Class 8

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 23 Australia-Geographical features

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 23 Australia-Geographical features

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 23 Text Book Exercise

Choose the correct option of the following.

Question 1.
(i) The main latitude line passing through the middle of Australia Continent is:
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) Equator
(c) Capricorn
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Capricorn

Question 2.
Which is Island Continent?
(a) Antarctica
(b) Australia
(c) Asia
(d) North America
Answer:
(b) Australia

Question 3.
Which is the country of Australia Continent?
(a) Fizi
(b) Cuba
(c) Chile
(d) Bornio
Answer:
(a) Fizi

Question 4.
In which region of Australian Continent, lies the Great Barrier Reef?
(a) South-East region.
(b) North-East region
(c) North-West region
(d) North-West region
Answer:
(b) North-East region

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 23 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The area of Eyre Lake which is in the Central lowlands where rivers falls into lakes is known as?
Answer:
The major area around the Eyre Lake is known as inland drainage area. Where the rivers, which can not reach the sea, fall into the inland lakes.

Question 2.
What is called the high but narrow long belt plateaus in Australian Continent?
Answer:
There is parallel expansion of this mountain ranges from the Cape York Peninsula in east coast to the Tasmania island in the south. They form a long belt of the high plateaus which are known as the Great Dividing Range.

Question 3.
What name the sea landform made by coral insects in the east coast of Australia is known?
Answer:
Along the north-east cost of Australia extends very long coral ridge known (racks of coral) as the Great Barrier Reef. This world famous reef is more than 1920 kms. in length. It is made of skeletons of tiny insects called corals.

Question 4.
Which is the emblem animal and famous tree of Australia?
Answer:
The Kangaroo is the national animal of Australia and Eucalyptus is the main tree

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 23 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is the western part of Australia Continent?
Answer:
Western Plateau is in Western part of Australia. It occupies two-thirds of the continent and lies from north to south. Due to lack of rain the most of the plateau is desert or semi-desert. The northern part is Great Sandy Desert and southern part is occupied by Great Victoria Desert.

Question 2.
Mention about the Inland drainage of Australia continent?
Answer:
An extensive low land between the western and eastern highlands extends from the gulf of Carpentaria in north to the southern and shores of Australia. Many rivers flow in the lowland but most of the rivers could not reach the sea and fells into the inland lakes.

The biggest Lake Eyre is situated in this area. So the major area around the Eyre Lake is known as inland drainage area. The Inland drainage area is a system where the river flowing, instead of felling in the sea, falls in some water areas there.

Question 3.
Write the climate of Australia?
Answer:
Australia lies in the southern Hemisphere. Most of Australia is dry. The eastern, north-eastern and the western part of the country come in the way of winds blowing on the sea. This part receives heavy rainfall.

The following types of climates are found in Australia.

1. Desert type in the vast interior of the earth.
2. Mediterranean type of climate is found in southern coast of Australia.
3. Monsoon type of climate in northern part of Australia causes rain in summer.

Question 4.
Write about the prominent animals of Australia continent?
Answer:
Australia is known for Kangaroos and Koala called the mansupials animals. Mansupials have a pouch like fold of skin near the stomach in which they carry their young ones. The other animals are dingo, a wild dog. Platypus is a four legged animal that lays eggs like a bird.

Question 5.
What is Downs? Explain
Answer:
The Middle regions of Australia which receive little rain fall have trees and gray equally. There are two types of grasslands here. In the north there is tropical grass land and in the south of Murray-Darling Basin has temperate grassland which is known is ‘Downs’ also.

Question 6.
Mention about the physical features of New Zealand Island?
Answer:
In the south-east of Australia lies New Zealand. New Zealand is the mountain island. In the north and south islands there stretches a mountain range from north to south. In the southern island this mountain range is called south Alps. The narrow Cook Strait divides the north and south islands of New Zealand.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 23 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the physical divisions of Australia?
Answer:
Australia can be divided into three major physical divisions. They are:

1. Western Plateau
2. The Central Lowlands and
3. The Eastern Highlands
4. The Western Plateau

1. The western plateau:
The western plateau of Australia is a vast plateau occupying two thirds of the continent. This part of Australia is a desert or a semi-desert. Desert type of vegetation consisting mainly small shrubs and thorny bushes is found here. In North West the desert area is known as Great Sandy Desert and in its south it is called the Great Victoria Desert.

This part of plateau is rich in minerals especially in gold. Kalgoorlie and Coolgradie gold. Kalgoorlie and Coolgradie goldmines are famous in this area.

2.The Central Lowlands:
There are extensive lowlands between the western plateau and the Eastern Highlands. They extend from the Gulf of Carpentraia in the north, across the continent to the southern shore of Australia.

These are the lowlands so much so that at Lake Eyre, the land is about 12 metres below sea level. The Murray and the Darling are the major rivers of Australia flowing through the Central lowland. Most of the rivers of this area do not reach the sea.

They infect, fall into Are inland lakes. Thus the area around Lake Eyre is a region of inland drainage. The north-eastern part of the plain is occupied by the Great Artesian Basin, Artesian well supply some water to this semi-desert area.

3. The Eastern Highlands:
Along the east coat of Australia are found long belt of elevate plateaus. They extend from Cape York Peninsula in the north to Tasmania in the south. These elevated plateaus are known as the Great Dividing Range. They are broad low in the north whereas in the south they are narrow and high. They also called Great Dividing Range.

4. Coastal plains:
There is oceanic water all around the continent, hence there are narrow coastal plain in the continent. The sea sand and water-borne soil on the mouth of rivers is found here. Along the north east coast of Australia. There is a very long coral ridge known as the Great Barrier Reef.

The Coral reefs have colorful beings and vegetations. New Zealand is the mountain island. The narrow Cook Strait divides the north and south islands of New Zealand.

Question 2.
What is Great Barrier Reef?
Answer:
Great Barrier Reef:
Off the northeast coast of Australia extends a very long edge like feature known as the Great Barrier Reef. It has been formed as a result of the deposition of skeleton of carols. Corals are tiny sea animals when the corals die their hard skeletons remain fixed in places and new coral grow upon them.

The accumulations of these corals are known as coral Reefs. The world famous Great Barriers Reef made of these corals in more than 1900 kilometers, in length and its distance from coast varies from 30 to 240 kilometers.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the vegetations and animals of Australia Continent.
Answer:
The vegetations are found in Australia as per rain distribution. The Coastal areas which receive
heavy rains abound with long trees and forests. The Western and central dry land are full of thorny bushes and grass. Tropical forests are found in the northern and north-eastern coastal regions of Australia which receive heavy rains they are like monsoon forests. But they are evergreen.

The important trees that grow in these forests are Devdar, Date, Bamboo, Baobab and Bottle. The Eucalyptus is the main tree.

The Koala animal mostly lives on these trees and eats the leaves of eucalyptus trees. The middle regions of Australia which receive little rain have trees and grass equally. In the north there is tropical grass land and in the south of Murray-Darling basin has temperate grass-lands which is known as‘Downs’.

Kangaroo is the national animal of Australia. Emu, Kookaburra and Lyre Bird are other different birds, Kiwis and Penguins are famous birds of New Zealand. Dingo, a wild dog and Platypus are other animals of Australia.

Project Work

Show the following on the outline map of Australia continent.

1. Tasmania and New Zealand
2. Fizi and Papua New Guinea
3. Grat Victoria and Great Sandy Desert
4. Murray and Darling rivers,
5. Great Dividing Range and Great Barrier Reef,
6. Grasslands of Downs
7. The Cook Strait.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Miscellaneous Questions 2

Write the correct options to the following questions

Question 1.
In which language newspapers was established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
(a) Bengali
(b) Hindi
(c) English
(d) Urdu
Answer:
Bengali.

Question 2.
By which constitutional amendment primary education was included in fundamental rights?
(a) 81st
(b) 86th
(c) 87th
(d) 83rd
Answer:
(b) 86th.

Question 3.
Employment for how many days has been ensured under Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Bill
(a) Entire year
(b) 100 days
(c) 200 days
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 100 days

Question 4.
Who is the head of Indian Defense Forces?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Answer:
(c) President.

Question 5.
North America Extends from east to west.
(a) 7200 km
(b) 6400 km.
(c) 4006 km.
(d) 2700 km.
Answer:
(b) 6400 km.

Question 6.
The average density of population in North America.
(a) 51 persons per square kilometers
(b) 21 persons per square kilometers
(c) 22 persons per square kilometers
(d) 104 persons per square kilometers
Answer:
(b) 21 persons per square kilometers.

Question 7.
What is the height of the worlds highest water fall Angel on river Orinoko.
(a) 979 meter
(b) 799 meters
(c) 997 meters
(d) 907 meters
Answer:
(a) 979 meters

Question 8.
The largest producer Country of banana in the world is –
(a) Bolivia
(b) Chile
(c) Ecuador
(d) Peru
Answer:
(c) Ecuador

Fill in the blanks:

1. In 1876 Queen of England was declared …………….. of India.
2. Satya sodhak society in Maharashtra was founded by ……………
3. The percentage of literate women in M.P. as per 2001 census is …………
4. Indian government set up planning commission in ………………
5. The army has been organised in …………….. commands.
6. The woodcutter in Canada is called …………….
7. ……………… is the capital of Mexico
8. Of the total land of South America ……………. percent land is worth agriculture.

Answer:

1. Empress
2. Jyotika Phule
3. 50.28%
4. 1950
5. 5
6. lumber jacks
7. Mexico city
8. 10%

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Miscellaneous Questions 2 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was Sargent Scheme?
Answer:
The 1919 Act entrusted the responsibility of education department to provincial councils. Under the Sergent Plan in 1944 free and, compulsory education was made for the children between 6 to 14 years. Initially the British education policy might have not been beneficial to Indians but it played major role in motivating Indians towards nationality and to get united.

Question 2.
Write in brief about Parsis Reform Movements.
Answer:
In 1851 Parsis founded a religious reform union which aimed at renovating the social conditions of Parsis society and reestablished the pristine glory of Parsi religion. Dadabhai Naoroji and Naoroji Furdoonji were among the pioneers of religious and social reformers in Parsi community and brought out a journal Rast Goftar and both played an important role in the spread of girls education.

Question 3.
Which are the major social problems?
Answer:
The major social problems are Social and Economic Unequality:

1. Communal-ism:
Such feelings and activities which consider their own faith superior and treat other faiths and religions as inferior.

2. Caste-ism:
Caste is such a unit which binds the members in marriage and food styles. The members could not come out from cell of Caste-ism and so they fail to play vital role in society.

3. Terrorism:
The terrorists want to convey the messages to people through fear and terror. The religious fanatics indulge in killing innocent people.

4. Discrimination among sex:
In our society some people dislike girl child to be bom so they kill the girl child.

5. Child labor
6. Illiteracy
7. Drinking of liquor and drug Addiction

Question 4.
What do you mean by Cottage industry?
Answer:
Cottage and small scale industries is the traditional industry as it needs little money and goods are made by the family members. These industries produce various traditional products like baskets, small toys, bidis, ropes, envelopes, papad, mats, badi, spices and weaving items etc. poor people can earn money without much capital. Now government is giving facilities to promote this industry.

Question 5.
Write important naval warships of Navy?
Answer:
Main Naval fleet of India are – INS Nilgiri, Himgiri, Devgiri, Taragiri, Vindhyagiri and INS Godavari Navy has survey ships and petrol aircraft carriers. Besides these there are two fleets one is the western fleet and the second is eastern fleet which are the mobile commander on the sea.

Question 6.
What is Cordilleras?
Answer:
The western part of North America continent is a vast mountainous region known as the western Cordilleras which is spread from Alaska in north to Mexico in South.

Question 7.
Which is called the biggest meat market of the world?
Answer:
The central part of South America continent is called the biggest meat market of the world. Argentina, Uruguay, Paraguay, Venezuela are main countries which rear cattle and sheep for meat and milk products.

Question 8.
What is Inter – Mountainous Plateau?
Answer:
The Plateau which lies between the two mountains is called inland mountain plateau. For example. Great Basin.

Question 9.
Why Brazil is called the “Home of Coffee”?
Answer:
Brazil is the largest producer of coffee in the world of it is called the Home of Coffee.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Miscellaneous Questions 2 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write note on the growth of press in 19th century.
Answer:
The press played vital role in taking the idea of reform movements to the people. Earlier the press, newspaper, magazines and journals were under British control but in 19th century the reformers thought to use press as strong medium to convey the feelings of social, religious movements and nationalism to the people so they started their own press, magazines.

A lot of Editors were jailed by British who voiced the grievances and raised national sentiments by their papers. But they continued to use the press and they exposed the plights and suffering of Indians being meted out by the British before the world. Some leading Newspapers were.

1. The Hindu
2. The Indian Mirror
3. Amrit Bazar
4. Patrika
5. The Kessari
6. Maratha
7. Swadesh Mitra
8. Prabhakar
9. Indra Prakash

These papers played a important role in social and religious reforms and the strengthened the Indian National Movements.

Question 2.
What are the demerits of liquor addiction?
Answer:
Liquor drinking is a social evil. This habit is ruining a number of families in India.

1. A drunkard tortures his children and woman at home and this spoils the peace of family life.
2. This increases economic problem.
3. Such families do not get respect.

It ruins health, it damages brain, heart, kidney, liver etc. Drug re-habitation centers and spiritual sermons are quite helpful. Gandhiji tried to eradicate this evil. It was due to his teaching that prohibition has been included in part IV of the Indian Constitution under Directive Principles.

Question 3.
How is plantation farming done?
Answer:
Plantation farming:
The large plantation of plants and tree for trade purpose and production like industries is called plantation farming. There are big plantation regions of coffee and sugarcane in South America where these are produced in greater quantity.

Question 4.
Why wood cutting starts in winter in Canada?
Answer:
In the south of Tundra in Canada, the wide stretch of east to west experiences very cold winter and the summer normal. In this entire area the coniferous forest belt are found. Heavy rainfall occurs here. The earth becomes marshy and deep in summer. So tree cutting in summer is impossible.

In winter heavy snowfalls so the earth and rivers are snow covered. Therefore lumber jacks cut trees in winter. They put the logs on the snow – covered rivers. When the snow of the rivers melt in summer, the logs are also transported and so the woods reach to work shops without labor expense and in short time.

Question 5.
Make a chart of the Air Force officials hierarchy?
Answer:

Question 6.
Write the significance of agriculture in the economy of North America?
Answer:
Agriculture has very significant role in the economy of North America. It is very rich in agricultural production. This is mainly because the continent is vast and possesses very fertile plains, suitable climate and sufficient water is available for irrigation. The agricultural products can be classified in two parts:

• food grains
• Cash crops.

Extensive Prairie grasslands in the central and the river valleys are suitable for farming. Extensive agriculture is the chief farming practice. Wheat, maize, barley, millet, rice, soybean is main cereal crops are cotton, groundnut, tobacco, fruits are its cash crops. In the economy of North America agriculture has its main role.

Question 7.
Which is called Laplata Basin?
Answer:
Laplata plain:
The third plain is made of highlands of Brazil, Parana, Paraguay’ in south – west and valleys of Uruguay Rivers. This is called Laplata Basin.

Question 8.
Make a list of the items of import and export of South America?
Answer:

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Miscellaneous Questions 2 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the relation of princely states of India with British government after 1858.
Answer:
In 1855 there were 562 states ruled by Indian rulers. The Queen’s proclamation had promised not to extend the British territories in India and to respect the rights dignity and honor of Indian princess but it proved mere eyewash. In 1874 the King of Baroda was dethroned. In 1876 Queen Victoria became the Empress of India. She further reduced the power and status of the Indian princes.

Now it was the responsibility of British Govt, in India to protect the Indian states from internal as well as external threats. This gave unlimited powers and to British Government to intervene in the internal affairs of Indian states. Governor General Lord Curzon even banned the foreign travel by Indian princes and he fixed the number troops that. Indian states could maintain under the control of British officers.

Question 2.
What changes do you find in the status of woman in today’s family? Mention it?
Answer:
The plight of women in India was worst. The Purdha system, child marriage, sati system, illiteracy among women were the major features of Indian society. But with the efforts made by social reformers in 1829 the British GOVT, in India banded the Sati System. Above mentioned social evils came to an end. Now women are literate and they are progressing in every field.

We can see women as doctors, teachers, clerks, leaders, police officers, lawyers, Ridges etc in our society. Today, Indian Govt, is Helping women in advancing in every field. Stress is given on girl education. Sonia Gandhi is the President of Congress.

Sheila Dixit is C.M. of Delhi. Today woman is more powerful and their status m our families is equal to men’s status. Now we are proud of woman such as Kalpana Ciiawia a space Scientist. Now we have to change our attitude towards the Indian woman.

Question 3.
Corruption is an economical problem? How?
Answer:
To get own s work done in favor people pay either money or other things to a person or any agency, is called corruption. Stealing of taxation also comes under this category According to law both who pays and vie who receives money through corruption are criminals. The corruption creates economic inequality and the poor gets more poor. Corruption eats into the roots of progress. The govt, has made rule and law to curtail corruption even though corruption is increasing in every field.

Question 4.
Write a note on the production of defense equipment.
Answer:
Defense production activities are divided into two groups departmentally run ordinance of factories:

• The army ammunition, tanks, vehicles etc. are made in ordinance factories.
• The defence public sector undertaking produce ships, aircraft, bulldozer earth moving equipment, machines, tools, sensors, communication equipment etc. The Missiles are produced to strengthen the defense line gni, Prithvi. Trishul. Nag, Akash, Brahmastra are successful missiles of India. India has atomic power also.

Question 5.
Write note on the distribution of rain in North America?
Answer:
North America continent received most of its rain fall during summer. There are three western regions which get heavy rainfall:

• In the inland due to the effect of trade winds.
• In Central America and South-East areas due to closeness of Gulf Stream.
• Due to the westerly winds on the western coast of British Columbia.

As we proceed from east coast to western areas, the distribution of rainfall becomes very low. The Arizona desert in south-west of United States have very scantly rainfall .

Question 6.
Describe the major forest industries of North America?
Answer:
The main industries of paper, pulp, furniture and samuoor are situated in North America. Canada has tropical and temperate forests. The useful tress Chit, Fir, Sp-nice and Balsam are in plenty. U.S. and Canada have paper and pulp industries.

Cellulose obtained from soft wood is used in manufacturing, rayon cloth. Hardwood from tropical forest and chuckle gum from Chuckle trees are obtained. The dairy cable are reared in grasslands, meat industry is highly developed near lakes. Chicago is the biggest meat market.

Question 7.
Write about physical divisions of South America?
Answer:
South America is divided into following three divisions:

1. The Western Coastal Strip
2. The Western Mountains
3. The Central Plains
4. The Eastern Highlands

1.The Western Coastal Strip:
Consists of a narrow strip of low and long the pacific coast in the western part of South America.

2.The Western Mountains:
There is a mountainous range called Andes along the western part of South America. They are the young fold mountains only next to Himalaya Mountains. They are three main ranges in the Andes. Eastern sides of this area have two high ranges.

Between these mountains some plateaus are found. The Bolivian is one of them. Lake Titicaco is also located here. It is one of the largest lake of South America. Mt. Aconcagua is the highest peak as higher as 7021 meters above sea level of Andes. Mt. Cotopaxi in Equator is volcanic mountain of this region.

3.The Central Plain:
The Central Plain is made up of the basins of the Orinoco, the Amazon and Plato rivers.Amazon river which 6280 kilometers long takes the greatest volume of water in the world.

4.The Eastern Highlands:
Consists of Guyana and Brazilians Highlands. The highest waterfall of the world called Angel Fall is located here in the south-eastern part of Venezuela.

Question 8.
Describe the animal husbandry and sheep rearing in South America?
Answer:
Pastoral farming means rearing of animals for milk and milk product, meat, wool, hide and skins etc. Systematic pastoral farming is done m Argentina. Cattle are reared on large pastoral farms spreading over several square kilometers of land Farming is done in a systematic way means that the pastoral farms are run on the lines of big factory. Each aspects of cattle rearing is kept in mind and provisions made for caring each aspect.

For example, there are cattle, fodder crops, physical, machinery, water supply and transport. Cattle are looked after by gauchos. Cattle are sent to the ports for export. They are slaughtered and each part is utilized. For example bones are used for making fertilizers. Hides and fats are other products. Meat packing and beef-extracting factories are also located at ports.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 8th General Hindi Model Question Paper

प्रश्न 1.
सही जोड़ी बनाइए
(अ) सूरज हमें रोशनी देता – 1. पर अति ही उज्ज्वल हैं मन से
(ब) अपने घर का रोजमर्रा – 2. योग, ध्यान, प्राणायाम का सामान
(स) यद्यपि वे काले हैं तन से – 3. तारे शीतलता बरसाते।
(द) मानसिक शांति के लिए किए गए प्रयास – 4. कपड़े के झोले में रखकर लाया कीजिए।
उत्तर-
(अ) 3
(ब) 4
(स) 1
(द) 2

प्रश्न 2.
दिए गए विकल्पों से रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए
(क) ……………………………….. चरित्र का सद्गुण है। (विनम्रता/कुटिलता)
(ख) पुलिस की मुख्य जिम्मेदारी ……………………………….. है। (जनता को सताना/नागरिकों की सुरक्षा करना)
(ग) अमीर खुसरो पर ……………………………….. संस्कारों का प्रभाव था। (विदेशी/भारतीय)
(घ) साँची ……………………………….. जिले में स्थित है। (रायसेन/विदिशा)
(ङ) चतर चित रहिमन लगी ……………………………….. चूक की हूक। (समय/काल)
उत्तर-
(क) विनम्रता,
(ख) नागरिकों की सुरक्षा करना,
(ग) भारतीय,
(घ) रायसेन,
(ङ) समय।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं पाँच प्रश्नों के उत्तर अति लघु स्वरूप में लिखिए-
(क) कवि ने ‘कुमार’ संबोधन किसके लिए किया है?
(ख) गाँव की गली के मोड़ पर कौन बाट जोह रहा है?
(ग) जेलर किस स्वभाव का व्यक्ति था?
(घ) सरदार पटेल ने गृहमंत्री के रूप में कौन-सा महत्त्वपूर्ण कार्य किया?
(ङ) हीरा किले से वापस कब लौट आती थी?
(च) गाँवों में अतिथि सत्कार किस प्रकार होता है?
उत्तर-
(क) कवि ने ‘कुमार’ संबोधन भारतीय बच्चों के लिए किया है।
(ख) गाँव की गली के मोड़ पर बूढ़ा नीम बाट जोह रहा है।
(ग) जेलर उदार स्वभाव का व्यक्ति था।
(घ) सरदार पटेल ने गृहंमत्री के रूप में देशी रियासतों का एकीकरण नामक महत्त्वपूर्ण कार्य किया।
(ङ) हीरा किले से वापस रात होने से पहले लौट आती थी।
(च) गाँवों में अतिथि-सत्कार अपने किसी संबंधी की तरह होता था।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्ही पाँच प्रश्नों के उत्तर लघु स्वरूप में लिखिए-
(क) विनम्र व्यक्ति की पहचान कैसे होती है?
(ख) नागरिकों के पुलिस के प्रति क्या कर्त्तव्य हैं?
(ग) सोच-समझ कर पैसा खर्च करने से क्या-क्या लाभ हैं?
(घ) “दूध का दूध और पानी का पानी” इस कथन का आशय ‘पंच परमेश्वर’ कहानी के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(ङ) सफलता अर्जित करने के लिए भावनात्मक स्वास्थ्य अच्छा होना क्यों आवश्यक है।
(च) कवि रहीम के अनुसार सच्चा मित्र कौन है?
उत्तर-
(क) विनम्र व्यक्ति की पहचान आगंतुक को प्रसन्नता स्वागत करने, यथोचित सत्कार करने में पीछे न रहने ओर अपने बड़ों द्वारा आसन ग्रहण करने आदि से होती है।
(ख) पुलिस के प्रति नागरिकों का यह कर्तव्य है कि वह सामाजिक शांति, साम्प्रदायिक सद्भाव एवं राष्ट्रीय हितों को प्रभावित करने वाली कोई भी महत्त्वपूर्ण सूचना पुलिस को दे। घायल व्यक्तियों की भी सूचना पुलिस को देना नागरिकों का कर्तव्य है।
(ग) सोच-समझ कर पैसा खर्च करने से अनेक लाभ होते हैं। इससे बड़ी पूँजी तैयार हो जाती है कि उससे छोटी ही नहीं, अपितु बहुत बड़ी आवश्यकता की पूर्ति हो जाती है।
(घ) “दूध का दूध और पानी का पानी” कथन का आशय है-सही और अपेक्षित न्याय करना। इससे अच्छा न्याय न्यायालय में भी संभव नहीं है।
(ङ) सफलता अर्जित के लिए भावनात्मक स्वस्थ्य का होना आवश्यक है। यह इसलिए कि इससे व्यक्ति पूर्ण स्वस्थ्य रहता है। वह जल्दी कोई दिशाहीन कदम नहीं उठाता। वह छोटी-छोटी बातों का मन पर बोझ रखकर अपने लक्ष्य से नहीं भटकता है। अपनी क्षमता से बाहर कोई काम नहीं करता है।
(च) कवि रहीम के अनुसार सच्चा मित्र वही है, जो विपत्ति में साथ देता है।

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित पंक्तियों का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएअसफलता एक चुनौती है, स्वीकार करो, क्या कमी रह गयी, देखो और सुधार करो।
उत्तर-
उपर्युक्त पंक्तियों के द्वारा कवि ने जीवन में कभी न हार मानने की सीख दी है। इसके लिए उसने यह दिशा-निर्देश दिया है कि अगर हार हो भी जाती है, तो गंभीरतापूर्वक सोच-विचार करने चाहिए कि किस कमी से यह हार हुई। फिर उसका सुधार करना चाहिए। इससे निश्चय ही सफलता मिल जायेगी।

प्रश्न 6.
पाठ्य पुस्तक में पढ़ी हुई किसी एक कहानी का सारांश लिखिए।
उत्तर-
‘पंच परमेश्वर’ कहानी का सारांश जुम्मन शेख और अलगू चौधरी बचपन के पक्के दोस्त थे। उनकी मित्रता कोई आज की नहीं, बल्कि बहुत पुरानी थी। जुम्मन शेख की एक खाला थी उसके कोई वारिस नहीं था। जुम्मन ने उनकी सेवा का वायदा करके जायजाद को अपने नाम लिखा लिया। कुछ दिन तक तो खालाजान को खूब आदर-सत्कार हुआ, पर बाद में वह बात नहीं रही। रोजाना की बातों से ऊबकर एक दिन बुढ़िया ने जुम्मन से पंचायत कराने की धमकी दी। जुम्मन को अपनी हैसियत का घमण्ड था। उसने बुढ़िया की धमकी की परवाह नहीं की।

बुढ़िया ने आस-पास के गाँवों में कई दिनों तक पंचायत हेतु चक्कर लगाये। अलगू चौधरी उस पंचायत में नहीं जाना चाहता था पर बुढ़िया के आग्रह पर वह भी पंचायत में गया। बुढ़िया की बात कि क्या दोस्ती के बिगाड़ के डर से ईमान की बात न कहोगे। अलग के हृदय में लग गई थी।

बुढ़िया ने “पंचों” से कहा तीन साल पहले मैंने अपनी जमीन-जायदाद अपने भांजे जुम्मन के नाम लिख दी। अब वह मुझे रोटी और कपड़े को तरसाता है। रामधन मिश्र ने जुम्मन से पंच बनाने के लिए पूछा। जुम्मन ने कहा खालाजान जिसे चाहें उसे बनायें। खाला ने अलगू चौधरी को ही सरपंच बनाने के लिए कहा।

अलगू का नाम सुनकर जुम्मन मन-ही-मन बहुत खुश हुआ। शेख जुम्मन ने अपनी सफाई देते हुए पंचों से कहा कि खाला की जायजाद से आमदनी बहुत कम है। इसलिए माहवार खर्चा नहीं दे सकता तथा खलाजान को किसी बात की तकलीफ नहीं है। मैं उन्हें माँ के समान समझता हूँ। फैसला सुनाते समय अलगू ने कहा कि जुम्मन शेख को खाला की जायदाद से इतना मुनाफा अवश्य है कि माहवार खर्च दिया जा सके।

फैसला सुनकर जुम्मन सन्नाटे में आ गया। दोस्ती दुश्मनी में बदल गई। वह अब बदला लेने की सोचने लगा। बुरे काम की बुरी सिद्धि में देर नहीं होती। जुम्मन को बदला लेने का अवसर शीर्घ ही मिल गया।

गाँव में एक समझू साहू थे। उन्होंने अलगू का एक बैल एक महीने की उधारी में खरीदा। साहू जी बैल से जरूरत से ज्यादा मेहनत लेते। एक दिन चौथी खेप में साहू जी ने दूना बोझा लादा, बैल कोड़े खाकर भी चला पर शक्ति ने जवाब दे दिया। वह गिर गया और गिरकर फिर न उठ सका। साहू जी रात भर वहीं रतजगा करते रहे। प्रातः होते-होते नींद लग ही गई। सबेरे नींद खुली तो कमरे से थैली गायब थी, कई कनस्तर तेल भी गायब थे। रोते-बिलखते साहूजी घर पहुंचे।

अलगू जब पैसों की माँग करता, साहू अपने नुकसान की बात करते। मामला बढ़ते-बढ़ते पंचायत की नौबत आ गई, इस बार पंचायत ने जुम्मन को अपना पंच बनाया अलगू का कलेजा धक-धक करने लगा।

सरपंच के आसन पर बैठते ही जुम्मन शेख भी अपनी जिम्मेदारी अनुभव करने लगे। पंचों ने दोनों पक्षों की बात सुनकर सलाह मशविरा किया। अंत में फैसला सुनाते हुए जुम्मन ने कहा कि समझू ने जिस समय बैल लिया उसे कोई बीमारी नहीं थी। अगर उसी समय दाम दिया जाता तो आज समझू उसे वापस लेने का आग्रह न करते।

अलगू ने उठकर कहा-“पंच परमेश्वर की जय” प्रत्येक मनुष्य जुम्मन के फैसले को सराह रहा था। इसे कहते हैं न्याय। यह कार्य नहीं, पंच में परमेश्वर वास करते हैं थोड़ी देर बाद दोस्त गले मिले। जुम्मन ने कहा भैया आज मुझे विश्वास हो गया, कि पंच की जुबान से खुदा बोलते हैं। दोनों रोने लगे दोनों के दिलों के मैल धुल गये।

प्रश्न 7.
(क) दी गई क्रियाओं के पूर्वकालिक क्रियारूप बनाइए और वाक्यों में प्रयोग कीजिए देख, हँस।
उत्तर-
(क) क्रिया – पूर्वकालिक वाक्य-प्रयोग क्रियारूप
‘देख – देखना उसने उसे देखकर बुलाया।
हँस – हँसना वह बातोंबात में हँस दिया।

(ख) दिए गए विग्रह पदों के सामासिक शब्द बनाइए- बैलों की गाड़ी, भाई और बहन, पाँच तत्त्वों का समूह, नीले रंग का कमल।

(ख) विग्रह-पद सामासिक शब्द
बैलों की गाड़ी – बैलगाड़ी
भाई और बहन – भाई-बहन

(ग) निम्नलिखित शब्दों के विलोम शब्द लिखिए- स्वाधीन, अमृत, साक्षत, उपस्थित।

(ग) शब्द – विलोम शब्द
स्वाधीन – पराधीन
अमृत – विष
साक्षरः, – निरक्षर
उपस्थित – अनुपस्थित

(घ) वाक्यों में प्रयोग कीजिए-
प्रेमपूर्वक, धीरज, विज्ञापन, ग्राम्य जीवन।

(घ) शब्द – वाक्य-प्रयोग
प्रेमपूर्वक – हमें परस्पर प्रेमपूर्वक रहना चाहिए।
धीरज – विपत्ति में धीरज रखना चाहिए।
विज्ञापन – आज का युग विज्ञापन का युग
ग्राम्य-जीवन – ग्राम-जीवन धन्य है।

प्रश्न 8.
अपनी पाठ्य-पुस्तक में पढ़ी हुई किसी कविता की चार पंक्तियाँ लिखिए जो प्रश्न पत्र में नहीं दी गई हों।
उत्तर-
विप्लव के हो क्राति गीत,
तुम आशाओं की आशा हो
जीवन की चिरशांति तुम्हीं हो
यौवन की परिभाषा हो।

प्रश्न 9.
अपने मित्र को उसके जन्मदिन पर बधाई-पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
शाला के प्रधान अध्यापक महोदय को तीन दिन के अवकाश हेतु प्रार्थना-पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तर-
देखें-‘पत्र-लेखन’

प्रश्न 10.
किसी एक विषय पर निबंध लिखिए
उत्तर-
हमारा राष्ट्रीय त्योहार
शाला का वार्षिक उत्सव
विज्ञान और आधुनिक जीवन
समाचार-पत्र की उपयोगिता
उत्तर-
देखें-‘निबंध-लेखन’

MP Board Class 8th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 22 Major Problems of the World

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 22 Text Book Exercise

Choose the correct option of the following.

Question 1.
When Indian Parliament was attacked by the terrorist?
(a) 10 December 1999
(b) 11 September 2001
(c) 11 November 2002
(d) 13 December 2001
Answer:
(d) 13 December 2001

Question 2.
What is Al-Queda?
(a) A political group
(b) A terrorist organisation
(c) A magazine
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) A terrorist organisation

Fill in the blanks:

1. Noise is an undesirable………….
2. At present the quantity of carbon oxide prevalent in atmosphere is more than …………….. percent.

Answer:

1. sound
2. 3%

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 22 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘environment’?
Answer:
All that surrounds us is our environment. Environment consists of all living and non-living matter that exists around us. There is a close relationship between organism and environment. Essential constituents necessary for life are continuously cycled among different spheres. Thus all physical element and biotic elements together constitute environment.

Question 2.
What measurer terrorists resort to achieve their aims?
Answer:
The following are the measurer taken by terrorist to achieve their arms:

• The activities of terrorists are anti-govt, and against society.
• They have political goals.
• Their activities are illegal and against-law.
• The terrorists create terror among people.
• The terrorists resort to violent means.
• Terrorism kills the logical thinking.
• The terrorists try to demoralize the confidence of security forces.
• The terrorists use religious frenzy to fulfill their goals.
• They pose threat to the security, peace and integrity of the nation.
• They instigate other separatist forces in the country.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 22 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Lithosphere?
Answer:
The layer of the earth consisting of rock materials, extending both over the constituents and ocean basins.

Question 2.
What is meaning of liberalization?
Answer:
Liberalisation means relaxation of government regulations relating to various activities in industrial and service sectors and encouragement of foreign companies to set up business and production units within the domestic area.

Question 3.
What short of sound pollution is?
Answer:
The noise is an undesirable sound which is not a kin to ears. Too much nosier increases mental tension resulting in various physiological diseases. Sound of machines in factories, sound of horn sound of aero-planes is a kind of sound pollution.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 22 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the major sources which pollute waters?
Answer:

1. Natural causes of water pollution:
Few natural substances also pollute water. These include different gases, soil, minerals, vegetation, dead animals etc.

2. Human resources of water pollution are –

(a) Excreta:
The stool and urine emanating from home and public toilets are diverted into rivers and water resources.

(b) Home Waste:
Soaps and detergents used in the cleaning of utensils, washing floor and clothes pollute water.

(c) Industrial Waste:
The industrial wastes which has a lot of fatal chemicals is directly flown into rivers, ponds.

Question 2.
Mention the measures to check water and air pollution?
Answer:

• Water pollution can be checked by avoiding to flow chemicals of industries and dirty wastes mixed in water in rivers, seas, canals, lakes directly.
• To use the electric Crematorium to bum the dead bodies.
• To take help from voluntary bodies like Sulabh International to stop pollution occurring due to flow of excreta.

To check the air pollution the following measures should be taken:
Construction of chimneys in plants should be very high and to be inspected by pollution Control Board.

• To ban the use of raw coal as wood as fuel.
• To close the open sewage.
• To make aware the people and deforestation be stopped.
• Effective laws should be enacted.

Question 3.
Write a note on terrorist problem.
Answer:
Terrorism is a violent struggle against a country. It is a crime against humanity. It has no boundaries. They commit crimes and cause bloodshed without any sense. Terrorism is a goal-oriented political weapon who uses violence to achieve their political motivations.

It uses violence to cause widespread panic fear to achieve their goal. Today the world is facing most serious challenge in the form of terrorism. It causes a great loss of human being and their belongings.

Terrorism is goal-oriented political weapon. That’s why terrorist resort to violence to create an atmosphere of fear and terror. They always targeted innocent people who are unable to resist, to cause fear. They also kill leaders, destroy national property and attack armed forces.

The action of violence is thus performed to make people bared and to convey the message to the government and the public. They make the government demoralize and persuade to take the action of violence. It is serious problem for V humanity.

Question 4.
Describe the effects of globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation brings a lot of changes in India. Indian government adopted a new economic policy in start of the last decade of the 20th century. Private sectors are taking many activities which was earlier carried out by government sponsored public sector. It changes the social, economical and political way in India.

Many foreign companies are established. Goods, which were consider luxury items come to reach in the general public. The telecommunications sector has been enormous growth. In the past, people have to struggle a lot to get a telephone connection but now we have about 20 million cellular phone users and it is growing from day- to-day.

Opportunities for high skilled persons increases. Now they, are highly paid. Unfortunately, everything do not bring always good and India cannot left untouched to the bad impact of globalisation. The greatest problem of this phenomenon is unemployment. It is still increasing. The gap between have’s and have’s not widened. Competition among peoples increased. That makes them more vulnerable to bed practices.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 25 Antarctica

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 25 Antarctica Text Book Exercise

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 25 Antarctica Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which hemisphere Antarctica is located?
Answer:
Antarctica lies completely in the Southern Hemisphere with the South Pole almost in its centre.

Question 2.
What is the place of Antarctica in size in the world?
Answer:
In size, it is the fifth largest continent.

Question 3.
What is a iceberg?
Answer:
A large mass of ice floating in the sea. It is at least five metres high above the sea level.

Question 4.
What is ice cap?
Answer:
An area of a few square kilometres which is covered with snow and ice permanently is called ice caps.

Question 5.
What is a Krill?
Answer:
Krill is a fish found in Antarctica. Krills are very smaller fish. They are found in swarms which are the food of whale, real, penguins and birds. They provide a variety of products such as fish meat, krill meat paste and krill protein.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 25 Antarctica Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe about the exploration of Antarctica continent?
Answer:
The mainland of Antarctica Continent firs discovered in 1820 but real exploration began only in the Twenties century. After captain Cook one by one travellers went in reach of this snow filled continent and many teams among them wire buried under the sheet of ice.

Captain Robert Falcon Scot of British Navy was successful. He left for Antarctica in 1910 with his team and reached there in 1912 but there he found the flag of Norway which was hoisted by first Norwegian traveller Roald Amansen who had reached there on 20 Oct. 1911. The India has also sent team of scientists to this continent. The Indian team has explored a sea mountain.

Question 2.
Describe the physical structure of Antarctica?
Answer:
About ninety-eight percent of Antarctica is permanently covered by ice. It has an average thickness of two to five kilometres. A Greater part of Antarctica is rugged and mountainous. Shores are steep. Queen Maud Range divides the continent in almost two halves. Mt. Erebus a five volcano is the most picturesque land-mark on the continent.

Question 3.
Why Antarctica is called the White Continent?
Answer:
It is the only continent in the world, which remains completely frozen throughout the year. An endless white sheet of ice covers the continent hence it is also known as the white continent.

Question 4.
Write about the resources of Antarctica.
Answer:
The land surface in Antarctica is mostly barren and is very cold desert. The sea is very generous and bountiful. Penguins, the sea birds and seals are abundant. Whales are also found here. The international law prohibits killing of these sea animals on large scale to preserve the environment.

A small fish called Krill is found in swarns extending upto 100 metres or more. They may provide a variety of products such as fish meat. Krill is full of protein and is also used as meat paste.

It is believed that precious animals are hidden below the surface of ice sheet in Antarctica deposits of coal, iron ore and copper have been found but due to severe hindrance there minerals have been not utilized till today.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 25 Antarctica Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describing the vegetation and life of Antarctica explain why people cannot lives permanently here?
Answer:
The land surface is mostly barren and is very cold. The paucity of sun rays creates hurdles in growth in trees so there is little vegetation here and the area where vegetation grow in few weeks of summer. Lichens, watergrass and fungus are the vegetation here.

There are over 200 species of lichens in this continent. The insects on the land are minute invertebrate but sea is bountiful. Penguins, blue whales, seal, albastross and Krill fish the prominently found. Antarctica is the most coldest and isolated continent. The fast ice winds blow and there is ice everywhere. In such harsh climate life is impossible so the human beings cannot live here permanently.

Question 2.
Why Antarctica is called the dedicated continent for science? Write about the camps established by Indian in Antarctica?
Answer:
Though Antarctica is a vast size but it has little offer by way of material resources but it provides unique opportunities to scientists to learn more about the earth. This continent, therefore, is also called a continent dedicated for science. People have created liveable environments whether the stations established by them.

Since 1982 to 2006 Indian scientists have been visiting Antarctica continent. They have established a unmanned permanent base camp ‘Dakshin Gangotri’ for this purpose in 1992. Indian scientists have also explored a sea mountain during their visit and they have named it ‘Indra’. In 1988-89 the VIIIth Indian team established a manned friendship camp, 70 km far from‘Dakshin Gangotri’.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 Economic Development Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 Economic Development

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 11 Text Book Exercise

Choose the most suitable alternative:

Question 1.
In India the total percent of working people in agriculture is:
(a) 50 percent
(b) 60 percent
(c) 70 percent
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) 60 percent

Question 2.
The total contribution of agriculture in. Indian G.D.P. is:
(a) 26 percent
(b) 36 percent
(c) 42 percent
(d) 100 percent
Answer:
(a) 26 percent

Question 3.
The industrial development:
(a) lessens dependence on agriculture
(b) improves life style
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) improves life style

Fill up the blanks:

1. India, Nepal, China, Pakistan are ……………. countries and Japan, Singapore, Britain and U.S. are …………. countries.
2. The industrial development brings ………….. for the country and citizens.
3. The modern iron and steel plant was set up ……………
4. The cotton cloths from India are exported to prominent countries …………..
5. The slow pace of economy increases ……………..

Answer:

1. developing, developed
2. Prosperity
3. At Porto-nova in Tamil Nadu in 1830
4. U.S., Britain, Russia, France, Eastern Countries of Europe, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka and African countries
5. Poverty.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 11 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is poverty?
Answer:
Poverty is the inability to secure minimum requirements of life, health and efficiency. One is unable to get minimum requirements for life such as food, clothing, housing, education and health due to poverty. Poverty leaves bad effect on the life and health of man.

Question 2.
What is unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation in which people are willing to work for income but they are unable to find work.

Question 3.
Which are mineral-based industries?
Answer:
The industries based on raw material like iron, steel, cement, chemicals are called mineral-based industry.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 11 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How was our economy in ancient times?
Answer:
In the ancient times Indian economy was rich and developed. India was independent in economy. The industry of pottery, metal, buildings were in advanced stage during the Indus Valley Civilization. In the medieval time Indian silk was in so high demand that Roman people were ready to give gold equal to the weight of Indian silk, Indian trade of cotton, silk, cotton clothes and spices was on the peak and our economy was rich in ancient times.

Question 2.
What do you mean by small scale industry?
Answer:
Cottage and small scale industries is the traditional industry as it needs little money and goods are made by the family members. The farmers when they have no work they earn money by this industry. These industries produce various traditional products like baskets, small toys, bides, ropes, envelopes, papad, mats, bade, spices and weaving items etc.

Question 3.
What is sustainable agriculture?
Answer;
Most of the farmers in India still use traditional tools for farming. They cannot make use of refined seeds, fertilizers and pesticides due to’poor economy and it also affects production. Their food production is consumed by their family members.

Question 4.
Write the names of Cottage industries.
Answer:
Some of the Cottage industries are:

• Small toys making
• Carpet weaving
• Papad making
• Basket making
• Bidi making
• Rope making
• Badi making
• Mat weaving
• Paper envelope making
• Spices preparing etc.

Question 5.
What is Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Programmer?
Answer:
The Central Government has passed the “Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Yojna” Bill, 2005. Under this bill a provision has been made to provide to one adult person of every family a 100 days job in the periphery of 5 Km near his residence. This scheme will be in force in 600 districts of the country by 2010.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 11 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How agriculture is helpful in economic growth?
Answer:
The whole country depends on agriculture for its food requirements. Through agriculture, we get cereals, vegetables and fruit; it also supplies raw materials to various industries. Many industries, in India, depend on agriculture for their raw material for example, jute, sugar, cotton, cotton textile. Good crops raise the farmer’s income. With increase of income, the farmers purchase various items of daily life manufactured in industry. Agriculture is the backbone of our economic growth.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral-based industry.
Answer:
Such industries based on raw material like iron, steel, cement, chemicals are called mineral-based industries. The first iron and steel plant was set up at Porto nova in Tamil Nadu in 1830. Modern Iron and Steel plant was set up in Jamshedpur in 1907. India has chemical industries under which fertilizers, artificial fibers, rubber, plastic goods, paints and medicines are made. Transport equipment like rail engine, motor cars, bus, truck, motorcycle, aeroplane and ships industries have been set up in India. These industries provide employments in large number to our people.

Question 3.
Describe the major economic problems.
Answer:
The major economic problems are:

1. Pulsation growth
2. Poverty
3. Unemployment
4. Price List
5. Corruption

1. Pulsation growth:
The rapid growth of population in India is the major problem in the development. In 1951 the population was 36 crore which increased to 102 crore by 2002. The main causes of population growth are poverty, illiteracy, desire to love boy to run family and child marriages. The population increase impedes in the economic growth of nation. This leaves impact oil the lifestyle of people, the expansion of food grains and industries are not possible at the rate of increase in population.

2. Poverty:
Poverty is a very complex problem and requirements include minimum needs in respect of food, clothing, housing, education and health. Poverty leaves bad effect on the life and health of man. The working capacity decreases and poverty continues. Some people are living below the poverty line. Poverty is an obstacle in economic growth.

3. Unemployment:
A person who is not gainfully employed is called an unemployed person. In other words, unemployment is a situation in which a person mentally and physically is willing to work for income but is
Project Work unable to find it. Even the educated and skilled persons are unemployed in our country. Its main cause is slow growth of our economy.

4. Price List:
The continuous and uncontrolled price rise leads the economy to crises and poor became poorer. The price rise increases economic inequality and poverty, with the sincere efforts of govt, and citizens the price rise could be brought under control.

5. Corruption:
To get own’s word done in favor people pay either money or other things to a person or any agency is called corruption. Stealing of taxation also corruption. The corruption creates economic inequality. All the above problems are obstacles in our rapid economic growth.

project work:
Fill in the given table with the prices of 10 goods used in your home.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Our National Goals (a) Achievement of National Goals (b) Democracy and Citizen Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Our National Goals (a) Achievement of National Goals (b) Democracy and Citizen

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 5 Text Book Exercise

Choose the correct option of the following

Question 1.
Our national goals?
(a) Democracy
(b) Kingship
(c) imperialism
(d ) Dictatorship
Answer:
(a) Democracy

Question 2.
Who said need peace in the world?
(a) Sardar vallab bai Patel
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Lal Baliadur Shastre.
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 3.
Why is disarmament a must?
(a) for the world peace
(b) for war
(c) for forming government
(d) for atomic arms
Answer:
(a) for the world peace

Question 4.
Voting on the basis of caste and religion makes democracy ?
(a) Strong
(b) weak
(c) Protects our rights
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) weak

Question 5.
Age is fixed for Adult Franchise?
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 21 years
(d) 25 years
Answer:
(b) 18 years

Fill up the blanks:

1. in the constitution total …………… Fundamental rights, have been conferred
2. Democracy is the rule by…………
3. There is freedom of ………….. in secularism
4. Non-Alignment means to be ……………… from armed lobbies
5. Democracy , chief factors are ……………. equality and ………..

Answers:

1. Six
2. people
3. religion
4. separation
5. Democracy Freedom

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 5 very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Answer:
Individual freedom civil freedom. political economic, social and Religious freedom

Question 2.
Write meaning of equality
Answer:
The equal opportunity being made available by the state for all development of citizen is called equality

Question 3.
What is representative democracy?
Answer:
The democracy in which the people elect their representative to form govt is Know representative democracy

Question 4.
Why each citizen should be literate in democracy
Answer:
So that they can make use of their voting rights correctly

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Adult Franchise.
answer:
Indian constitution has provided voting right to the citizens Every citizen who has attained the age of 18 has the right to vote This right is available to all this is Adult Franchise.

Question 2.
What are our national goals
Answer:
National goals are defined and deter-mused. There are necessary for path of progress The national goals are democracy socialism Secularism and Internationale peace.

Question 3.
Write the true meaning of just-ire
Answer:
The justice indicates about correct genuine and logical facts Justice is that state in democratic society where individual rights are protected and law and order is maintained in the Society.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions 

Question 1.
Why International peace and cooperation are important?
Answer:
International peace and co-operation is necessary for the citizens of the country. This works for the welfare of the people. This reduces arms and ammumitions procurement. The country can spend the major part of resources on social and economic developments. The progress and prosperity of the country depends upon the international peace and co-operation

Question 2.
What are the conditions required for the success of democracy?
Answer:
In a democratic system, the people play important role in electing the govt. The citizen should be aware of his duties so that govt, could work in the interest of the people. Every citizen should have equal rights with freedom. All the section of the society get equal opportunities to make progress without any discrimination. The citizen should follow the constitution and show respect to its ideals, institutions, national flag and national anthem.

Project Work

Question 1.
Make a chart of the Key Points of National Goals.
Answer:

• Democracy
• Freedom
• Equality
• Justice
• Secularism
• International Peace and Cooperation
• Non – Aligned Movement
• Disarmament

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 8th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 घन और घनमूल Intext Questions

MP Board Class 8th Maths Chapter 7 पाठान्तर्गत प्रश्नोत्तर

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 117

भूमिका हार्डी-रामानुजन संख्या

प्रश्न 1.
1729 सबसे छोटी हार्डी-रामानुजन संख्या है। इस प्रकार की अनेक संख्याएँ हैं : उनमें से कुछ हैं 4104 (2,16; 9,5), 13832 (18, 20; 2,024)। कोष्ठकों में दी हुई संख्याएँ लेकर इसकी जाँच कीजिए।
हल:
जाँच –

• 4104 = 4096 + 8 = 16³ + 2³ और
• 4104 = 3375 + 729 = 15³ + 9³
• 13832 = 5832 + 8000 = 18³ + 20³
• और 13832 = 13824 + 8 = 24³ + 2³

घन –

प्रश्न 1.
1 सेमी भुजा वाले कितने घनों से 2 सेमी भजा वाला एक घन बनेगा?
हल:
2 सेमी भुजा वाला एक घन बनाने के लिए 1 सेमी भुजा वाले 2 x 2 x 2 = 8 घनों की आवश्यकता होगी।

प्रश्न 2.
1 सेमी भुजा वाले कितने घनों से 3 सेमी भुजा वाला एक घन बनेगा?
हल:
3 सेमी भुजा वाला एक घन बनाने के लिए 1 सेमी भुजा वाले 3 x 3 x 3 = 27 घनों की आवश्यकता होगी।

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 118

प्रश्न 1.
क्या आप बता सकते हैं कि इनको ये नाम क्यों दिए गए हैं?
हल:
हाँ, बता सकते हैं। इनको ये नाम इसलिए दिए गए हैं क्योंकि इसमें एक संख्या को स्वयं उसी से तीन बार गुणा किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
नीचे 1 से 10 तक की संख्याओं के घन दिए गए हैं:

पूर्ण कीजिए।
हल:

प्रश्न 3.
यहाँ 1 से 1000 तक दस पूर्ण घन हैं। (इसकी जाँच कीजिए), 1 से 100 तक कितने पूर्ण धन हैं?
हल:
जाँच –

• 1 = 1 x 1 x 1
• 8 = 2 x 2 x 2
• 27 = 3 x 3 x 3
• 64 = 4 x 4 x 4
• 125 = 5 x 5 x 5
• 216 = 6 x 6 x 6
• 343 = 7 x 7 x 7
• 512 = 8 x 8 x 8
• 729 = 9 x 9 x 9
• 1000 = 10 x 10 x 10.

यहाँ स्पष्ट है कि संख्या को उसी संख्या से 3 बार गुणा करने पर संख्याएँ 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 343, 512, 729 और 1000 प्राप्त होती है।
∴ 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 343, 512, 729 और 1000 पूर्ण घन संख्याएँ हैं।
यहाँ 1 से 100 तक 1, 8, 27 और 64, 4 पूर्ण घन हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
सम संख्याओं के घनों को देखिए। क्या ये सभी सम हैं? आप विषम संख्याओं के घनों के बारे में क्या कह सकते हैं?
हल:
हाँ, सम संख्याओं के सभी घन सम हैं। विषम संख्याओं के घन विषम हैं।

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 119

प्रश्न 1.
ऐसी कुछ संख्याओं पर विचार कीजिए जिनकी इकाई का अंक 1 है। इनमें से प्रत्येक संख्या का घन ज्ञात कीजिए। उस संख्या के घन के इकाई के अंक के बारे में आप क्या कह सकते हैं, जिसकी इकाई का अंक 1 है।?
इसी प्रकार, उन संख्याओं के घनों की इकाई के अंकों के बारे में पता कीजिए, जिनकी इकाई के अंक 2,3,4 इत्यादि हैं।
हल:
1, 11, 21, 31,41,… आदि कुछ ऐसी संख्याएँ हैं जिनके इकाई का अंक 1 है। इन संख्याओं के घन हैं –

• 1³ = 1
• 11³ = 1331
• 21³ = 9261
• 31³ = 29791
• 41³ = 68921

आदि यहाँ यह स्पष्ट है कि ऐसी संख्याएँ जिनके इकाई का अंक 1 है उन संख्याओं के घनों का इकाई अंक भी 1 है।
इन संख्याओं के घन जिनके इकाई अंक 2, 3, 4, …… आदि हैं –

• 2 → 23 = 8 12³ = 1728 – 22³ = 10648
• 3 → 33 = 27 13³ =2197 – 23³ = 12167
• 4 → 43 = 64 14³ = 2744 – 24³ = 13824
• 5 → 53 = 125 15³ = 3375 – 25³ = 15625
• 6 → 63 = 216 16³ =4096 – 26³ = 17576
• 7 → 73 = 343 17³ = 4913 – 27³ = 19683
• 8 → 83 = 512 18³ = 5832 – 28³ = 21952
• 9 → 93 = 729 19³ = 6859 – 29³ =24389
• 10 → 103 = 1000 20³ = 8000 – 30³ = 27000 .. इत्यादि।

यहाँ यह स्पष्ट है कि जिन संख्याओं के इकाई अंक 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 0 हैं उनके घनों के इकाई अंक क्रमशः 8, 7, 4, 5, 6, 3, 2, 9 और 0 हैं।

प्रयास कीजिए (क्रमांक 7.1)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित संख्याओं में से प्रत्येक के घन के इकाई अंक ज्ञात कीजिए:

1. 3331
2. 8888
3. 149
4. 1005
5. 1024
6. 77
7. 5022
8. 53

हल:
संख्याओं के घन के इकाई अंक –

1. 3331 → 1³ = 1 x 1 x 1 = 1; इकाई अंक =1
2. 8888 → 8³ = 8 x 8 x 8 = 512; इकाई अंक = 2
3. 149 → 9³ = 9 x 9 x 9 = 729; इकाई अंक = 9
4. 1005 → 5³ = 5x5x5 = 125; इकाई अंक = 5
5. 1024 → 4³ = 4 x 4 x 4 = 64; इकाई अंक = 4
6. 77 → 7³ = 7 x 7 x 7 = 343; इकाई अंक = 3
7. 5022 → 2³ = 2 x 2 x 2 = 8; इकाई अंक = 8
8. 53 → 3³ = 3 x 3 x 3 = 27; इकाई अंक = 7

कुछ रोचक प्रतिरूप

क्रमागत विषम संख्याओं को जोड़ना

विषम संख्याओं के योगों के निम्नलिखित प्रतिरूप को देखिए –

• 1 = 1 = 1³
• 3 + 5 = 8 = 2³
• 7 + 9 + 11 = 27 = 3³
• 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 = 64 = 4³
• 21 + 23 + 25 + 27 + 29 = 125 = 5³

प्रश्न 1.
क्या यह रोचक नहीं है? योग 10³ प्राप्त करने के लिए कितनी क्रमागत विषम संख्याओं की आवश्यकता होगी?
हल:
हाँ, यह रोचक है। उपर्युक्त प्रतिरूप से स्पष्ट है कि योग 103 प्राप्त करने के लिए 10 क्रमागत विषम संख्याओं की आवश्यकता होगी।

प्रयास कीजिए (क्रमांक 7.2)

प्रश्न 1.
उपर्युक्त प्रतिरूप का प्रयोग करते हुए, निम्नलिखित संख्याओं को विषम संख्याओं के योग के रूप में व्यक्त कीजिए –

1. 6³
2. 8³
3. 7³

हल:

1. 6³ = 31 + 33 + 35 + 37 + 39 + 41 = 216
2. 8³ = 57 + 59 + 61 + 63 + 65 + 67 + 69 + 71 = 512
3. 7³ = 43 + 45 + 47 + 49 + 51 + 53 + 55 = 343

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित प्रतिरूप को देखिए:

• 2³ – 1³ = 1 + 2 x 1 x 3
• 3³ – 2³ = 1 + 3 x 2 x 3
• 4³ – 3³ = 1 + 4 x 3 x 3

उपर्युक्त प्रतिरूप का प्रयोग करते हुए, निम्नलिखित के मान ज्ञात कीजिए:

1. 7³ – 6³
2. 12³ – 11³
3. 20³ – 19³
4. 51³ – 50³

हल:
उपर्युक्त प्रतिरूप का प्रयोग करते हुए –

1. 7³ – 6³ = 1 + 7 x 6 x 3 = 1 + 126 = 127
2. 12³ – 11³ = 1 + 12 x 11 x 3 = 1 + 396 = 397
3. 20³ – 19³ = 1 + 20 x 19 x 3 = 1 + 1140 = 1141
4. 51³ – 50³ = 1 + 51 x 50 x 3 = 1 + 7650 = 7651

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 120

प्रश्न 1.
यदि किसी संख्या के अभाज्य गुणनखण्ड में प्रत्येक गुणनखण्ड तीन बार आता है, तो क्या वह संख्या एक पूर्ण घन होती है?
हल:
यदि किसी संख्या के अभाज्य गुणनखण्डन में प्रत्येक गुणनखण्ड तीन बार आता है, तो वह संख्या एक पूर्ण घन होती

प्रश्न 2.
क्या 729 पूर्ण घन है?
हल:
∴ 729 = 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3
प्रश्न 3.
क्या आपको याद है कि a^m x b^m = (a x b)^m होता है?
हल:
हाँ, याद है कि a^m x b^m = (a x b)^m

प्रयास कीजिए (क्रमांक 7.3)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संख्याएँ पूर्ण घन हैं?

1. 400
2. 3375
3. 8000
4. 15625
5. 9000
6. 6859
7. 2025
8. 10648.

हल:
1.

संख्याओं के त्रिक बनाने पर 2 x 5 x 5 शेष रहता है।
अतः 400 पूर्ण घन नहीं है।

2.

यहाँ प्रत्येक गुणनखण्ड तीन बार आया है।
अत: 3375 एक पूर्ण घन है।

3.

यहाँ प्रत्येक गुणनखण्ड तीन बार आया है।
अतः 8000 एक पूर्ण घन है।

4.

यहाँ प्रत्येक गुणनखण्ड तीन बार आया है।
अतः 15625 एक पूर्ण घन है।

5.

संख्याओं के त्रिक बनाने पर 3 x 3 शेष रहता है।
अत: 9000 पूर्ण घन नहीं है।

6.

यहाँ प्रत्येक गुणनखण्ड तीन बार आया है।
अत: 6859 एक पूर्ण घन है।

7.

संख्याओं के त्रिक बनाने पर 3 x 5 x 5 शेष रहता है।
अत: 2025 एक पूर्ण घन नहीं है।

8.

यहाँ प्रत्येक गुणनखण्ड तीन बार आया है।
अतः 10648 एक पूर्ण घन है।

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 121
सोचिए, चर्चा कीजिए और लिखिए (क्रमांक 7.1)

प्रश्न 1.
जाँच कीजिए कि निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संख्याएँ पूर्ण घन हैं –

1. 2700
2. 16000
3. 64000
4. 900
5. 125000
6. 36000
7. 21600
8. 10000
9. 27000000
10. 1000

इन पूर्ण घनों में आप क्या प्रतिरूप देखते हैं?
हल:
प्रत्येक संख्या के अभाज्य गुणनखण्ड करने पर,
1. 2700 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 5
संख्याओं के त्रिक बनाने पर 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 शेष रहता है।
अतः 2700 एक पूर्ण घन नहीं है।

2. 16000 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 x 5
संख्याओं के त्रिक बनाने पर 2 शेष रहता है।
अत: 16000 एक पूर्ण घन नहीं है।

3. 64000 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 x 5
यहाँ प्रत्येक गुणनखण्ड तीन बार आया है।
अतः 64000 एक पूर्ण घन है।

4. 900 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 5
यहाँ हम त्रिक बनाकर देखते हैं, तो किसी भी संख्या का त्रिक नहीं बनता है।
अत: 900 एक पूर्ण घन नहीं है।

5. 125000 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5
यहाँ प्रत्येक गुणनखण्ड तीन बार आया है।
अत: 125000 एक पूर्ण घन है।

6. 36000 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 5 x 5
संख्याओं के त्रिक बनाने पर 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 शेष रहता है।
अतः 36000 एक पूर्ण घन नहीं है।

7. 21600 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5
संख्याओं के त्रिक बनाने पर 2 x 5 शेष रहता है।
अत: 21600 एक पूर्ण घन नहीं है।

8. 10000 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5
संख्याओं के त्रिक बनाने पर 2 x 5 शेष रहता है।
अतः 10000 एक पूर्ण घन नहीं है।

9. 27000000 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5
यहाँ प्रत्येक संख्या तीन-तीन बार आयी है।
अत: 27000000 एक पूर्ण घन है।

10. 1000 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 x 5
यहाँ प्रत्येक संख्या तीन बार आई है।
अत: 1000 एक पूर्ण घन है।

MP Board Class 8th Maths Solutions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 National Integration Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 National Integration

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 4 Text Book Exercise

Choose the correct option of the following.

Question 1.
Which feeling inspires citizen in national integration?
(a) Nationalism
(b) Religion
(c) Casteism
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Nationalism

Question 2.
How many Indian languages have been mentioned in the constitution?
(a) 14
(b) 18
(c) 22
(d) 26.
Answer:
(c) 22

Fill up the blanks:

1. There are provisions of …………. fundamental rights in Indian constitution.
2. Symbol of Asoka is …………. emblem.
3. In ancient period varna system was based on ………..
4. India was divided in the year …………

Answer:

1. six
2. National
3. Karma
4. 1947

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by National Integration?
Answer:
National integration is feeling of oneness among the people. irrespective of caste. religion and language.

Question 2.
what do you mean by secularism?
Answer:
In secularism every religion has the right to practice his own religion.

Question 3.
What do you mean by unity in diversity?
Answer:
Despite numerous religions. regions. languages, castes in our country India is a unit. This is unity in diversity.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the major defects of caste system?
Answer:
Major defects of caste system:

• Caste system demanded society into high and low classes.
• Upper castes exploit the lower caste people.
• Caste system creates trouble in the economic progress and unity of nation.
• Pressure of castes influence the politics

Question 2.
Which are our National Symbols?
Answer:
National Flag. National Anthem. National emblem are our national symbols

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write notes on fundamental rights and duties?
Answer:
Indian constitution has provision of six Fundamental rights. The rights are enjoyed by all Indian without any discrimination. Provisions have been made in the constitution to provide opportunity for the development of citizens like equality, freedom and social justice etc. The interest of weaker sections of the society has been protected and safeguarded.

Fundamental Duties:
The duties have also been mentioned in the constitution it is duty of all citizens to respect the principles of the constitution. institutions, national flag and national anthem Every citizen mam-tam the the integrate and of country the citizen should project propriety and create brother hood

Question 2.
elaborate separation in detail?
Answer:
Regionalism give birth to separatism To Demand a independent state out of the country is called separatism sevent cast and languages are prevalent in country this diver-city leads to dissatisfaction and leads to a demand for separate state. the border states are often influenced by such feelings and creates a stage for separation the external force support. this in country this en-comics of country and fundamental lists choose to follow the path of violence and terrorism the feeling of separation could be avoided by social justice decentralization and balanced development.

Question 3.
Describe the chief constituents of National integration?
Answer:
There are numerous forces which lead to the promotion of national integration. Some of these forces can be summed up as under:

• Secularism is one force That unites people. a state ought not to favor any religion and should respect all  the religions alike this will ornate feeling of togetherness.
• uniformity of Law means that same law should apply on all the individual irrespective of any distinction the Whole country should be under the same law.
• national festivals and symbols together with a long liberation struggle gives the people feelings of oneness.
• climantio conditions conman economic problems, development issues, etc, etc, alike, faced by the Indian in conman.

Question 4.
mention the disruptive factions of national integration?
Answer:
the factors which hamper national integration are:
1. communal-ism:
communal-ism has always been a major threat to our country unity. it is based on ignorance and selfish interests of different sections. it leads to communal riots in the country it was communal-ism which split India into two country India and Pakistan in 194.

2. Linguism:
Linguism means love for ones own language. its but natural language that people love their language should not breed narrow mildness and hatred for the language of others. there should be not conflict between people of different state s and culture.

3. Caste-ism:
Caste feelings also Weaken country s unity people with strong caste feeling forget the interest of their country and try to serve their caste only Cast-rem is no less a danger to national unity and integrity.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 British Policies and Administration in India After 1858 Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 British Policies and Administration in India After 1858

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 8 Text Book Exercise

Choose the correct option of the following questions

Question 1.
The Proclamation of Queen Victoria were made in:
(a) 1757
(b) 3858
(c) 1957
(d) 1965
Answer:
(b) 3858

Question 2.
The rule of India entrusted into hands of Queen of England.
(a) By 1858 Act
(b) By 1861 Act
(c) By 1865 Act
(d) By 1876 Act
Answer:
(a) By 1858 Act

Question 3.
First Municipality in India was established:
(a) In 1865 at Madras
(b) In 1J867 in Bengal
(c) In 1868 in Uttar Pradesh
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 5.
The head of Indian Secretariat was called:
(a) Indian Secretary
(b) Viceroy
(c) Governor General
(d) Secretary
Answer:
(a) Indian Secretary

Fill in the blanks:

1. To help Viceroy a members …………. council was formed.
2. The British economic policies were formed to protect the interests of …………..
3. In 1876 the minimum age for Civil Services was …………..
4. To implement Wood Proposals Lord Rippon constituted ………… Commission.

Answer:

1. Four
2. Britishers
3. 19
4. Hunter

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 8 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
By which Act Queen of England was made Empress of India.
Answer:
By Ordinance of 1858.

Question 2.
After 1858 how was the Governor General Addressed.
Answer:
The Governor General was addressed as Viceroy.

Question 3.
Who was called the father of local governance?
Answer:
Lord Rippon.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 8 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the proclamation of Queen in short.
Answer:
The rule of the company was replaced by rule of the Crown. The Company territories were now governed by English government. Indian people and rulers got some rights and privileges.

Question 2.
What changes were made by 1861 Act.
Answer:
The Legislative Council was enlarged by the addition of 6 to 12 more members and also introduced provincial councils.

Question 3.
Describe the administrative division after 1858.
Answer:
It transferred power to British crown. A minister called the Secretary of State for India was made responsible for the government of India to the British Parliament. Viceroy replaced Governor General title.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 8 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about the decisions of 1858 Act.
Answer:
The decisions of 1858 Act are:
1. The control of India passed on completely to British Government. It was announced that India would be governed by and in the name of the British monarch through a Secretary of State.

2. Before 1858, there were two bodies in Britain which controlled the British policies in India, viz, the Board of Control and the Court of Directors of the East India Company. Now a minister of the British Government called the Secretary of State for India, was given complete control over the Government of India. Like other ministers of the British Government, he was responsible to the British Parliament.

3. To advise the Secretary of State, the Indian Council was created. This Council had no real powers and could only advise the Secretary of State who could ignore the advise of the Council at any time the liked.

4. Before 1858, the Governor General generally acted on his own within the framework of the general policies laid down in Britain. The advanced means of transport and communication reduced the freedom enjoyed by the earlier Governor Generals of India. Now, the Viceroy had to inform the latest developments of India to the Secretary of State thereafter he was to work according to his instructions and others.

Question 2.
Write short note on Army Organisation?
Answer:
Before 1858, the Presidencies of Bombay, Madras and Calcutta had their separate armies. Each Presidency consisted of the Indian soldiers, units of the European soldiers and the regiments of the British soldiers – the latter two were combined.

In 1859, the armies of the three Presidencies were unified and the entire army, of the British India came under the control of the commander – in – chief. The Indian soldiers were excluded from the artillery and the arsenals; The number of the European soldiers was increased. For every two Indian soldiers, one European soldier was recruited. All the officers in the army were to be the Europeans.

Question 3.
Give short Information about the local administration in brief.
Answer:
After 1857, the British government encouraged the local government units such as the municipalities and district boards. Thus, the system of administration was decentralized. The local bodies were given the tasks of providing education, health services, water supply, and the like to the people. Some important changes were made in the local government in 1882, the old system was broken down.

Matters like sanitation, roads, water supply and street lighting were neglected. After 1857, Municipal committees were set up in towns, they levied taxes to meet expenditure on local administration and works. After 1882, the district boards were set up but they consisted of only officials and not elected members. After 1882, the elected members were introduced but only with property were entitled to vote.

Question 4.
Evaluate the British economic policies in precise?
Answer:
British government reorganized the financial administration after 1858. The economic policies followed by Britishers drained the Indian resources and help the Britishers. The British government abolished the tax on Import and allowed free trade in India.

This lured lot of foreign companies to India and caused disastrous effect on Indian industries. The prominent industries that suffered due to the British financial policy were Jute, Indigo, Textiles, Woolen, Tea, Rubber, Coffee, Coal, Iron, and Steam ships. The financial policy of British government completely halted the progress of India.

Question 5.
Describe the British education policy.
Answer:
The British education policy was not for the welfare of Indians but was more for promoting Christian religion and imparting English education. Missionaries established in 1820 promoted English language. In 1854 Woods proposals suggested to promote English languages with other Indian languages.

There was proposal to train teachers and to provide financial grant to educational institutions on secular basis. In 1904 University Act was passed for affiliation of the University and to appoint professors. The 1919 Act entrusted the responsibility of education to provincial councils. The British education policy played a major role in motivating Indians towards nationality

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions