = 38

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Congruence of Triangles Ex 7.2

Question 1.
Which congruence criterion do you use in the following?
(a) Given: AC = DF
AB = DE
BC = EF
So, ∆ABC ≅ ∆DEF

(b) Given: ZX = RP
RQ = ZY
∠PRQ = ∠XZY
So, ∆PQR ≅ ∆XYZ

(c) Given: ∠MLN = ∠FGH
∠NML = ∠HFG
ML = FG
So, ∆LMN ≅ ∆GFH

(d) Given EB = BD

AE = CB
∠A = ∠C = 90°
So, ∆ABE ≅ ∆CDB
Solution:
(a) SSS, as all three sides of AABC are equal to the corresponding sides of ∆DEF.
(b) SAS, as two sides and the angle included between these sides of ∆PQR are equal to the corresponding sides and included angle of ∆XYZ.
(c) ASA, as two angles and the side included between these angles of ∆LMN are equal to the corresponding angles and included side of ∆GFH.
(d) RHS, as in the given two right-angled triangles, one side and the hypotenuse are respectively equal.

Question 2.
You want to show that ∆ART ≅ ∆PEN,
(a) If you have to use SSS criterion, then you need to show
(i) AR =
(ii) RT =
(iii) AT =
(b) If it is given that ∠T = ∠N and you are to use SAS criterion, you need to have
(i) RT = and
(ii) PN =
(c) If it is given that AT = PN and you are to use ASA criterion, you need to have

Solution:
(a) (i) AR = PE
(ii) RT = EN
(iii) AT = PN

(b) (i) RT = EN
(ii) PN = AT

(c) (i) ∠ATR = ∠PNE
(ii) ∠RAT = ∠EPN

Question 3.
You have to show that ∆AMP ≅ ∆AMQ
In the following proof, supply the missing reasons.

Solution:
(i) Given
(ii) Given
(iii) Common
(iv) SAS congruence criterion, as the two sides and the angle included between these sides of ∆AMP are equal to corresponding sides and included angle of ∆AMQ.

Question 4.
In ∆ABC, ∠A = 30°, ∠B = 40° and ∠C = 110°
In ∆PQR, ∠P = 30°, ∠Q = 40° and ∠R = 110°
A student says that ∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR by AAA congruence criterion. Is he justified? Why or why not?
Solution:
No. This property represents that these triangles have their respective angles of equal measure. However, this does not give any information about their sides. The sides of these triangles may have a ratio different from 1 : 1. Therefore, AAA property does not prove that two triangles are congruent.

Question 5.
In the figure, the two triangles are congruent. The corresponding parts are marked. We can write ∆RAT ≅ ?

Solution:
It can be observed that,
∠RAT = ∠WON
∠ART = ∠OWN
AR = OW
Therefore, ∆RAT ≅ ∆WON, by ASA criterion.

Question 6.
Complete the congruence statement:

Solution:
In ∆BCA and ∆BTA,
BC = BT (given)
TA = CA (given)
BA is common.
Therefore, ∆BCA ≅ ∆BTA
(by SSS congruence criterion)
Now, in AQRS and ATPQ,
∠RQS = ∠PTQ (given)
RQ = PT (given)
∠SRQ = ∠QPT (given)
Therefore, ∆QRS = ∆TPQ
(by ASA congruence criterion)

Question 7.
In a squared sheet, draw two triangles of equal areas such that
(i) the triangles are congruent.
(ii) the triangles are not congruent. What can you say about their perimeters?
Solution:

Here, ∆ABC and ∆PQR have the same area and are congruent to each other also. Also the perimeter of both the triangles will be the same.

Here, ∆ABC and ∆PQR have the same height and same base. Thus, their areas are equal. However, these triangles are not congruent to each other. Also, the perimeter of both the triangles will not be the same.

Question 8.
Draw a rough sketch of two triangles such that they have five pairs of congruent parts but still the triangles are not congruent.

Solution:
∆ABC & ∆DEF are not congruent to each other but have five congruent parts i.e., ∠BAC = ∠EFD, ∠ABC = ∠DEF, ∠BCA = ∠EDF, AB = DF and BC = EF

Question 9.
If ∆ABC and ∆PQR are to be congruent, name one additional pair of corresponding parts. What criterion did you use?

Solution:
∠ABC = ∠PQR = 90° and
∠BCA = ∠QRP (Given)
For triangles to be congruent, BC = QR
∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR (ASA congruence criterion)

Question 10.
Explain, why ∆ABC ≅ ∆FED

Solution:
Given that, ∠ABC = ∠FED = 90° and ∠BAC = ∠EFD
The two angles of ∆ABC are equal to the two respective angles of ∆FED. Also, the sum of all interior angles of a triangle is 180°. Therefore, third angle of both triangles will also be equal in measure.
∴ ∠BCA = ∠EDF
Now, in ∆ABC and ∆FED,
∠ABC = ∠FED, BC = ED and ∠BCA = ∠EDF
⇒ ∆ABC = ∆FED
(ASA congruence criterion)

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Miscellaneous Questions 2

Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The founder of the slave dynasty was:
(a) Mohammed Ghori
(b) Ill-tutmish
(c) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(d) Alauddin Khilji
Answer:
(c) Qutub-ud-din Aibak

Question 2.
The Chariman of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Minister
Answer:
(b) President

Question 3.
The first battle of Panipat was fought in:
(a) 1526 AD
(b) 1556 AD
(c) 1529 AD
(d) 1527 AD
Answer:
(a) 1526 AD

Question 4.
The percentage of land area on earth is:
(a) 71%
(b) 72%
(c) 28%
(d) 29%
Answer:
(d) 29%

Question 5.
Spring tide occurs on:
(a) Fifth day
(b) full moon day
(c) 8th day
(d) 4th day
Answer:
(b) full moon day

Fill in the blanks:

1. The founder of the Khilji dynasty was ………….
2. Guru Nanak was bom in ………….. village.
3. The tenure of the Vice President is …………….. year.
4. ………….. is used to measure rainfall.
5. There are …………….number of seasons in India.

Answer:

1. Alauddin Khilji
2. Talwandi
3. Five years
4. Rain grange
5. three.

Match column ‘A’with column ‘B’

Answer:
1. (b) Issue of copper coins
2. (c) Riddles-mukris
3. (a) Iqta system
4. (e) Witty, advisor
5. (d) Waves

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What are effects of ocean currents on human life?
Answer:
Ocean currents are streams of water flowing constantly in a definite direction at or near the surface of the ocean.
Ocean currents are caused by prevailing or planetary winds. They are also caused by die variation of temperature. The variation of saline water in the sea water causes ocean currents.

The ocean currents influence the climate of the regions such as coastal areas or islands. The warm currents raise the temperature whereas the cold currents reduce the temperature. Due to warm currents the harbors at higher latitudes remain, open through out the jar i. e. The harbors of Norway and Japan. The warm winds blowing over warm currents absorbs a lot of moisture and the nearby areas receive lots of rainfall.

Question 2.
Describe the administrative set up of Shershah.
Answer:
Shershah was an efficient administrator. The interest of the people ranked above everything. He started many reforms in military administration, land revenue etc that was followed by Akbar. Shershah divided his empire into Sarkars, which were again subdivided into parganas.

Officer in charge of sarkars and panganas were periodically transferred. He enforced equal law for justice and introduced a reformed system of currency. The silver coin known as the Rupee which lasted throughout the Mughal period and was maintained by the East India company down to 1835 AD.

Question 3.
Explain the process of the formation of Vidhan Sablia.
Answer:
The representatives of the Vidhan Sabha are elected in such a way that the seats are proportionately represented. If a person is elected from more than one constituency then he will have to resign from the rest retaining only one seat If there is a controversy about the election of any candidate, then a petition can be filed in the High court. After accepting the petition, the High Court gives its verdict It can also be against the candidate.

A person can appeal to the Supreme Court if the Verdict goes against him. The verdict of the Supreme Court is final.
The term of Vidhan Sabha is 5 years. In a case of emergency, it can be dissolved, Vidhan Sabha has a speaker and a Deputy Speaker. The Speaker conducts the business of the state Vidhan Sabha. The Deputy Speaker discharges duties in the absence of the Speaker.

Question 4.
What are the advantages of Ocean?
Answer:

• Rain on land – All the rain on land are due to the evaporation of sea water. Rains are useful for vegetation, animal life and human beings.
• Balance of temperature – Ocean shelp to maintain balance of temperature on land.
• Means of transport – The international trade is possible because of the oceans and seas, which joins the continents.

Question 5.
Write the main features of the architecture of the Sultanate period.
Answer:

• The caste rules were strictly followed. The women did not enjoy much freedom and the purdah system became very common.
• The practice of child marriage, polygamy and sati stystem was prevalent in the society.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Miscellaneous Questions 2 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the market control policy of Alauddin Khilji.
Answer:
Alauddin controlled prices in the market Those traders who did not sell goods at fixed prices or who weighed something less, were given severe punishment.

Question 2.
Write the advantages of tides.
Answer:

• The tides help in fishing.
• They increase the depth of the shallow harbors. This helps in bringing ships into the harbors.
• They increase the depth of estuaries.
• They keep rivers deep enough so to help ships placed in the rivers.

Question 3.
What is meant by ordinance?
Answer:
Ordinance is the order of the Chief Executive issued at a time when the Legislature is not in session. As soon as the legislature is convened, the ordinance is approved by it. If the legislature does not approve them, they are withdrawn.

Question 4.
Write about the progress made in the field of architecture during the reign of Shahjahan.
Answer:
Under Shahjahan Mughal architecture reached die climax. He built magnificent buildings, forts, mosques, tombs in Agra, Lahore, Delhi, Kabul, Kandhar, Ajmer, Ahamdabad etc. He built Moti-Masjid, Diwan-e-Aam, Diwan-e-Khas in the Fort at Agra. The most famous building of his time is the Tajmahal. It is made of white marble. It is regarded as jewel in the builder’s art.

Question 5.
Write a short note on cyclonic rains.
Answer:
When the hot and cold air meet, die hot air rises upwards and the cold air rushes to occupy the low-pressure area in the center. As a result there is circular movement which causes the whirling air in the center to rise upwards. This rising air cools down, condenses and brings rains. This type of rainfall is called cyclonic rain.

Question 6.
Explain the main features of Akbar’s Mansabdari system.
Answer:
‘Mansabdari System’ was a special feature of the Mughal rule. By ‘Mansab’ is meant a post or title. Each ‘Mansabdar’ was recognised as big or small as per the number of soldiers under him. It ranged between 10,000 to 50,000 soliders and the emperor could use their armies as per his wishes.

Question 7.
What was the effect of Bhakti movement on the life of the people?
Answer:
Bhakti movement had a great effect on the Indian society. The leaders of this movement used die local language which put great impact on the minds of die common people. This movement helped in arousing consciousness among people. It removed the false notions and bad practices. It also tried to bring the society together by bridging the gap between Hindu and Muslim.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Algebraic Expressions Ex 12.2

Question 1.
Simplify by combining like terms:
(i) 21b – 32 +7b – 20b
(ii) -z² + 13z² – 5z + 7z³ – 15z
(iii) p – (p – q) – q – (q – p)
(iv) 3a – 2b – ab – (a – b + ab) + 3ab + b – a
(v) 5x²y – 5x² + 3yx² – 3y² + x² – y² + 8xy² – 3y²
(vi) (3y² + 5y – 4) – (8y – y² – 4)
Solution:
(i) 21b – 32 + 7b – 20b
= 21b + 7b – 20b – 32
= (21 + 7 – 20)b – 32
= 8b – 32

(ii) -z² + 13z² – 5z + 7z³ – 15z
= 7z³ + (-1 + 13) z² + (-5 -15) z
= 7z³ + 12z² – 20z

(iii) p – (p – q) – q – (q – p)
= p – p + q – q – q + p
= p – q

(iv) 3a – 2b – ab – (a – b + ab) + 3ab + b – a
= 3a – 2b – ab – a + b – ab + 3 ab + b – a
= (3 – 1 – 1)a + (-2 + 1 + 1)b + (-1 – 1 + 3)ab
= a + ab

(v) 5x²y – 5x² + 3yx² – 3y² + x² – y² + 8xy² – 3y²
= (5 + 3) x²y + (-5 + 1) x² + (- 3 – 1 – 3 )y² + 8xy²
= 8x²y – 4x² – 7y² + 8xy²

(vi) (3y² + 5y – 4) – (8y – y² – 4)
= 3y² + 5y – 4 – 8y + y² + 4
= (3 + 1) y² + (5 – 8) y + 4 – 4
= 4y² – 3y

Question 2.
Add:
(i) 3mn, -5mn, 8mn, -4mn
(ii) t – 8tz, 3tz – z, z – 1
(iii) -7mn + 5, 12mn + 2, 9mn – 8, -2mn – 3
(iv) a + b – 3, b – a + 3, a – b + 3
(v) 14x + 10y – 12xy – 13, 18 – 7x – 10y + 8xy, 4xy
(vi) 5m – 7n, 3n – 4m + 2, 2m – 3mn – 5
(vii) 4x²y, -3xy², 5xy², 5x²y
(viii) 3 p²q² – 4pq + 5, -10p²q², 15 + 9pq + 7p²q²
(ix) ab – 4a, 4b – ab, 4a – 4b
(x) x² – y² – 1, y² – 1 – x², 1 – x² – y².
Solution:
(i) 3 mn + (-5 mn) + 8 mn + (-4 mn)
= (3 – 5 + 8 – 4 )mn = 2 mn

(ii) (t – 8tz) + (3tz – z) + (z – t)
= t – 8tz + 3tz – z + z – t
= (1 – 1)t + (- 8 + 3)tz + (-1 + 1)z
= -5 tz

(iii) (-7mn + 5) + (12mn + 2) + (9mn – 8) + (-2mn – 3)
=-7mn + 5 + 12mn + 2 + 9mn – 8 – 2mn – 3
= (-7 + 12 + 9 – 2)mn + (5 + 2 – 8 – 3)
= 12mn – 4

(iv) (a + b – 3) + (b – a + 3) + (a – b + 3)
= a + b – 3 + b – a + 3 + a – b + 3
= (1 -1 + 1)a + (1 + 1 – 1)b + (- 3 + 3 + 3)
= a + b + 3

(v) (14x + 10y – 12xy – 13) + (18 – 7x – 10y + 8xy) + 4xy
= 14x + 10y – 12xy – 13 + 18 – 7x – 10y + 8xy + 4xy
= (14 – 7)x + (10 – 10)y + (12 + 8 + 4 )xy + (-13 + 18)
= 7x + 5

(vi) (5m – 7n) + (3n – 4m + 2) + (2m – 3mn – 5)
= 5m – 7n + 3n – 4m + 2 + 2m – 3mn – 5
= (5 – 4 + 2)m + (- 7 + 3)n – 3mn + (2 – 5)
= 3m – 4n – 3mn – 3

(vii) (4x²y) + (-3xy²) + (-5xy²) + (5x²y)
= 4x²y – 3xy² – 5xy² + 5x²y
= (4 + 5) x²y + (-3 – 5) xy²
= 9x²y – 8xy²

(viii) (3p²q² – 4pq + 5) + (-10p²q²) + (15 + 9pq +7p²q²)
= 3p²q² – 4pq + 5 – 10p²q² + 15 + 9pq + 7p²q²
= (3 – 10 + 7) p²q² + (-4 + 9)pq + (5 + 15)
= 5pq + 20

(ix) (ab – 4a) +(4 b – ab) + (4a- 4b)
= ab – 4a + 4b – ab + 4a – 4b
= (1 – 1)ab + (-4 + 4 )a + (4 – 4)b = 0

(x) (x² – y² – 1) + (y² – 1 – x²) + (1 – x² – y²)
= x² – y² – 1 + y² – 1 – x² + 1 – x² – y²
= (1 – 1 – 1)x² + (-1 + 1 – 1)y² + (-1 – 1 + 1)
= -x² – y² – 1

Question 3.
Subtract:
(i) -5y² from y²
(ii) 6xy from -12xy
(iii) (a – b) from (a + b)
(iv) a(b – 5) from b (5 – a)
(v) – m2 + 5 mn from 4mi2 – 3mn + 8
(vi) -x² + 10x – 5 from 5x – 10
(vii) 5a² – 7ab + 5b² from 3ab – 2a² – 2b²
(viii) 4pq – 5q² – 3p² from 5p² + 3q² – pq
Solution:
(i) y² – (-5y²) = y² + 5y² = 6y²
(ii) -12xy – (6xy) = -12xy – 6xy = -18xy
(iii) (a + b) – (a – b) = a + b – a + b = 2b

(iv) b(5 – a) – a(b – 5)
= 5b – ab – ab + 5a
= 5a + 5b – 2ab

(v) (4m² – 3mn + 8) – (- m² + 5mn)
= 4m² – 3mn + 8 + m² – 5mn
= (4 + 1)m² + (- 3 – 5 )mn + 8
= 5m² – 8mn + 8

(vi) (5x – 10) – (-x² + 10x – 5)
= 5x – 10 + x² – 10x + 5
= x² + (5 – 10)x + (-10 + 5)
= x² – 5x – 5

(vii) (3ab – 2a² – 2b²) – (5a² – 7ab + 5b²)
= 3ab – 2a² – 2b² – 5a² + 7ab – 5b²
= (3 + 7)ab + (- 2 – 5)a² + (- 2 – 5 )b²
= 10ab – 7a² – 7b²

(viii) (5p² + 3q² – pq) – (4pq – 5a² – 3p²)
= 5p² + 3q² – pq – 4pq + 5q² + 3p²
= (5 + 3 )p² + (3 + 5 )q² + (-1 – 4 )pq
= 8p² + 8q² – 5pq

Question 4.
(a) What should be added to x² + xy + y² to obtain 2x² + 3xy?
(b) What should be subtracted from 2a + 8b + 10 to get – 3a + 7b + 16?
Solution:
(a) Let a be the required term.
∴ a + (x² + y² + xy) = 2x² + 3xy
⇒ a = 2x² + 3xy – (x² + y² + xy)
= 2x² + 3xy – x² – y² – xy
= (2 – 1) x² – y² + (3 – 1)xy
= x² – y² + 2xy

(b) Let p be the required term.
∴ (2a + 8b + 10) -p = -3a + 7b + 16
⇒ p = 2a + 8b + 10 – (- 3a + 7b + 16)
= 2a + 8b + 10 + 3a – 7b – 16
= (2 + 3)a + (8 – 7)b + (10 – 16)
= 5a + b – 6

Question 5.
What should be taken away from 3x² – 4y² + 5xy + 20 to obtain -x² – y² + 6xy + 20 ?
Solution:
Required term
= (3x² – 4y² + 5xy + 20) – (-x² – y² + 6xy + 20)
= 3x² – 4y² + 5xy + 20 + x² + y² – 6xy – 20
= (3 + 1)x² + (- 4 + 1) y² + (5 – 6)xy + (20 – 20)
= 4x² – 3y² – xy

Question 6.
(a) From the sum of 3x – y + 11 and -y – 11, subtract 3x – y – 11.
(b) From the sum of 4 + 3x and 5 – 4x + 2x², subtract the sum of 3x² – 5x and -x² + 2x + 5.
Solution:
(a) Sum of 3x – y + 11 and – y – 11
= (3x – y + 11) + (-y – 11)
= 3x – y + 11 – y – 11
= 3x + (- 1 – 1) y + (11 – 11)
= 3x – 2y
Now, required difference
= (3x – 2y) – (3x – y – 11)
= 3x – 2y – 3x + y + 11
= (3 – 3)x + (- 2 + 1) y + 11
= -y + 11

(b) Sum of 4 + 3x and 5 – 4x + 2x²
= (4 + 3x) + (5 – 4x + 2x²)
= 4 + 3x + 5 – 4x + 2x²
= (3 – 4)x + 2x² + 4 + 5
= – x + 2x² + 9
Now, sum of 3x² – 5x and -x² + 2x + 5
= (3x² – 5x) + (-x² + 2x + 5)
= 3x² – 5x – x² + 2x + 5
= (3 – 1) x² + (- 5 + 2)x + 5
= 2x² – 3x + 5
Required difference
= (- x + 2x² + 9) – (2x² – 3x + 5)
= -x + 2x² + 9 – 2x² + 3x – 5
= (-1 + 3)x + (2 – 2) x² + (9 – 5)
= 2x + 4

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 The Triangles and Its Properties Ex 6.4

Question 1.
Is it possible to have a triangle with the following sides?
(i) 2 cm, 3 cm, 5 cm
(ii) 3 cm, 6 cm, 7 cm
(iii) 6 cm, 3 cm, 2 cm
Solution:
In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of either two sides is always greater than the third side.
(i) Given that, the sides of the triangle are 2 cm, 3 cm, 5 cm.
It can be observed that,
(2 + 3) cm = 5 cm
However, 5 cm = 5 cm
Hence, this triangle is not possible.

(ii) Given that, the sides of the triangle are
3 cm, 6 cm, 7 cm.
Here, (3 + 6) cm = 9 cm > 7 cm
(6 + 7) cm = 13 cm > 3 cm
(3 + 7) cm = 10 cm > 6 cm
Hence, this triangle is possible.

(iii) Given that, the sides of the triangle are
6 cm, 3 cm, 2 cm.
Here, (6 + 3) cm = 9 cm > 2 cm
However, (3 + 2) cm = 5 cm < 6 cm Hence, this triangle is not possible.

Question 2.
Take any point 0 in the interior of a triangle PQR. Is

(i) OP + OQ > PQ?
(ii) OQ + OR > QR?
(iii) OR + OP > RP?
Solution:
If O is a point in the interior of a given triangle, then three triangles ∆OPQ, ∆OQR and ∆ORP can be constructed. In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of either two sides is always greater than the third side.
(i) Yes, as OQR is a triangle with sides OR, OQ and QR.

∴ OQ + OR> QR

(ii) Yes, as OQR is a triangle sides OR, OQ and QR.
∴ OQ + OR > QR

(iii) Yes, as A ORP is a triangle with sides OR, OP and PR.
∴ OR + OP > PR

Question 3.
AM is a median of a triangle ABC.
Is AB + BC + CA > 2AM?
(Consider the sides of ∆ABM and ∆AMC.)

Solution:
In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of either two sides is always greater than the third side.
In ∆ABM,
AB + BM > AM …(i)
Similarly, in ∆ACM,
AC + CM > AM …(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we obtain
AB + BM + MC +AC > AM + AM
AB + BC + AC > 2AM
Yes, the given expression is true.

Question 4.
ABCD is a quadrilateral.

Is AB + BC + CD + DA > AC + BD ?
Solution:
In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of either two sides is always greater than the third side.
In ∆ABC; AB + BC > CA …(i)
In ∆BCD; BC + CD > DB …(ii)
In ∆CDA; CD + DA > AC …(iii)
In ∆DAB; DA + AB > DB …(iv)
Adding (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we obtain
AB + BC + BC + CD + CD + DA + DA+ AB > AC + BD + AC + BD
⇒ 2AB + 2BC + 2CD + 2DA > 2AC + 2BD ⇒ 2{AB + BC + CD + DA) > 2(AC+BD)
⇒ (AB + BC + CD + DA) > (AC + BD)
Yes, the given expression is true.

Question 5.
ABCD is a quadrilateral.

Is AB + BC + CD + DA < 2(AC + BD)?
Solution:
In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of either two sides is always greater than the third side.
Let diagonals AC and BD of the quadrilateral ABCD intersects at O.

In ∆OAB, OA + OB > AB … (i)
In ∆OBC, OB + OC > BC … (ii)
In ∆OCD, OC + CD > CD … (iii)
In ∆ODA, OD + OA > DA … (iv)
OA + OB + OB + OC + OC + OD + OD + OA > AB + BC + CD + DA
⇒ 20A + 20B + 20C + 20D > AB + BC + CD + DA
⇒ 2(OA + OC) + 2(OB + OD) > AB + BC + CD + DA
⇒ 2(AC) + 2(BD) > AB + BC + CD + DA
⇒ 2(AC + BD) > AB + BC + CD + DA
Yes, the given expression is true.

Question 6.
The lengths of two sides of a triangle are 12 cm and 15 cm. Between what two measures should the length of the third side fall?
Solution:
In a triangle, the Sum of the lengths of either two side is always greater than the third side.
Lengths of two sides of a triangle are 12 cm and 15 cm.
Let the third side be x cm.
∴ x + 12 > 15 ⇒ x > 3
x + 15 > 12 ⇒ x > – 3 but side length never be negative.
and 12 + 15 > x ⇒ 27 > x
Hence, third side can measure between 3 and 27.

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Simple Equations Ex 4.4

Question 1.
Set up equations and solve them to find the unknown numbers in the following cases:
(a) Add 4 to eight times a number; you get 60.
(b) One-fifth of a number minus 4 gives 3.
(c) If I take three-fourths of a number and add 3 to it, I get 21.
(d) When I subtracted 11 from twice a number, the result was 15.
(e) Munna subtracts thrice the number of notebooks he has from 50, he finds the result to be 8.
(f) Ibenhal thinks of a number. If she adds 19 to it and divides the sum by 5, she will get 8.
(g) Anwar thinks of a number. If he takes away 7 from \(\frac{5}{2}\) of the number, the result is 23.
Solution:
(a) Let the number be x.
8 times of this number = 8x
According to question;
8x + 4 = 60 ⇒ 8x = 60 – 4
(Transposing 4 to R.H.S.)
⇒ 8x = 56
Dividing both sides by 8,

(b) Let the number be x
One-fifth of this number \(\frac{x}{5}\)
According to question;

(Transporting -4 to R.H.S.)
Mutiplying both sides by 5,

(c) Let the number be x.
Three-fourth of this number = \(\frac{3 x}{4}\)
According to question;

Multiplying both sides by 4,

Dividing both sides by 3,

(d) Let the number be x.
Twice of this number = 2x
According to question;
2x – 11 = 15 ⇒ 2x = 15 + 11
(Transposing -11 to R.H.S.)
⇒ 2x = 26
Dividing both sides by 2,

(e) Let the number of notebooks be x.
Thrice the number of notebooks = 3x
According to question;
⇒ 50 – 3x = 8 ⇒ – 3x = 8 – 50
(Transposing 50 to R.H.S.)
⇒ – 3x = – 42
Dividing both sides by – 3,

(f) Let the number be x.
According to question;

Multiplying both sides by 5,

⇒ x = 40 – 19 (Transposing 19 to R.H.S.)
⇒ x = 21

(g) Let the number be x.
\(\frac{5}{2}\) of this number = \(\frac{5x}{2}\)
According to question;

Question 2.
Solve the following;
(a) The teacher tells the class that the highest marks obtained by a student in her class is twice the lowest marks plus 7. The highest score is 87. What is the lowest score?
(b) In an isosceles triangle, the base angles are equal. The vertex angle is 40°. What are the base angles of the triangle? (Remember, the sum of three angles of a triangle is 180°).
(c) Sachin scored twice as many runs as Rahul. Together, their runs fell two short of a double century. How many runs did each one score?
Solution:
(a) Let the lowest score be l.
According to question;
Highest marks = 2 × Lowest marks + 7
⇒ 87 = (2 × l) + 7 × 2l + 7 = 87
⇒ 2l = 87 – 7
(Transposing 7 to R.H.S.)
⇒ 2l = 80
Dividing both sides by 2,

Therefore, the lowest score is 40.

(b) Let the base angles be equal to b.
Vertex angle = 40°
The sum of all interior angles of a triangle is 180°.
b + b + 40° = 180° ⇒ 2b + 40° = 180°
⇒ 2b = 180° – 40° = 140°
(Transposing 40° to R.H.S.)
Dividing both sides by 2,

Therefore, the base angles of the triangle are of 70°.

(c) Let Rahul’s score be x.
Therefore, Sachin’s score = 2x
According to question;
Rahul’s score + Sachin’s score = 200 – 2
2x + x = 198 ⇒ 3x = 198
Dividing both sides by 3,

∴ Rahul’s score = 66
Sachin’s score = 2 × 66 = 132

Question 3.
Solve the following:
(i) Irfan says that he has 7 marbles more than five times the marbles Parmit has. Irfan has 37 marbles. How many marbles does Parmit have?
(ii) Laxmi’s father is 49 years old. He is 4 years older than three times Laxmi’s age. What is Laxmi’s age?
(iii) People of Sundargram planted trees in the village garden. Some of the trees were fruit trees. The number of non-fruit trees were two more than three times the number of fruit trees. What was the number of fruit trees planted if the number of non-fruit trees planted was 77?
Solution:
(i) Let Parmit has x marbles.
5 times the number of marbles Parmit has = 5x
According to question;
5x + 7 = 37 ⇒ 5x = 37 – 7 = 30
(Transposing 7 to R.H.S.)
Dividing both sides by 5,

Therefore, Parmit has 6 marbles.

(ii) Let Laxmi’s age be x years.
According to question;
Her father’s age = 3 × Laxmi’s age + 4
⇒ 49 = (3 × x) + 4
⇒ 3x + 4 = 49 ⇒ 3x = 49 – 4
(Transposing 4 to R.H.S.)
⇒ 3x = 45
Dividing both sides by 3,

Therefore, Laxmi’s age is 15 years.

(iii) Let the number of fruit trees be x. According to question;
Number of non-fruit trees = 3 × Number of fruit trees + 2
77 = (3 × x) + 2
⇒ 3x + 2 = 77 ⇒ 3x = 77 – 2
(Transposing 2 to R.H.S.)
⇒ 3x = 75
Dividing both sides by 3,

Therefore, the number of fruit trees planted were 25.

Question 4.
Solve the following riddle:

Solution:
Let the number be x.
Seven times x = 7x
According to question; .
(7x + 50) + 40 = 300 ⇒ 7x + 90 = 300
⇒ 7x = 300 – 90 (Transposing 90 to R.H.S.)
⇒ 7x = 210
Dividing both sides by 7,

Therefore, the number is 30.

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 The Governor and State Council of Ministers

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 17 Text Book Questions

Fill in the blanks:

1. …………. is the head of the State.
2. The Chief Minister is appointed by the ………….
3. The leader of die Council of Minister is the ………….
4. The minimum age for the post of die Governor is …………..

Answer:

1. Governor
2. Governor
3. Chief Minister
4. 35 yrs.

Match the column ‘A ’ with Column ‘B’

Answer:

1. (d) President of Ministers.
2. (a) five + years by
3. (c) four of Ministers
4. (b) to make laws

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 17 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In whose name are the functions of the state government carried out?
Answer:
The functions of the State Government are carried out in the name of the Governor.

Question 2.
On whose advice are the members of the Council of Ministers appointed?
Answer:
On the advice of the Chief Ministers, the members of the Council of Ministers are appointed.

Question 3.
Who summons the meeting of the State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
The Governor summons the meeting of the state Legislative Assembly.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 17 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the functions of the State Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The council of Ministers executes die laws, made by the Vidhan Sabha. It decides the polices of die government and advice the Governor in the matter of administration. It is the real executive of the state.

The main functions of the State Council of Ministers:

• Being the executive of the state, the council of Ministers formulates the policies of die state and gives advice to the Governor in administrative matters.
• All the bills are introduced by the Council of Ministers and play an important role in the making of laws.
• It formulates the economic and taxation policy of the state.
• It makes plans for the welfare of the state.

Question 2.
What are the qualifications for the post of Governor?
Answer:
Qualifications for Governor:

• A person has to be citizen of India.
• He must have completed the age of 35 years.
• He must not have held the office of profit, under the Central or State Government.
• He must not be a members of Parliament or State Assembly.

Question 3.
When and why does the Governor issue ordinance?
Answer:
The bills passed by the Assembly become laws only after the assent of the Governor. When Vidhan Sabha is not in session, and a law is urgently required the Governor himself pass some orders which are known as ordinances. It has the effect of law.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Chapter 16 State Government

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 16 Text Book Questions

Choose the correct alternatives from the following

Question 1.
The no. of states in our country at present is:
(a) 28
(b) 27
(c) 35
(d) 25
Answer:
(a) 28

Question 2.
The term of Vidhan Sabha is:
(a) 6 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 5 years
Answer:
(d) 5 years

Question 3.
The no. of subjects in the State List are:
(a) 97
(b) 62
(c) 42
(d) 22
Answer:
(b) 62

Fill in the blanks:

1. The members of the Vidhan Sabha are known as …………..
2. …………… presides over the meeting of the Vidhan Sabha
3. The total number of members in Madya Pradesh Vidlian Sabba is ………….
4. The minimum age to be a member of Vidhan Sabha is ……………

Answer:

1. MLA or Members of the Legislative Assembly
2. Speaker
3. 230
4. 25 years

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 16 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When does a bill passed by Vidhan Sabha become a law?
Answer:
After a bill is passed by Vidhan Sabha, it is sent to the Governor for assent If die Governor so decides he can sent it to the president for consideration. After the signature of the Governor or the President, the bill becomes a law.

Question 2.
Name the Lists mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Lists mentioned in the Indian Constitution are:

• Union List
• State List
• Concurrent List
• Residuary List

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 16 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the qualifications required to become the member of the Vidhan Sabha?
Answer:

• He has to be a citizen of India.
• He Must be of minimum 25 years of age for seeking membership of Legislative Assembly and 30 years of age for Legislative Council.
• He must not hold any office of profit, under the State or Central Government
• He must not be mentally unstable or bankrupt

Question 2.
Describe the formation of the Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:
The representatives of the Vidhan Sabha are elected in such a way that the seats are proportionately represented. If a person is elected from more than one constituency then he will have to resign from the rest retaining only one seat If there is a controversy about the election of any candidate, then a petition can be filed in the High court. After accepting the petition, the High Court gives its verdict It can also be against the candidate.

A person can appeal to the Supreme Court if the Vedict goes against him. The verdict of the Supreme Court is final.
The term of Vidhan Sabha is 5 years. In a case of emergency, it can be dissolved, Vidhan Sabha has a speaker and a Deputy Speaker. The Speaker conducts the business of the state Vidhan Sabha. The Deputy Speaker discharges duties in the absence of the Speaker.

Question 3.
Explain the powers and functions of Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:
Vidhan Sabha performs two main functions:

• To make laws – It ipakes laws in the subjects of the state List and concurrent List.
• To pass the budget – It passes budget of die state.

Beside these two main functions Vidhan Sabha has another important function, public welfare, through various medium information regarding Government policies and departmental proceeding. The member of the Vidhan Sabha performs this function through the process of asking questions.

The members of the ruling party or the Government has to answer it The Vidhan Sabha controls the work of the Government department In this way it does not let the Government be despotic towards any one group.

The Government may not take any step, which is against the welfare of the people at large. In this regard the Vidhan Sabha may apply various motions like stop work motion, calling attention motion, by asking questions, proposal to make a cut in the budget etc.

In case there is a serious situation, then a no confidence motion can also be passed against the Government The Vidhan Sabha controls the finances of the state. It passes a budget every year which deals with income and expenditure and is presented in the Vidhan Sabha. After it is passed in the Assembly, it is sent to the Governor for his assent.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions Chapter 13 Exponents and Powers Ex 13.2

Question 1.
Using laws of exponents, simplify and write the answer in exponential form:
(i) 3² × 3⁴ × 3⁸
(ii) 6¹⁵ ÷ 6¹⁰
(iii) a³ × a²
(iv) 7^x × 7²
(v) (5²)³ 4 5³
(vi) 2⁵ × 5⁵
(vii) a⁴ × b⁴
(viii) (3⁴)³
(ix) (2²⁰ ÷ 2¹⁵) × 2³
(x) (8^t ÷ 8²)
Solution:
(i) 3² × 3⁴ × 3⁸ = (3)^{2 + 4 + 8} = 3¹⁴ [∵ a^m × aⁿ = a^m+n]
(ii) 6¹⁵ ÷ 6¹⁰ = (6)^{15 – 10} = 6⁵ [∵ a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^{m – n}]
(iii) a³ × a² = a^{3 + 2} = a⁵[∵ a^m × aⁿ = a^m+n]
(iv) 7^x × 7² = 7^{x + 2}[∵ a^m × aⁿ = a^m+n]
(v) (5²)³ ÷ 5³ = 5^{2 × 3} ÷ 5³ [∵ (a^m)ⁿ = a^mn]
= 5⁶ ÷ 5³ = 5^{(6 – 3)} [∵ a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^{m – n}]
= 5³
(vi) 2⁵ × 5⁵ = (2 × 5)⁵      [∵ a^m × b^m = (a × b)^m]
= 10⁵
(vii) a⁴ × b⁴ = (ab)⁴
(viii) (3⁴)³ = 3^{4 × 3} = 3¹²       [∵ (a^m)ⁿ = a^mn]
(ix) (2²⁰ ÷ 2¹⁵) × 2³ = (2^{20 – 15}) × 2³     [∵ a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^{m – n}]
= 2⁵ × 2³ = 2^{5 + 3} [∵ a^m × aⁿ = a^m+n]
(x) 8^t ÷ 8² = 8^{(t – 2)}    [∵ a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^{m – n}]

Question 2.
Simplify and express each of the following in exponential form:

Solution:

(ii) [(5²)³ × 5⁴] ÷ 5⁷
= [5^{2 × 3} × 5⁴] ÷ 5⁷ [∵ (a^m)ⁿ = a^mn]
= [5⁶ × 5⁴] ÷ 5⁷ [∵ a^m × aⁿ = a^{m + n}]
= [5^{6 + 4}] ÷ 5⁷
= 5¹⁰ ÷ 5⁷
= 5^{10 – 7} [∵ a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^{m – n}]
= 5³

(iii) 25⁴ ÷ 5³ = (5 × 5)⁴ ÷ 5³
= (5²)⁴ ÷ 5³ = 5^{2 × 4} ÷ 5³ [∵ (a^m)ⁿ = a^mn]
= 5⁸ ÷ 5³ = 5^{8 – 3} [∵ a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^{m – n}]
= 5⁵

(vi) 2⁰ + 3⁰ + 4⁰ = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3     [∵ a⁰ = 1]
(vii) 2⁰ × 3⁰ × 4⁰ = 1 × 1 × 1 = 1
(viii) (3⁰ + 2⁰) × 5⁰ = (1 + 1) × 1 = 2

Question 3.
Say true or false and justify your answer:
(i) 10 × 10¹¹ = 100¹¹
(ii) 2³ > 5²
(iii) 2³ × 3² = 6⁵
(iv) 3⁰ = (1000)⁰
Solution:
(i) L.H.S = 10 × 10¹¹
= 10^{1 + 11} = 10¹²
R.H.S = 100¹¹ = (10 × 10)¹¹ = (10⁰)¹¹ = 10^{2 × 11} = 10²²
⇒ L.H.S. ≠ R.H.S.
Hence, the given statement is false.

(ii) 2³ > 5²
L.H.S. = 2³ = 2 × 2 × 2 = 8
R.H.S. = 5³ = 5 × 5 = 25
⇒ L.H.S ≠ R.H.S
Hence, the given statement is false.

(iii) 2³ × 3² = 6⁵
L.H.S. = 2³ × 3² = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 = 72
R.H.S. = 6⁵ = 6 × 6 × 6 × 6 × 6 = 7776
⇒ L.H.S. ≠ R.H.S.
Hence, the given statement is false.

(iv) 3⁰ = (1000)⁰
L.H.S. = 3⁰ = 1
R.H.S. = (1000)⁰ = 1
⇒ L.H.S. = R.H.S.
Hence, the given statement is true.

Question 4.
Express each of the following as a product of prime factors only in exponential form:
(i) 108 × 192
(ii) 270
(iii) 729 × 64
(iv) 768
Solution:
(i) 108 × 192
= (2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3) × (2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3)
= (2² × 3³) × (2⁶ × 3)
= 2²⁺⁶ × 3³⁺¹ = 2⁸ × 3⁴
(ii) 270 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 2 × 3³ × 5
(iii) 729 × 64 = (3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3) × (2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2) = 3⁶ × 2⁶
(iv) 768 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 2⁸ × 3

Question 5.
Simplify:

Solution:

MP Board Class 7th Maths Solutions