Bhagya

MP Board Class 9th General English Grammar Translation

Continuous Tenses

(1) Present Continuous Tense Structure-am/is/are+Verb+ing+Object etc.

(A) Affirmative Sentences

(i) मैं खाना रहा हूँ।
I am eating food.

(ii) हम नावें तैरा रहे हैं।
We are floating boats.

(iii) रीना बैडमिंटन खेल रही है।
Reena is playing badminton.

(B) Negative Sentences

(i) तुम सुन नहीं रहे हो।
You are not listening.

(ii) वह खाना नहीं पका रही है।
She is not cooking food.

(iii) वे हँस नहीं रहे हैं।
They are not laughing.

(C) Interrogative Sentences

(i) क्या वे खेल रहे हैं?
Are they playing?

(ii) राम क्या कर रहा है?
What is Ram doing?

(iii) आप क्यों रो रहे हैं?
Why are you crying?

(iv) क्या वो आ रहा है?
Is he coming?

(2) Past Continuous Tense
Structure-Subject + was/were + Verb + ing + object etc.

(A) Affirmative Sentences

(i) मैं चित्र बना रहा था।
I was drawing picture.

(ii) वे सो रहे थे।
They were sleeping.

(iii) वह दौड़ रही थी।
She was running.

(B) Negative Sentences

(i) पानी नहीं बरस रहा था।
It was not raining.

(ii) मैं चिल्ला नहीं रहा था।
I was not shouting.

(iii) गाड़ी चल नहीं रही थी।
Țhe vehicle was not moving.

(C) Interrogative Sentences

(i) तुम कहाँ जा रहे थे?
Where were you going?

(ii) शीला क्यों हँस रही थीं?
Why was Sheela laughing?

(iii) वे क्या कर रहे थे?
What were they doing?

(3) Future Continuous Tense

Structure-Subject + shall/will + be + Verb + ing + object etc.

(A) Affirmative Sentences

(i) पानी बरस रहा होगा।
It will be raining.

(ii) हम खेल रहे होंगे।
We shall be playing.

(iii) वह पत्र लिख रहा होगा।
He will be writing a letter.

(B) Negative Sentences

(i) वे नहीं आ रहे होंगे।
They will not be coming.

(ii) वह पढ़ नहीं रहा होगा।
He will not be reading.

(iii) मैं खाना नहीं खा रहा हूँगा।
I shall not be eating food.

(C) Interrogative Sentences

(i) वह कैसे खेल रहा होगा?
How will he be playing?

(ii) कौन सो रहा होगा?
Who will be sleeping?

(iii) क्या वह पढ़ रहा होगा?
Will he be playing?

Indefinite Tense

(4) Present Indefinite Tense

(A) Affirmative Sentences Structure -Subject +Verb I/Verb I +s, es, ies + Object

(i) मैं पुस्तक पढ़ता हूँ।
I read the book.

(ii) हम बस को रोकते हैं।
We stop the bus.

(iii) तुम फल लाते हो।
You bring fruit.

(iv) मोहन कानपुर में रहता है।
Mohan lives in Kanpur.

(B) Negative Sentences
Structure-Subject + do not/does not + Verb I + Object

(i) मैं वहाँ नहीं जाता हूँ।
I do not go there.

(ii) तुम कहानी नहीं कहते हो।
You do not tell a story.

(iii) वह यहाँ नहीं आता है।
He does not come here.

(C) Interrogative Sentences
Structure-Do Does + Subject + (not) Verb I + Object etc.?

(i) क्या मैं झूठ बोलता हूँ?
Do I tell a lie?

(ii) क्या तुम मुझे जानते हो?
Do you know me?

(iii) क्या वह पतंग उड़ाता है?
Does he fly kite?

(5) Past Indefinite Tense

(A) Affirmative Sentences Structure-Subject + Verb II + Object etc.

(i) मैंने एक लाल पक्षी देखा।
I saw a red bird.

(ii) हमने टीवी खरीदा।
We bought a TV.

(iii) शाहजहाँ ने ताजमहल बनवाया।
Shahjahan got the Taj Mahal built.

(iv) रहीम ने हॉकी खेली।
Rahim played hockey.

(v) तुमने कार चलाई।
You drove the car.

(B) Negative Sentences
Structure-Subject + did not + Verb I+ Object etc.

(i) मैंने फल नहीं खाये।
I did not eat fruits.

(ii) तुमने हिन्दी का अध्ययन नहीं किया।
You did not study Hindi.

(iii) हमने कपड़े नहीं सुखाये।
We did not dry the clothes.

(C) Interrogative Sentences
Structure-Did + Subject +(not) Verb I + Object etc.?

(i) क्या मैंने तुमसे कभी झगड़ा किया?
Did I ever quarrel with you?

(ii) क्या तुमने फीस चुकाई?
Did you pay the fee?

(ii) क्या शीला ने फूल नहीं सूंघे?
Did Sheela not smell flowers?

(6) Future Indefinite Tense

Structure-Subject + shall/will + Verb I + Object etc. .

(i) मैं एक पत्र लिखूगा।
I shall write a letter.

(ii) हम कल झाँसी जायेंगे।
We shall go to Jhansi tomorrow.

(iii) हम अगले वर्ष नैनीताल जायेंगे।
We shall go to Nainital next year.

(iv) तुम यहाँ नहीं बैठोगे।
You will not sit here.

(v) क्या आप मेरी मदद करेंगे?
Will you help me?

(7) Present Perfect Tense

Structure -Subject + have/has + Verb III + Object etc.

(i) मैंने यह पुस्तक पढ़ ली है।
I have read this book.

(ii) दिनेश ने यह चित्र देखा नहीं है।
Dinesh has not seen this picture.

(iii) सूर्य अस्त हो चुका है।
The sun has set.

(iv) क्या वे भोपाल गये हैं?
Have they gone to Bhopal?

(v) क्या तुमने पत्र लिख लिया है?
Have you written your letter?

(8) Present Perfect Continuous

Tense Structure- Subject + have been/has been + Verb + ing + Object for/since + Time

(i) मैं दो दिन से बुखार से पीड़ित हूँ।
I have been suffering from fever for two days.

(ii) हम इस विद्यालय में तीन वर्ष से पढ़ रहे हैं।
We have been reading in this school for three years.

(iii) तुम तीन बजे से ताश खेल रहे हो।
You have been playing cards since 3 O’clock.

(iv) वे दो घण्टे से फुटबाल खेल रहे हैं।
They have been playing football for two hours.

Miscellaneous
विविध

(i) नेहरू जी महान पुरुष थे।
Nehruji was a great man.

(ii) क्या तुम मेरे मित्र हो?
Are you my friend?.

(iii) तुम्हारा क्या नाम है?
What is your name?

(iv) वह राजेश का भाई है।
He is Rajesh’s brother.

(v) तुम मेरे मित्र नहीं हो।
You are not my friend.

(vi) वहाँ जाओ। Go there.

Exercise

Translate into English

1. ईश्वर तुम्हारी रक्षा करे।
2. मैंने तुम्हें कहाँ नहीं ढूँढा?
3. क्या हम सिनेमा देखने जा रहे हैं?
4. उसका भाई किस कक्षा में पढ़ता है?
5. शान्त रहो।
6. ईश्वर तुम्हें लम्बी उम्र प्रदान करें।
7. मैंने पानी नहीं पिया।
8. एक नाविक और तूफान से डरे !
9. क्या तुम तेज दौड़ सकते हो?
10. रवीन्द्रनाथ टैगोर को कौन नहीं जानता?
11. भिखारी इसी रास्ते से आता है।
12. आप चिरायु हों।
Answer:
1. May God protect you.
2. Where did I not look for you?
3. Are we going to see cinema?
4. In which class does his brother read?
5. Keep silence.
6. May God give you a long life.
7. I did not take water.
8. A sailor and afraid of storms !
9. Can you run fast?
10. Who does not know Rabindra Nath Tagore?
11. The beggar comes this way only:
12. May you live long.

Objective Type Questions

Choose the correct option and answer these questions :

1. All work and no play ……… Jack a dull boy.
(a) make
(b) making
(c) makes
(d) made.
Answer:
(a) make

2. The clothes of the beggar ………… torn.
(a) was
(b) are
(c) is
(d) am.
Answer:
(b) are

3. She ……….. consult the doctor at once.
(a) should
(b) must
(c) would
(d) may.
Answer:
(b) must

4. You ……….. speak the truth.
(a) should
(b) had to
(c) need
(d) shall.
Answer:
(b) had to

5. ………. oil is a necessary article.
(a) a
(b) an
(c) the
(d) 0.
Answer:
(d) 0.

6. I want ………. flowers.
(a) some
(b) any
(c) much
(d) a litle.
Answer:
(a) some

7. She uses ………… eye glass to see the picture.
(a) a
(b) an
(c) the
(d) 0.
Answer:
(b) an

8. The old man is happy ………. me.
(a) by
(b) with
(c) for
(d) in.
Answer:
(b) with

9. I stayed with my uncle ………… two weeks.
(a) for
(b) in
(c) at
(d) form.
Answer:
(a) for

10. He went ………. a bus.
(a) by
(b) on
(c) in
(d) with.
Answer:
(c) in

11. Either he or his mother ………… coming.
(a) is
(b) are
(c) were
(d) 0.
Answer:
(a) is

12. You ……….. reach there on time.
(a) must
(b) should
(c) would
(d) 0.
Answer:
(a) must

13. The news ……….. not true.
(a) is
(b) are
(c) were
(d) 0.
Answer:
(a) is

14. There is ………… rice in the plate.
(a) few
(b) some
(c) many
(d) much.
Answer:
(b) some

15. …….. of you will come.
(a) None
(b) No one
(c) Any
(d) Some.
Answer:
(a) None

MP Board Class 9th English Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Biology Solutions Chapter 15 Biodiversity And Conversation

Biodiversity and Conversation NCERT Text Book Question and Answers

Question 1.
Name the three important components of biodiversity.
Answer:
Three important components of biodiversity are :

1. Genetic diversity.
2. Species diversity.
3. Ecosystem diversity.

Question 2.
How do ecologists estimate the total number of species present in the world?
Answer:
A total number of species is estimated by:

• Rate of discovery of new species
• Determination of species richness is an area.

Question 3.
Give three hypotheses for explaining why tropics show the greatest levels of species richness.
Answer:
There are three different hypotheses proposed by scientists for explaining species richness in the tropics :

1. Tropical latitudes receive more solar energy than temperate regions, which leads to high productivity and high species diversity.
2. Tropical regions have fewer seasonal variations and have a more or less constant environment. This promotes niche specialization and thus, high species richness.
3. Temperate regions were subjected to glaciations during the ice age, while tropical regions remained undisturbed which led to an increase in the species diversity in this region.

Question 4.
What is the significance of the slope of regression in a species-area relationship?
Answer:
The slope regression (z) has a great significance in order to find a species-area relationship, it has been found that in smallar areas (where the species-area relationship is analyzed), the value of slopes of regression is similar regardless of the taxonomic group or the region. However, when a similar analysis done in larger areas, then the slope of regression is much steeper.

Question 5.
What are the major causes of species losses in geographical regions?
Answer:
The following are the major causes for the loss of biodiversity around the world:
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation: Habitats of various organisms are altered or destroyed by uncontrolled and unsustainable human activities such as deforestation, slash and burn agriculture, mining, and urbanization. This results in the breaking up of the habitat into small pieces, which affects the movement of migratory animals and also, decreases the genetic exchange between populations leading to a declination of species.

2. Over-exploitation: Due to the over-hunting and over-exploitation of various plants and animals by humans, many species have become endangered or extinct (such as the tiger and the passenger pigeon).

3. Alien species invasions: Accidental or intentional introduction of non-native species into a habitat has also led to the declination or extinction of indigenous species. For example, the Nile perch introduced in lake Victoria in Kenya led to the extinction of more than two hundred species of native fish in the lake.

4. Co-extinction: In a native habitat, one species is connected to the other in an intricate network. The extinction of one species causes the extinction of other species, which is associated with it in an obligatory way. For example, the extinction of the host will cause the extinction of its parasites.

Question 6.
How is biodiversity important for ecosystem functioning?
Answer:

• Biodiversity is important for the productivity, stability, resilience and health of ecosystems.
• Biodiversity is important not only for ecosystem function but also for very survival of the human race on earth.

Question 7.
What are sacred groves? What is their role in conservation?
Answer:
Sacred groves are forest patches for worship in several parts of India. All the trees and wildlife in them are again treated and given total protection. They are found in khasi and jointia hills in Meghalaya. Westen Ghat regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra, etc. Tribals do not allow anyone to cut even a single branch of tree in these sacred groves thus sacred groves have been free form all types of exploitations.

Question 8.
Among the ecosystem services are control of floods and soil erosion, how is this achieved by the biotic components of the ecosystem?
Answer:
Ecosystem services regulate and protect ecosystems that is essential for maintaining the climate and ecology of the area.
Control of soil erosion:

• Plant roots hold soil particles firmly.
• Plant cover protects soil from erosion by wind and water.
• Plants increase the porosity and fertility of the soil.

Control of floods It is carried by retention of water and prevention of runoff. Litter and humus of plants acts as sponge to retain rainwater. Plants hold soil, so prevents soil erosion. Rainwater does not run – off, so prevents flood as they filter water into soil.

Question 9.
The species diversity of plants (22 %) is much less than that of animals (72 %). What could be the explanations to how animals achieved greater diversifications?
Answer:
Animals have achieved greater diversification than plants due to following reasons:
1. They are mobile and thus can move away from their predators or unfavourable environments. On the other hand plants are fixed and have fewer adaptations to obtain optimum amount of raw materials and sunlight therefore, they show lesser diversity.

2. Animals have well developed nervous system to receive stimuli against external factors and thus can respond to them. On the other hand, plants do not exhibit any such mechanism, thus they show lesser diversity than animals.

Question 10.
Can you think of a situation where we deliberately want to make a species extinct? How would you justify it?
Answer:
Some species are harmful to humans eg: HIV, Smallpox vires, etc. Such species are not part of any food chains or webs. So, their extinction will not affect the ecosystem. And also their extinction can be beneficial to humans. eg:- HIV, smallpox vires, Plasmodium species etc.

Biodiversity and Conversation Other Important Questions and Answers

Biodiversity And Conversation Objective Type Questions

Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Wildlife conservation act was enforced in India in:
(a) 1883
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1982.
Answer:
(b) 1972

Question 2.
Indian board of wildlife was established in:
(a) 1952
(b) 1981
(c) 1971
(d) 1972.
Answer:
(a) 1952

Question 3.
NBPGR is situated at:
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Lucknow
(d) Mumbai.
Answer:
(a) Delhi

Question 4.
Number of biosphere in our country is :
(a) 73
(b) 7
(c) 416
(d) 23
Answer:
(b) 7

Question 5.
National park related to white tiger is:
(a) Kanker
(b) Satipada
(c) Bandhavgarh
(d) Kanha.
Answer:
(c) Bandhavgarh

Question 6.
The first national park of Madhya Pradesh is :
(a) Shivpuri
(b) Bandhavgarh
(c) Kanha
(d) Kanker.
Answer:
(c) Bandhavgarh

Question 7.
Plant fossils national park is situated in :
(a) Shivpuri
(b) Mandala
(c) Kanha
(d) Kanker.
Answer:
(b) Mandala

Question 8.
Kanha national park is famous for:
(a) Rhinoceros
(b) Tiger
(c) Birds
(d) Aligator.
Answer:
(b) Tiger

Question 9.
Bandipur national park is the habitat of:
(a) Deer Project
(b) Peacock Project
(c) Elephant Project
(d) Tiger Project
Answer:
(d) Tiger Project

Question 10.
Animal which is extinct in india:
(a) Hippopotamus
(b) National Park
(c) Cheetah
(d) Wolf
Answer:
(c) Cheetah

Question 11.
Which is the in-situ conservation method:
(a) Tissue culture’
(b) National park
(c) Botanical garden
(d)Cryotest.
Answer:
(b) National park

Question 12.
Which of the following are not done in a wild sanctuary:
(a) Conservation of flora
(b) Conservation of fauna
(c) Use of soil and flora
(d) Prohibition of hunting.
Answer:
(c) Use of soil and flora

Question 13.
In India maximum area covered by forest
(a) Odisha
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 14.
Forest destruction:
(a) Destruction of natural sources
(b) Environmental Pollution
(c) Genetic disorder
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Environmental Pollution

Question 15.
Forest Research Institute (FRI) is situated in:
(a) Shimla
(b) Chennai
(c) Dehradun
(d) Kolkata.
Answer:
(c) Dehradun

Question 16.
World environmental day is celebrated on :
(a) 15th March
(b) 15th April
(c) 4th May
(d) 5th June.
Answer:
(d) 5th June.

Question 17.
Species which are continuously distinct:
(a) Long lasting animal
(b) Dangerous animal
(c) Simple animal
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Simple animal

Question 18.
Kaziranga national park is situated in:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Assam
(d) Umariya.
Answer:
(c) Assam

Question 19.
Bandhavgarh national park is situated in:
(a) Satana
(b) Shivpuri
(c) Mandla
(d) Umariya.
Answer:
(d) Umariya.

Question 20.
Kanha national park is located in :
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujrat
(d) Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
(a) Uttar Pradesh

Question 21.
National wildlife (Protection) Act was formulated during:
(a) 1972
(b) 1974
(c) 1976
(d) 1978.
Answer:
(a) 1972

Question 2.
Fill in the Blanks:

1. Planting of trees and forests on waste land is called ……………………..
2. Wildlife protection act comes in force in …………………….
3. UNESCO has started Man and Biosphere programme in ……………………..
4. ………………….. is the first Biosphere Reserve of India.
5. Kajiranga wildlife sanctuary is famous for ………………………
6. Red Data book is related with ……………………..
7. World Environment Day is celebrated on ………………………… of every year.
8. FRI is situated at ……………………..
9. …………………….. is the main source of energy.
10. National parks are made for the conservation of ……………………….
11. ………………………….. is the main region of forest depletion.
12. Indian Lion and Cheetah is ……………………….. animal.
13. ………………………….. is called the development of forest on barren land.
14. World environment day celebrated on ………………………

Answer:

1. Afforestation
2. 1972
3. 1971
4. Nilgiri
5. Rhinoceros
6. Endangered species
7. 5th June
8. Dehradun
9. Sun
10. Threatened species
11. Growing population
12. Rare
13. Frustration
14. 5th June.

Question 3.
Match the Following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a).

Answer:
l.(e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c).

Question 4.
Answer in One Word/Sentence:

1. In which place of India, lion is found?
2. When does World Environment Day is celebrated?
3. When does Wildlife Protection Act was formed in India?
4. In which state Ghana bird Sanctuary is situated?
5. Where is Tiger Project situated?
6. Name any two National Parks of India.
7. Where does Kanha National Park situated?
8. Name any two threatened species.
9. Name the state having maximum forest area.
10. Name the National Animal and National Bird of India.
11. Name any one book associated with the conservation of wildlife.

Answer:

1. Gir forest, Gujarat
2. 5th June
3. 1972
4. Bharatpur, Rajasthan,
5. Kanha, M.P.
6. Rajaji Park and Gir National Park
7. M.P.
8. Lion, Wild buffalo
9. Chattisgarh (C.G.)
10. Tiger and Peacock
11. Red Data Book.

Biodiversity And Conversation Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When does WLF-India was established?
Answer:
1962.

Question 2.
Define biodiversity?
Answer:
The totality of genes, species, and ecosystem of a given region i.e. the combined diversity at all the levels of biological organization is called biodiversity.

Question 3.
Where does wild Ass is found?
Answer:
Runn of Kutch.

Question 4.
Which are three important components of biodiversity?
Answer:
The three components or levels of biodiversity are

• Genetic diversity
• Species diversity and
• Ecological diversity.

Ecological diversity has again 3 components – alpha diversity (within community diversity), beta diversity (between community diversity), and gamma diversity (regional diversity).

Question 5.
Write other name of biodiversity.
Answer:
Biological diversity.

Question 6.
In the pie chart (A) and (B) drawn below to show the global animal diversity, which groups of animals would you name and write on the areas shaded black in (A) and (B). In which kind of habitat would you find these groups of animals
Answer:
(A) Insects Habitat, Mostly terrestrial
(B) Fishes Habitat, Aquatic.

Question 7.
What is the basic concept of biodiversity of biosphere?
Answer:
Gene.

Question 8.
Name the two plants which are worshiped in any two states.
Answer:

1. Kadamba in Rajasthan.
2. Mango in Odisha.

Question 9.
Which part of the world has more biodiversity?
Answer:
In Brazil.

Question 10.
Write the full form of IUCN.
Answer:
International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.

Question 11.
Who performs an important role in nature balancing?
Answer:
Forest animals.

Question 12.
Name the branch of science in which do the study of forest animal conservation.
Answer:
Forestry.

Question 13.
When, started the programme of social forestry?
Answer:
1976

Question 14.
Write the modern name of sanctuary.
Answer:
Shelter.

Biodiversity And Conversation Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain conservation of biodiversity.
Answer:
Conservation of biodiversity: India is one of the richest (among the 12 mega centres of the world) countries in biological diversity. This rich biodiversity is due to a variety of climatic conditions prevailing on different ecological habits ranging from tropical, subtropical, temperate, alpine to the desert. These varied conditions harbour a plethora of organisms, which form an important natural wealth, responsible for the socio-economic development of life in our country. But the biodiversity of organisms is under serious threat and there is an urgent need for biodiversity conservation on a war foot level.

Question 2.
What does the term genetic diversity refer to? What is the significance of large genetic diversity in the population?
Answer:
The term genetic diversity refers to the diversity of genes within a species.
It is important because

• Greater the genetic diversity among the organisms of a species, more sustenance, has against environmental perturbations.
• Genetically uniform populations are highly prone to diseases and harsh environments.

Question 3.
Write the importance of forests.
Answer:
Importance of forests:
1. Forests play a vital role in the life and economy of all tribes living in forests, by providing food, medicines, and other products of commercial value.

2. Forests are large biotic communities. It provides shelter and sustenance to a larger number of diverse species of plants, animals and microorganisms.

3. Forests prevent soil erosion by wind and water. The trees provide shade which prevents the soil from drying during summer. Trees reduce the velocity of raindrops or wind striking the ground so that dislodging of the slil partiles is reduces. The root system of plants firmly binds the soil.

Question 10.
Name the following

1. The group of animals that is maximum among vertebrates
2. The scientist who coined the term biodiversity
3. The lungs of the planet earth
4. The region in India where a maximum number of amphibians are present.
5. The most species-rich taxonomic group of animals.

Answer:

1. Fishes
2. Edward Wilson
3. Amazon forest
4. Western ghat
5. Insect

Question 5.
Enumerate any five reasons for the destruction of wildlife (animals).
Answer:
The main reason for the destruction of wildlife (animals) are:

• Entertainment, personal profit, earning money by wrong methods are the human illattitudes, unkindness toward wild animals has brought the animals at endanger level.
• Huge reduction in the natural habitat of the wild animal so.it has reduced their living area due to urbanization, industrialization, and deforestation.
• Exhorbitant extraction and consumption are harmful to wild animals like the skin of animals, the Teeth of elephants etc.
• Various types of pollution have forced the reduction of wild animals.
• Very loose and unpunishable, wildlife act which has increase poaching, huntidg of wild animals.

Biodiversity And Conversation Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by Threatened species? Explain its types.
Answer:
Species that have been greatly reduced in their number or whose natural habitats have been disturbed due to which these are near extinction and may become extinct if the causative factors continue are called threatened species. It is estimated that about 25,000 plant species and 1,000 vertebrate species and subspecies and many invertebrate species are threatened with extinction. It is believed that at least 10% of the living species are in danger.
The organisms which are near extinction are of following types :

1. Endangered (E) species: The species which are facing danger of extinction and whose survival is unlikely if the causal factors continue to operate. These are the species whose number have been reduced to a critical level or whose habitats have been so drastically reduced that they are deemed to be in immediate danger of extinction. For example, Indian rhinoceros, Asiatic lion and the great Indian bustard, snow leopard, etc.

2. Vulnerable (V) species: These are the species having a sufficient number of individuals in their natural habitats. However, in the near future, they might represent the category of endangered species if unfavourable factors in the environment continue to operate. e.g„ Musk deer, black buck, golden langur, etc.

3. Rare (R) species: These are species with a small population in the world. At present these are not endangered and vulnerable but are at risk. These species are usually localized within geographical areas or habitats or are thinly scattered over a more extensive range. e.g., Indian elephant, Asiatic wildass, gharial, wild yak, etc.

4. Threatened (T) species: The species which do not fall under the endangered or vulnerable categories but indications are available that such species may come under any of these two categories if appropriate measures are not taken to protect them.

Question 2.
How is the sixth episode of extinction ‘of species on earth now currently in progress different from the five earlier episodes? Explain the various causes that have brought about this difference.
Answer:
Five episodes of mass extinction have occurred during the past geological history of the earth due to natural phenomena like a continental draft, ice age, hitting of large asteroids, global warming, etc. But the sixth episode of mass extinction is due to human activities knowingly or unknowingly ie. it is anthropogenic in origin, eg:- Destruction of tropical forests leads to destroying 14000-40000 species every year, or 295% of species every hour.
The causes of this extinction may be.

• Habitat loss
• Habitat fragmentation
• Overexploitation of natural resources
• Introduction of alien species or exotic species which invade maximum space.
• Pollution due to human activity
• Commercial forestry.

Question 3.
Write in brief, the reasons necessary for the conservation of wild species.
Answer:
Necessity for wildlife conservation : The conservation of wildlife is required . for the following reasons:

1. To maintain balance in nature: The wildlife helps us in maintaining the balance of nature. Once this equilibrium is disturbed it leads to many problems. The destruction of carnivores or insectivores often leads to an increase in the herbivores which in turn affects the forest vegetation or crop.

2. Economic value: The wildlife can be used commercially to earn money e.g., Animal products like hides, ivory, fur etc. are of tremendous economic value. The collection and supply of dead or living specimens of wildlife for museums and zoos fetches good amount of money. Wildlife can increase our earning of foreign exchange if tourism is promoted properly.

3. Scientific value: The preservation of wildlife helps many naturalists and behaviour biologists to study the morphology, anatomy, physiology, ecology and behaviour biology of the wild animals under their natural surroundings.

4. Recreational value: The wildlife of any country provides best means of sports and recreation. Bird-watching is a hobby of many people all over the world. A visit to the parks and sanctuaries is an enjoyable proposition for children as well as for adults.

5. Cultural value: The wildlife of India is our cultural asset and has deep-rooted impact on Indian art, sculpture, literature andreligion. Indus valley civilization shows the use of animals symbols in their seals.

6. Preservation of human race: The destruction of wildlife in an area may eventually lead to the end of human civilization.

Question 4.
Describe different methods of Ex-situ conservation
Answer:
In ex – situ conservation the threatened species of plants and animals are taken out of their natural habitat and placed in special settings where they can be protected and given special care.

1. Zoological parks – The places where many animals that have become extinct in the wild, continue to be maintained.
2. Botanical gardens – The place where many endangered and threatened species of plants are kept. It allows other plants which are used for reference or project purposes. In India, there are 35 botanical gardens.
3. Cryopreservation  – It is the storage of materials at an ultra-low temperature of -196°C either by rapid cooling or by gradual cooling and simultaneous dehydration at low temperature.
4. Tissue culture and micropropagation – This method is used for preserving the germplasm and growing a number of plants from small parts of organs.
5. Seed banks – Seeds of different genetic varieties of commercially important plants can be kept for long periods.

Question 5.
Write a short note on wild animals in India.
Answer:
India as a country has a diverse range of wildlife. India is home for many species of wild animals. More than 25% land are dense forest in India and around 400 national parks. Some of the most important and popular wild animals in India are as follows :
(A) Animals: In Indian forest, below mentioned animals are found :

1. Deer: Its many species are found in India-e.g. Musdeer, Sambhar deer, chital, etc.
2. Antelope: These are the same as deer e.g.-Nilgai, Barasingha (Swamp Deer), four-homed antelope (chousingha) etc.
3. Elephant: Elephants are large mammals of the family elephantidae. It is found in Kerela and North India.
4. Rhinoceros: It is found in Himalayas region and in the forest of Bengal and Assam. Humans are the biggest threat to
5. the Indian rhinoceros as having been hunted to the brink of extinction for their horns.
6. Wild Ass: Wild asses are not found in any part of the world. Now in India, it is found in die little Rann of Kutch in the Gujrat state of India.

Carnivorous animals: Some India wild carnivores are:

• Indian lion (Asiatic lion): Now it is confined to forests in the fall.
• Cheetah: It is on the verge of extinction.
• Lion: Lion is a national animal, at present, its population in our country are more than 3,000.
• Leopard: It is similar in cheetah but smaller than cheetah.

(B) Birds: Peacock, wild fowl, many types of duck, stork, pigeons, partridge, quail, vulture, kite, piquant, owl, indian paradise flycatcher (dudhraj) are found in forests of our country.

(C) Reptiles: Crocodiles, alligators, tortoise, lizards, snakes and other reptilians are found in Indian forest.
Many vertebrates and invertebrates are also found in Indian forest.

Question 6.
What is the main rules of Indian forest act?
Answer:
The Indian forest act, 1927 was largely based on previous Indian forest acts implemented under the British. Things which are included in this act are as follows :

• Forest arrangement: Due to this act give the protection and arrangement to forest and wildlife.
• Appropriate use of forest land: Uses of extra land for forest animals and grow some plant these are useful in wild animals.
• Act for protection of forest: This act, stop passion of deforestation and must be conservation of forest and wild animals.
• Increasing of forest product: Due to this act try to increasing of forest product and discovered new information which are better for wildlife.

Question 7.
Write an essay on measures of forest conservation.
Answer:
Forest conservation: Forest conservation and management are essential to maintain the forests in their natural state and also to prevent the depletion of wildlife and forest wealth. For the success of conservation it is necessary to know the cause of depletion and destruction of forests. Forests are generally destroyed by fire, improper cutting of trees and by animals.

Essentiality of forest conservation: Forest is a complex system which is responsible for the ecological balance in nature. Deforestation causing natural imbalance and affects the biotic components of the environment resulting floods, drought, epidemics, environmental pollution. Many ecologically important species of plants and animals are lost due to which economically important substance like wood, medicines, resin, lac and various food materials will not be available for us.

Measures of forest conservation: The following measures or efforts are prescribed for reforestation:

• Establishment of conserved forests and their conservation in proper way.
• Reforestation on deforested land. Old and damaged plants would be replaced by new plants.
• Proper management of forests.
• By promoting public awareness about forests.
• Replacement of burnt off areas of the forests.
• Plantation of trees that increase forest productivity.
• Forestation of plants on hills and wastelands and prevention of grazing by cattle.
• Prevent forests from fire, diseases and insects.
• Providing basic protection for all forests by law.
• Regulating human activity in the forest such as grazing by cattle and collection of firewood and fodder etc.
• Provide special attention for the conservation of endangered plant and animal species under the inspection of specialists.
• Removal of undesirable trees and vegetation for the better growth of desirable species.
• Forestation of industrially useful plants.
• The government will arrange the management of useful forests.

MP Board Class 12th Biology Solutions

MP Board Class 9th General English Grammar Prepositions

परिभाषा-जो शब्द वाक्य में किसी एक वस्तु का दूसरी
वस्तु से संबन्ध बतलाते हैं, Prepositions कहलाते हैं

A word used to show the relation of one thing to another in a sentence is a preposition.

Relation Expressed by Prepositions

(1) Prepositions of Time – कुछ Prepositions समय सूचक होते हैं जैसे-
(i) He came at six.
(ii) I study for seven hours every day.
(iii) She is absent from class for three days.
(iv) They work from 10 to 4.

(2) Prepositions of Place – कुछ Prepositions स्थान सूचक होते हैं, जैसे
(i) He was born in America.
(ii) She was in her room.
(iii) They are coming home from school.
(iv) I stood before him.
(v) The ball is out of the circle.

(3) Prepositions of Movement- कुछ Prepositions गति सूचक/स्थान सूचक होते हैं, जैसे-

(i) He traveled by train.
(ii) I came by car.
(iii) He went there on his bike.
(iv) He travelled in my car.

Use of Some Other Preposition
(1)At, In : At छोटे स्थान के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है। In, बड़े स्थान के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है।

जैसे-
(i) He lives at Dholpur.
(ii) He lives in Madhya Pradesh.

(2) In, Into : In स्थिति को बताता है और Into गति का बोध कराता है।

जैसे-
(i) All the boys are in the class.
(ii) He dived into the river.

(3) With, By : With — यन्त्र के साथ प्रयोग होता है और by कार्य करने वाले के साथ प्रयोग किया जाता है,

जैसे-
(i) We cut the apple with the knife.
(ii) The snake was killed by the farmer.

(4) Since, For : Since निश्चित समय के लिए (जैसे दिन का नाम या तिथि आदि) और for का प्रयोग समय की अवधि के लिए किया जाता है।

जैसे-
(i) He has been ill since Monday.
(ii). Raj Kumar has been absent for three days.

(5) Between, Among : Between दो व्यक्तियों तथा Among दो से अधिक व्यक्तियों के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है।

जैसे-
(i) Divide these sweets between Raj and Ravi.
(ii) He divided his property among his four sons.

(6)On, Upon : On गतिहीन तथा upon गतिशीलता के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है।

जैसे-
(i) The cat is on the mat.
(ii) The dog jumped upon the table.

(7) In, Within : In समय की अवधि की समाप्ति का बोध कराता है और Within समय की अवधि के भीतर का बोध कराता है।

जैसे-
(i) I shall come back in a week. (सप्ताह की समाप्ति पर)
(ii) I shall come within a week. (एक सप्ताह समाप्त होने से पूर्व)

(8) Below, Beneath : Below पद के सन्दर्भ में और Beneath स्थान के सन्दर्भ में प्रयोग किया जाता है।

जैसे-
(i) Your brother is below my rank.
(ii) The lion sat beneath a tree.

(9) Beside, Besides : Beside का अर्थ है-पास और Besides का अर्थ है-अतिरिक्त।।

(i) The boys stood beside the teacher’s.chair.
(ii) Besides the Principal, other teachers spoke in the prayer assembly.

(10) With, Without : With का अर्थ है-साथ और Without का अर्थ बिना (रहित)

जैसे-
(i) Come to me with your brother.
(ii) Come to the field without anything.

Exercise-1
Fill in the blanks with the words given in brackets :

1. Hari has been playing …………………….. two hours. (for, since)
2. He is angry …………………….. me. (to, with)
3. The lion jumped …………………….. the deer. (on, upon)
4. I live …………………….. Kolkata. (in, at)
5. They reached the Bhil village …………………….. 9 O’clock. (in, at)
6. Gita was sitting …………………….. me. (beside, besides)
7. Your sister is angry …………………….. you. (with, from)
8. She cannot finish this work …………………….. time. (on, at, in)
9. Your letter is full …………………….. mistakes. (of, with, from)
10. I knocked thrice …………………….. the door. (at, on)
Answer:
1. for,
2. with,
3. upon,
4. in,
5. at,
6. beside,
7. with,
8. in,
9. of,
10. at.

Exercise-2

Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions :
1. Lincoln was born ………… Thursday.
2. He went ………… the hill.
3. He lives ………. Bombay.
4. Yesterday Mohan fell ………… the well.
5. Suman and Rajesh went to see the marble rocks ………… Jabalpur.
6. The teacher was angry ………… Rahul.
7. Look ………… this picture.
8. He met me …………15th August.
9. I don’t want ………… take it back.
10. Put your signature ………… ink
Answer:
1. on,
2. up,
3. in,
4. into,
5. in,
6. with,
7. at,
8. on,
9. to,
10. in.

Exercise-3

Fill in the blanks with at, for, on, or, in :
1. The hunter aimed ………… the lion.
2. They were waiting ………… the station the train.
3. She is looking ………… a job.
4. The girl is sleeping …. the chair ….. an hour.
5. Rita always comes ………… time.
Answer:
1. at,
2. at, for
3. for,
4. on, for,
5. on.

MP Board Class 9th English Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Human Reproduction NCERT Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:

(a) Humans reproduce ………
Answer:
sexually

(b) Humans are ……………..
Answer:
viviparous

(c) Fertilization is …………….. in humans.
Answer:
internal

(d) Male and female gametes are ……….
Answer:
haploid

(e) Zygote is ………..
Answer:
diploid

(f) The process of release of ovum from a mature follicle is called ………
Answer:
ovulation.

(g) Ovulation is induced by a hormone called ………
Answer:
Luteinizing hormone

(h) The fusion of male and female gamete is called ……….
Answer:
fertilization

(i) Fertilization takes place in …………
Answer:
ampullary isthmus in fallopian tube.

(j) Zygote divides to form which is implanted in uterus.
Answer:
Blastocyst

(k) The structure which provides vascular connection between foetus and uterus is
Answer:
umbilical cord.

Question 2.
Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive system.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive system.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write two major functions each of testis and ovary
Answer:
Functions of testis functions:

• Production of sperms by seminiferous tubules.
• Production of male sex hormone, testosterone by leydig cells.

Functions of Ovary

• Production of ova (eggs).
• Production of female sex harmones, estrogen and progesterone.

Question 5.
Describe the structure of a seminiferous tubuls.
Answer:
Seminiferous tubules are highly coiled tubes, which are lined on the inside by :

• Male germ cells called spematogonia that undergo meiotic division to form sperm celts.
• Sertoli cells provides nutrition and molecular signals to the germ cells.
  

Question 6.
What is spermatogenesis? Briefly describe the process of spermatogenesis.
Answer:
Spermatogenesis : Formation of sperms in the testis is called as spermatogenesis. It involves in the following steps :

1. Multiplication phase : In this phase, sperm cells are formed in testes.
The inner layer of seminiferous tubules of testes is formed of germinal epithelium.
Some of these cells called primary germ cells divide mitotically into spermatogo¬nia which become separated in the germi¬nal layer. Other cells of this layer serve as nutrition for the dividing cells.

2. Growth phase : In this phase, spermatogonia starts growing, absorbing nutrient substances. These large cells are called primary spermatocytes.

3. Maturation phase : It is a very important phase. Primary spermatocytes divide twice. The first division is meiotic due to which the number of chromosomes is reduced to half. In this process, primary spermatocyte divides into two halves which are known as secondary spermatocytes. The second division is mitotic and no change takes place in the number of chromosomes. Thus, from two secondary spermatocytes four spermatids are formed. In this manner from one primary spermatocyte four spermatids are formed. These spermatids change into sperm cells of spermatozoa by a process called metamorphosis.

Question 7.
Name the hormones involved in regulation of spermatogenesis.
Answer:
The hormones involved in regulation of spermatogenesis are:

• Gonadotropin releasing hormone
• Luteinizing hormone (LH)
• Follicle stimulating hormone
• Testosteron.

Question 8.
Define spcrmiogenesis and spermiation.
Answer:
Spermiogenesis: The process involving transformation of spermatid into spermatozoa is called spermiogenesis.
Spermiation: After spermiogenesis sperm heads became embedded in the sertoli cells and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called spermiation.

Question 9.
Draw a labelled diagram of human sperm and explain its defferent parts.
Answer:
Structure of sperm: A mature sperm is a delicate microscopic, motile structure. A typi¬cal mammalian sperm consists of the following three parts:

1. Head,
2. Middle piece and
3. Tail.

(1) Head: Head is knob like terminal part of the sperm. It is composed of a large nucleus and an acrosome. At die time of entry of the sperm into egg acrosome Secretes spermlysin which dis¬solve the egg membrane and thus facilitates entry of sperm into the egg or ovum.

(2) Middle Piece : It is short and lies between head and tail. It contains two granules called the proximal and distal centrioles in front side and towards posterior side cylindrical middle part of sperm. It is considered as the power house of sperm as it contains compact mass of mitochondria, which provides energy for metabolism and movement of sperm.

(3) Tail: It is situated on posterior part of sperm. It moves with the help of axial filament. The posterior part of the tail is called as end piece and it is not covered by membrane.

Question 10.
What are the major components of seminal plasma?
Answer:
The main components of the seminal plasma are fructose, calcium ion, some enzymes and prostagladines.

Question 11.
What are the major functions of male accessory ducts and glands?
Answer:
Male accessory ducts:
(i) Intratesticular Genital Duct system (till vasa efferentia) – Cilia lining them fails in the passage of sperms.
(ii) Extra testicular / Excretory Genital Duct system:

• Epididymis – Store sperms, ejects sperms during ejaculation, destroys older sperms.
• Vasa deferentia – conduction of sperms
• Ejaculatory ducts – conduct sperms and secretion of seminal vesicles are also conducted
• Urinogenital duct – conduct sperms.

Male accessory glands:

• Seminal resides – produce seminal plasma (60 – 70 %)
• Prostate Gland – seminal plasma (20 – 30%)
• Bulbourethral gland – 5% seminal plasma

Question 12.
What is oogenesis ? Give a brief account of oogenesis. .
Answer:
Oogenesis is the process of formation of mature female gametes from primordial germ cells.

• This process is initiated during embryonic developmental stage when about two million gamete mother cells (oogonia) are formed in each foetal ovary.
• Oogonia start meiotic division which gets arrested at prophases-I stage. They are referred to as primary oocytes.
• Each of these gets covered with layers of granulose cells and are then called primary follicle.
• Many of the primary follicles degenerate from birth to puberty, leaving about 60000-80000 in each ovary at puberty.
• More layers of granulose cells and another theca layer surround it and now it is called secondary follicle. Theca layer is arranged as inner theca-intema and outer theca- extema.
• Secondary follicle transforms into tertiary follicle that has a fluid filled cavity called antrum.
• The primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic division now.
• This is an unequal division resulting in the formation of:
  • A large haploid cell (that keeps the majority of nutrient rich cytoplasm) called secondary oocyte.
  • A tiny cell, with haploid nucleus and almost no cytoplasm, called the first polar body.
• The tertiary follicle undergoes certain changes to mature into graafian follicle.
  Secondary oocyte forms a new membrane around it, called zona pellucida.
• Under the influence of LH, the Graaffian follicle now ruptures to release secondary oocyte from the ovary by a process called ovulation.

Summary of oogenesis:

Oogonia Meiosis-I initiated -4 Primary oocyte (arrested at prophase-I) → Granu¬losa layer builds → Primary follicle → More granulose and theca layer added → Secondary follicle → Fluid filled cavity develops → Tertiary follicle → Primary oocyte completes meio- sis-I → Secondary oocyte (haploid)+ polar body → Tertiary follicle transforms to Graafian follicle → Zona pellucida builds around secondary oocyte Graafian follicle ruptures → Secondary oocyte (ovum) released.
Meiosis-II will occur only at the time of penetration of sperm into the ovum.

Question 13.
Draw a labelled diagram of a section through ovary.
Answer:

Question 14.
Draw a labelled diagram of a graafian follice.
Answer:

Question 15.
Name the function of the following:
(a) Corpus luteum
(b) Endometrium
(c) Acrosome
(d) Sperm tail
(e) Fimbriae.
Answer:
(a) Corpus luteum: Secretion of mainly progesterone and small quantity of estrogen. Some androgens are also formed by theca cells.

(b) Endometrium: Nourishment and implantation of the blastocyst and later foetus if fertilization has occurred. Otherwise cyclic changes of growth and degeneration.

(c) Acrosome: Contains sperm lysin for separating cells of corona radiata and piercing through zona pellucida.

(d) Sperm Tail: Vibratile part that helps in swimming of sperm in the genital tract of female for reaching the ovum.

(e) Fimbriae: The finger-like projection occurs at the edges of the infundibulum which helps in the collection of ovum after ovulation.

Question 16.
Identify true/ false statement to make it true.

1. Androgens are produced by sertoli cells. (True / False)
2. Spermatozoa get nutrition from sertoli cells. (True / False)
3. Leydig cells are found in ovaiy. (True / False)
4. Leydig cells synthesise androgens. (True / False)
5. Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum. (True / False)
6. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy. (True / False)
7. Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience. (True /False)

Answer:

1. Flase
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. True
7. True.

Question 17.
What is mentrual cycle? Which hormones regulate menstrual cycle?
Answer:
A series of cyclic changes found in the reproductive tract of human female during her reproductive life recur at intervals of about 28 days and is characterized by menstruation in the first 3-4 days.
Hormone :

• GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone)
• FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)
• LH (Luteinizing Hormone)
• Estrogen
• Progesterone

Question 18.
What is parturition? Which hormones are involved in induction of parturition?
Answer:
The process of delivery of the foetus (Child birth) at the end of the pregnancy is called parturition. The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta, which trigger the release of oxytocin from the maternal pitutary. Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles and induces stronger uterine contractions leading to expulsion of the baby. Relaxin hormone released by the ovary widens the vagina to facilitate birth.
Following hormones are involved in induction of parturition:

1. Cartisol
2. Estrogen
3. oxytocin.

Question 19.
In our society the women are often blamed for giving bird) to daughters. Can you explain why this is not correct?
Answer:
Women are blamed for giving birth to daughters. This is wrong because sex of the baby is determined by the sperm that can have either X or Y-chromosome. Women have only one type of chromosome (X) in all the ova.
If the sperm having X-chromosome fertillises the ovum (X), the resulting zygote (XX) will become a female.
If the sperm having Y-chromosome fertillises the ovum (X), the resulting zygote (XY) will become a male.

Question 20.
(a) How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month?
(b) How many eggs do you think would have been released if the mother gave birth to identical twins?
(c) Would your answer change if the twins born were fraternal?
Answer:
(a) One
(b) One
(c) Yes, fraternal twins are born due to the fertilization of 2 or more eggs.

Question 21.
How many eggs do you think were released by the ovay of the female dog which gave birth to 6 puppies?
Answer:
Six eggs are released by the ovary of a female dog if it gave birth to six puppies.

Human Reproduction Other Important Questions and Answers

Human Reproduction Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the Correct Answers:

Question 1.
Fertilization is related by: (CBSE PMT 2007)
(a) Realizing & gamete cells from gonad
(b) Transfer of male gametophy te to female gamete
(c) Fusion of male and female sex organs
(d) Fusion of nucleus of male gametes and nucleus of female gamete.
Answer:
(d) Fusion of nucleus of male gametes and nucleus of female gamete.

Question 2.
Cleavage is a process of fertilized egg, in which egg.
(a) Does not divide, but grows in sizes
(b) Divides continuously but does not grow in size
(c) Divided continuously and grows in size
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Divides continuously but does not grow in size

Question 3.
Foetal membranes provide:
(a) Protection of embryo
(b) Nutrition to embryo
(c) Protection and nutrition to embryo
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Protection and nutrition to embryo

Question 4.
Science of ageing is called:
(a) Chronology
(b) Odontology
(c) Gynecology
(d) Gerontology.
Answer:
(d) Gerontology.

Question 5.
The female counterpart of prostate gland in male (man) is:
(a) Bertholin’s gland
(b) Uterus
(c) Clitoris
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 6.
Humanis:
(a) Oviparous
(b) Viviparous
(c) Ovoviviparous
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Viviparous

Question 7.
Periodic cycle is:
(a) Of menstrual phase
(b) Of estrogen secretion
(c) Of fertilization
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Of menstrual phase

Question 8.
Ageing in mammals including man is due to:
(a) Adverse changes in environment
(b) Interaction between hereditary factors (genes) and the environment
(c) Malnutrition and stress
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Interaction between hereditary factors (genes) and the environment

Question 9.
The part of the human body shows regeneration is:
(a) Spleen
(b) Kidney
(c) Brain
(d) Liver
Answer:
(d) Liver

Question 10.
Fertilization in mammals occurs in:
(a) Oviduct funnel
(b) Fallopian tubule
(c) Uterus
(d) Vagina.
Answer:
(b) Fallopian tubule

Question 11.
The capsule enclosing testes of mammal is called:
(a) Tunica albugenia
(b) Tunica membrana
(c) Tunica vaginalis
(d) Tunica vesculosa
Answer:
(a) Tunica albugenia

Question 12.
Sertoli cells are found in:
(a) Testes of Earthworm
(b) Testes of Frog
(c) Testes of Mammals
(d) Testes of Cockroach
Answer:
(a) Testes of Earthworm

Question 13.
The cavity of gastrula is known as:
(a) Blastocoel
(b) Coelome
(c) Archenteron
(d) Haemocoel
Answer:
(c) Archenteron

Question 14.
Implantation is the process in which
(a) Fertilization of egg
(b) Movemènt of egg
(c) Disappear of egg
(d) Blastosyst is formed by uterus.
Answer:
(a) Fertilization of egg

Question 15.
Seminiferous tubule is found in: ‘
(a) In testes
(b) In ovary
(c) In kidney
(d) In lungs.
Answer:
(a) In testes

2. Match the Following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3.(a)
4. (c)
5.(b).

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (a).

3. Answer in One Word/Sentence:

1. How many sperms will be produced from 24 spermatocytes during spermatogenesis ?
2. Where does fertilization takes place in mammals ? (SSCE1993, CBSE 95)
3. Write the name of various phases of embryogenesis.
4. How many polar bodies are formed during the formation of one gamete?
5. Write die name of three layers of gastrula.
6. How many polar bodies are formed during the formation of ovum during oogenesis? (CBSE 1993)
7. Name the substance formed in sperms and which helps the sperms to enter into ovum. (AISB1991)
8. How many sperms and ova are formed from 100 primary spermatocytes and primary oocyte respectively ? (SSCE 1992)
9. Name the part of sperm secreting enzyme for the entrance of sperms into ovum. (SSCE 1992)
10. Name the organ where corpus luteum is formed. (SSCE 1995)
11. Write the duration of gestation period in human cases.
12. How many autosomes are found in human sperm ?
13. Where is corpus luteum formed ?
14. Name the developmental stage of man in which it is transplanted of uterus wall.(SSCE 1993)
15. Name the process of release of ovum from graafian follicle.

Answer:

1. 96,
2. Fallopian tube
3. Cleavage
4. Blastula and Gastrula Infant, 4.3
5. Ectoderm, mesoderm and endodenn
6. 2
7. Spermlysin
8. 400,100
9. Head
10. Ovary
11. 240 days
12. 22
13. Ovary
14. Blastula
15. Ovulation.

Human Reproduction Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
By which term, the process of the formation of morulla from zygote is referred?
Answer:
Cleavage.

Question 2.
What is called first menstrual stage or phase in the girls age 12-14 years?
Answer:
Menarche.

Question 3.
What is the example of spermatogenesis?
Answer:
Male gametogenesis.

Question 4.
What provides nourishment to foetus inside the uterus?
Answer:
Placenta.

Question 5.
How many germinal layers are there in gastrula stage?
Answer:
Three.

Question 6.
By which term, the middle germinal layer of gastrula is referred?
Answer:
Mesoderm.

Question 7.
After Fertilization, how many days are needed for the birth of human child?
Answer:
280 days (9 months and 10 days).

Question 8.
To produce the new organisms of their own kind is called by a term, name it
Answer:
Reproduction.

Question 9.
By which name, the reproduction happens by means of fusion of two different gametes?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction.

Question 10.
Which gametogenesis goes on till life span in human beings after attaining puberty?
Answer:
Spermatogenesis.

Question 11.
The stoppage of menstrual cycle in a 50 yrs old female is known as.
Answer:
Menopause.

Question 12.
What is pregnancy?
Answer:
The time period between fertilization to the birth of child is called pregnancy.

Question 13.
Where is carpora cavernosa found?
Answer:
Carpora cavernosa is found in penis.

Question 14.
What is the gestation period in elephant, dog and cat ?
Answer:
Elephant 641 days dog 58-68 days, cat 63 days.

Question 15.
Name the hormone that relaxes public symphysis during parturition.
Answer:
Relax in hormone.

Human Reproduction Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain menarchy or menopause.
Answer:
Menopause: In every human female, puberty period starts from 12-13 yrs of age to 45-50 yrs of the age. During this period except pregnancy at every interval of a month during 26th day to 28th day. If pregnancy does not occur then the internal wall of the uterus secretes out mucilaginous liquid along with blood. Secretion continues for 3-4 days called menses. As it comes at definite period so, it is called menstruation cycle. At the age of 40-50 yrs. menses stop and females reach to a stage called menopause. Ability pregnancy also stops after attaining menopause.

Question 2.
Draw a well labelled diagram of the T.S. of human testis.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw a well labelled diagram of Oogenesis.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is the position of fallopian tubule in female reproductive organs? What are their significance ?
Answer:
Fallopian tubules are a pair of small muscular tubes, one each on either side ol*the uterus. These tubules extend from the vicinity of the ovary to the ovary. Each tubule is about 10 cm in length. The free end of each tube lies near the ovary of its side. This end is funnel shaped and fimbriated. It is called ostium and infundibulum. Infundibulum opens in the abdominal cavity by means of abdominal ostium. The fallopian tubule is kept in position by a mesentery which is attached to the uterus.

Significance of Function of Fallopian Tubes:

• By their lashing movement of the cilia present in the lining of infundibulum and nearby area help in pulling the released ovum into fallopian tube.
• Passage of ovum into uterus is aided by muscular movement of fallopian tube as well as beating of cilia present in the lining layer of tube.
• Fertilization of ovum mostly takes place in the ampulla part of fallopian tube.

Human Reproduction Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Write differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis
Answer:
Differences between Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis:

Spermatogenesis	Oogenesis
1. Sperms are produced by this process.	1. Ovums are produced by this process.
2. In this process primary spermatocytes are formed by maturation of germinal epithelium cells.	2. In this process primary oocytes are formed by maturation of germinal epithelium.
3. Primary spermatocyte divides to form four spermatids.	3. Primary oocytes divides to form one ovum and three polar bodies.
4. There is equal division.	4. There is unequal division.
5. Large number of sperms are formed by this	5. Less number of ovums are formed by this process.

Question 2.
Describe the process of the formation and functions of corpus luteum.
Answer:
Corpus luteum is formed within ovary. It is a yellow body or structure which develops from ruptured Graafian follicle after the release of ovum. The cells become enlarged and conical. They are filled with a fluid called as luteum. It is developed under influence of L.H. of anterior pituitary. If fertilization do not occur it degenerates but if fertilization occurs, it remains for seven months during pregnancy and is responsible for the formation of some hormones which stimulates pregnancy and lactation.

Question 3.
Describe the structure and function of fallopian tubes.
Answer:
Fallopian tubules are a pair of small muscular tubes, one each on either side of the uterus. These tubules extend from the vicinity of the ovary to the ovary. Each tubule is about 10 cm in length. The free end of each tube lies near the ovary of its side. This end is funnel shaped and fimbriated. It is called ostium and infundibulum. Infundibulum opens in the abdominal cavity by means of abdominal ostium. The fallopian tubule is kept in position by a mesentery which is attached to the uterus.

Function of Fallopian Tubes:
By their lashing movement of the cilia present in the lining of infundi-bulum and nearby area help in pulling the released ovum into fallopian tube. ,
Passage of ovum into uterus is aided by muscular movement of fallopian tube as well as beating of cilia present in the lining layer of tube.
Fertilization of ovum mostly takes place in the ampulla part of fallopian tube.

Question 4.
In our society the women are often blamed for giving birth to daughters. Can you explain why this is not correct ?
Answer:
It is not correct to blame women for giving birth the daughters. The male sperm contains either X or Ychromosome whereas the female egg contains only x chromosomes. At the time of fertilisation when sperm carrying x chromosome combines with egg carring x chromosome of female Xygote z is formed which would be a female and when sperm with Y chromosome combines with egg containing X chromosome XY zygote is formed which would be a male. Thus scientifically sex of the baby is determined by the father and not by the mother as blamed in our society.

Question 5.
Describe the structure of ovary.
Answer:
These are a pair of female gonads or primary sex-organs lying one on each side of uterus. Ovary is attached to abdominal wall as well as uterus by means of ligaments. It is surrounded by a fold by peritoneum named mesovarium. Ovary is internally differentiated into four parts: germinal epithelium, tunica albuginea, cortex and medulla. Germinal epithelium is the outermost layer of cuboidal to flattened cells. Germinal epithelium is followed by a sheath of condensed connective tissues which is termed as tunica albuginea. It is followed by cortex. The central part of ovary contains medulla. A large number of groups of specialized cells are present in the cortex which are termed as ovarian follicles. These follicles are found in four development stages :

Incipient follicle : The central part of these follicles contain a large cell which is covered by smaller cells.
Primary follicle: These follicles are developed from incipient follicles.
Vascular follicle: It is formed from primary follicles. The oocyte of these follicle is covered by a many layered thick wall.

Graafian follicle: Mature ovarian follicle is termed as graafian follicle. It is covered by two sheaths derived from cortex. The follicle contains a single oocyte. A group of follicular cells surrounds the oocyte or ovum. It is called cumulus ovaricus. Another group produces membrane granulosa. Oocyte has two non-cellular membranes, inner vitelline membrane and outer zona peUucida.

Question 6.
Describe the process of fertilization and give its significance.
Answer:
Fertilization: Fertilization is the fusion of male and female gametes to produce a single diploid cell, called zygote. Fertilization in human female takes place in fallopian tube.

In a sexual mating or coitus the male ejaculates semen into the vaginal passage of the female using the copulatory organ, the penis. In a single coitus as many as 200 million sperms are introduced into the female genital tract but out of this huge number of sperms only one is destined to fuse with the ovum, provided the fallopian tube lodges of fully developed seqondary oocyte.Sperms travel through the vaginal passage and enter the uterus through the cervix.

They travel further through the uterus and finally enter the fallopian tube.The vaginal passage is highly acidic to prevent any bacterial infection but this acidic medium is not suitable for the survival of sperms. Many sperms die on the way. The liquid medium of the semen is alkaline which can neutralize the acidity of vagina to some extend and keep the. sperms alive and active. The sperms move with the speed of 1 -5 to 3 mm per minute.

The ovum gets surrounded by a large number of sperms but usually only one fuses with the ovum. The sperm penetrates the ovum using certain chemical substances of enzymatic nature.These chemicals are called spermlysins which are present in the acrosome. Certain receptors on the cell surface of the ovum enable the sperms to penetrate the wall of ovum. The ovum is surrounded by follicle cells. These cells are joined together by a glue like substance known as mucopolysaccharide, an acid, called hyaluronic acid. The sperm pro¬duces spermlysin, known as hyaluronidase. The over all changes in a sperm before the fertilization is called capacitation.

The hyaluronidase enzyme facilitates the sperm to pen¬etrate through the corona radiata (follicle cells), zona pellucida and the plasma membrane of ovum. The nucleus and the cytoplasmic components get inside the ovum, leaving the tail outside. The entry of sperm stimulates the ovum and the signal is transmitted to the egg surface incapacitating all the other cells surrounding the ovum. Nucleus of sperm move towards the nucleus of ovum and they fuses with each other to form zygote. It takes 2 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours to complete fertilization process. Once the ovum has been fertilized a barrier forms around it that normally prevents other sperms from entering.

Now fertilized egg reaches to the uterus and within seven days of fertilization it is transplanted to the wall of the uterus.

Significance of Fertilization
Egg become active after entry of sperm and completes its second maturation division.
Formation of fertilization membrane prevent entry of other sperms in the ovum. In human this membrane is not formed.
It restores the diploid number (2n) of chromosomes in the zygote.
It combines characters of male and female resulting in the introduction of variations. These variations make the offspring better equipped for struggle against environmental conditions to ensure the existence.
The ovum is stimulated to cleavage.
After fertilization ovum rotate inside the membrane.
Ovum do not contain centriole and obtain it from sperm during this process thus zygote continuously divides.
It is necessary for the egg to attain maturity.

Question 7.
Describe development of embryo up to the formation of three germ layer. Give the names of organs formed by three germ layer.
Or
Define cleavage. Describe the changes that occur in embryo till gastrulation.
Answer:
The term cleavage refers to a series of rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote following fertilization forming a many celled blastula. Following are the various steps of embryonic development in human up to the formation of three germ layer:

1. Formation of morula : The fertilized zygote divides. It undergoes successive quick mitotic cell divisions called cleavage. First cleavage is holoblastic, unequal and meridional. It divides the ovum completely into two unequal blastomeres. The plane of cleavage passes through animal vegetal axis, i.e., it is meridional. Large blastomere divides little earlier than the small one giving a transitional three cell stage. As a result of further cleavages, a solid mass of mulberry-shaped embryo is formed called morula.
Morula is of the size of zygote but consists of 32 cells. These cells are of two types : The outer layer of smaller cells around, inner larger cells. Within 72 hours of fertilization, morula reaches the uterus.

2. Formation of blastula : Transformation of morula into a blastula starts by the rearrangement of blastomeres. This leads to the formation of a central cavity inside the morula. The outer cells of morula absorb the nutritive fluid secreted by the uterine mjueous membrane and transform into trophoblast. The fluid absorbed by these cells collects in the central cavity called blastocoel. This cavity separates the trophoblast from the inner mass of larger cells except on one side and is termed blastocyst. The inner cell mass is pushed to one pole as a small knob. This knob gives rise to the embryo and is termed as embryonal knob.

3. Formation of gastrula : In this embryonic stage development of three germ layer occurs. In this stage morphogenic movement of cells of embryo occurs, as a result of this three germ layers are formed. A cavity develops at the centre called as archenteron which open outside through blastopore.

4. Formation of three germ layers :

Formation of endoderm : The enlargement of blastodermic vesicle is followed by the separation of few cells from the inner cell mass. These cells push out from the blastocoel to become the initial cells of the innermost layer of gastrula, the pattern of a tube within a tube. The inner tube is called primitive gut. It is differentiated into gut tract which is within the body and a yolk sac that communicates with the gut of the embryo. The remaining cells of the inner Cell mass are organized to form the embryonic disc.

Formation of mesoderm : After the formation of endoderm an increased rate of cell proliferation takes place at the caudal end of the embryonic disc. This results in the localised increase in the thickness of the disc. These cells subsequently get detached from the embryonic disc and get organized to a well demarcated mesodermal layer.
Formation of ectoderm: After the formation of endoderm and mesoderm, the remain¬ing cells of the embryonic disc arrange themselves in a layer to form ectoderm.

Fate of three germinal layer : Three germ layers differentiated at the time of gastrula- tion give rise to all the tissues and organs of the body of adult by the process of differentia¬tion and organogenesis.
Germ layers

1. Germ layers : Ectoderm
Tissue or organs of adult :

• Epidermis and its derivatives.
• Cutaneous sensory organs.
• Olfactory organs.
• Lens of eye.
• Membranous labyrinth (internal ear).
• Anterior lobe of pituitary gland.
• Lining of buccal cavity.
• Enamel of teeth.
• Endoderm
• Lining of proctodaeum.
• Brain, spinal cord, spinal and cranial nerves.

2. Germ layer : Endoderm
Tissue or organs of adult :

• Lining of alimentary canal except buccal cavity and rectum.
• Lining of larynx, trachea and lungs.
• Urinary bladder.
• Parathyroid, thyroid and thymus.
• Liver and pancreas.

3. Germ layer : Mesoderm
Tissue or organs of adult :

• Dermis.
• Vertebral column.
• Muscles of the body.
• Excretory organs.
• Reproductive tracts.
• Peritoneum.
• Circulatory system, heart, blood vessels, blood, lymph and spleen.

MP Board Class 12th Biology Solutions

MP Board Class 9th General English Grammar Punctuation

Punctuation का अर्थ होता है किसी वाक्य में Full stop, comma आदि विराम चिह्न का प्रयोग करना। इसके प्रयोग इस प्रकार हैं
(1) Full Stop (.) -हिंदी के पूर्ण विराम (1) के स्थान पर अंग्रेजी में fullstop (.) प्रयोग है-

(a) Affirmative, Negative और Imperative वाक्यों के अन्त में
(i) She is a girl.
(ii) She is not coming.
(iii) Please come here.

(b) Abbreviation (संक्षिप्त शब्दों) तथा नामें के प्रारम्भ में अन्त में-
M.A., A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

(2) Comma (,)-Comma (अर्द्ध विराम) pot sem निम्न दशाओं में होता है
(i) एक ही Part of Speech के कई शब्दों के अलग करने के लिए, जैसे –
He can read, write and sing well.

(ii) And से जोड़े गये एक से अधिक शब्द समूहों को अलग करने के लिए,जैसे-
The minister addressed all, men and women, old and young.

(iii) Yes और No के बाद, जैसे-
(a) Yes, I shall do it.
(b) No, I can’t go there.

(iv) Reported Speech के शेष वाक्य को अलग करने के लिए, जैसे-
He said, “The sun rises in the East.” –

(v) Noun और Phrase in apposition को अलग करने के लिए, जैसे- Milton, the great poet, was blind.

(vi) दिन, दिनांक या वर्ष को पृथक करने के लिए, जैसे-
Monday, 6th June, 2006.

(3) Question Mark (?)—प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों के अन्त में लगाया जाता है, जैसे-
What is your name?

(4) Exclamation Mark (!)—इस चिह्न का प्रयोग

(i) Interjection (विस्मयादिबोधक) शब्दों के बाद होता है, जैसे-
Oh ! Alas! Hurrah !

(ii) उन वाक्यों के अन्त में भी होता है जो गहन संवेग व्यक्त करते हैं, जैसे-
What a beautiful picture !

(5) Inverted Commas (“….”)-Direct Speech में किसी के द्वारा कहे गये यथार्थ शब्दों को शेष वाक्य से अलग करने के लिए Inverted commas का प्रयोग होता है, जैसे-
He said, “I shall win.”

(6) Apostrophe (‘) इसका प्रयोग होता है, जैसे-
(i) अक्षरों के लोप को प्रकट करने के लिए-
Don’t, can’t, won’t, didn’t.

(ii) Possessive case बनाने के लिए
Sita’s doll.

(iii) अक्षरों तथा संख्याओं को बहुवचन बनाने के लिए….
Add three 4’s and two 3’s.

(7) Capital Letters—इनका प्रयोग निम्न होता है
(i) वाक्य के प्रथम शब्द का प्रथम अक्षर लिखने के लिए-
He is my brother.

(ii) Proper Nouns और उससे बने हुए Adjectives
के प्रथम अक्षर को लिखने के लिए-
Asha, Delhi, Indian.

(iii) Pronoun I को लिखने के लिए
I am a teacher.

(iv) God, Almighty, Lord शब्दों के प्रथम अक्षर लिखने के लिए

Exercise-1
Punctuate the following sentences :
1. Gaurav said the teacher scolded me.
2. my mother and I went to the market.
3. Kanyakumari is surrounded by the Indian ocean the bay of Bengal and Arabian sea
4. I like to eat apples grapes and guavas what do you like said he
5. it is the best book I have ever read.
Answer:
1. Gaurav said, “The teacher scolded me.”
2. My mother and I went to the market.
3. Kanyakumari is surrounded by the Indian Ocean, the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea.
4. “I like to eat apples, grapes and guavas. What do you like?”, said he.
5. It is the best book I have ever read.

MP Board Class 9th English Solutions

MP Board Class 9th General English Grammar Clauses

जब किसी sentence में एक subject और एक predicate (अर्थात् एक ही verb) हो तो वह simple sentence कहलाता है
Example Subject + Predicate (verb + other words)
Harish is playing football.

Simple sentences जब जुड़कर complex sentences बन जाते हैं तो clauses कहलाते हैं

Complex Sentence-This is the picture which was drawn by me.
Simple sentences को किसी conjunction (योजक शब्द) से जोड़कर Complex sentence बनाया जाता है

Clauses दो प्रकार के होते हैं-

1. Principal Clause व
2. Subordinate Clause.

I love him because he is my son.
I love him वाक्य अपने आप में पुर्ण है अत: यह Principal clause है because he is my son को अकेले नहीं लिखा जा सकता पुरे अर्थ के लिए यह I love him पर निर्भर है अत : यह subordinate clause है

Subordinate Clause तीन प्रकार के होते हैं

1. Noun Clause
2. Adverb Clause
3. Adjective Clause.

Adverb Clauses
Adverb clauses are clauses that function as an adverb.
Adverb clauses किसी verb, Adverb या की विशेषता बताते हैं adjective की विशेषता बताते हैं।

आपके पाठ्यक्रम में दो प्रकार के रखे Adverb clauses गये हैं

(1) Adverb Clauses of Time.
(2) Adverb Clauses of Condition.

(1) Adverb Clauses of Time (i) We will leave.
We finish our lunch.
Answer:
As soon as we finish our lunch we will leave.

(ii) We will go out.
The rain stops.
Answer:
We will go out when the rain stops.

(iii) Don’t shout…
She is studying.
Answer:
Don’t shout while she is studying.

(iv) Father called me.
I was taking food.
Answer:
Father called me when I was taking food.

(v) A stone hit me.
I was coming out.
Answer:
As I was coming out, a stone hit me.

Exercise-1
Join the following sentences to make an adverb clause with the help of conjunctions given :
1. The sun rises. (As soon as)
He takes bath.

2. I had been living there. (Since)
He took birth.

3. There is unity in the country. (As long as)
We shall remain strong.

4. We reached the station. (Before)
The train had arrived.

5. She found a coin.
She was cleaning the floor. (While)

6. He came here.
I rushed to see him. (No sooner ….than)

7. The girl won’t go away. You tell her to go. (until)
Answer:
1. As soon as he takes bath, the sun rises.
2. I had been living there since he took birth.
3. As long as there is unity in the country we shall remain strong.
4. We reached the station before the train arrived.
5. She found a coin while she was cleaning the floor.
6. No sooner did he come here, than I rushed to see him. 7. The girl won’t go away until you tell her to go.

(2) Adverb Clause of Condition
जब एक simple sentence दूसरे simple sentence से इस तरह जुड़े कि जुड़कर वह उस sentence की verb की शर्त
हो तो वह Adverb clause of condition Emin कहलाता है

यह if, in case, unless, if not, suppose, provided इत्यादि से जुड़ते हैं।

(i) Mohan comes.
I shall go.
Answer:
If Mohan comes, I shall go.

(ii) You are honest..
People will not respect you.
Answer:
If you are not honest, people will not respect you.

(iii) I like tea.
It is hot.
Answer:
I like tea provided it is hot.

(iv) We won’t pay.
He sends the bill again.
Answer:
Unless he sends the bill again, we won’t pay.

(v) I forget.
Please remind it to me.
Answer:
In case I forget, please remind it to me.

Exercise-1
Combine the sentences :
1. Take your teacher’s advice. I am not available. (In case) 2. The judge will not believe. You prove it. (Unless)
3. I will not come. It is too cold.
4. I shall forgive him. He say sorry. (provided)
5. I will go. You accompany me.
Answer:
1. In case I am not available take your teacher’s advice.
2. Unless you prove it, the judge will not believe.
3. If it is too cold, I will not come.
4. I shall forgive him provided he says sorry.
5. I will go if you accompany me.

Relative Clauses
Or
Adjective Clauses

जब एक Simple sentence दूसरे में जुड़कर उसके किसी Noun की विशेषता बतलाता है तो वह Adjective या Relative clause कहलाता है ये दो प्रकार के होते हैं-

(1) Defining or Restrictive Relative Clause जब कोई Clause किसी Noun को qualify इस तरह करे कि वह उस Noun को identify करने के लिए अनिवार्य हो जाए तब उसे Restrictive Clause कहेंगे।

As-The man who lives next door has just retired.

(2) Non-Defining or Non-Restrictive Clause – किन्तु जब Adjective Clause उसके Noun को identify करने हेतु आवश्यक न हो, किन्तु एक अतिरिक्त जानकारी के रूप में सम्बद्ध हो तो वह Non-Defining Clause कहलाता है। जैसे

(i) Mr. Sharma, who lives next door, has just retired.
(ii) Suresh, who was wearing red shirt, has disappeared.

(नोट-Non-defining Clause के पूर्व व पश्चात् Commas का प्रयोग किया जाता है।)

Relative Pronouns
Adjective Clauses के साथ Relative Pronouns योजक का कार्य करते हैं।
Who = जो, जिसने
Whom = जिसे, जिसको
Which = जो, जिसने
Whose = जिसका, जिसकी इत्यादि का प्रयोग होता है।
That = जो, जिसने।

अन्य योजक:
Relative adverbs-when, where, why, how. Others-same…..as, such……as etc.

Examples
(i) This is the time.
We must act now.
Answer:
This is the time when we must act.

(ii) The news is not true.
Sohan brought this news.
Answer:
The news that Mohan brought is not true.

(iii) The place is dirty.
You are sitting there.
Answer:
The place where you are sitting is dirty.

(iv) The lady is beautiful.
The lady is wearing a red saree.”
Answer:
The lady, who is wearing a red saree, is beautiful.

Exercise-1
Combine the sentences :
1. The book is mine.
The book is lying on the table. (which)
2. The boy was very stupid.
The boy was sitting next to me. (who)
3. The man has just gone out. You want to see the man. (whom)
4. Blessed is the man. His cares are few. (whose)
5. The car came first in the race.
The car was driven by a foreigner. (that)
6. The time is not known.
When does he come here?
Answer:
1. The book which is lying on the table is mine.
2. The boy who was sitting next to me was very stupid.
3. The man whom you want to see has just gone out.
4. Blessed is the man whose cares are few.
5. The car that was driven by a foreigner came first in the race.
6. The time when he comes here is not known.

Noun Clauses
वे Clauses जो Noun का कार्य करते हैं, Noun Clause कहलाते हैं ये निम्न कार्य करते हैं-
(1) Subject of a verb.
(2) The object of a transitive verb.
(3) The complement of a verb.
(4) The object of a preposition.

(1) Subject of a Verb
जब कोई Clause किसी verb के subject का कार्य करता है तो Noun Clause कहलाता है जैसे

That he is ill is not true.
(i) What he says.
(ii) That is wrong.

These two sentences can be combined to form a complex sentence. What he says is wrong.

Exercise-1
Combine the sentences :
1. This was unfortunate.
We lost the opening match.

2. This is possible.
They might have misunderstood you.

3. This is doubtful.
Will they be able to get good grades?

4. This is not certain.
Will they be able to come with us?

5. This is a mystery.
Why did she go there alone?

6. He is ill.
It is not true.

7. When will he come?
This is uncertain.
Answer:
1. That we lost the opening match was unfortunate.
2. That they might have misunderstood you is possible.
3. Whether they will be able to get good grades is doubtful. 4. Whether they will be able to come with us is not certain. 5. Why she went there alone is a mystery.
6. That he is ill is not true.
7. When will he come is uncertain.

(2) Object of a Transitive Verb
जब कोई simple sentence दूसरे simple sentence से इस तरह जुड़ता है कि जुड़कर उस sentence की Finite Verb के Object का कार्य करे तो इस तरह Noun का कार्य करने के कारण Noun Clause कहलाता है

Transitive verb में sentence का structure होता है-

Subject—VerbObject
Object कोई Noun/Pronoun होता है।
अत: निम्न sentence में
I know …….. he is stupid.

Complex sentence in I know that he is stupid, इसमें I know Main clause व Object के रूप में जुड़ा that he is stupid-Noun clause है।

Exercise-1
Combine the following sentences :
1. They asked this.
Did we want to insure our luggage?
2. Do you know this?
When is the next train?
3. Can you tell me this?
Where have they gone?
4. Please remember this.
You have to attend the meeting.
5. We expect this.
The party will get absolute majority.
Answer:
1. They asked if we wanted to insure our luggage.
2. Do you know when the next train is?
3. Can you tell me where they have gone?
4. Please remember that you have to attend the meeting.
5. We expect that the party will get absolute majority.

(3) Complement of a Verb
जब कोई Clause किसी Verb के Complement का कार्य करता है तब उसे भी Noun Clause कहते हैं।

जब कोई sentence दूसरे simple sentence में इस तरह जुड़ता है कि जुड़कर उसकी incomplete verbs के Noun complement का कार्य करे तो इस तरह जुड़ा वाक्य Noun clause कहलाता है

जैसे-
The problem is this
How can we reach there in time?
Answer:
The problem is how we can reach there in time.

Exercise-1
Combine the sentences making one of them a Noun clause complement of a verb.
1. It seems this.
He is worried.
2. His intention is this.
You should not sell the house.
3. The fact is this.
We cannot afford a holiday this year.
4. My opinion is this.
You have made a mistake.
5. His suggestion is this.
We should go for picnic.
Answer:
1. It seems that he is worried.
2. His intention is that you should not sell the house.
3. The fact is that we cannot afford a holiday this year.
4. My opinion is that you have made a mistake.
5. His suggestion is that we should go for picnic.

(4) Object of a Preposition :
जब कोई simple sentence दूसरे simple sentence में इस तरह जुड़ता है की जुड़कर उस sentence के किसी Preposition का Object बन जाए तो वह Noun Clause कहलाता है जैसे-
(i) They couldn’t agree about this.
Who should do the work?
Answer:
They couldn’t agree about who should do the work.

(ii) Have you decided upon this?
Where will you spend the holidays?
Answer:
Have you decided upon where you will spend the holidays?

(iii) Everything depends on this.
Does the train reach there in time?
Answer:
Everything depends on whether the train reaches there in time or not.

Exercise-1
Combine the following sentences.
1. I do not believe in his words.
He says the words.
2. He was punished for his misdeed.
He had done the misdeed.
3. I had drawn this conclusion from his words.
He said these words.
4. Pay attention to the teacher’s words.
The teacher says the words.
5. Be careful about the things.
You take things in your hands.
Answer:
1. I do not believe in what he says.
2. He was punished for what he had done.
3. I had drawn the conclusion from what he said.
4. Pay attention to what the teacher says.
5. Be careful about what you take in your hands.

MP Board Class 9th English Solutions

MP Board Class 12th General English Advertisement Writing

विज्ञापन लिखना या तैयार करना एक कला है। निम्नलिखित निर्देशों को ध्यान से देखिए :

1. विज्ञापन ऐसा होना चाहिए जिसे पढ़ने के लिए पाठक आकर्षित हो सके।
2. विज्ञापन लिखने में भाषा सदैव सरल, प्रभावशाली व शुद्ध होनी चाहिए।
3. विज्ञापन में मुख्य बात पर ध्यान केन्द्रित होना चाहिए।
4. विज्ञापन संक्षिप्त व विषय पर केन्द्रित होना चाहिए।
5. विज्ञापन में विषय व भाषा का सुन्दर सम्मिश्रण होना चाहिए।

Classified Advertisements

प्रत्येक समाचार-पत्र में classified विज्ञापनों के लिए अलग sections होते हैं। विद्यार्थियों के लिए आवश्यक classified advertisements नीचे दिए जा रहे हैं।

Some Examples

(I) Situation Vacant
(नौकरी से सम्बन्धित)

1. Shankar Engineering Works, Industrial Area, Chennai need two typists for their Delhi office. Write an advertisement for the ‘Situation Vacant’ column of a local newspaper.
Answer:
Wanted two typists, either sex for our Delhi office. Candidates should be graduates with the knowledge of typing and shorthand. They must be well-versed in English and have at least two years’ experience of service in some reputed concern. Salary according to qualifications and experience. Apply with detailed Bio-data within seven days to the Manager, Shankar Engineering Works, Industrial Area, Chennai-600010.

2. You are Personnel Manager of Jpgpal Sons Ltd., Industrial Area, Phase-1, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. You need a typist for your office. Write an advertisement for the ‘Situation Vacant ’ column of a local daily newspaper.
Answer:
Wanted an efficient and experienced typist for our head-office at Delhi. Only graduates with excellent command over English and minimum speed of 50 WPM need apply. Salary no bar for the right candidate. Apply within 10 days to Personnel Manager, Jagpal Sons Ltd., Industrial Area, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.

3. With the help of the description given below prepare an advertisement in a suitable box entitled ‘Required’ in about 20 words. [2015]
I. T. Professional, Full Time Basis, C⁺⁺, 2-3 yrs experience, age not more than 30 yrs, Salary in 5 figures p.m. Contact-0001-234560001 Director, Kash & Co. Bhopal (M.P.)
Answer:

Required I.T. Professional, Full Time, Knowledge of C++, 2-3 years experience, Age – Not more than 30 years. Salary in 5 figures p.m. Contact: +001-23460001. Director Kash & Co., Bhopal (M.P.)

(II) Matrimonials
(विवाह से सम्बन्धित)

1. A very high-status professional and IIT educated 31 years old NRI settled in London seeks alliance with an exceptionally beautiful, educated and cultured girl.
Answer:
A very handsome, tall and cultured 31 years old IIT educated Managing Director of a reputed firm, based in London, seeks alliance with an exceptionally beautiful, highly educated and cultured girl between 19 and 25 years of age and 5’3″ to 5’7″ tall. Caste no bar. Reply in confidence with latest colour photograph to : Box No. 4378, Times of India, Mumbai-400001.

2. You are looking for a suitable match for your smart, convent-educated daughter. Write out a matrimonial advertisement for publication in a newspaper.
Answer:
Proposals invited for smart, intelligent, charming, convent-educated daughter of Punjabi Retd, army officer from highly qualified, business/professional well placed boy in India/Abroad. Caste no bar. Write to Box No. BBC 558C, The Times of India, Mumbai-400001.

(III) Lost and Found
(खोया-पाया)

1. Your younger brother has been missing for a month. Write an advertisement for the ‘Lost Persons ’ column of a newspaper in about 50 words.
Answer:
Missing since 20 March, a young boy of 15 years, height 140 cm, fair complexion, long curly hair and a scar on the right cheek. He was
in blue jeans, white shirt and dark brown shoes. He speaks English and Tamil. Anyone giving his whereabouts will be suitably rewarded. Please contact : R. K. Shankaran, R-5, Government Quarters, Kilapauk, Indore.

2. You have lost your pet dog. Write an advertisement for the ‘Lost and Found’ column of a newspaper.
Answer:
A German Shepherd male dog missing since last Monday, 2 years old, dark brown complexion with white stripes and a cut on the left ear. Strapped with a black leather belt. Anyone giving his whereabouts will be suitably rewarded. Contact : Dr. R. C. Dahiya, 27-Rajouri Garden, Bhopal or Dial 25248967.

(IV) To Let
(किराये पर देने हेतु)

1. You are B. Reddy of Bhopal. You want to let out a house. Write out an advertisement to be published in the classified column of a newspaper.
Answer:
To let, exquisitely designed, self-contained 5 bedroom house with ultra-modem amenities. 24 Hours power back up facility. Spacious lawns and servant quarters. Only reputed businessmen or doctors need contact :’B. Reddy, 26/L-Kanke Road, Bhopal or Phone : 24015678.

2. You want to let out a portion of your newly constructed independent . house. Write a suitable advertisement to be published in the ‘Tolet’ classified column of the ‘Indian Express’, New Delhi. (Word limit: 50 words)
Answer:
To let, a portion of a newly constructed independent house in Gulmohar Park, New Delhi. Three bedrooms, drawing, dining with family lounge and parking. Rent around Rs. 15000 pm. Government employees or South Indians preferred. Contact : M. Ganesh, A-12, Gulmohar Park, New Delhi or Phone : 26252140.

(V) For Sale
(बेचने हेतु)

1. Your father has been transferred to another city. You want to sell certain household goods. Write a suitable advertisement to be published in local newspapers. [2014, 18]
Answer:
For sale a three-piece sofa set with foam seats with a glass top table, price expected Rs. 12,000; a brand new LG refrigerator 280 litres, price expected Rs. 12,000; Sony LCD 32″, price expected Rs. 25,000 and many other household items. Please contact: Sanjeev Sharma, 12-Nikhil Enclave, Jabalpur, Ph.: 2234567.

MP Board Class 12th English Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 11 शंकु परिच्छेद Ex 11.1

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न 1 से 5 तक प्रत्येक में वृत्त का समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए :
प्रश्न 1.
केंद्र (0, 2) और त्रिज्या 2 इकाई।
हल:
यहाँ h = 0, k = 2 तथा r = 2 रखने पर,
वृत्त का समीकरण, (x – 0)² + (y – 2)² = 2²
या x² + y² – 4y + 4 =4
अतः वृत्त का अभीष्ट समीकरण, x² + y² – 4y = 0.

प्रश्न 2.
केंद्र (- 2, 3) और त्रिज्या 4 इकाई।
हल:
∴ वृत्त का समीकरण (x + 2)² + (y – 3)² = 4²
या (x² + 4x + 4) + (y² – 6y + 9) = 16
या x² + y² + 4x – 6y – 3 = 0.

प्रश्न 3.
केंद्र \(\left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}\right)\) और त्रिज्या \(\frac{1}{12}\) इकाई।
हल:
यहाँ h = \(\frac{1}{2}\), k = \(\frac{1}{4}\), तथा r = \(\frac{1}{12}\) हो, तब
वृत्त का समीकरण,

प्रश्न 4.
केंद्र (1, 1) और त्रिज्या -2 इकाई।
हल:
यहाँ h = 1, k = 1 तथा r = \(\sqrt{2}\) हों, तब
वृत्त का समीकरण,
(x – 1)² + (y – 1)² = (\(\sqrt{2}\))²
या (x² – 2x + 1) + (y² – 2y + 1) = 2
या x² + y² – 2x – 2y= 0.

प्रश्न 5.
केंद्र (- a, – b) और त्रिज्या \(\sqrt{a^{2}-b^{2}}\) इकाई।
हल:
वृत्त का समीकरण,
(x + a)² + (y + b)² = \((\sqrt{a^{2}-b^{2}})\)²
या x² + 2ax + a² + y² + 2by + b² = a² – b².
या x² +y² + 2ax + 2by + 2b² = 0.

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न 6 से 9 तक में प्रत्येक वृत्त का केन्द्र और त्रिज्या ज्ञात कीजिए :
प्रश्न 6.
(x + 5)² + (y – 3)² = 36.
हल:
वृत्त (x + 5)² + (y – 3)² = 36 की (x – h)² + (y – k)² = r² से तुलना करने पर,
– h = 5, – k = – 3, r² = 36
∴ h = – 5, k = 3, r= 6
∴ केन्द्र (- 5, 3), त्रिज्या = 6.

प्रश्न 7.
x² +y² – 4x – 8y – 45 = 0.
हल:
(x² – 4x) + (y² – 8y) = 45
या (x² – 4x + 4) + (y² – 8y + 16) = 45 + 4 + 16 = 65
(x – 2)² + (y – 4)² = 65
∴ h = 2, k = 4, r = \(\sqrt{65}\)
⇒ केन्द्र (2, 4) और त्रिज्या = \(\sqrt{65}\)
दूसरी विधि : 2g = – 4, 2f= – 8, c = – 45
g = – 2, f = – 4, r = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}\)3
r = \(\sqrt{4+16+45}\)
= \(\sqrt{65}\)
केन्द्र (- g, – f) अर्थात् (2, 4)
त्रिज्या = r = \(\sqrt{65}\).

प्रश्न 8.
x² + y² – 8x + 10y – 12 = 0.
हल:
(x² – 8x) + (y² + 10y) = 12
या (x² – 8x + 16) + (y² + 10y + 25) = 12 + 16 + 25
(x – 4)² + (y + 5)² = 53.
∴ केन्द्र (4, – 5), त्रिज्या= \(\sqrt{53}\).

प्रश्न 9. 2x² + 2y² – x= 0.
हल:

प्रश्न 10.
बिन्दुओं (4, 1) और (6, 5) से जाने वाले वृत्त का समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए जिसका केन्द्र रेखा 4x + y = 16 पर स्थित है।
हल:
वृत्त का व्यापक समीकरण
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
बिन्दु (4, 1) इस पर स्थित है
∴ 16 + 1 + 8g + 2f + c = 0
∴ 8g + 2f + c = – 17 …..(1)
बिन्दु (6, 5) वृत्त पर स्थित है
∴ 36 + 25 + 12g + 10f + c = 0
∴ 12g + 10f + c = – 61 …..(2)
केंद्र (- g, – 1) रेखा 4x + y = 16 पर स्थित है
∴ – 4g – f = 16
या 4g + f = – 16 …..(3)
समीकरण (1) को (2) में से घटाने पर
4g + 8f = – 44
समीकरण (3) को (4) में से घटाने पर
7f = – 44 + 16 = – 28
f = – 4
समीकरण (3) में f का मान रखने पर
4g – 4 = – 16 या 4g = – 12
∴ g = – 3
f और g का मान समी (1) में रखने पर
– 24 – 8 + c = – 17
c = 32 – 17 = 15
अतः वृत्त का समीकरण
x² + y² – 6x – 8y + 15 = 0.

प्रश्न 11.
बिन्दुओं (2, 3) और (- 1, 1) से जाने वाले वृत्त का समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए जिसका केंद्र रेखा x – 3y – 11 = 0 पर स्थित है।
हल:
मान लीजिए वृत्त का समीकरण
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 ….(1)
इस पर बिन्दु (2, 3) स्थित है।
∴ 4 + 9 + 4g + 6f + c = 0
या 4g + 6f + c = – 13 ……(2)
इसी प्रकार (- 1, 1) भी वृत्त (1) पर स्थित है।
जब p = – 2, वृत्त का समीकरण
(x + 2)² + y² = 25
या x² + y² + 4x – 21 = 0
जब p = 6, वृत्त का समीकरण
(x – 6)² + y² = 25
x² + y² – 12x + 36 – 25 = 0
या x² + y² – 12x + 11 = 0
∴ वृत्त के अभीष्ट समीकरण
x² + y² + 4x – 21 = 0 और x² + p² – 12x + 11 = 0^π

प्रश्न 13.
(0, 0) से होकर जाने वाले वृत्त का समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए जो निर्देशांक्षों पर a और b अंत: खण्ड बनाता है।
हल:
वृत्त मूल बिन्दु से होकर जाता है और अक्षों पर अंत:खण्ड a, b बनाता है।
OA = a, ∴ A के निर्देशांक (a, 0)
OB = b, ∴ B के निर्देशांक (0, b)

या x² + y² – ax – by = \(\frac{a^{2}+b^{2}}{4}-\frac{a^{2}+b^{2}}{4}\)
∴ वृत्त का अभीष्ट समीकरण
x² + y² – ax – by = 0.

प्रश्न 14.
उस वृत्त का समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए जिसका केंद्र (2, 2) हो तथा (4, 5) से जाता है।
हल:
वृत्त की त्रिज्या = केंद्र (2, 2) और बिन्दु (4, 5) के बीच की दूरी

प्रश्न 15.
क्या बिन्दु (- 2.5, 3.5) वृत्त x² + y² = 25 के अंदर, बाहर या वृत्त पर स्थित है।
हल:
वृत्त का केंद्र O(0, 0) है।
दिया हुआ बिन्दु P(- 2.5, 3.5) है।
OP= \(\sqrt{(-2.5)^{2}+(3.5)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{6.25+12.25}\)
= \(\sqrt{18.50}\)
= 4.25 (लगभग)
यह त्रिज्या जो 5 इकाई से कम है
अतः बिन्दु (- 2.5, 3.5) वृत्त के अंदर स्थित होगा।

MP Board Class 11th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 12th General English Note Making and Summary Writing Examples

इस खण्ड में आपको लगभग 200 शब्दों में एक unseen passage दिया जाएगा। इन Passage पर आपको Notes बनाने होंगे। अर्थात् इस Passage से आपको महत्त्वपूर्ण point निकालने हैं जिनकी सहायता से आप Passage की Summary या Precise या Abstraction बना सकें।

Division Of Marks
Note Making – 05 Marks
Abstraction – 03 Marks

Note Making & Abstraction के फायदे

1. Focus of attention-When we read an article or a lesson, our mind and attention slip away and we lose the grip and interest in reading. Taking notes keeps your mind and attention fixed and busy. They do not loiter here and there. You achieve concentration which is very essential in learning.
यह हमारे ध्यान को एकाग्र रखता है।

2. Improvement of Memory-Taking notes helps you in memorizing facts and figures, quotations, main points etc., which makes it easy to keep the whole article in mind. Writing makes an exact man.
यह हमारी स्मृति को तेज रखता है।

3. Helps in Writing Summary or Precise-By rearranging the ideas from notes, you may prepare a gist or precise of the article.
सारांश लिखने में सहायता मिलती है।

4. Useful Quotations-The notes help us in quoting important things to support our speech or expressions.
उद्धरण हमारे कथन या लेख को पुष्ट करते हैं।

5. Dictionary Consultation Habit–While taking notes you must consult the dictionary. This habit will increase your vocabulary and knowledge.
शब्दकोश देखने की उपयोगी आदत हमारे ज्ञान को विस्तृत करती है।

6. Art of Editing-We learn the art of editing which proves to be very useful in future.
सम्पादन कला सीखने को मिलती है।

7. Keep Books or Magazines Neat and CleanOur book or magazine remains clean of markings or underlining.
पुस्तकें साफ, स्वच्छ रहती हैं।

8. Helpful in Examination-While solving the question paper answers spring up in our mind.
परीक्षा में उत्तर हमें याद आ जाते हैं।

9. Help in Composition—This bit helps us in composing an original article.
मौलिक रचना करने में सहायता मिलती है।

10. Improves Handwriting-Our handwriting improves because of practice.
हस्तलेखन सुन्दर होता है।

Solved Examples

Read the following passages and answer the questions given as under:

1. Laughter yoga makes a clear distinction between happiness and joy. Happiness is a conditional response of the mind which is totally dependent on the fulfillment of certain desires of mind by its very nature, it is related to how ones life had been in the past or how it will be in the future. It is not there in the present moment. The ironical and sad fact is that even if some dreams, goals or aspirations fulfilled happiness disappears quite quickly as the mind starts chasing new goal posts a new job, a new house, a bigger car etc. On the other hand, joyfulness is the unconditional commitment to be happy each moment, to have fun for the moment despite the problems and challenges of life, no matter how insurmountable they seem to the mind. It is the promise that body makes to the mind to indulge in playfulness moment by moment and there by give relaxation to it. During these periods of playfulness triggered by the plethora of physical activities like dancing, singing, playing and laughing, psychological and biochemical changes take place within our body that gives us a sense of well being that completely alters a negative outlook towards life and its challenges replacing it with confident positive moment by moment. [2016]

Questions :
A. On the basis of reading the passage make notes on it and supply a title. [5]
B. Prepare the summary of the passage. [3]
Answers :
A. Notes:

• Happiness is a conditional response of the mind.
• It is totally dependent on the fulfillment of certain desires of mind.
• If some dreams are fulfilled, happiness disappears quickly.
• The mind, then, starts chasing new goals.
• On the other hand, joyfulness is the unconditional commitment to be happy each moment.
• This condition relaxes the mind.
• Such a combination of body and mind replaces negative moment into positive one.

B. Summary : Happiness, a conditional response of the mind is totally dependent on the fulfillment of certain desires of mind. Happiness disappears with the fulfillment of dreams. Then the mind begins to chase new goals. Contrary to it, joyfulness is the unconditional commitment to be happy each moment. This condition relaxes the mind, replacing the negative moments by positive ones.

2. Pollution is the fouling of the environment, land, water and air by waste, smoke, chemicals and other harmful substances. The most serious pollution occurs where there are large cities and many factories. As factories produce new goods for people to buy old ones are thrown out with household rubbish. Burning the refuse pollutes the air, dumping it in rivers and seas pollute the water and rubbish tips are unpleasant sights and take up much needed space. Getting rid of plastics is particularly difficult. Wood and paper decay after some time but plastics never decay.

The world’s oceans have been used as dustbins with millions of tonnes of rubbish being dumped into the sea every year harming marine life. If too much untreated sewage is poured into the seas, lakes and rivers from sewers, the water can no longer dilute it. All the oxygen in the water is used up and the fish die.

Smoke from factories, chimneys and exhausts, gases from motor vehicles pollute the air. Chemicals in the air combine with moisture to make acids which eat away stone and brick and so damage buildings. Carbon monoxide gas and other substances given out by the engines of cars and buses can damage people’s health. Ridding our world of pollution is an unimaginably big task. [2015]

Questions :
A. Make notes in points from the given passage, using abbreviations, where necessary with title. [5]
B. Write a summary of the above passage in about 60 words. [3]
Answers :
A. Notes:

• Pollution is the fouling of the entire environment.
• Burning the refuse pollutes the air.
• Its dumping in the rivers pollutes water.
• Oceans have been used as dustbins.
• It harms marine life.
• Smoke and gases pollute the air.
• Getting rid of pollution is an extremely difficult task.

B. Summary : Waste, smoke, chemicals and other harmful substances pollute the environment. Air is polluted by burning the refuse, rivers are polluted by its dumping into them. Plastic is also a major cause of concern as it is not destroyed oceans have been used as dustbins. They harm marine life. Smoke and other gases damage people’s health. Indeed it is a very difficult task to get rid of pollution.

3. ‘Where there’s a will, there’s a way’, is an old saying. He who resolves upon doing a thing, by that very resolution overcomes the obstacles to it. It is so in all the occupations of life—at school, at college or in the world. To determine to succeed is the surest way to success. Difficulties disappear before an unswerving resolution. This was well exemplified in the life of Napoleon. He threw his whole force of body and mind upon his work. He was told that the Alps stood in the way of his armies. ‘There shall be no Alps’, he said, and a road was made across them, over heights previously considered inaccessible. ‘Impossible’, said he, ‘is a word only to be found in the dictionary of fools’. And so it is; a determination not to give in is the surest condition of success in any undertaking. But the young student must carefully guard himself against the errors of mistaking a mere undisciplined energy and self-will for the needful firmness and self-command on which success depends. [2014]

Questions :
A. Make notes in points, from the above passage, using abbreviations, where necessary. [5]
B. Write a summary of the above passage in about 50-60 words. Suggest a suitable title also for it. [3]
Answers :
A. Notes:

• Resolution for doing anything overcomes all obstacles.
• Applicable everywhere.
• Napoleon exhibited this. Made road across Alps.
• He said,‘impossible’ is found in dictionary of fools.
• Determination—surest condition of success.
• Students must throw off undisciplined energy.
• Should focus on firmness of self-will and self-command.

B. Summary: A firm determination is the key to success. Resolution to do a thing overcomes all obstacles and makes the impossible—possible. This is why Napoleon succeeded in making road even across the Alps. He said, “impossible is the word only to be found in the dictionary of fools.” Youngsters must focus on needful firmness and self-command and shake off undisciplined energy and self will to succeed in life.
Title: ‘Where there’s a will, there’s a way’.

4. At the end of the Second World War, Japan was defeated, her economy was in ruins. Until 1952, she was occupied by Allied troops, mostly American. For the first three years, the Americans aimed at making sure that Japan could never start a war, she was forbidden from having armed forces and was given a democratic Constitution. Americans did not at this stage seem concerned about restoring the Japanese economy.

Then, they felt a strong need for an ally in South-east Asia and began to encourage Japanese economic recovery. From 1950, industry developed rapidly and by 1953 production had reached a high level. American occupying forces were almost withdrawn in April, 1952. Japan’s rapid recovery was possible because Americans gave them vital help. Japanese goods were allowed into American markets on favorable terms and the U.S.A. supplied aid and equipment. An economically healthy Japan meant a buffer against communism in South-east Asia.

The Korean war brought orders for military equipment and supplies and American firms began to co-operate with the Japanese on the development of new industries. The alliance with the U.S.A. protected Japan and she was able to invest money in industry instead of defence. [2013]

Questions :
A. From the above passage make notes in points, using abbreviations wherever necessary. [5]
B. Make a summary in 50 words of the above passage. Also suggest a suitable title. [3]
Answers :
A. Notes :

• Japan was defeated at the end of the Second World War.
• The Allied troops, led by the Americans, did not care for the economy of Japan.
• The Americans withdrew their forces later on realising they needed a strong ally in that area.
• Japan’s economy improved after American help.
• The cooperation with America helped Japan and the country started investing money in industry.

B. Summary : The end of the Second World War saw the defeat of Japan. The Americans who led the Allied troops ensured that the Japanese economy did not improve. As time passed, the Americans needed a friend in South-east Asia. They withdrew their forces from Japan and started helping Japan. As a result Japan’s economy improved. Later on the Americans cooperated with Japan in the industrial area also.

5. The form of government, in which political power rests with the people is known as democracy. Abraham Lincoln, a former President of the United States, gave a brief and clear definition of this form of government. According to him, “Democracy is the government of the people, by the people and for the people,” According to Prof. Puntambekar, “Democracy is that government in which power of the state is exercised by the elected representatives of the people and they enjoy sopport of the majority,” Similarly, on the basis of definitions given by Dicey and many other scholars it can be easily said that democracy as a form of government is a system in which people govern themselves either directly, or indirectly through their representatives, in the interest of the entire country. The government is not an end in itself but it is a means for the social good.

Many political scientists use the term ‘democracy’ not only as a form of government, but also as a kind of state, Democracy as a kind of state implies such a state in which the supreme political power rests with the people. The people are ultimate decision makers in all political matters. In this respect democracy is considered to be a type of state. A democratic state allows people to freely set up their political institutions, If they do not function properly and effectively, they can be modified or replaced by the people.

There are scholars who would not like to limit democracy only to the form of government, kind of state and political aspects of the individual. They consider it to be a form of society which is based on social equality, liberty of the individual and fraternity, thus extending the scope of democracy to various aspects of the life of the individual. [2013]

Questions :
A. Read the above passage carefully, make notes on it and supply a title. [5]
B, Prepare an abstraction (summary! of the above passage. [3]
Answers :
A. Notes :

• In democracy, the political power lies with people.
• In it, people govern themselves directly or indirectly through their elected representatives.
• Democracy is also defined as a kind of state in which supreme political power remains with people.
• Some scholars define it as a form of society based on social equality, liberty of the individual and fraternity.

Title : Meaning of Democracy.

B. Abstraction : Democracy is a form of government in which people govern themselves directly or indirectly through their elected representatives and the government works for the welfare of people.

Many political scientists believe that Democracy is a kind of state in which the supreme power remains in the hand of people who take the final decision in all matters. To some scholars it is a form of society based on social equality, individual freedom and brotherhood.

6. Life is not a bed of rosfes, but a bed of thorns. It is full of dangers and difficulties. In the race of life, we should not be afraid of the risk which is but natural. Success in any work in life goes to those persons who welcome risk. Science would not have made such wonderful achievements if our scientists had not risked their lives and comforts. The more difficult a work is, the harder should be our efforts to perform it. Life is not a smooth sailing. Petty difficulties frighten a weak heart, who is not prepared to take a risk. But brave hearts achieve fame and honour because they enjoy taking risks. In short, risk brings success and works miracles. [2017]

Questions :
A. Make notes in points from the given passage, using abbreviation, where necessary with title. [5]
B. Write a summary of the above passage in about 60 words. [3]
Answers :
A. Notes :

• Life is not a bed of roses.
• Life is full of dangers, difficulties and risks.
• Success goes to people who take risk.
• The more difficult a work, the harder be efforts.
• Brave hearts achieve fame and honour.
• Risk brings success and works miracles.

B. Summary:
Life is not easy. It is full of dangers, difficulties and risks. People who take risk and sacrifice comfort achieve success. A difficult work requires harder effort. Brave people achieve fame and honour. Risk brings success and works miracles.

7. At the end of the Second World War, Japan was defeated, her economy was in ruins. Unit 1952, she was occupied by Allied troops, mostly American for the first three years, the Americans aimed at making sure that Japan could never start a war; she was forbidden from having armed forces and was given a democratic constitution. Americans did not, at this stage, seem concerned about restoring the Japanese economy.

Then, they felt a strong need for an ally in South-East Asia and began to encourage Japanese economic recovery. From 1950, industry developed rapidly and by 1953 production had reached a high level. American occupying forces were almost withdrawn in April 1952.

Japan’s rapid recovery was possible because Americans gave them vital help. Japanese goods were allowed into American markets on favourable terms and the U.S.A. supplied aid and equipment. An economically healthy Japan meant a buffer against communism in South-East Asia.

The Korean war brought orders for military equipment and supplies and American firms began to co-operate with the Japanese in the development of new industries. The alliance with the U.S.A. protected Japan and she was able to invest money in industry instead of defence. [2018]

Questions :
A. Make notes in points, from the above passage, using abbreviations, where necessary and supply a suitable title also. [5]
B. Write a summary in 90 words of the above passage. [3]
Answers :
A. Title-Japaf and its Economic Recovery.
Notes :

• At the end of World War II Japan was defeated.
• Until 1952 she was occupied by allied troops.
• She was forbidden from having armed forces and given a democratic constitution.
• Americans felt a need for an ally in South East Asia and began to encourage Japan’s economic recovery.
• From 1950 industry developed and by 1953 production reached a high level.
• American occupying forces were almost withdrawn in April 1952.
• U.S.A. supplied aid and equipment. Japanese goods were allowed in American markets.
• It meant a buffer against communism in S.E. Asia.
• The Korean war brought orders for military equipment. Alliance with U.S.A. protected Japan. She could invest money in industry instead of defence.

B. Summary :
Japan was defeated in the World War II. Her economy was ruined. She was occupied by Allied forces until 1952 and was forbidden from having armed forces. Then they felt the need for an ally in South East Asia and began to encourage Japan’s economic recovery. From 1950 industry developed rapidly. The American troops were withdrawn in April 1952. U.S.A. supplied aid and equipment. Japanese goods were allowed in American markets. It was a buffer against communism in South East Asia. The Korean war brought orders for military equipment. The American alliance protected Japan. She could invest money in industry instead of defence.

MP Board Class 12th English Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 सरल रेखाएँ Ex 10.3

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित समीकरणों को ढाल अंतःखण्ड रूप में रूपान्तरित कीजिए और उनके ढाल तथा y-अंतः खण्ड ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) x + 7y = 0,
(ii) 6x + 3y – 5 = 0,
(iii) y = 0.
हल:
(i) x + 7y = 0
∴ y = – \(\frac{1}{7}\)x + 0
∴ ढाल = – \(\frac{1}{7}\), y-अंत: खण्ड = 0.
(ii) 6x + 3y – 5 = 0,
3y = – 6x + 5
∴ y = – 2x + \(\frac{5}{3}\)
ढाल = – 2, y-अंत: खण्ड = \(\frac{5}{3}\)
(iii) y = 0
या y = 0. x + 0.
ढाल = 0, y-अंत: खण्ड = 0

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित समीकरणों को अंतःखण्ड रूप में रूपान्तरित कीजिए और अक्षों पर इनके द्वारा काटे गए अंतःखण्ड ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) 3x + 2y – 12 = 0,
(ii) 4x – 3y = 6,
(iii) 3y + 2 = 0.
हल:
(i) 3x + 2y – 12 = 0
या 3x + 2y = 12
12 से दोनों पक्षों में भाग देने पर
\(\frac{x}{4}+\frac{y}{6}\) = 1
अतः अंत: खण्ड 4 तथा 6 हैं।
(ii) 4x – 3y = 6
6 से दोनो पक्षों में भाग देने पर,
\(\frac{4 x}{6}-\frac{3 y}{6}\) = 1
\(\frac{x}{\frac{3}{2}}+\frac{y}{-2}\) = 1.
अत: अंत:खण्ड \(\frac{3}{2}\) तथा – 2 हैं।
3y + 2 = 0
या 3y = – 2
y = – \(\frac{2}{3}\).
अन्त: खण्ड हेतु समीकरण का रूप:
\(\frac{x}{0}+\frac{y}{-\frac{2}{3}}\) = 1
अंत:खण्ड 0 और –\(\frac{2}{3}\) हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित समीकरणों को लम्ब रूप में रूपान्तरित कीजिए। उनकी मूल बिन्दु से लांबिक दूरियाँ और लम्ब तथा धन x-अक्ष के बीच का कोण ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) x – \(\sqrt{3}\)y + 8 = 0,
(ii) y – 2 = 0,
(iii) x – y = 4.
हल:

(ii) y – 2 = 0 या y = 2
0·x + y·1 = 2
x cos 90° + y sin 90° = 2 [∵ cos 90° = 0, sin 90° = 1]
∴ p = 2, α = 90°.
(iii) x – y =4
\(\sqrt{2}\) से भाग देने पर
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} x+\left(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) y\) = 2\(\sqrt{2}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) = cos (360° – 45°) = cos 315°
और – \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) = sin 315०
∴ x – y = 4 का लम्ब रूप
x cos 315° + y sin 315° = 4
की तुलना x cos α + y sin α = p से करने पर,
p = 2\(\sqrt{2}\) , α = 315°.

प्रश्न 4.
बिन्दु (- 1, 1) की रेखा 12(x + 6) = 5(y – 2) से दूरी ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
12(x + 6) = 5(y – 2).
या 12x + 72 = 5y – 10
12x – 5y + 82 = 0

प्रश्न 5.
x-अक्ष पर बिन्दुओं को ज्ञात कीजिए जिनकी रेखा \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{4}\) = 1 से दूरियाँ 4 इकाई हैं।
हल:
दिया गया समीकरण है: \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{4}\) = 1
12 से गुणा करने पर
4x + 3y – 12 = 0 …(1)
x- अक्ष पर माना कोई बिन्दु (a, 0) हो, तो बिन्दु (a, 0) से रेखा (1) की दूरी
= \(\frac{4 a+0-12}{\sqrt{16+9}}\) = ± \(\frac{4 a-12}{5}\)
∴ ± \(\frac{4 a-12}{5}\) = 4
या ± (4a – 12) = 20
+ ve चिन्ह लेकर 4a = 32 या a = 8
x-अक्ष पर अभीष्ट बिन्दु (8, 0) है।
– ve चिन्ह लेकर, –\(\frac{4 a-12}{5}\) = 4 या – 4a + 12 = 20
4a = – 8, a = – 2
दूसरा अभीष्ट बिन्दु (- 2, 0) है।

प्रश्न 6.
समान्तर रेखाओं के बीच की दूरी ज्ञात कीजिए
(i) 15x + 8y – 34 = 0 और 15x + 8y + 31 = 0
(ii) l(x +y) + p = 0 और l(x + y) – r= 0
हल:

प्रश्न 7.
रेखा 3x – 4y + 2 = 0 के समान्तर और बिन्दु (-2, 3) से जाने वाली रेखा का समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
3x – 4y + 2 = 0
या 4y = 3x +2
∴ y = \(\frac{3}{4} x+\frac{2}{4}\)
∴ रेखा की ढाल = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
दिया गया बिन्दु (- 2, 3) और ढाल m = \(\frac{3}{4}\) से जाने वाली रेखा का समीकरण
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 3 = \(\frac{3}{4}\)(x + 2)
या 4y – 12 = 3x + 6
या 3x – 4y + 18 = 0.
दूसरी विधि : कोई भी रेखा ax + by + c = 0 के समान्तर ax + by + k = 0 के रूप में लिखी जा सकती है।
∴ 3x – 4y + 2 = 0 के समान्तर रेखा 3x – 4y + k = 0 है
यह (- 2, 3) से होकर जाती है।
∴ 3 x (- 2) – 4 x 3 + k = 0 या k = 18
अभीष्ट समान्तर रेखा का समीकरण: 3x – 4y + 18 = 0.

प्रश्न 8.
रेखा x – 7y + 5 = 0 पर लम्ब और x-अन्तः खण्ड 3 वाली रेखा का समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
∵ x-अंत:खण्ड = 3
∴ रेखा A(3, 0) से होकर जाती है।
रेखा PQ : x – 7y + 5 = 0
या 7y = x +5
या y = \(\frac{1}{7}\) x + \(\frac{5}{7}\)

इसलिए PQ की ढाल = \(\frac{1}{7}\)
∵ PQ ⊥ AB
∴ A से होकर जाने वाली रेखा AB की ढाल = – 7
∴ बिन्दु (3, 0) से रेखा AB का समीकरण,
y – 0 = – 7(x – 3).
= – 7x + 21
या 7x + y – 21 = 0.
दूसरी विधि : ax + by + c = 0 की लम्ब कोई रेखा bx – ay + k = 0
∴ x – 7y + 5 = 0 की लम्ब रेखा 7x + y + k = 0
यह रेखा (3, 0) से होकर जाती है।
∴ 7 x 3 + 0 + k = 0, अर्थात् k = – 21
∴ अभीष्ट रेखा का समीकरण 7x + y – 21 = 0.

प्रश्न 9.
रेखाओं \(\sqrt{3}\)x + y =1 और x +\(\sqrt{3}\)y =1 के बीच का कोण ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:

θ = 30° = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) रेडियन। .

प्रश्न 10.
बिन्दुओं (h, 3) और (4, 1) से जाने वाली रेखा, रेखा 7x – 9y – 19 = 0 को समकोण पर प्रतिच्छेद करती है। का मान ज्ञात कीजिए।

माना रेखा AB बिन्दु A(h, 3), B(4, 1) से जाने वाली रेखा की ढाल,

चूँकि दोनों रेखाएँ एक-दूसरे को समकोण पर प्रतिच्छेद करती हैं, ∴ m₁,m₂ = – 1
\(\frac{2}{h-4} \times \frac{7}{9}\) = – 1
14 = – 9(h – 4) = – 9h + 36
∴ 9h = 36 – 14 = 22
h = \(\frac{22}{9}\)

प्रश्न 11.
सिद्ध कीजिए कि बिन्दु (x₁, y₁) से जाने वाली और रेखा Ax + By + C = 0 के समान्तर रेखा का समीकरण
A(x – x₁) + B(y – y₁) = 0 है।
हल:
रेखा Ax + By + C = 0
या y= – \(\frac{A}{B}\)x – \(\frac{C}{B}\)
रेखा की ढाल = – \(\frac{A}{B}\)
∴ समान्तर रेखा की ढाल = – \(\frac{A}{B}\)

प्रश्न 12.
बिन्दु (2, 3) से जाने वाली दो रेखाएँ परस्पर 60° के कोण पर प्रतिच्छेद करती हैं। यदि एक रेखा की ढाल 2 है तो दूसरी रेखा का समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
माना दूसरी रेखा की ढाल m है।
दोनों रेखाओं के बीच कोण
tan θ = \(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{1+m_{1} m_{2}}\)
जहाँ θ = 60°, m₁ = m और m₂ = 2
∴ tan 60 = ± \(\frac{m-2}{1+2 m}\) = \(\sqrt{3}\)

प्रश्न 13.
बिन्दुओं (3, 4) और (- 1, 2) को मिलाने वाली रेखाखण्ड के लम्ब समद्विभाजक रेखा का समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
माना बिन्दुओं A(3, 4) और B(- 1, 2) को मिलाने वाले रेखाखण्ड का मध्य बिन्दु

रेखा CD बिन्दु D से होकर जाती है
∴ रेखा CD का समीकरण
y – 3 = – 2(x – 1)
= – 2x + 2
∴ 2x + y – 5 = 0.

प्रश्न 14.
बिन्दु (- 1, 3) से रेखा 3x – 4y – 16 = 0 पर डाले गए लम्बपाद के निर्देशांक ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
मान लीजिए रेखा AB का समीकरण, 3x – 4y – 16 = 0 …(i)
या y = \(\frac{3}{4}\)x – 4
रेखा AB की ढाल = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
बिन्दु C(- 1, 3) से AB पर डाला गया लम्ब CD है
∴ AB ⊥ CD.

अतः रेखा CD का समीकरण,
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 3 = \(\frac{-4}{3}\)(x + 1)
या 3y – 9 = – 4x – 4
या 4x + 3y – 5 = 0 …(ii)
समी (i) को 3 से और (ii) को 4 से गुणा करने पर,
9x – 12y = 48
16x + 12y = 20
इनको जोड़ने पर
25x = 68 या x = \(\frac{68}{25}\)
x का मान (i) में रखने पर,

प्रश्न 15.
मूल बिन्दु से रेखा y = mx + c पर डाला गया लम्ब रेखा से बिन्दु (-1, 2) पर मिलता है। m और … c के मान ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
माना रेखा AB का समीकरण, y = mx + c
रेखा AB की ढाल = m

O से रेखा AB पर लम्ब OC डाला गया है जो बिन्दु C(- 1, 2) पर मिलता है।
∴ लम्ब रेखा OC की ढाल = –\(\frac{1}{m}\)
अब रेखा OC का समीकरण,
y – 0 = –\(\frac{1}{m}\)(x – 0)
या x + my = 0
OC की प्रवणता = \(\frac{2-0}{-1-0}\) = – 2
∴ लम्ब रेखा OC की ढाल = –\(\frac{1}{m}\)
बिन्दु C (- 1, 2) निम्न रेखा पर स्थित है :
y = mx + c
⇒ 2 = – m + c
m = \(\frac{1}{2}\) रखने पर,
2 = – \(\frac{1}{2}\) + c
∴ c = 2+ \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{5}{2}\)
अतः m = \(\frac{1}{2}\), c = \(\frac{5}{2}\)

प्रश्न 16.
यदि p और q क्रमशः मूल बिन्दु से रेखाओं x cos θ – y sin θ = k cos 2θ और x sec θ +y cosec θ = k पर लम्ब की लंबाइयाँ हैं तो सिद्ध कीजिए कि
p₂ + 4q₂ = k₂.
हल:
मूल बिन्दु (0, 0) से x cos θ – y sin θ = k cos 2θ की दूरी,

समीकरण (1) और (2) को वर्ग करके जोड़ने पर,
k₂ = p₂ + 4q₂
अतः p₂ + 4q₂ = K₂.

प्रश्न 17.
शीर्षों A(2, 3), B(4, – 1) और C(1, 2) वाले त्रिभुज ABC के शीर्ष A से उसकी सम्मुख भुजा पर लम्ब डाला गया है। लम्ब की लम्बाई तथा समीकरण ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
मान लीजिए AM रेखा BC पर लंब डाला गया है
(i) रेखा BC की ढाल

रेखा AM बिन्दु A से जाती है और ढाल = 1 है।
∴ AM का समीकरण
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 3 = 1. (x – 2)
या x – y + 1 = 0
(ii) बिन्दु B(4, – 1) और C(1, 2) से होकर जाने वाली रेखा BC का समीकरण

प्रश्न 18.
यदि p मूल बिन्दु से उस रेखा पर डाले गए लम्ब की लम्बाई हो जिसस पर अक्षों पर कटे अंत: खण्ड a और b हों, तो दिखाइए कि \(\frac{1}{p^{2}}=\frac{1}{a^{2}}+\frac{1}{b^{2}}\).
हल:
उस रेखा का समीकरण, जिसकी अक्षों पर कटे अंत:खण्ड a और b हों,
\(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}\) = 1 (अंत:खण्ड समीकरण)
मूल बिन्दु (0, 0) बसे इस रेखा पर डाले गए लम्ब की लम्बाई

MP Board Class 11th Maths Solutions