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MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances

Motion and Measurement of Distances Text Book Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples each, of modes of transport used on land, water and air.
Answer:

• Land: Railways, buses.
• Water: Ships, boats.
• Air: Aeroplanes, helicopters.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. One meter is ……………… cm.
2. Five kilometer is ……………. m.
3. Motion of a child on a swing is ………………
4. Motion of the needle of a sewing machine is ………………
5. Motion of wheel of a bicycle is ……………….

Answer:

1. 100
2. 5000
3. Periodic motion
4. Oscillatory motion
5. Circular motion.

Question 3.
Why can a pace or a footstep not be used as a standard unit of length?
Answer:
A pace or a footstep cannot be used as a standard unit of length because they are different for different people. Moreover, there will be a large difference in a pace and a footstep of child, young and an adult.

Question 4.
Arrange the following lengths in their increasing magnitude:
1 meter, 1 centimeter, 1 kilometer, 1 millimeter.
Answer:
The given lengths in their increasing order are written as:
1 millimeter > 1 centimeter > 1 meter > 1 kilometer.

Question 5.
The length of a person is 1.65 m. Express it into cm and mm.
Answer:
We know that,
1 m = 100 cm
and 1 m = 1000 mm
∴ 1.65 m = 1.65 × 100 cm = 165 cm
and 1.65 m = 1.65 × 1000 mm = 1650 mm.

Question 6.
The distance between Radha’s home and her school is 3250 m. Express this distance into km.
Answer:
We know that,
1 m = \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 }\) Km
∴ Distance between Radha’s home and her school = 3250m
= 3250 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 }\) km.
= 3.250 km.

Question 7.
While measuring the length of a knitting needle, the reading of the scale at one end is 3.0 cm and at the other end is 33.1 cm. What is the length of the needle?
Answer:
The length of needle = 33.1 – 3.0 cm
= 30.1 cm.

Question 8.
Write the similarities and differences between the motion of a bicycle and a ceiling fan that has been switched on.
Answer:

Similarity:
The motion of a bicycle and ceiling fan are in circular motion.

Dissimilarity:
The ceiling fan moves without changing its position while the bicycle moves with changing its position with time.

Question 9.
Why could you not use an elastic measuring tape to measure distance? What would be some of the problems you would meet in telling someone about a distance you measured with an elastic tape?
Answer:
We should not use an elastic measuring tape to measure distance because the length of an elastic measuring tape will increase when we pull or stretch the tape for measuring the length. The measured length may be increase or decrease due to its elasticity. Thus, we cannot measure the correct length by an elastic measuring tape. The length of any object measured by this elastic tape either will be more or less depending upon the elasticity of the tape.

Question 10.
Give two examples of periodic motion.
Answer:
Examples of periodic motion are motion of a pendulum, a branch of a tree moving to and fro, motion of a child on a swing, strings of a guitar, etc. (any two).

Projects And Activities

Activity 1.
Work in groups and each of you do this activity one by one. Using your foot as a unit of length, measure the length and breadth of the classroom. It is possible that while measuring these you may find some part remains to be measured as it is smaller than your foot.
Answer:
Measuring length and breadth of classroom

Activity 2.
Work in groups and each of you use your handspan as a unit to measure the width of a table or a desk in the classroom.
Answer:
Measuring width of a table

Activity 3.
Think of some objects you have seen recently. List them in Table. A school bag, a mosquito, a table, people sitting on desks, people moving about? May be a butterfly, dog, cow, your hand, a small baby, a fish in water, a house, a factory, a stone, a horse, a ball, a bat, a moving train, a sewing machine, a wall clock, hands of a clock? Make your list as large as you can. Which of these are moving? Which are at rest?
Answer:
Table: Objects in rest and motion

Motion and Measurement of Distances Additional Important Questions

Motion and Measurement of Distances Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers:

Question (i)
The SI unit of the length is –
(a) Centimeter
(b) Meter
(c) Decimeter
(d) Kilometer
Answer:
(a) Centimeter

Question (ii)
The SI unit of mass is –
(a) Milligram
(b) Gram
(c) Kilogram
(d) Quintal
Answer:
(c) Kilogram

Question (iii)
SI unit of time is –
(a) Day
(b) Hour
(c) Minute
(d) Second
Answer:
(d) Second

Question (iv)
To read the scale the eye should be vertically –
(a) Upward
(b) Downward
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Upward

Question (v)
Flying kite is an example of –
(a) Circular motion
(b) Periodic motion
(c) Irregular motion
(d) Linear motion
Answer:
(c) Irregular motion

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. One decameter equals ……………. meters.
2. One decimeter equals ……………. centimeters.
3. One quintal equals ……………. kilograms.
4. One millennium equals ……………. centuries.
5. One metric ton equals …………… quintals.
6. Meter is indicated by sign …………….
7. Kilogram is indicated by sign …………….
8. Second is indicated by sign …………….
9. Changing of day and night is ……………. change.

Answer:

1. 0.1
2. 10
3. 100
4. 10
5. 10
6. m
7. kg
8. s
9. Periodic

Question 3.
State whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. In ancient India, small length measurements used were an angul (finger) or a mutthi (fist).
2. In 1790, the French created a standard unit of measurement called the metric system.
3. For measuring large distances, meter is not a convenient unit.
4. Handspan is a standard unit of length.
5. Length of a curved line cannot be measured by a meter scale directly.
6. Motion of the balance wheel of a watch is a periodic motion.
7. The motion of a ball rolling on ground is random motion.
8. The motion of a point marked on the black of an electric fan is the example of circular motion.
9. The motion of the moon round the earth is periodic.
10. When a drum is struck gently, its membrane shows random motion.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. False.

Question 4.
Match the items in Column A with Column B:

Answer:

(i) (d)
(ii) (a)
(iii) (e)
(iv) (b)
(v) (c).

Question 5.
Match the items in Column A with Column B:

Answer:

(i) (d)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (b).

Motion and Measurement of Distances Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How may kilogram are there in one metric ton?
Answer:
1 metric ton = 1000 kg = 10³ kg.

Question 2.
How many seconds are there in one day?
Answer:
Number of seconds in one day=24 × 60 x 60 = 86400 s.

Question 3.
Why a pace or a foot step cannot be used as a standard unit of length.
Answer:
The pace or a foot step vary from person to person. These methods are not satisfactory.

Question 4.
Arrange the following lengths in their increasing order: metre, centimeter, kilometer, millimeter.
Answer:
Millimeter < centimeter < metre < kilometer.

Question 5.
Arrange the following masses in their increasing order: kilogram, quintal, milligram, gram.
Answer:
Milligram < gram < kilogram < quintal.

Question 6.
How many liters would be there in 1000 ml?
Answer:
1 litre, because liter = 1000 ml.

Question 7.
How many seconds are there in 8 minutes?
Answer:
∵ 1 minutes = 60 seconds
∴ 8 minutes = 8 × 60 seconds
= 480 seconds.

Question 8.
How many centimeters means 8 meters?
Answer:
∵ 1 metre = 100 centimeter
∴ 8 meters = 8 × 100 centimeters
= 800 centimeters.

Question 9.
How many meters means 3000 mm?
Answer:
∵ 1 mm = 100 metre
3000
∴ 3000 mm = metre = 3 metre.

Question 10.
To measure the length of chest, what instrument would you use? Can you measure chest with the help of any other method?
Answer:
For measuring the size of chest we use a measuring tape. A metre scale cannot be used. It will not give correct measurement because it is not flexible.

Question 11.
Why hand is not a standard unit to measure length?
Answer:
A hand cannot be used as standard unit of length because the length of hand of all the people are different. So the length measured by one person will differ from the length measured by the other person.

Question 12.
What happens if the tailor takes your measurement with hand?
Answer:
There is variation in the measurement takes by hand because the length of hand-span of every tailor was different.

Question 13.
State any two points necessary for measurement.
Answer:
The measurement is the comparison of any two unknown quantity with same kind of definite known quantity. The measure should be such that it must have same meaning for each individual. To bring uniformity in measurement we use standard units.

Question 14.
At which place, the standard units have been preserved?
Answer:
International standard units have been preserved at the Weight and Measures Bureau in Paris.

Question 15.
Where does the copies of standard units have been preserved in India?
Answer:
In India, one copy of International standard units is preserved at National Physical Laboratory, Pusa Road, New Delhi.

Question 16.
Name the quantity which a shopkeeper measures while selling rice.
Answer:
Kilogram.

Question 17.
Name the two parts which must be mentioned to state the results of a measurement.
Answer:
The two parts are

1. Quantity
2. Unit.

Question 18.
Name the SI units of length?
Answer:
SI unit of length is 1 metre or 9 m.

Question 19.
Name the SI unit of mass?
Answer:
SI unit of mass is kilogram or 9 kg.

Question 20.
What is motion?
Answer:
Motion is the continuous change in position of a body with respect to time as compared to a stationary object. For examples, moving car, moving fan, etc.

Question 21.
Is your classroom at rest or in motion?
Answer:
It is at rest because’ it is not changing its position.

Question 22.
Is the hour’s hand of a wall clock at rest or in motion?
Answer:
The hour’s hand of a wall clock is moving though it moves very slowly.

Question 23.
What type of motion do the vehicles on a straight road perform?
Answer:
The vehicles perform rectilinear motion on the road.

Question 24.
What type of motion does the wheel of a bicycle perform?
Answer:
The wheel of a bicycle perform rotatory or circular motion.

Question 25.
An object is hung from a spring is pulled down and left. What type of motion does the object perform?
Answer:
The object perform oscillatory motion which is also a periodic motion.

Question 26.
Give two examples of periodic motion.
Answer:

1. Rotation of earth on its axis.
2. Moon moves around the earth.

Question 27.
Give two examples of non – uniform motion.
Answer:

1. Motion of the train when its driver applies breaks.
2. Motion of the cricket ball when the bowler throws the ball and the ball is hit by the player.

Question 28.
Name the three types of motion.
Answer:
Three types of motion are rectilinear motion, rotatory motion and oscillatory motion.

Question 29.
Which type of motion does the feet of a tailor perform while sewing some clothes on a sewing machine?
Answer:
The feet of the tailor perform periodic motion while sewing clothes on a sewing machine.

Motion and Measurement of Distances Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by measurement, explain with example?
Answer:
The comparision of an unknown quantity with a known standard quantity (called unit) is known as measurement. For example, while buying things, we ask a certain amount of quantity to the shopkeeper, he then weight the exact quantity and gives it to us, like one kg sugar, 5 metre cloth, 10 kg. flour etc.

Question 2.
In our daily life, where we need measurement. Give any five examples.
Answer:
Examples of measurements:

1. To measure the length of cloth before serving.
2. To measure the weight of vegetables before buying.
3. To build house.
4. To reach school in time.
5. To buying milk.

Question 3.
What are the difficulties in using non – standard units?
Answer:
People use foot, arm, stretched palm, etc. as units of length. These non – standard units (or methods) were not satisfactory because lengths of arm, foot and stretched palm vary from person to person. However if there are different units of length in the different parts of the world, it is very inconvenient for the exchange of scientific information. Thus the need for the standard unit been felt. The unit which people agree to use as a basic unit for measurement becomes a standard unit for the group of people for the sake of uniformity.

Question 4.
What do you understand by International System of measurements? Write a short note on it.
Answer:
For bringing the uniformity in units, scientists have done lot of efforts on International level and prepared an unanimous standard system. It is known as International Standard System. It is abbreviated as SI units.In this system length is measured in metre mass in kilogram and time in second. A metre is a distance equal to one million (10-7) time of the distance between equator and pole. A second is 1/86400 times of a mean solar day. A kilogram is equal to one thousand milligrams.

Question 5.
Why standard units are necessary?
Answer:
A quantity adopted as a standard of measurement of physical quantity, is called a unit. In fact, the unit of measurement should be such that the magnitude measurement must be the same even if it is measured by different persons. The measure should be such that it must have same meaning for each individual. To bring uniformity in measurement standard units are necessary.

Question 6.
How can you find out that a given meter scale is correct or not?
Answer:

1. A correct metre sacle has (←, →) signs on its both ends as shown in figure.
2. A correct metre scale has the stamp of the Weights and Measure Department.
3. A correct metre scale is straight, not bent from the centre.
4. A correct metre sacle gives the correct measurement of length.
   

Question 7.
Give three examples of rectilinear motion. Explain.
Answer:

1. A scooterist driving on a road.
2. Soldiers marching in the battlefield.
3. A ball falling from a height.

In all these examples objects change their position with time along a straight line.

Question 8.
Give two examples of rotatory motion. Explain.
Answer:

1. Motion of blades of a fan.
2. Motion of minute hand of the clock.
3. Motion of the wheel of a car.

In these examples the object or any parts of it move in a circular path. This is called rotatory or circular motion.

Question 9.
What are the differing types of motion?
Answer:
The different types of motions are :

1. Linear motion
2. Circular motion
3. Curvilinear motion
4. Oscillatory motion
5. Random motion
6. Periodic motion

A motion can be the combination of all these types of motions or a few of them.

Question 10.
What are periodic and non-periodic motions? Explain with example.
Answer:
Periodic motion:
The motion of a body which is repeated at regular intervals of time is called periodic motion. In periodic motion, a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time. For exampls, revolution of earth round the sun, the motion of moon round the earth, the motion of a swing, the motion of a pendulum, etc.

Non – periodic motion:
The motion of a body which is not repeated at regular intervals of time is called non-periodic motion. In non – periodic motion, a body does not cover equal distances in equal intervals of time. For examples an athlete running on a track, a moving car on busy road, etc.

Question 11.
How is circular motion different from curvilinear motion?
Answer:
Circular motion is curvilinear motion but it involves the motion of a body at a fixed distance from a fixed point called axis. The figure explains the difference. As motion of the body ‘A’ is around the axis but in second case ‘B’ it is curvilinear motion.

Question 12.
Give a table to show multiples and sub – multiples of units of length, mass and time.
Answer:
Length
10 mm = 1 centimeter (cm)
10 cm = 1 decimeter (dm)
10 decimeter = 100 cm = 1 metre (m)
10 metre = 1 decameter
100 metre = 1 hectometer
1000 metre = 1 kilometer (km)

Mass
1000 (mg) = 1 gram (g)
1000 gm = 1 kilogram (kg)
100 kg = 1 quintal
10 quintal = 1 metric ton

Time
60 seconds = 1 minute
60 minutes = 1 hours
24 hrs. = 1 day
365 days = 1 year
10 years = 1 decade
10 decades = 1 century

Motion and Measurement of Distances Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What precautions are taken while measuring length?
Answer:
The precautions which should be taken while using a metre scale to measure length are the following:

1. The scale should be placed along the length to be measured

2. The scale should be placed very close to the object to be measured.

3. The broken scale should not be used because if used the 1 always begin with the final mark on scale. Subtract the final reading from initial reading to get length e.g., if the initial reading is 4.2 cm and final reading is 6.8 cm. then the length is 6.8 – 4.2 cm = 2.6 cm.

4. To read to scale correctly the eye should be vertically upward. As shown in fig. OA and OC give wrong reading of length while OB gives the correct reading of length.

Question 2.
Identify the measuring instruments given in the pictures and tell where they are used?

Answer:
1. Inch tape:
It is used for measuring height and tailor also uses this inch tape.

2. Steel tape or measuring tape:
It is used for measurement of glass, building height and carpenter also uses this.

Question 3.
Identify the correct method of keeping scale for measuring the length?

Answer:

1. Is the correct method of keeping scale for measuring the length.

Question 4.
With the help of thread and scale find out the length of Rs. 5 coin.
Answer:
Mark a dot on one end of the circumference of the coin. Now put a knot on one end of the thread. Keep it tight on the mark on the coin. Move the thread around the circumference till the mark on the coin is reached again. Mark this position on the thread with a dark pencil. Measure the length of the thread between the knot and the mark. (Do not stretch the thread with a force). This is the length of circumference of five rupee coin.

Verify this length by keeping the thread in stretched position on the table between two tight nails. Mark a dot with a pencil. Place the rupee coin in vertical position. Now slide the coin along the length of thread till the mark on the coin is reached again as shown in the diagram below. Measure the distance between two marks on the thread. This is the circumference of the coin. The two measurement must be exactly identical.

Question 5.
Use a thread to measure the length of a curved line.
Answer:
Mark the ends of curved line by putting full stop. Tie a knot on the open end of the thread. Place the knot of the thread on end A of the line. Now place the thread along the line keeping it tightly gripped with the help of both the thumbs or fore-fingers as in the diagram.

Now move the thumb a little further keeping the thread in position and then press and release the hold on the thread as you keep on sliding the thread along the curves on the line. When the thread reaches the end B mark this position on the thread. You may tie the second knot at this point. Now measure the length of thread between two knots with the help of the metre scale. This is the length of the curved line.

Question 6.
How many kinds of motions are? On the basis of daily experience explain only two of them.
Answer:
The different types of motions are:

1. Linear motion
2. Curvi linear motion
3. Random motion
4. Circular motion
5. Oscillatory motion
6. Periodic motion
7. Non – periodic motion.

A motion can be the combination of all these types of motions or a few of them.

1. Linear motion:
It is also called as translatory motion. It involves the motion of a body along a straight line. For examples, a bullet fired from a rifle, a ball rolling on ground, a child sliding down a slope as shown in fig.

2. Curvilinear motion:
The motion of a body along a curved path is called curvilinear motion. For examples, a cyclist turning on road, a ball falling from a height, a train moving on a curved rail track, football kicked high in air by a player, etc.

3. Random motion:
The motion of a body in which it changes its position rapidly with time in all the possible directions is called random motion. For examples, the motion of a mosquito, the motion of a hockey ball or of football in the ground, etc.

4. Circular motion:
The motion of a body along a circular path about a fixed axis is called circular motion. For examples, revolution of moon around the earth, revolution of earth around the sun, a rotating spinning top, moving wheel, a moving fan, etc.

5. Oscillatory motion:
A body is said to be in oscillatory motion when it moves to an fro about a fixed point. For examples, the pendulum of a wall, clock (Fig.), a swing, a wire of sitar when plucked, striking of drum, etc. Mostly the hanging objects show oscillatory motion.

6. Periodic motion:
The motion of a body which is repeated at regular intervals of time is called periodic motion. In periodic motion, a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time. For examples revolution of earth round the sun, the motion of moon round the earth, the motion of a swing, the motion of a pendulum, etc.

7. Non – periodic motion:
The motion of a body which is not repeated at regular intervals of time is called non – periodic motion. In non – periodic motion, a body does not cover equal distances in equal intervals of time. For examples an athelete running on a track, a moving car on the busy road, etc.

Question 7.
Give an experiment to show that motion of plucked string is oscillatory motion?
Answer:
Take a thin string and tie it in between the two nails fixed on table. Now pluck the string and observe the motion of the plucked string. We will see that the string moves to and fro along its mean position. This shows that motion of plucked string is Oscillatory
motion.

Question 8.
Why sand grains kept on a drum move up and down on stiling?
Answer:
The drum membrane shows vibratory motion when struck. This vibratory motion of the membrane makes the sand grains dance up and down as shown in figure. As the membrane vibrates above its mean position, the sand grains fly up and then fall down.

MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.3

Assume π = \(\frac{22}{7}\), unless stated otherwise.

Question 1.
Diameter of the base of a cone is 10.5 cm and its slant height is 10 cm. Find its curved surface area.
Solution:
Here, diameter of the base = 10.5 cm
Radius (r) = \(\frac{10.5}{2}\)
Slant height (l) = 10 cm
Curved surface area of the cone = πrl
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) x \(\frac{10.5}{2}\) x 10 cm²
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) x \(\frac{10.5}{20}\) x 10 cm²
= 11 x 15 x 1 cm² = 165 cm²

Question 2.
Find the total surface area of a cone, if its slant height is 21 m and diameter of its base is 24 m.
Solution:
Here, diameter = 24 m
Radius (r) = \(\frac{24}{2}\) m = 12m
Slant height (l) = 21 m
Total surface area = πr (r + l)

Question 3.
Curved surface area of a cone is 308 cm² and its slant height is 14 cm. Find:

1. radius of the base and
2. total surface area of the cone.

Solution:
Here, curved surface area = 308 cm²
Slant height (l) = 14 cm

1. Let the radius of the base be ‘r’ cm.
πrl = 308
\(\frac{22}{7}\) x r x 14 = 308
r = \(\frac{308×7}{22×14}\) = 7 cm
Thus, the required radius of the cone is 7 cm.

2. base area = πr² = \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 7² cm.
and curved surface area = 308 cm² given
∴ Total surface area = [Curved surface area] + [Base area]
= 308 cm² + 154 cm² = 462 cm²

Question 4.
A conical tent is 10 m high and the radius of its base is 24 m. Find

(i) slant height of the tent.
(ii) cost of the canvas required to make the tent, if the cost of 1 m² canvas is ₹ 70.

Solution:
h = 10 m
r =24m

Cost of canvas = CSA x Rate of canvas
= 1961.14 x 70
= ₹ 137279.8
= ₹ 137280.

Question 5.
What length of tarpaulin 3 m wide will be required to make conical tent of height 8 m and base radius 6 m? Assume that the extra length of material that will be required for stitching margins and wastage in cutting is approximately 20 cm. (Use π = 3.14)
Solution:

h = 8m
r = 6m
Width of tarpaulin = 3 m
Extra length required = 20 cm = 0.2 m

CSA of conical tent = πrl
= 3.14 x 6 x 10 = 188.4 m²
CSA of conical tent = Area of tarpaulin
188.4 = l x 3 (Here l = length of tarpaulin)
l = \(\frac{188.4}{3}\)
Total length of tarpaulin required = 62.8 + 0.2 = 63 m

Question 6.
The slant height and base diameter of a conical tomb are 25 m and 14 m respectively. Find the cost of white-washing its curved surface at the rate of ₹ 210 per 100 m².
Solution:
l = 25m
d = 14m
r = 7m
Rate of white washing = ₹ 210 per 100 m²
= \(\frac{210}{100}\) = ₹ 2.10 per m²
CSA of conical tomb = πrl
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 7 x 25 = 550 m²
Cost of white washing = Rate x CSA
= 2.10 x 550 (Rate per m² = \(\frac{220}{100}\))
= ₹ 1155

Question 7.
A joker’s cap is in the form of a right circular cone of base radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Find the area of the sheet required to make 10 such caps.
Solution:
r = 7 cm
h = 24 cm

Area of sheet required = CSA of 10 such caps = 550 x 10 = 5500 cm².

Question 8.
A bus stop is barricaded from the remaining part of the road, by using 50 hollow cones made of recycled cardboard. Each cone has a base diameter of 40 cm and height 1 m. If the outer side of each of the cones is to be painted and the cost of painting is ₹ 12 per m² what will be cost of painting all these cones? (Use π = 3.14 and take \(\sqrt{1.04}\) =1.02).
Solution:
d = 40 cm
r = 20 cm = 0.20 m
h = l m
Rate = ₹ 12 per m²

= 1.02
CSA of cone = 3.14 x 0.2 x 1.02 = 0.64m²
Total area of 50 hollow cones= 50 x 0.64 = 32 m²
Cost of painting = 32 x 12 = ₹ 384
(Rate of painting = ₹ 12/m²)

MP Board Class 9th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 10th Hindi Navneet Solutions पद्य Chapter 9 जीवन दर्शन

जीवन दर्शन अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

जीवन दर्शन अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न 

प्रश्न 1.
कवि नाश पथ पर कौन-से चिह्न छोड़ जाना चाहता है?
उत्तर:
कवि नाश पथ पर अपने पग चिह्न छोड़ जाना चाहता

प्रश्न 2.
मधुप की मधुर गुनगुन विश्व पर क्या प्रभाव डालेगी?
उत्तर:
मधुप की मधुर गुनगुन सम्पूर्ण संसार के क्रन्दन को भुला देगी।

प्रश्न 3.
तितलियों के रंग से कवि का क्या तात्पर्य है?
उत्तर:
तितलियों के रंग से कवि का तात्पर्य सांसारिक सुख-भोग एवं सुविधाओं से है।

प्रश्न 4.
कवि के अनुसार काँटे की मर्यादा क्या है?
उत्तर:
कवि के अनुसार काँटे की मर्यादा है उसका कठोर होना तथा तीखा होना।

प्रश्न 5.
कवि ने ‘मर्दे होंगे’ किसे कहा है?
उत्तर:
कवि ने ‘मुर्दे होंगे’ उन प्रेमियों के लिए कहा है जिन्होंने प्रेम के नाम पर सम्मोहन करने वाली मदिरा पी रखी है।

जीवन दर्शन लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
कवि की आँखें उनींदी क्यों हैं?
उत्तर:
कवि की आँखें उनींदी इसलिए हैं कि आज हमको समाज में अनुकूल वातावरण नहीं मिल रहा है।

प्रश्न 2.
‘मोम के बन्धन सजीले’ से कवि का क्या आशय है?
उत्तर:
‘मोम के बन्धन सजीले’ से कवि का आशय सांसारिक आकर्षणों से है।

प्रश्न 3.
‘चिर सजग’ का क्या आशय है?
उत्तर:
‘चिर सजग’ का आशय है कि हमें हमेशा सचेत रहना चाहिए और सांसारिक बाधाओं से संघर्ष करते रहना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 4.
कवि ने अन्तिम रहस्य के रूप में क्या पहचान लिया?
उत्तर:
कवि ने अन्तिम रहस्य के रूप में यह जान लिया कि यह संसार एक यज्ञशाला है और इसमें व्यक्ति को स्वाहा होना है।

प्रश्न 5.
कुचला जाकर भी कवि किस रूप में उभरता
उत्तर:
कुचला जाकर भी कवि आँधी की धूल बनकर उमड़ना चाहता है।

प्रश्न 6.
‘निर्मम रण में पग-पग पर रुकना’ किस प्रकार प्रतिफलित होता है?
उत्तर:
निर्मम रण में पग-पग पर रुकना वार बनकर प्रतिफलित होता है।

जीवन दर्शन दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
‘जाग तुझको दूर जाना’ में क्या आशय छिपा है? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
‘जाग तुझको दूर जाना’ में यह आशय छिपा है कि मनुष्य का जीवन एक निश्चित अवधि का होता है, जबकि जीवन क्षेत्र में उसे अनगिनत कार्य करने पड़ते हैं। अपने लक्ष्य प्राप्त करने के लिए उसे अनेकानेक विघ्न-बाधाओं से टकराना होता है।

प्रश्न 2.
‘पंथ की बाधा बनेंगे तितलियों के पर रंगीले’ में निहित भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
मनुष्य जब अपने लक्ष्य को प्राप्त करने के लिए चलता है तो सांसारिक भौतिक आकर्षण तथा सुख-सुविधाएँ उसे विचलित करने की चेष्टा करती हैं। मनुष्य जब तक इनसे सचेत नहीं रहेगा, वह अपने लक्ष्य को प्राप्त नहीं कर सकेगा।

प्रश्न 3.
‘तू न अपनी छाँह को अपने लिए कारा बनाना’ द्वारा कवि क्या सन्देश देना चाहता है?
उत्तर:
छाँह चाहने के लिए अर्थात् जीवन में सुख-सुविधाएँ जुटाने के लिए व्यक्ति उचित एवं अनुचित सभी प्रकार के कार्य करता रहता है। कभी-कभी मनुष्य के स्वयं किये गये कारनामे ही उसे कारागार की हवा खिला देते हैं। अतः कवि जीवन के अनुचित कार्यों से बचने की सलाह देता है।

प्रश्न 4.
‘मैंने आहुति बनकर देखा’ कविता का मूल भाव लिखिए।
उत्तर:
‘मैंने आहुति बनकर देखा’ कविता का मूलभाव यह है कि यद्यपि जीवन मरणशील है; इसमें जय और पराजय दोनों हैं। इसमें गति को रोकने वाली अनेक विघ्न-बाधाएँ भी हैं किन्तु इन्हीं सबके चलते हुए हमें जीवन को निरन्तर आगे चलाते रहना चाहिए। संसार एक यज्ञ वेदिका जैसा है इसमें सब कुछ होम करके ही जीवन को श्रेष्ठ बनाया जा सकता है। तप करके ही जीवन में ललकार देने की शक्ति आती है। कवि ने इसमें त्याग और तपस्या का महत्व बताया है।

प्रश्न 5.
प्रस्तुत कविताओं से हमें क्या सीख मिलती है?
उत्तर:
प्रस्तुत कविताओं से हमें यह सीख मिलती है कि मानव का जीवन संघर्षों से भरा हुआ है। यह संसार नाशवान् है पर महान् मनुष्य वे होते हैं जो आने वाली पीढ़ी के लिए अपने चरण चिह्न छोड़ जाया करते हैं। अपनी पहचान बनाने के लिए हमें भौतिक सुख-सुविधाओं को त्यागना होगा। संसार एक यज्ञ की वेदी के समान है। इसमें जो सब कुछ स्वाहा कर देता है, उसी का जीवन सार्थक बन जाता है। त्याग और तपस्या से मानव का संसार में महत्व आँका जाता है।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित काव्य पंक्तियों की सप्रसंग व्याख्या लिखिए
(क) मैं कब कहता हूँ …………. ओछा फूल बने?
उत्तर:
कविवर अज्ञेय जी संसार के मनुष्यों से कहते हैं कि मैं संसार के लोगों से कब कहता हूँ कि वे मेरे समान संघर्षों का सामना करने वाली शक्ति को धारण करें। मैं यह भी नहीं कहता हूँ कि संसार के मनुष्य अपने रेगिस्तान जैसे शुष्क जीविन को देवताओं के सुन्दर उपवन के समान हरा-भरा या सुख-सुविधाओं में सम्पन्न बना लें। काँटा देखने में कठोर और तीखा अवश्य लगता है, पर उसकी भी इस सृष्टि में अपनी मर्यादा है। मैं उससे भी यह नहीं कहता कि वह अपने इस कठोर रूप को कम करके किसी भाग का एक ओछा फूल बन जाये। कहने का भाव यह है कि सबका अपना-अपना भाग्य होता है। अतः सभी को अपनी सामर्थ्य के अनुसार जीवन में काम करना चाहिए।

(ख) विश्व का क्रन्दन …………… तुझको दूर जाना।
उत्तर:
कवयित्री महादेवी वर्मा कहती हैं कि हे मानव! क्या ये मोम के गीले बन्धन तझे अपने जाल में बाँध लेंगे? क्या रंग-बिरंगी तितलियों के पंख तुम्हारे मार्ग की रुकावट बनेंगे? क्या भौरों की मधुर गुनगुनाहट संसार के दुःखों को भुला देंगी या ओस से गीले फूल की पंखुड़ियाँ तुझे डूबो देंगी? तू व्यर्थ में ही अपनी ही परछाईं को अपना जेलखाना बना रहा है। इन निराशा की भावनाओं को छोड़! तेरा जो लक्ष्य है, उसे पाने के लिए तू सतत् प्रयत्न कर तुझे अभी बहुत दूर तक जाना है।

जीवन दर्शन काव्य सौन्दर्य

प्रश्न 1.
हास्यरसकी परिभाषा किसी अन्य उदाहरण द्वारा समझाइए।
उत्तर:
हास्य रस-विचित्र वेश-भूषा, विकृत आकार, चेष्टा आदि के कारण जाग्रत हास स्थायी भाव विभावादि से पुष्ट होकर हास्य रस में परिणत होता है। जैसे-

“हँसि हँसि भजे देखि दूलह दिगम्बर को,
पाहुनी जे आवै हिमाचल के उछाह में।
कहै पद्माकर सु काहु सों कहै को कहा,
जोई जहाँ देखे सो हँसोई तहाँ राह में।
मगन भएई हँसे नगन महेश ठाढ़े,
और हँसे वेऊ हँसि-हँसि के उमाह में।
सीस पर गंगा हँसे भुजनि भुजंगा हँसे,
हास ही को दंगा भयो नंगा के विवाह में ॥”

यहाँ दर्शक आश्रय हैं तथा शिवजी आलम्बन हैं। उनकी विचित्र आकृति, नग्न स्वरूप आदि उद्दीपन हैं। लोगों का हँसना, भागना आदि अनुभाव तथा हर्ष, उत्सुकता, चपलता आदि संचारी भाव हैं।

जीवन दर्शन महत्त्वपूर्ण वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

जीवन दर्शन बहु-विकल्पीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
कवि की आँखें उन्नींदी क्यों हैं?
(क) शीघ्र जगने के कारण
(ख) नींद पूरी न होने से
(ग) आलस्य के कारण
(घ) बिना किसी कारण।
उत्तर:
(ग) आलस्य के कारण

प्रश्न 2.
‘जाग तुझको दूर जाना अचल के हृदय में चाहे कम्प हो ले’ ‘अचल’ शब्द का प्रयोग किसके लिये है?
(क) हिमालय
(ख) गंगा
(ग) आकाश
(घ) आँखों।
उत्तर:
(क) हिमालय

प्रश्न 3.
कवयित्री ने ‘मोम के बन्धन’ किसको कहा है?
(क) माया-मोह
(ख) विषय-वासनादि
(ग) साधना मार्ग की बाधाएँ
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।

प्रश्न 4.
‘मैने आहुति बनकर देखा है’ कविता के रचयिता हैं
(क) सच्चिदानन्द हीरानन्द वात्स्यायन ‘अज्ञेय’
(ख) रामनरेश त्रिपाठी
(ग) रामधारी सिंह ‘दिनकर’
(घ) नरेश मेहता।
उत्तर:
(क) सच्चिदानन्द हीरानन्द वात्स्यायन ‘अज्ञेय’

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति

1. महादेवी वर्मा के काव्य में वेदना की प्रचुरता थी। इसी कारण उन्हें आधुनिक ………. कहा जाता है।
2. महादेवी वर्मा साधना मार्ग में ………… नहीं आने देना चाहती थीं।
3. बाँध लेंगे क्या तुझे मोम के ……….. सजीले।
4. “धूल पैरों से कुचली जाती है किन्तु वह कुचलने वाले के सिर पर सवार हो जाती है।” उसी प्रकार मैंने ……….. से हार नहीं मानी है।

उत्तर:

1. मीरा
2. आलस्य
3. बन्धन
4. बाधाओं।

सत्य/असत्य

1. महादेवी वर्मा छायावादी युग की प्रमुख कवयित्री हैं। इन्होंने छायावाद के अन्तर्गत जीवन के दोनों पक्षों का वर्णन किया है।
2. महादेवी वर्मा का वैवाहिक जीवन सुखमय था। इसी कारण उन्होंने विरह गीत लिखे हैं।
3. “हरी घास पर क्षण भर” कविता महादेवी वर्मा की है?
4. हिन्दी साहित्य में अज्ञेय की ख्याति केवल भारत में ही नहीं अपितु विदेशों में भी है।

उत्तर:

1. सत्य
2. असत्य
3. असत्य
4. सत्य

सही जोड़ी मिलाइए

उत्तर:
1. → (ग)
2. → (घ)
3. → (क)
4. → (ख)

एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर

1. महादेवी वर्मा ने कबीर की भाँति अपने काव्य में वर्णन किया है।
2. ‘तु न अपनी छाँह को अपने लिए काटा बनाना’ यह पंक्ति किस रचनाकार की है। (2011)
3. अज्ञेय की रचनाएँ नई पीढ़ी के लेखकों के लिए हैं।
4. अज्ञेय ने अपनी कविता द्वारा स्पष्ट किया है कि जीवन मरणशील है। इसमें पराजय भी है और आगे बढ़ने में हैं।
5. काँटे की मर्यादा क्या है? (2016)

उत्तर:

1. रहस्यवाद का
2. महादेवी वर्मा
3. मानक स्वरूप
4. अनेक व्यवधान
5. काँटे की मर्यादा उसके कठोर एवं तीखे होने में है।

चिर सजग आँखें उनींदी आज कैसा व्यस्त बाना! भाव सारांश

‘चिर सजग आँखें उनींदी आज कैसा व्यस्त बाना’ नामक कविता में महादेवी वर्मा ने अपने मन को साधना मार्ग का राहगीर समझकर उसे जीवन में आगे बढ़ने के लिए उत्साहित किया है।

कवयित्री कहती हैं हे मन! तू आलस्य को त्याग, क्योंकि ये जीवन पथ बहुत लम्बा है और तुझे यह दूरी तय करनी है। चाहे हिमालय पर्वत अपने स्थान से हिल जाये अथवा आसमान में प्रलय के बादल छा जाये। चाहे तेज आँधी और तूफान आयें या घनघोर वर्षा हो। बिजली भी चाहे कड़के, तुम्हें आगे बढ़ते ही जाना है।

कवयित्री का कथन है कि मेरे मन तुम वज्र के सदृश कठोर थे लेकिन आँसुओं ने उन्हें गीला करके गला दिया। सांसारिक माया-मोह में डूबकर तुमने अपने जीवन के मूल्यवान क्षणों को खो दिया है।

कवयित्री कहती है कि हे प्राण! तुम आलस्य और प्रमाद को त्यागकर अपने मन में उत्साह उत्पन्न करो जिससे कि तुम्हें विषय-वासनाओं से मुक्ति मिलेगी और तुम्हारी साधना का मार्ग प्रशस्त हो जायेगा। अत: हे मानव! आलस्य को त्याग दे। यही तेरे लिये उचित और उत्तम है।

चिर सजग आँखें उनींदी आज कैसा व्यस्त बाना! संदर्भ-प्रसंगसहित व्याख्या

(1) चिर सजग आँखें उनींदी आज कैसा व्यस्त बाना!
जाग तुझको दूर जाना!
अचल हिमगिरि के हृदय में आज चाहे कम्प हो ले,
या प्रलय के आँसुओं में मौन अलसित व्योम रो ले,
आज पी आलोक को डोले तिमित की घोर छाया,
जाग या विद्युत-शिखाओं में निठुर तूफान बोले
पर तुझे है नाश-पथ पर चिन्ह अपने छोड़ जाना!
जाग तुझको दूर जाना!

शब्दार्थ :
चिर = पुराना। सजग = जाग्रत। उनींदी = अलसाई हुई। व्यस्त = काम में लगा हुआ। बाना = व्यवहार। अचल = पर्वत। हिमगिरि = बर्फ से ढंकी हुई पहाड़ियाँ। कम्प = कम्पन, थरथराहट। अलसित = आलस्य से भरा हुआ। व्योम = आकाश। आलोक = प्रकाश। तिमिर = अन्धकार। विद्युत = बिजली। निठुर = निष्ठुर, कड़े स्वभाव वाला।

सन्दर्भ :
प्रस्तुत छन्द “चिर सजग आँखें उनींदी आज कैसा व्यस्त बाना!” शीर्षक कविता से लिया गया है। इसकी रचयिता श्रीमती महादेवी वर्मा हैं।

प्रसंग :
कवयित्री मानव को सचेत करते हुए कह रही हैं कि हे संसार के पथिक! तेरी सदैव सजग रहने वाली आँखें आज अलसाई हुई सी क्यों हो रही हैं, तुझे तो अभी बहुत दूर तक जाना है।

व्याख्या :
कवयित्री महादेवी वर्मा कहती हैं कि हे संसार के पथिक! तू तो सदैव सजग रहकर इस मार्ग पर चलता रहता था पर आज तेरी ये सजग आँखें उनींदी सी क्यों हो रही हैं, तूने ये कैसा बाना (ढर्रा) बना लिया है। तुझे तो अभी बहुत दूर तक जाना है।

चाहे हिमालय पर्वत की ऊँची चोटियों में आज कम्पन पैदा हो जाये या फिर प्रलय के आँसुओं को लेकर ऊलसाया हुआ आकाश। रुदन करने लग जाये, या फिर अन्धकार की घोर छाया प्रकाश को। पीकर डोल जाये, या फिर बिजली की जाग्रत शिखाओं में निष्ठुर तूफान हुँकार भरने लग जाये लेकिन तेरा लक्ष्य तो यह है कि इस नाश के पथ पर तू अपने चरणों के चिह्नों को छोड़ दे। कहने का भाव यह है कि चाहे कैसी भी विषम परिस्थितियाँ क्यों न हों, तुझे तो अपने निर्धारित लक्ष्य पर निरन्तर बढ़ते चले जाना है ताकि नाश। की अवस्था आने पर भी तेरे चरणों के चिह्न आने वाले समय में लोगों का मार्गदर्शन कर सकें। जाग जा, तुझे तो अभी बहुत दूर जाना है, इन विषम परिस्थितियों से अपने लक्ष्य को मत भूल जाना।

विशेष :

1. कवयित्री विषम परिस्थितियों में भी संसार के पथिक को अपने मार्ग पर निरन्तर चलते रहने की प्रेरणा दे रही हैं।
2. लाक्षणिक भाषा।

(2) बाँधे लेंगे क्या तुझे यह मोम के बन्धन सजीले?
पंथ की बाधा बनेंगे तितलियों के पर रँगीले?
विश्व का क्रन्दन भुला देगी मधुप की मधुर गुनगुन,
क्या डुबो देंगे तुझे यह फूल के दल ओस-गीले?
तू न अपनी छाँह को अपने लिए कारा बनाना!
जाग तुझको दूर जाना!

शब्दार्थ :
सजीले = गीले। पंथ = रास्ते की। रँगीले = रंग-बिरंगे। क्रन्दन= रोना-धोना। मधुप = भौंरों की। मधुर = मीठी। कारा = जेलखाना।

सन्दर्भ एवं प्रसंग :
पूर्ववत्।

व्याख्या :
कवयित्री महादेवी वर्मा कहती हैं कि हे मानव! क्या ये मोम के गीले बन्धन तझे अपने जाल में बाँध लेंगे? क्या रंग-बिरंगी तितलियों के पंख तुम्हारे मार्ग की रुकावट बनेंगे? क्या भौरों की मधुर गुनगुनाहट संसार के दुःखों को भुला देंगी या ओस से गीले फूल की पंखुड़ियाँ तुझे डूबो देंगी? तू व्यर्थ में ही अपनी ही परछाईं को अपना जेलखाना बना रहा है। इन निराशा की भावनाओं को छोड़! तेरा जो लक्ष्य है, उसे पाने के लिए तू सतत् प्रयत्न कर तुझे अभी बहुत दूर तक जाना है।

विशेष :

1. कवयित्री सांसारिक प्राणियों से कल्पना लोक में न विचर कर जीवन की यथार्थता का ज्ञान कराना चाहती हैं। साथ ही उसे जीवन पथ पर निन्तर बढ़ते रहने की प्रेरणा देती हैं।
2. लाक्षणिक भाषा।

मैंने आहुति बनकर देखा भाव सारांश 

‘मैंने आहुति बनकर देखा’ कविता के द्वारा ‘अज्ञेय’ कवि ने कर्म करते हुए स्वयं को बलिदान करने की इच्छा को सर्वोत्तम बताया है। त्याग द्वारा ही व्यक्ति को आत्मिक सुख प्राप्त होता है। कवि का कथन है कि वह संसार की प्रत्येक वस्तु को उसके वास्तविक रूप में देखने का इच्छुक है। वह यह कदापि नहीं चाहता कि वृद्धावस्था की तुलना युवावस्था से की जाये। अतः उसकी तुलना शक्तिशाली व्यक्ति से नहीं करनी चाहिए।

जीवन में यदि दःखों का सागर उमडे तो मानव में उसे भी सहन करने की शक्ति होनी चाहिए। कवि कहता है कि मैं नन्दन वन के फूलों की चाहत की भाँति धनवानों के धन की चाहत में अपनी इच्छा और सुखों को गँवा देने का इच्छुक हूँ। काँटों की शोभा काँटा बना रहने में है, फूल बनने में नहीं।

योद्धा की शोभा युद्धभूमि में प्राप्त हुए घावों से ही होती है। यह आवश्यक नहीं कि यदि मैं किसी से प्रेम करूँ तो वह व्यक्ति भी मुझसे प्रेम करे। मैं तो स्वार्थ रहित प्रेम की इच्छा रखता हूँ और चाहता हूँ कि आस्था और विश्वास महल बनाकर कर्तव्य पथ पर बढ़ता रहूँ।

प्रेम में त्याग आवश्यक है। जो लोग प्रेम में कटुता का अनुभव करते हैं, उन्हें स्वयं को रोगी मान लेना चाहिए। जो व्यक्ति प्रेम को सम्मोहन वाली मदिरा मानते हैं उन्हें यह मान लेना चाहिए कि उनमें जीवन ही नहीं है, जिन्होंने प्रेम के रहस्य को जान लिया है।

कवि का कथन है कि मैंने प्रेम को आहुति बनकर देख लिया है। प्रेम यज्ञ की अग्नि है। जिस प्रकार अग्नि में आहुति डाली जाती है और वह सामग्री जल जाती है उसी प्रकार मैंने भी अपने आप को आहुति बनाकर जल जाने की बात सोच ली है। व्यक्ति को आगे बढ़ने के लिए विषम आँधी और तूफानों का सामना करना पड़ता है परन्तु मानव को सफलता पाने के लिए निरन्तर बढ़ते रहना चाहिए। जीवन एक रणक्षेत्र है जहाँ पर अनेक बाधाएँ आती हैं। ईश्वर ने जो जीवन दिया है उसे हम ईश्वर के लिए समर्पित कर दें। तब ही जीवन सफल और सार्थक होगा।

मैंने आहुति बनकर देखा संदर्भ-प्रसंगसहित व्याख्या

(1) मैं कब कहता हूँ जग मेरी दुर्धर गति के अनुकूल बने,
मैं कब कहता हूँजीवन-मरुनन्दन-कानन का फूल बने?
काँटा कठोर है, तीखा है, उसमें उसकी मर्यादा है,
मैं कब कहता हूँ, वह घटकर प्रांतर का ओछा फूल बने?

शब्दार्थ :
जग = संसार। दुर्धर = कठिनाइयों को पार करने में समर्थ। अनुकूल = उसी के अनुरूप। जीवन-मरु = जीवन रूपी रेगिस्तान। नन्दन-कानन = देवताओं का उपवन। प्रांतर = छोटे से प्रदेश का। ओछा = छोटा, पद में नीचा।

सन्दर्भ :
प्रस्तुत छन्द ‘मैंने आहुति बनकर देखा’ शीर्षक कविता से लिया गया है। इसके कवि अज्ञेय हैं।

प्रसंग :
कवि का सन्देश है कि मैं किसी भी व्यक्ति को अपने पथ पर चलने को बाध्य नहीं करता हूँ, लेकिन सबको अपनी मर्यादा का ध्यान अवश्य रखना चाहिए।

व्याख्या :
कविवर अज्ञेय जी संसार के मनुष्यों से कहते हैं कि मैं संसार के लोगों से कब कहता हूँ कि वे मेरे समान संघर्षों का सामना करने वाली शक्ति को धारण करें। मैं यह भी नहीं कहता हूँ कि संसार के मनुष्य अपने रेगिस्तान जैसे शुष्क जीविन को देवताओं के सुन्दर उपवन के समान हरा-भरा या सुख-सुविधाओं में सम्पन्न बना लें। काँटा देखने में कठोर और तीखा अवश्य लगता है, पर उसकी भी इस सृष्टि में अपनी मर्यादा है। मैं उससे भी यह नहीं कहता कि वह अपने इस कठोर रूप को कम करके किसी भाग का एक ओछा फूल बन जाये। कहने का भाव यह है कि सबका अपना-अपना भाग्य होता है। अतः सभी को अपनी सामर्थ्य के अनुसार जीवन में काम करना चाहिए।

विशेष :

1. कवि संसार के मनुष्यों को निरन्तर कर्म करने की प्रेरणा दे रहा है।
2. लाक्षणिक भाषा।

(2) मैं कब कहता हूँ, मुझे युद्ध में कहीं न तीखी चोट मिले?
मैंकबकहताहूँ, प्यार करुतो मुझे प्राप्तिकीओटमिले?
मैं कब कहता हूँ विजय करूँ-मेरा ऊँचा प्रासाद बने?
या पात्र जगत की श्रद्धा की मेरी धुंधली सी याद बने?

शब्दार्थ :
प्रासाद = महल। धुंधली सी = अस्पष्ट सी।

सन्दर्भ एवं प्रसंग :
पूर्ववत्।

व्याख्या :
कविवर अज्ञेय जी कहते हैं कि मैं यह कब कहता हूँ कि युद्ध क्षेत्र में जाने पर मुझे कोई चोट न लगे; मैं कब कहता हूँ कि यदि मैं किसी से प्यार करूँ तो मुझे उसका प्रतिफल भी मिले; मैं कब कहता हूँ कि युद्ध क्षेत्र में मुझे विजय प्राप्त हो और मेरा एक भव्य महल निर्मित हो। या फिर संसार रूपी रंगमंच पर अभिनय करने वाले पात्र के रूप में मेरी धुंधली-सी याद मनुष्यों के मानस-पटल पर अंकित हो जाये।

विशेष :

1. कवि संसार में निरन्तर कार्य में लगे रहने की प्रेरणा दे रहा है।
2. भाषा लाक्षणिक है।

(3) पथ मेरा रहे प्रशस्त सदा क्यों विकल करे यह चाह मुझे?
नेतृत्व न मेरा छिन जावे, क्यों इसकी हो परवाह मुझे?
मैं प्रस्तुत हूँ चाहे मेरी मिट्टी जनपद की धूल बने
फिर उस धूली का कण-कण भी मेरा गति-रोधक शूल बने।

शब्दार्थ :
प्रशस्त = चौड़ा। विकल = बेचैन। नेतृत्व = नेतागीरी। प्रस्तुत = तैयार। गति-रोधक = चाल को रोकने वाला। शूल = काँटा।

सन्दर्भ एवं प्रसंग :
पूर्ववत्।

व्याख्या :
कविवर अज्ञेय कहते हैं कि मेरे मन में इस प्रकार चाह या इच्छा क्यों उत्पन्न हो कि मार्ग सदैव चौड़ा एवं निर्विघ्न हो। मुझे इस बात की भी परवाह नहीं करनी चाहिए कि कहीं मेरी नेतागीरी तो खत्म नहीं हो रही है। मैं इसके लिए तैयार हूँ कि मेरे मरने के पश्चात् मेरे शरीर की मिट्टी इसी भूमि की धूल में मिल जाये; फिर चाहे उसी धूल का एक-एक कण मेरे रास्ते को रोकने वाले काँटे ही क्यों न बन जायें।

विशेष :

1. कवि को अपनी सामर्थ्य पर विश्वास है। अतः वह हर विषम स्थिति को स्वीकार करने को तैयार है।
2. भाषा लाक्षणिक।

(4) अपने जीवन को रस देकर जिसको यत्नों से पाला है
क्या वह केवल अवसाद-मलिन झरते आँसूकी माला है?
वे रोगी होंगे प्रेम जिन्हें अनुभव-रस का कटु प्याला है
वे मुर्दे होंगे प्रेम जिन्हें सम्मोहन-कारी हाला है।

शब्दार्थ :
यत्नों = प्रयत्नों से। अवसाद मलिन = दुःख से सना हुआ। कटु = कड़वा। सम्मोहनकारी = वश में करने वाली। हाला = मदिरा।

सन्दर्भ एवं प्रसंग :
पूर्ववत्।

व्याख्या :
कविवर अज्ञेय कहते हैं कि मैंने अपने जीवन को रस देकर तथा यत्नपूर्वक पाला-पोसा है; क्या ऐसा मेरा जीवन केवल दुःख से सने हुए आँसुओं की माला भर है? जिन प्रेमियों ने अनुभव रस के कड़वे प्याले को पिया है, वे रोगी होंगे अर्थात् स्वस्थ नहीं होंगे और जिन प्रेमियों ने मोह पाश में डालने वाली मदिरा का पान कर लिया है वे मुर्दे होंगे, जीवन्त मनुष्य नहीं होंगे।

विशेष :

1. कवि मनुष्यों को सतत् जागरूक बने रहने का सन्देश दे रहा है।
2. भाषा लाक्षणिक।

(5) मैंने विदग्ध हो जान लिया, अन्तिम रहस्य पहचान लिया
मैंने आहुति बनकर देखा यह प्रेम यज्ञ की ज्वाला है।
मैं कहता हूँ, मैं बढ़ता हूँ, नभ की चोटी चढ़ता हूँ,
कुचला जाकर भी धूली-सा आँधी और उमड़ता हूँ।

शब्दार्थ :
विदग्ध = जानकार होते हुए भी। आहुति = यज्ञ में दी जाने वाली समिधा। नभ = आकाश। धूली-सा = धूल जैसा।

सन्दर्भ एवं प्रसंग :
पूर्ववत्।

व्याख्या :
कविवर अज्ञेय कहते हैं कि मैंने जानकार बनकर यह भली-भाँति जान लिया है और जीवन के अन्तिम रहस्य को पहचान लिया है। मैंने आहुति बनकर देख लिया है कि यह प्रेम एक यज्ञ की ज्वाला.के समान है। मैं इस बात को डंके की चोट पर कहता हूँ कि मैं निरन्तर आगे बढ़ता जाता हूँ और नभ की चोटी पर चढ़ता जाता हूँ। यद्यपि विषम परिस्थितियों में धूल जैसा कुचला जाता हूँ, लेकिन उस अवस्था में भी मैं आँधी बनकर उमड़ता रहता हूँ।

विशेष :

1. कवि हर स्थिति में अपनी पहचान बनाये रखता है।
2. भाषा लाक्षणिक।

(6) मेरा जीवन ललकार बने, असफलता की असि-धार बने
इस निर्मम रण में पग-पग का रुकना ही मेरा वार बने।
भव सारा तुझको है स्वाहा सब कुछ तपकर अंगार बने।
तेरी पुकार-सा दुर्निवार मेरा यह नीरव प्यार बने।

शब्दार्थ :
ललकार = चुनौती। असि-धार = तलवार की धार। निर्मम = निर्दयी, क्रूर। वार = प्रहार। भव = संसार। दुर्निवार = जिसका निवारण करना कठिन हो। नीरव = शान्त।

सन्दर्भ एवं प्रसंग :
पूर्ववत्।

व्याख्या :
कविवर अज्ञेय कहते हैं कि मैं चाहता हूँ कि मेरा जीवन दूसरों के लिए एक चुनौती बने तथा मेरी असफलताएँ तलवार की धार के समान तेज बन जाएँ। मेरे जीवन के इस निर्दयी रण-क्षेत्र में कदम-कदम पर रुकना ही मेरा प्रहार बन जाये। मैं तेरे लिए सारे संसार को स्वाहा कर सकता हूँ और इस यज्ञ में सभी कुछ तपकर अंगार बन जायें। तुम्हारी पुकार जैसा तथा कठिनता से निवारण किया जाने वाला मेरा यह प्यार नीरव बन जाये।

विशेष :

1. कवि अपने को बलिदान कर देना चाहता है।
2. भाषा लाक्षणिक।

MP Board Class 10th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 4 प्राणि जगत

प्राणि जगत NCERT प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
यदि मूलभूत लक्षण ज्ञात न हो तो प्राणियों के वर्गीकरण में आप क्या परेशानी महसूस करेंगे?
उत्तर:
प्राणियों को वर्गीकृत करने में निम्नलिखित परेशानी हो सकती है –

• कुछ प्राणियों में कोशिकीय स्तर, कुछ में ऊतक स्तर तथा किसी में अंग स्तर का शारीरिक संगठन पाया जाता है।
• कुछ प्राणियों में त्रिज्या सममिति तथा कुछ में द्विपाश्वीय सममिति पायी जाती है।
• कुछ प्राणियों में खुला रक्त परिवहन तंत्र तथा कुछ में बंद प्रकार का रक्त परिवहन तंत्र पाया जाता है।
• कुछ में बाह्य कोशिकीय तथा कुछ प्राणियों में अन्त:कोशिकीय पाचन पाया जाता है। अत: ऐसे बहुत-से लक्षणों का ज्ञान न होने पर प्राणियों को वर्गीकृत करने में परेशानी होती है।

प्रश्न 2.
यदि आपको एक नमूना (स्पेशीमेन) दे दिया जाये तो वर्गीकरण हेतु आप क्या कदम अपनाएँगे?
उत्तर:
प्राणियों की संरचना एवं आकार में भिन्नता होते हुए भी उनकी कोशिकीय व्यवस्था, शारीरिक सममिति, प्रगुहा की प्रकृति, पाचन तंत्र, परिसंचरण तंत्र व जनन तंत्र की रचना में कुछ आधारभूत समानताएँ पाई जाती हैं। हम वर्गीकरण के समय इन विशेषताओं को वर्गीकरण का आधार बनाकर अपना कदम बढ़ाएंगे।

प्रश्न 3.
देहगुहा एवं प्रगुहा का अध्ययन प्राणियों के वर्गीकरण में किस प्रकार सहायक है ?
उत्तर:
शरीर में भित्ति तथा आहारनाल के बीच की गुहा की उपस्थिति अथवा अनुपस्थिति वर्गीकरण का मुख्य आधार है। मध्य त्वचा (Mesoderm) से आच्छादित शरीर गुहा को देहगुहा (Coelom) कहते हैं तथा इससे युक्त प्राणी को प्रगुही (Coelomata) कहा जाता है। उदा.-ऐनेलिडा, मोलस्का, ऑर्थोपोडा, इकाइनोडर्मेटा वर्ग के प्राणी। कुछ प्राणियों में यह गुहा मध्य त्वचा से आच्छादित नहीं होती, बल्कि मध्य त्वचा (Mesoderm), बाह्यत्वचा (Ectoderm) एवं अंत: त्वचा (Endoderm) के बीच बिखरी हुई थैली के रूप में पायी जाती है जिसे कूटगुहिका (Pseudocoelom) कहते हैं, (उदाहरण – ऐस्केरिस)। जिन प्राणियों में शरीर गुहा नहीं पायी जाती है उन्हें अगुहीय (Acoelomata) कहा जाता है, (उदाहरण – प्लेटीहेल्मिन्थीज)।

प्रश्न 4.
अन्तःकोशिकीय एवं बाह्यकोशिकीय पाचन में विभेद कीजिए।
उत्तर:
1. अन्तः कोशिकीय पाचन (Intracellular digestion):
यह कोशिका के अन्दर पाया जाता है। भोजन के कण अन्त:भक्षण (Endocytosis) के द्वारा कोशिका के अन्दर लिये जाते हैं, कोशिकीय अंगक लाइसोसोम से स्रावित एन्जाइम द्वारा भोजन का पाचन कर लिया जाता है। अपचित पदार्थ कोशिकीय वमन क्रिया द्वारा बाहर निकाल दिया जाता है। उदाहरण- अमीबा, पैरामीशियम, आदि।

2. बाह्य कोशिकीय पाचन (Extracellular digestion):
कोशिका के बाहर उपस्थित पदार्थों का पाचन बाह्य कोशिकीय पाचन कहलाता है। बहुकोशिकीय प्राणियों के पाचन तंत्र में भोज्य पदार्थों का बाह्य कोशिकीय पाचन होता है। उदाहरण – केंचुआ, लाइकेन आदि

प्रश्न 5.
प्रत्यक्ष तथा अप्रत्यक्ष परिवर्धन में क्या अंतर है ?
उत्तर:
1. प्रत्यक्ष परिवर्धन (Direct development):
इस प्रकार के परिवर्धन में लार्वा अवस्था नहीं होती है। युग्मनज (Zygote) का विकास सीधे वयस्क के रूप में होता है। उदाहरण – मनुष्य, चूहा, हाथी, बंदर।

2. अप्रत्यक्ष परिवर्धन (Indirect development):
कुछ जीवों के परिवर्धन में लार्वा की अवस्था आती है। युग्मनज पहले लार्वा में बदलता है, पश्चात् लार्वा का परिवर्धन वयस्क जीव में होता है। उदाहरण – इकाइनोडर्मेटा, ऐस्केरिस, कॉकरोच, आदि।

प्रश्न 6.
परजीवी प्लेटीहेल्पिन्थीज के विशेष लक्षण बताइए।
उत्तर:
चपटे कृमियों (Platyhelminthes) का शरीर इनकी संरचना, आवास तथा प्रकृति के प्रति अनुकूलित होता है। चूँकि इसके शरीर में विकसित संवहन तथा उत्सर्जन तंत्र नहीं पाये जाते हैं, इस कारण इनका शरीर चपटा होता है, जिससे इनके शरीर की सभी कोशिकाएँ शरीर की बाह्य तथा पाचक गुहा की आन्तरिक सतह के करीब पहुँच सके और वहाँ O₂ व भोजन को विसरण के द्वारा ग्रहण कर सके। त्वचा और दूसरे CO₂ उत्सर्जी पदार्थों को विसरण के ही द्वारा शरीर से बाहर कर सकें। इनमें उत्सर्जन के लिए विशिष्ट शिखा कोशिकाएँ (Flame cells) पायी जाती हैं। इसी प्रकार परजीवी चपटे कृमियों में शरीर के चारों तरफ क्यूटिकल का आवरण, चूषकों की उपस्थिति, शरीर का मुक्त होने वाले स्वतंत्र खण्डों का बना होना, प्रचलन अंग की अनुपस्थिति, आहार नाल का कम विकसित होना तथा तीव्र प्रजनन दर आदि परजीवी अनुकूलन पाये जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
ऑर्थोपोडा प्राणी समूह का सबसे बड़ा वर्ग है, इस कथन के प्रमुख कारण बताइए।
उत्तर:
ऑर्थोपोडा प्राणी जगत का सबसे बड़ा वर्ग है, जिसमें कीट भी शामिल हैं। निम्नलिखित शारीरिक अनुकूलताओं के कारण ये पृथ्वी में उपस्थित जीवों में से दो तिहाई जीव इसी वर्ग से संबंधित हैं –

1. पैर छोटे-छोटे खण्डों में विभाजित होते हैं।
2. ये वायु, जल, स्थल एवं परजीवी चारों अवस्थाओं में पाये जाते हैं। इनका शरीर त्रिस्तरीय, द्विपार्श्व सममित खण्डों में विखण्डित तथा
3. काइटिन के कवच से ढंका रहता है।
4. देहगुहा छोटी तथा परिसंचरण तन्त्र खुला होता है।
5. उत्सर्जन मैल्पिघी नलिकाओं द्वारा होता है।
6. सिर पर सरल या संयुक्त आँखें पायी जाती हैं।
7. इनके लिंग अलग-अलग होते हैं।
8. सामान्यत: शरीर के प्रत्येक खण्ड में एक जोड़ी सन्धित उपांग पाया जाता है।
9. रुधिर में लाल रुधिर कणिकाएँ तथा हीमोग्लोबिन नहीं पाया जाता है। इसी कारण इनका रुधिर लाल नहीं होता है। हीमोग्लोबिन के स्थान पर हीमोसायनिन वर्णक पाया जाता है। उदाहरण – पेरीप्लेनेटा, पैलीमॉन, तितली।

प्रश्न 8.
जल संवहन – तंत्र किस वर्ग के प्रमुख लक्षण हैं –
(a) पोरीफेरा
(b) टीनोफेरा
(c) इकाइनोडर्मेटा
(d) कॉर्डेटा।
उत्तर:
(c) इकाइनोडर्मेटा

प्रश्न 9.
सभी कशेरुकी वर्टीब्रेट्स, रज्जूकी (कॉर्डेट्स ) हैं, लेकिन सभी रज्जूकी कशेरुकी नहीं हैं। इस कथन को सिद्ध कीजिए।
उत्तर:
सभी कशेरुकी (वर्टीब्रेट्स) संघ के प्राणियों में तीन मूलभूत लक्षण –

• पृष्ठ रज्जू
• पृष्ठ खोखली तंत्रिका रज्जू तथा
• युग्मित ग्रसनी क्लोम छिद्र पाये जाते हैं।

सभी कशेरुकी द्विपार्वीय सममिति, त्रिकोरकी तथा प्रगुही प्राणी हैं। उनमें अंगतंत्र स्तर का संगठन पाया जाता है। इसमें गुदा-पश्च पूँछ तथा बंद परिसंचरण तंत्र पाया जाता है। उपरोक्त लक्षणों के आधार पर सभी कशेरुकी रज्जूकी कहलाते हैं लेकिन सभी रज्जूकी कशेरुकी नहीं हैं, क्योंकि कशेरुकी प्राणी में पृष्ठ रज्जू भ्रूणीय अवस्था में पायी जाती है। वयस्क अवस्था में पृष्ठ रज्जू अस्थिल अथवा उपास्थिल मेरुदण्ड में परिवर्तित हो जाती है। अत: कहा जा सकता है कि कशेरुकी रज्जूकी भी है, लेकिन सभी रज्जूकी कशेरुकी नहीं होते हैं।

प्रश्न 10.
मछलियों में वायु आशय (एयर ब्लैडर) की उपस्थिति का क्या महत्व है ?
उत्तर:
मछलियों में वायु आशय (एयर ब्लैडर) की उपस्थिति उत्प्लावन (Buoyancy) में सहायता करती है। वायु आशय के कारण मछलियाँ जल के निचले स्तर में जाकर तैर सकती हैं। उदाहरण – हिप्पोकैम्पस, एक्सोसीटस, रोहू, क्लेरियस आदि।

प्रश्न 11.
पक्षियों में उड़ने हेतु क्या-क्या रूपान्तरण हैं?
उत्तर:
पक्षियों के शरीर में उड़ने के लिए निम्नलिखित अनुकुलताएँ पाई जाती हैं –

• पक्षियों के परों (Wings) में मौजूद शक्तिशाली पेशियाँ उड़ने में सहायता करती हैं।
• पक्षियों की हड्डियाँ अत्यन्त हल्की होती हैं तथा पेशियों को जोड़ने के लिए अत्यधिक स्थान प्रदान करती हैं।
• पक्षियों के अग्रपाद रूपान्तरित होकर पंख बनाते हैं।
• पश्चपाद में सामान्यतः शत्क होते हैं जो रूपान्तरित होकर चलने, तैरने तथा पेड़ों की शाखाओं को पकड़ने में सहायता करते हैं।
• पक्षियों की त्वचा शुष्क होती है।
• पूँछ में तेल ग्रन्थि को छोड़कर त्वचा में अन्य कोई ग्रन्थि नहीं पायी जाती है।
• पक्षियों की नौकाकार आकृति, वायु को पीछे ढकेलने में मदद करती है।

प्रश्न 12.
अंडजनक तथा जरायुज द्वारा उत्पन्न अंडे या बच्चे संख्या में बराबर होते हैं। यदि हाँ तो क्यों? यदि नहीं तो क्यों?
उत्तर:
अंडजनक (Oviparous), वे जंतु हैं, जो अण्डे देते हैं। जरायुज (Viviparous), वे जन्तु हैं, जो शिशुओं को जन्म देते हैं। अंडजनक एवं जरायुज द्वारा उत्पन्न अंडे या बच्चों की संख्या बराबर नहीं होती क्योंकि अंडजनक का निषेचन बाह्य होता है तथा परिवर्धन अप्रत्यक्ष होता है। अंडजनक अत्यधिक संख्या में अंडे उत्पन्न करते हैं किन्तु अंडे से बच्चे निकलने के पश्चात् लंबी परिवर्धन की अवस्थाओं से गुजरने के पश्चात् वयस्क बनते हैं। परिवर्धन की लंबी अवस्था में बहुत से अंडे नष्ट हो जाते हैं। जरायुज मादाओं द्वारा कम संख्या में शिशु उत्पन्न किये जाते हैं। शिशुओं का माता की गर्भाशय में प्रत्यक्ष परिवर्धन होता है। परिवर्धन की प्रक्रिया में कोई भी लार्वा की अवस्था नहीं आती है।

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित में से शारीरिक खंडीभवन किसमें पहले देखा गया –
(a) प्लेटीहेल्मिन्थीज
(b) एस्केल्पिन्थीज
(c) ऐनेलिडा
(d) ऑर्थोपोडा।
उत्तर:
(c) ऐनेलिडा

प्रश्न 14.
निम्न का मिलान कीजिए –

उत्तर:

1. (h) ऑस्टिक्थीज
2. (e) एनेलिडा
3. (d) रेप्टीलिया
4. (a) टीनोफेरा
5. (b) मोलस्का
6. (g) मैमेलिया
7. (c) पोरीफेरा
8. (f) साइक्लोस्टोमेटा एवं कॉन्ड्रिक्थीज

प्रश्न 15.
मनुष्यों में पाए जाने वाले कुछ परजीवों के नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर:
मनुष्यों में पाये जाने वाले परजीवी निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. टीनिया सोलियम
2. ऐसियोला हेपेटीका
3. एस्केरिस लुम्बीकॉइड्स
4. वुचेरियन बैन्क्रोफ्टी
5. एन्साइक्लोस्टोमा।

प्राणि जगत अन्य महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्नोत्तर

प्राणि जगत वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए –
1. सिफैलोपोडा जन्तुओं का एक वर्ग है, जिसमें
(a) नोटोकॉर्ड सिर तक फैली होती है
(b) सिर, पर, पाद स्थित होता है
(c) सिर, पाद, पर स्थित होता है
(d) सिर, वक्ष से समेकित होता है।
उत्तर:
(c) सिर, पाद, पर स्थित होता है

2. मोती सीप किस वर्ग से सम्बन्धित है –
(a) गैस्ट्रोपोडा
(b) पैलिसीपोडा
(c) स्कैफोपोडा
(d) एम्फीन्यूरा।
उत्तर:
(b) पैलिसीपोडा

3. यूथीरियन स्तनी होते हैं –
(a) अण्डज
(b) जरायुज
(c) अण्डज जरायुज
(d) अण्डज एवं अण्ड जरायुज।
उत्तर:
(b) जरायुज

4. मीजोग्लिया बनी होती है –
(a) अमीबॉइड कोशिका
(b) तन्त्रिका कोशिका
(c) निमैटोसिस्ट
(d) अकोशिकीय जेली।
उत्तर:
(d) अकोशिकीय जेली।

5. निम्न वर्गों में से किसमें सबसे अधिक जन्तु संख्या पायी जाती है –
(a) स्तनी में
(b) मत्स्य में
(c) कीट में
(d) सरीसृप में।
उत्तर:
(c) कीट में

6. क्रे फिश है –
(a) क्रस्टेशियन जन्तु
(b) खाद्य मछली
(c) विषैली मछली
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(a) क्रस्टेशियन जन्तु

7. निम्न में से कौन कशेरुकियों में नहीं होता है –
(a) द्विपार्श्व सममिति
(b) क्लोम छिद्र
(c) देह शल्क
(d) देश कोरक।
उत्तर:
(d) देश कोरक।

8. निम्न में कौन स्तनी वर्ग का उदाहरण है –
(a) मैनिस
(b) प्लेनार्बिस
(c) हाइड्रोफिश
(d) सिटैकुला।
उत्तर:
(a) मैनिस

9. निम्न में से किसमें झुण्ड बनाकर आवास बदलने की क्रिया पायी जाती है –
(a) मच्छर
(b) घरेलू मक्खी
(c) टिड्डी
(d) पाइरिला।
उत्तर:
(c) टिड्डी

10. स्पांजों में पाचन कहाँ होता है –
(a) स्पांजोसील
(b) ऑस्कुलम
(c) ऑस्टियम
(d) खाघ रिक्तिका।
उत्तर:
(d) खाघ रिक्तिका।

11. चपटे कृमियों में उत्सर्जन अंग होता है –
(a) नेफ्रीडिया
(b) ज्वाला कोशिकाएँ
(c) मैल्पीघियन नलिकाएँ
(d) हरी ग्रंथियाँ।
उत्तर:
(b) ज्वाला कोशिकाएँ

12. समुद्र की तली में पाये जाने वाले जन्तु कहलाते हैं –
(a) लेन्टिक
(b) लांटिक
(c) वेन्टिक
(d) जिलेजिक।
उत्तर:
(c) वेन्टिक

13. कंगारू होता है –
(a) प्रोटोथीरिया
(c) वेन्टिक
(c) यूथीरिया
(d) रेप्टाइलस।
उत्तर:
(c) वेन्टिक

14. निम्न में से कौन अण्डयुज स्तनी जन्तु है –
(a) व्हेल
(b) प्लेटीपस
(c) खरगोश
(d) साँप।
उत्तर:
(b) प्लेटीपस

15. मीजोग्लिया किसका बना होता है –
(a) अमीबीय कोशिकाओं का
(b) तंत्रिका कोशिकाओं का
(c) निमैटोसिस्ट का
(d) कोशिकीय जेली का।
उत्तर:
(d) कोशिकीय जेली का।

16. सिफैलोकॉर्डेटा जन्तु का वह वर्ग है, जिसमें –
(a) नोटोकॉर्ड सिर से पैरों तक होता है
(b) सिर पर पैर पाये जाते हैं
(c) पैरों पर सिर पाया जाता है
(d) सिर, सिफैलोथोरेक्स से जुड़ा रहता है।
उत्तर:
(a) नोटोकॉर्ड सिर से पैरों तक होता है

17. इंक ग्रंथियाँ पाई जाती हैं –
(a) सीपिया में
(b) लोलिंगा में
(c) ऑक्टोपस में
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी में।
उत्तर:
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी में।

18. मासुपियम का पाया जाना किसका प्रमुख लक्षण है –
(a) मेटाथीरिया
(b) कीटोप्टेरा
(c) रोडेंशिया
(d) कॉर्नीवोरा।
उत्तर:
(a) मेटाथीरिया

19. एवियन हृदय होता है –
(a) दो कोष्ठों युक्त
(b) तीन कोष्ठों युक्त
(c) अधूरे चार कोष्ठों युक्त
(d) चार कोष्ठों युक्त।
उत्तर:
(d) चार कोष्ठों युक्त।

20. स्टारफिश किस संघ का जंतु है –
(a) कॉर्डेटा
(b) एनीलिडा
(c) इकाइनोडर्मेटा
(d) पोरीफेरा।
उत्तर:
(c) इकाइनोडर्मेटा

प्रश्न 2.
रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए –

1. पंख तथा ……………. के आधार पर ऑर्थोपोडा को विभाजित किया गया है।
2. पेरीपेटस …………….. वर्ग का जंतु है।
3. सिल्वर फिश …………… संघ में सम्मिलित किया गया है।
4. उभयचर जीव के हृदय में …………….. वेश्म होते हैं।
5. पक्षीवर्ग की हड्डियाँ …………. होती हैं।
6. अधिकांश चपटे कृमि अवायवीय श्वसन करते हैं, यह ……………. अनुकूलन है।
7. स्टारफिश में …………. सममिति होती है।
8. संधियुक्त पाद …………. संघ का प्रमुख लक्षण है।

उत्तर:

1. उपांगों
2. ओनिकोफोरा
3. ऑर्थोपोडा
4. तीन
5. खोखली
6. परजीवी
7. अरीय
8. ऑर्थोपोडा।

प्रश्न 3.
एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए

1. पक्षियों की सर्वोत्तम परिभाषा है।
2. यूथीरीयन स्तनी होते हैं।
3. सीप (मोती) किस वर्ग से संबंधित है ?
4. मीसोग्लिया किस संघ का लक्षण है?
5. ऑर्थोपोडा के रुधिर का रंग हल्का नीला किसके कारण होता है?

उत्तर:

1. परयुक्त चतुष्पादी
2. जरायुज
3. पैलिसीपोडा (मोलस्का)
4. सीलेन्ट्रेटा
5. हीमोसायनिन

प्रश्न 4.
उचित संबंध जोडिए –

उत्तर:

1. (d) टारपीडो
2. (a) इकाइनोडर्मेटा
3. (b) मोलस्का
4. (c) पीसीज

उत्तर:

1. (b) एवीज
2. (c) मैमेलिया
3. (d) निमैटोडा
4. (a) प्लेटीहेल्मिन्थीस

उत्तर:

1. (d) पेरीप्लेनेटा
2. (c) केकड़ा
3. (a) ऑरिलिया
4. (e) नेरिस
5. (b) प्लेनेरिया

प्रश्न 5.
सत्य / असत्य बताइए –

1. कॉर्डेटा संघ के जंतु सीलोमेट तथा नॉन-कॉर्डेटा संघ के जंतु एसीलोमेट, स्यूडोसीलोमेट व यूसीलोमेट होते हैं।
2. वर्मीकम्पोस्ट के लिए कीड़ों को पाला जाता है।
3. नोटोकॉर्ड भ्रूण की मीसोडर्म स्तर से बनती है।
4. चमगादड़ का पंख, पाद एवं पूँछ का फैलाव है।
5. अंडा देने वाला स्तनी आर्निथोरिन्कस है।

उत्तर:

1. सत्य
2. असत्य
3. सत्य
4. असत्य
5. सत्य।

प्राणि जगत अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
त्रिज्यतः सममिति एवं द्विपार्श्व सममिति में अन्तर लिखिए।
उत्तर:
त्रिज्यतः सममिति एवं द्विपार्श्व सममिति में अन्तर –

प्रश्न 2.
कोई तीन ऐसे लक्षण लिखिए, जिसके कारण चींटी तथा केकड़े को एक ही संघ में सम्मिलित करते हैं।
उत्तर:

•  दोनों के उपांग (पैर) संधियुक्त होते हैं।
• दोनों में एक जोड़ी संयुक्त नेत्र पाये जाते हैं।
• दोनों में शिकार को पकड़ने के लिए पेडीपल्स पाये जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
प्रोटोकॉर्डेट जन्तुओं के तीन लक्षण लिखिए।
उत्तर:

• इनका नोटोकॉर्ड कशेरुक दण्ड में विकसित नहीं होता है।
• इनमें मस्तिष्क बॉक्स (Cranium) एवं जबड़ा नहीं पाया जाता है।
• इनमें जोड़ेदार उपांग नहीं पाये जाते हैं। उदाहरण – हर्डमानिया।

प्रश्न 4.
कोई तीन स्थिर जन्तुओं के नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर:

• ल्यूकोसोलेनिया
• साइकॉन
• ग्रैन्शिया (पोरीफेरा संघ के जन्तु स्थिर होते हैं, उपर्युक्त तीनों जीव संघ पोरीफेरा के ही हैं।)

प्रश्न 5.
ऐसे स्तनधारी का नाम बताइए, जिसके R.B.Cs. में केन्द्रक पाया जाता है।
उत्तर:
ऊँट के R.B.Cs. में केन्द्रक पाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 6.
उप-संघ यूरोकॉर्डेटा के तीन लक्षणों को लिखकर एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर:
यूरोकॉर्डेटा के लक्षण –

• इनके प्रौढ़ में नोटोकॉर्ड नहीं पाया जाता, जबकि डिम्भकों में पाया जाता है।
• ये अपने शरीर के चारों तरफ एक कठोर कंचुक (Tunic) या कवच स्रावित करते हैं।
• इनमें गिलछिद्र पाये जाते हैं। उदाहरण – हर्डमानिया, डोलिओलम।

प्रश्न 7.
उप-संघ सिफैलोकॉर्डेटा के लक्षण लिखकर एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर:
सिफैलोकॉर्डेटा के लक्षण –

• इनमें क्रेनियम तथा जबड़े नहीं पाये जाते हैं।
• ये मछली के समान होते हैं तथा इनमें नोटोकॉर्ड एवं तन्त्रिका रज्जू शरीर की पूरी लम्बाई में पाये जाते हैं।
• इनमें कवच नहीं पाया जाता है। उदाहरण – ऐम्फिऑक्सस।

प्रश्न 8.
ग्लास स्पंज किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
कुछ स्पंजों के कंकाल पारदर्शी होते हैं एवं इनकी कंटिकाएँ सिलिका की बनी होती हैं। पारदर्शी होने के कारण इन्हें ग्लास स्पंज कहते हैं।

प्राणि जगत लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित जन्तुओं के जन्तु वैज्ञानिक नाम लिखिए –

1. घरेलू मक्खी
2. हाथी
3. शुतुरमुर्ग
4. गोलकृमि
5. कंगारू

उत्तर:
जन्तुओं के वैज्ञानिक नाम –

प्रश्न 2.
एसीलोम, स्यूडोसीलोम में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए एवं प्रत्येक का एक-एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर:
एसीलोम एवं स्यूडोसीलोम में अन्तर – जन्तु शरीर की आहारनाल और देहभित्ति के बीच एक गुहा पायी जाती है जिसे देहगुहा (सीलोम) कहते हैं। इसका विकास मध्यचर्म (Mesoderm) के दो भागों में बँट जाने के कारण होता है। मध्यचर्म से विकसित देहगुहा वास्तविक देहगुहा कहलाती है। जिन जीवों में देहगुहा नहीं पायी जाती उन्हें एसीलोमेट जीव कहते हैं। जैसे – साइकॉन, हाइड्रा। कुछ जीवों में देहगुहा मध्यचर्म से विकसित न होकर शरीर के किसी दूसरे भाग से विकसित होती है जैसे – ब्लास्टोसील, इस देहगुहा को कूट देहगुहा (स्यूडोसीलोम) कहते हैं। जैसे – फीताकृमि (टीनिया) एव रोटीफर ट्राइलोबस।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित जन्तुओं के संघ का नाम लिखिए –

1. स्टारफिश
2. जेलीफिश
3. डॉग फिश
4. इक्थियोफिश
5. हॉर्स फिश
6. व्हेल फिश
7. सिल्वर फिश।

उत्तर:
जन्तु – संघ

• स्टारफिश – इकाइनोडर्मेटा
•  जेली फिश – सीलेण्ट्रेटा
• डॉग फिश – कॉर्डेटा
• इक्थियोफिश – कॉर्डेटा
• हॉर्स फिश – कॉर्डेटा
• व्हेल फिश – कॉर्डेटा।
• सिल्वर फिश – ऑर्थोपोडा

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित जन्तुओं के प्रचलन अंग का नाम लिखिए –

• अमीबा
• केंचुआ
• पैरामीशियम
• सर्प
• स्टारफिश
• हाइड्रा
• यूग्लीना।

उत्तर:
जन्तु – प्रचलन अंग

1. अमीबा – कूटपाद
2. केंचुआ – सीटी
3. पैरामीशियम – सिलिया
4. सर्प – पसली एवं शल्क
5. स्टारफिश – भुजा
6. हाइड्रा – स्पर्शक
7. यूग्लीना – कशाभिका।

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित रचनाएँ किन जन्तुओं में पायी जाती हैं, प्रत्येक के सामने केवल एक जन्तु का नाम लिखिए –

1. संयुक्त नेत्र
2. कैरापेस
3. मेड्यूसा
4. फ्लेम कोशिका
5. प्लेकॉइड स्केल
6. ब्लबर
7. एक अण्डाशय
8. पैरापोडिया
9. मिसेण्ट्री
10. आन्तरिक कवच।

उत्तर:

रचना – वहन करने वाला जन्तु

1. संयुक्त नेत्र – पेरिप्लेनेटा (तिलचट्टा)
2. कैरापेस – कैन्सर (केकड़ा)
3. मेड्यूसा – ऑरेलिया
4. फ्लेम कोशिका – प्लैनेरिया
5. प्लेकॉइड स्केल – स्कॉलियोडॉन
6. ब्लबर – नीला व्हेल (बेलिना)
7. एक अण्डाशय – पक्षी (कबूतर = कोलम्बा)
8. पैरापोडिया – नेरीस
9. मिसेण्ट्री – कोरेलियम
10. आन्तरिक कवच – सीपिया (सिफैलोपोडा जीव)।

प्रश्न 6.
कोई पाँच जन्तु संघों के नाम एवं उनके एक-एक उदाहरण लिखिए।
उत्तर:
पाँच जन्तु संघ निम्नलिखित हैं –

• पोरीफेरा – उदाहरण – साइकॉन (स्पंज)
• सीलेण्ट्रेटा – उदाहरण – हाइड्रा
• प्लेटीहेल्मिन्थीस – उदाहरण – प्लैनेरिया
• निमैटोहेल्मिन्थीस – उदाहरण – ऐस्केरिस
• ऐनीलिडा – उदाहरण – फेरेटिमा।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिए –

1. हीमोसील
2. साइक्लोस्टोमेटा
3. निमैटोडा।

उत्तर:
(1) हीमोसील:
जीवों की आहारनाल एवं देहभित्ति के बीच एक गुहा पायी जाती है, जिसे देहगुहा कहते हैं। इसमें एक प्रकार का द्रव भरा रहता है, जिसे देहगुहीय द्रव कहते हैं, लेकिन ऑर्थोपोडा संघ तथा दूसरे खुले परिसंचरण वाले जीवों की देहगुहा में देहगुहीय द्रव के स्थान पर रुधिर भरा होता है, इस कारण इनकी देहगुहा को हीमोसील कहते हैं। यह देहगुहा संवहन का कार्य करती है।

(2) साइक्लोस्टोमेटा:
यह संघ कॉर्डेटा का एक वर्ग है, जिसमें निम्नलिखित लश्नाण पाये जाते हैं –

• इनमें मस्तिष्क बॉक्स उपस्थित, लेकिन जबड़ा अनुपस्थित होता है। मुख चुपक प्रकृति का होता है।
• इनके उपांग जोड़ में नहीं होते हैं । शरीर बेलनाकार तथा लम्बा होता है।
• ये मछली जैसे होते हैं, लेकिन त्वचा चिकनी तथा शल्कविहीन होती है।
• सिर पर केवल एक नासा छिद्र पाया जाता है।

(3) निमैटोडा (निमैटोहेल्मिन्थीस):
यह जन्तु जगत का एक संघ है, जिसमें सूत्र-कृमि या गोल कृमि जन्तुओं को रखा गया है। इस संघ के जीवों में निम्नलिखित लक्षण पाये जाते हैं-

• इनका शरीर त्रिस्तरीय, गोलाकार होता है।
• ये जल तथा गीली मिट्टी में या अन्तःपरजीवी के रूप में पाये जाते हैं।
• इनका शरीर लम्बा, पतला, सिरों पर सँकरा द्विपार्श्व सममित होता है। इसमें सिर का अभाव होता है। शरीर पर क्यूटिकल का आवरण पाया जाता है।
• शरीर में श्वसन तथा परिसंचरण तन्त्र नहीं पाया जाता, लेकिन जनन-तन्त्र विकसित होता है। उदाहरण – ऐस्केरिस, वाउचेरिया।

प्राणि जगत दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
संघ पोरीफेरा के लक्षण तथा दो उदाहरण लिखिए।
उत्तर:
संघ पोरीफेरा के लक्षण –

• इस संघ के जन्तु असममिति अथवा अरीय सममिति के जलीय समुद्री जन्तु होते हैं।
• इनकी आकृति बेलनाकार, अण्डाकार, अनियमित और शाखित होती है। इनमें ऊतक या अंग नहीं बनते हैं।
• इनमें देहगुहा (Coelom) का अभाव होता है।
• शरीर भित्ति में अनेक सूक्ष्म छिद्र (Ostia) होते हैं। शरीर के शीर्ष पर ऑस्कुलम नामक एक छिद्र होता है।
• शरीर में नाल तन्त्र होता है, जिसमें भोज्य पदार्थों, जल आदि का परिभ्रमण होता है। शरीर का कंकाल अनेक प्रकार की कंटिकाओं (Spicules) का बना होता है। ये कंटिकाएँ CaCO3 (कैल्सियम कार्बोनेट) या सिलिका की बनी होती हैं।
• जनन अलैंगिक व लैंगिक दोनों प्रकार का होता है। इनमें पुनरुद्भवन की क्षमता होती है।
• शरीर द्विस्तरीय होता है, दोनों स्तरों के मध्य में जेली के समान मध्य स्तर मीजोडर्म पायी जाती है।
• शरीर संगठन कोशिकीय स्तर का होता है, लेकिन इनमें ऊतकों का अभाव होता है। उदाहरण – साइकॉन, ल्यूकोसोलेनिया।

प्रश्न 2.
संघ – सीलेण्ट्रेटा के विशिष्ट लक्षण तथा उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर:
संघ – सीलेण्ट्रेटा के लक्षण:

• ये अधिकांश समुद्री तथा अलवणीय जल में पाये जाने वाले जन्तु होते हैं।
• ये बहुकोशिकीय अरीय सममिति के होते हैं।
• ये द्वि-स्तरीय होते हैं। बाहरी तथा भीतरी स्तर के बीच एककोशिकीय स्तर मीजोग्लिया (Mesoglea) पाया जाता है।
• शरीर में एक गुहा, आन्तर गुहा (Coelenteron) पायी जाती है।
• इनमें सिर तथा गुदाद्वार नहीं पाये जाते हैं।
• पाचक गुहा थैली के समान होती है, गैस्ट्रोवैस्कुलर गुहा बाहर की ओर मुख से सम्बन्धित होती है।
• मुख को घेरे हुए स्पर्शक पाये जाते हैं, लेकिन सुरक्षा तथा परिवहन तन्त्रों का अभाव होता है।
• उनमें निमैटोसिस्ट दंशक उपकरण पाया जाता है। उदाहरण – हाइड्रा, ऑरेलिया।

प्रश्न 3.
जन्तु जगत वर्गीकरण की बाह्य रूपरेखा का चित्रण कर प्रत्येक संघ के दो – दो प्रमुख लक्षण एवं दो-दो उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर:
जन्तु जगत सभी जीवों में सबसे विकसित जगत है, जिसमें लगभग 12 लाख प्रकार के जीवों को रखा गया है। जन्तु जगत को मोटे तौर पर तीन शाखाओं में बाँटा गया है, जिन्हें पुन: कई संघों में बाँटा गया है, जो निम्नानुसार हैं –

(A) शाखा मीसोजोआ – कोशिकाओं का समूह मात्र होता है, इनमें केवल एक संघ आता है –
1. संघ-मीसोजोआ:

• शरीर कोशिका समूह का बना होता है।
• जल में पाये जाते हैं। उदाहरण – डाइसिमा।

(B) शाखा पैराजोआ – इनमें कोशिकीय स्तर का संगठन पाया जाता है। इनका एक संघ प्रमुख है –
2. संघ-पोरीफेरा:

• शरीर पर असंख्य छिद्र पाये जाते हैं।
• ये स्थिर तथा जलीय होते हैं। उदाहरण-साइकॉन, ग्रैन्शिया।

(C) शाखा मेटाजोआ –
इनमें ऊतकीय, अंगीय तथा तंत्रीय स्तर का संगठन पाया जाता है। इनके प्रमुख संघ निम्नानुसार हैं –

3. संघ-सीलेण्ट्रेटा:

• शरीर के मध्य में एक खोखली गुहा पायी जाती है।
• इनमें दंशक कोशिकाएँ पायी जाती हैं। उदाहरण – हाइड्रा, ऑरेलिया।

4. संघ – प्लेटीहेल्मिन्थीस –

• शरीर चपटा व त्रिस्तरीय होता है।
• इसमें देहगुहा नहीं पायी जाती है। उदाहरण-टीनिया, प्लैनेरिया।

5. संघ – निमैटोहेल्मिन्थीस –

• इनका शरीर लम्बा, त्रिस्तरीय, गोलाकार कृमि के समान होता है।
• शरीर में नलिका के अन्दर नलिका व्यवस्था पायी जाती है। उदाहरण – ऐस्केरिस, वाउचेरिया।

6. संघ-ऐनीलिडा:

• शरीर पतला, लम्बा तथा छोटे-छोटे छल्ले समान खण्डों का बना होता है।
• प्रचलन, शूकों द्वारा होता है। उदाहरण-फेरिटिमा, लुम्ब्रिकस।

7. संघ – मोलस्का

• शरीर कोमल, त्रिस्तरीय तथा खण्डहीन होता है।
• शरीर के चारों तरफ कवच पाया जाता है। उदाहरण-पाइला, यूनियो।

8. संघ – ऑर्थोपोडा:

• शरीर त्रिस्तरीय तथा खण्डों में बँटा होता है।
• शरीर से संधित पैर जुड़े होते हैं। उदाहरण-पेरीप्लेनेटा, पैलीमॉन।

9. संघ – इकाइनोडर्मेटा:

• शरीर अरीय सममिति वाला होता है।
• शरीर भुजाओं में बँटा होता है तथा इनकी बाह्य त्वचा पर कंटिकाएँ पायी जाती हैं। उदाहरण – ऐस्टेरियास, कुकुमेरिया।

10. संघ – हेमीकॉर्डेटा –

• शरीर प्रोबोसिस, कॉलर व धड़ में विभेदित होता है।
• प्रोबोसिस में नोटोकॉर्ड जैसी रचना पायी जाती है।
• शरीर कृमि जैसा होता है। समुद्री कीचड़ में रहते हैं। उदाहरण – बैलेनोग्लॉसस, रेब्डोप्ल्यूरा।

11. संघ-कॉर्डेटा:

• जीवन की किसी-न-किसी अवस्था में नोटोकॉर्ड, नर्वकॉर्ड एवं गिल छिद्र अवश्य पाये जाते हैं।
• सभी तन्त्र विकसित होते हैं। उदाहरण – राना टिग्रिना, होमो सैपिएन्स।

प्रश्न 4.
कॉर्डेटा संघ का वर्गीकरण एवं प्रत्येक के दो-दो लक्षण एवं दो – दो उदाहरण लिखिए।
उत्तर:
कॉर्डेटा संघ का वर्गीकरण-संघ कॉर्डेटा को मोटे तौर पर निम्नलिखित 7 वर्गों में बाँटते हैं –
1. वर्ग-साइक्लोस्टोमेटा:

• मस्तिष्क बॉक्स उपस्थित, लेकिन जबड़ा अनुपस्थित होता है।
• शरीर पर जोड़ेदार उपांग नहीं पाये जाते हैं। उदाहरण – पेट्रोमाइजॉन, मिक्सिन। अधिवर्ग – मत्स्य वर्ग-इसके अन्तर्गत निम्न दो वर्ग हैं –

2. वर्ग-कॉण्ड्रिक्थीस –

• इस वर्ग में वे मछलियाँ आती हैं, जिनका कंकाल उपास्थि का बना होता है।
• श्वसन, गलफड़े (गिल) द्वारा होता है, लेकिन इस पर ऑपरकुलम नहीं पाया जाता है। उदाहरण – स्कॉलियोडॉन, टॉरपिडो।

3. वर्ग-ऑस्टिक्थीस –

• इन मछलियों का अन्त:कंकाल अस्थि का बना होता है।
• शरीर अस्थि शल्कों से ढंका रहता है। उदाहरण- लैबियो, हिप्पोकैम्पस।।

4. वर्ग-एम्फिबिया –

• इस वर्ग के कशेरुकी जीव जल एवं स्थल दोनों में रह सकते हैं, लेकिन उनका भ्रूणीय विकास जल में ही होता है।
• इनमें चार पैर पाये जाते हैं। उदाहरण-राना टिग्रिना, ब्यूफो (भेक), सेलामेंडर।

5. वर्ग-सरीसृप –

• ये जमीन पर रेंगकर चलते हैं।
• इसकी त्वचा सूखी होती है। उदाहरणकैलोटिस, नाजा।

6. पक्षी वर्ग –

• अग्र पाद पंखों में रूपान्तरित होता है तथा पूरा शरीर परों से ढंका रहता है।
• इनकी अस्थियों में वायु कोष्ठ पायी जाती है। उदाहरण – कोलम्बा, पेसर।

7. स्तनी वर्ग –

• चमड़ी पर बाल तथा सिर में बाह्य कर्ण पाये जाते हैं।
• इनमें स्तन ग्रन्थियाँ पायी जाती हैं। उदाहरण – मैक्रोपस, होमो सैपिएन्स।

प्रश्न 5.
स्तनधारी जन्तु समूह के प्रमुख लक्षणों का वर्गीकरण करते हुए प्रमुख स्तनधारियों का संक्षिप्त विवरण दीजिए।
अथवा
प्रोटोथीरिया एवं मेटाथीरिया में अन्तर दीजिए।
उत्तर:
स्तनधारी जन्तुओं के लक्षण-जन्तु-जगत का स्तनधारी समूह पृथ्वी का सबसे अधिक विकसित जन्तु समूह है, जिसमें निम्नलिखित लक्षण पाये जाते हैं –

• शरीर रोयें या बालों से ढंका रहता है। त्वचा में स्वेद तथा तेल ग्रन्थियाँ पायी जाती हैं।
• मादा में बच्चों को दूध द्वारा पोषण देने के लिए स्तन ग्रन्थियाँ पायी जाती हैं, जो नर में कम विकसित होती हैं।
• करोटि की अस्थियाँ सीवनों द्वारा जुडी होती हैं। इनमें दो अस्थि कन्द पाये जाते हैं।
• हृदय चार कोष्ठों का बना होता है तथा R.B.Cs. में केन्द्रक नहीं पाया जाता। ऊँट के R.B.Cs. में केन्द्रक पाये जाते हैं।
• देहगुहा एक लचीले मध्यपट द्वारा पृष्ठीय वक्षगुहा तथा प्रतिपृष्ठीय उदर गुहा में विभाजित होती है।
• ग्रैव कशेरुकाओं की संख्या हमेशा सात होती है।
• ये नियततापी (Warm blooded) होते हैं।
• इनकी कशेरुकाएँ अगर्ती होती हैं। उदाहरण – होमो सैपिएन्स, रैटस रैटस।

स्तनियों के प्रकार या स्तनियों का वर्गीकरण-स्तनियों को मोटे तौर पर 3 भागों में बाँटते हैं –
(i) प्रोटोथीरिया- इस उप-वर्ग के स्तनियों में निम्नलिखित गुण पाये जाते हैं

• इनकी स्तन ग्रन्थियों में चूषक नहीं पाये जाते हैं।
• इनकी मादा अण्डे देती है। इनमें बाह्य कर्ण नहीं होते हैं।
• नर का वृषण, उदर गुहा में स्थित होता है।
• इनमें गर्भाशय तथा योनि नहीं पाए जाते हैं। उदाहरण – डकबिल्ड, प्लेटिपस, ऐकिडना।

(ii) मेटाथीरिया – इस उप-वर्ग में निम्नलिखित गुण पाये जाते हैं –

• ये अपरिपक्व बच्चे देते हैं। बच्चे का शेष विकास मार्क्सपियल थैली में होता है।
• स्तनों में चूषक पाये जाते हैं।
• इनमें बाह्य कर्ण पाये जाते हैं।
• इनमें गर्भाशय तथा योनि पाये जाते हैं। उदाहरण – मैक्रोपस, डाइडेल्फिस।

(iii) यूथीरिया ये सबसे विकसित स्तनी हैं, इनके प्रमुख लक्षण निम्नानुसार हैं –

• मादा परिपक्व शिशुओं को जन्म देती है तथा बच्चे का पूरा विकास गर्भाशय में ही होता है।
• स्तन ग्रन्थियाँ विकसित चूषक युक्त होती हैं।
• गर्भाशय तथा योनि विकसित होते हैं। उदाहरण – छछूदर(Talpa), खरगोश (Lepus), मनुष्य (Homo sapiens)।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिए –

1. पक्षी वर्ग
2. सरीसप वर्ग
3. मत्स्य वर्ग।

उत्तर:
(1) पक्षी वर्ग – यह संघ कॉर्डेटा का प्रमुख वर्ग है, जिसका शरीर उड़ने के लिए अनुकूलित होता है। इनके जीवन काल में नोटोकॉर्ड, नर्वकॉर्ड तथा गिल्स जीवन की किसी-न-किसी अवस्था में पाये जाते हैं। इनके अलावा इनमें निम्नलिखित लक्षण पाये जाते हैं –

• ये गर्म रक्त वाले जन्तु हैं। इनका शरीर परों से ढंका रहता है और सिर, धड़ एवं पूँछ में बँटा रहता है।
• अग्रपाद का उड़ने के लिए पंखों में परिवर्तन हो जाता है। जबड़ों में दाँत नहीं पाये जाते हैं।
• श्वसन फेफड़ों द्वारा होता है, जो वायुकोषों में बँटा होता है।
• हृदय चार कोष्ठों का बना होता है।
• कंकाल में छोटे-छोटे कोष्ठ पाये जाते हैं, जिन्हें वायु कूपिकाएँ कहते हैं। इनमें वायु भरी होती है।
• इनमें केवल एक महाधमनी पायी जाती है।
• खोपड़ी की हड्डियाँ आपस में संयुग्मित होती हैं।
• नर में मैथुन अंग पाया जाता है। इनमें अन्त:निषेचन पाया जाता है, मादा अण्डे देती है, जिन्हें वह सेती है। उदाहरण-कोलम्बा, पैसर।

(2) सरीसृप वर्ग – इस वर्ग में संघ कॉर्डेटा के उन जन्तुओं को रखा जाता है, जो रेंगकर चलते हैं। इनके प्रमुख लक्षण निम्नलिखित हैं –

• ये असमतापी तथा रेंगकर चलने वाली जलीय या स्थलीय जीव हैं।
• इनकी त्वचा रूखी तथा शल्कयुक्त होती है।
• इनका कंकाल अस्थिमय होता है, इनकी R.B.Cs. में केन्द्रक पायी जाती है।
• हृदय में तीन कोष्ठ पाये जाते हैं।
• इनमें आन्तरिक निषेचन होता है। उदाहरण-छिपकली, साँप, मगरमच्छ घड़ियाल।

(3) मत्स्य वर्ग-मत्स्य वर्ग कॉर्डेटा का प्रमुख वर्ग है अर्थात् इसमें नोटोकॉर्ड, नर्वकॉर्ड एवं गिल्स जीवन की किसी-न-किसी अवस्था में अवश्य पाये जाते हैं। ये जलीय होते हैं इनके प्रमुख लक्षण निम्न हैं –

• ये अनियततापी या शीत रुधिर (Cold blooded) जलीय जन्तु हैं।
• इनका शरीर पार्श्व में चपटा तथा शल्कों से ढंका होता है।
• फेफड़ा मछलियों को छोड़कर सभी में गिल द्वारा श्वसन होता है।
• इनमें कर्णपटह कला नहीं पायी जाती है।
• शरीर के पार्श्व में पार्श्व रेखा पायी जाती है जिसमें ज्ञानेन्द्रियाँ स्थित होती हैं।
• हृदय आलिंद व शिरा दो भागों में बँटा होता है। उदाहरण – क्लाइमेटियस, स्कॉलियोडॉन, टॉरपिडो, रोहू।

MP Board Class 11th Biology Solutions

MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions Chapter 9 The Living Organisms and their Surroundings

The Living Organisms and their Surroundings Text Book Exercises

Question 1.
What is a habitat?
Answer:
The place where a plant or an animal lives is called its habitat.

Question 2.
How are cactus adapted to survive in a desert?
Answer:
Cactus plants lose very little through transpiration. The leaves in desert plants are either absent, very small, or they are present in the shape of spines. This helps in reducing loss of water from the leaves through transpiration. The photosynthesis in these plants is usually carried out by the stems. The stem is also covered with a thick waxy layer, which helps to retain water. Cactus plants have roots that go very deep into the soil for absorbing water.

Question 3.
Fill up the blanks:

1. The presence of specific features, which enable a plantor an animal to live in a particular habitat, is called …………….
2. The habitats of the plants and animals that live on land are called ……………. habitat.
3. The habitats of plants and animals that live in water are called ……………. habitat.
4. Soil, water and air are the ……………. factors of habitat.
5. Changes in our surroundings that make us respond to them, are called …………….

Answer:

1. Adaptations
2. Terrestrial
3. Aquatic
4. Abiotic
5. Stimuli.

Question 4.
Which of the things in the following list are non – living? Plough, Mushroom, Sewing machine, Radio, Boat, Water hyacinth, Earthworm.
Answer:
Non – living things are plough, sewing machine, radio and boat.

Question 5.
Give an example of a non – living thing, which shows any two characteristics of living things?
Answer:
Clouds in the sky. They show two living characteristics. These are grow in size and move from one place to another place.

Question 6.
Which of the non – living things listed below, were once part of a living thing? Butter, Leather, Soil, Wool, Electric bulb, Cooking oil, Salt, Apple, Rubber.
Answer:
Butter, Leather, Wool, Cooking oil, Apple, Rubber.

Question 7.
List the common characteristics of the living things?
Answer:
The common characteristics of the living things are growth, movement, life cycle, nutrition (taking food), respiration, excretion, respond to stimuli, show movement, die and reproduction.

Question 8.
Explain, why speed is important for survival in the grasslands for animals that live there?
Answer:
There are few trees or places for animals to hide in the grassland habitats. The animals like lion or tiger prey other animals such as deer. The deer have very fast running speed to help them to run away from the predator’s speed is important for their survival in grassland habitats.

Projects And Activities

Activity 1.
Prepare a table to show that animals, plants and other objects found in different surroundings.
Answer:
Animals, plants and’other objects found in different surroundings:

Activity 2.
What is phototropism. Explain with a diagram.
Answer:
Phototropism is the growth of the plant shoot to the sources of light. Take a potted plant with erect stem. Keep the plant in dark room in which the source of the light should be on any one side. Observe the plant after a weak. We see that the shoot of the plant has bent towards the source of light as shown in figure.

Activity 3.
What is its name and habitat?
Answer:

Answer:

• “Penguin.”
• Habitat: Polar regions.

The Living Organisms and their Surroundings Additional Important Questions

The Living Organisms and their Surroundings Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question (i)
In which of the following thing, life activities are carried out –
(a) Chain
(b) Stone
(c) Banyan
(d) Plastic
Answer:
(c) Banyan

Question (ii)
prepare their own food –
(a) Plants
(b) Things
(c) Creatures
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Creatures

Question (iii)
…………… gives eggs.
(a) Cat
(b) Cow
(c) Hen
(d) Dog
Answer:

Question (iv)
Which one is not a noctural animal –
(a) Owl
(b) Camel
(c) Cockroach
(d) Bat
Answer:
(b) Camel

Question (v)
Pond is an example of habitat.
(a) Aquatic
(b) Desert
(e) Terrestrial
(d) Oceans.
Answer:
(a) Aquatic

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The place where the animals live is called …………….
2. Hydra is fnuni in ……………
3. Cactus is the plant found in ……………
4. …………… is an añimal which gives eggs.
5. …………… is a non – flower plant.
6. A group of similar organisms is called …………….
7. The world of living organisms is divided into and …………….
8.  …………….. are both living and non – living.
9. There are some sea animals like dolphins and whales that do not have ………………
10. Changes in our surrondings that makes us respond to them, are called ………………

Answer:

1. Habitat
2. Pond water
3. Desert
4. Snake
5. Fungi
6. Species
7. Plant, animal
8. Viruses
9. Gills
10. Stimuli.

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. Reproduction is a common feature of living and nonliving.
2. The process of give birth to young ones is called as reproduction.
3. Every living being responds to external stimuli. This property is called as response.
4. The plants and animals that live on land are said to live in terrestrial habitats.
5. Breathing is part of a process called respiration. Animals and plants are abiotic components.
6. Abiotic components are also known as physical factors.
7. Zizyphus is an aquatic plant.
8. Many plants reproduce through seeds.
9. There is wide variety of organisms present in different habitats.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. True
10. True.

Question 4.
Match the items of Column A with Column B:

(i) (c)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (b)
(v) (f)
(vi) (e)

The Living Organisms and their Surroundings Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is an organisms?
Answer:
All living creatures of various kinds are organisms.

Question 2.
Name some animals which lay eggs?
Answer:
Frog, snakes, birds, etc. lay eggs.

Question 3.
Name animals which give birth to their young ones.
Answer:
Woman, cow, monkey, etc. give birth to their young ones.

Question 4.
What are biotic components?
Answer:
Plants and animals are biotic components.

Question 5.
What are abiotic components?
Answer:
Water, air, light, soil and heat are abiotic components.

Question 6.
How do plants obtain their food?
Answer:
Plants prepare their own food in their green leaves with carbon – di – oxide, water, minerals and sunlight.

Question 7.
How do the plants prepare their food?
Answer:
Plants take carbon – di – oxide from air water and sunlight. They prepare their food with the help of these and leave out oxygen.

Question 8.
Give example of organisms who do not need light and live underground?
Answer:
Earthworm, cockroach, rats and termites, etc. live in. burrows and are active at night.

Question 9.
Some names of living things are given below. Divide them in two groups (i) giving eggs, (ii) giving birth to young ones. Cockroach, Cat, Dog, Bird, Cow, Lizard, Parrot, Crow, Horse?
Answer:

1. Living being which lay eggs are cockroach, bird, lizard, crow and parrot.
2. Living being which give birth to young ones are cat, dog, cow and horse.

Question 10.
What is the food of a frog?
Answer:
Small insects.

Question 11.
What is the food of fishes?
Answer:
lt feeds up micro plants and aquatic insects.

Question 12.
What is the scientific name of human being?
Answer:
Homo – Sapines.

Question 13.
Name any three desert animals?
Answer:
Lizard, camel, snake.

Question 14.
Name any two desert plants?
Answer:
Kikar, cactus.

Question 15.
Name any two aquatic animals?
Answer:
Fish, coral.

Question 16.
Name three non – living things in a pond?
Answer:
Water, mud and air.

Question 17.
Name two living organisms in a pond?
Answer:
Frog and fish.

Question 18.
Name some animals which are found at mountains?
Answer:
Snow – bear, musk deer, wolf and water fowl.

Question 19.
How is light essential for plants?
Answer:
Plants prepare their own food in the presence of light.

Question 20.
Where do you find yak?
Answer:
At mountains.

Question 21.
What kind of trees do you see on Himalayan mountains?
Answer:
Pines, deodars, oaks.

Question 22.
What is adaptation?
Answer:
The presence of specific features or certain habits, which enable a plant or an animal to live in its surroundings is called adaptation.

Question 23.
What is excretion?
Answer:
As a result of various chemical (metabolic) reactions taking place in the body of cells certain harmful toxic substances are constantly formed. Removal of these toxic substances from j the body is termed as excretion.

Question 24.
Define respiration with the help of chemical equation?
Answer:
The process in which the oxidation of absorbed food is takes place by the 0₂ which is inhaled by breathing and energy is released out is called respiration. Chemical equation of nutrition is as follows:
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + 673 kcal (Energy)

Question 25.
Where will you find the birds?
Answer:
We find the birds on the branches of trees.

Question 26.
Name the habitat of monkey and cactus?
Answer:
The habitat of monkey is trees while the habitat of cacutus is desert.

The Living Organisms and their Surroundings Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are biotic components? Name some abiotic components.
Answer:
Plants and animals are part of biotic components. In addition, there are small organisms like fungi and bacteria in the habitat, which cannot be seen with naked eyes. These are called micro – organisms. They are also a part of biotic components of different habitat. Some abiotic components are rocks, soil, air and water.

Question 2.
Define terrestrial habitats and aquatic habitats.
Answer:
The plants and animals that live on .land are said to live in terrestrial habitats. For example; forests, grasslands, deserts, coastal and mountain regions. On the other hand, the habitats of plants and animals that live in water are called aquatic habitats. For example, lakes, rivers and oceans, etc.

There are large variations in forests, grasslands, deserts, coastal and mountain regions located in different parts of the world. This is true for all aquatic habitats as well.

Question 3.
Define mountain habitats. Also explain tree of a mountain habitat?
Answer:
Mountain habitats are normally very cold and windy. In some areas, snowfall may take place in winters also. There is a large variety of plants in the mountain regions. These trees are normally cone shaped and having sloping branches. The leaves of some of these trees are like needle. This helps the rainwater and snow to slide off easily. There could be trees with shapes very different from these that are also present on mountains: They have different type of adaptations to survive on the mountains.

Question 4.
List some common features of the living and non – living?
Answer:
Common features of living and non – living are:

1. All of them have mass, shape, and they occupy space.
2. They are made up of structural units.
3. The structural units of living and non – living are called molecules respectively.

Question 5.
In what ways living things differ from non – living things?
Answer:
The living things differ from non – living in the following ways:
All the living are characterized by movement, execution respiration intake of food, reproduction and sentivity towards such, heat and sound.

Question 6.
What do you understand by life cycle and life span of the living things?
Answer:
In living things life starts with a single cell which developes to a mature plant or full grown animal and finally grows old. This whole cycle is called the life cycle. Life span is the time period for which animals grow till they die. This time varies from a few minutes to hundreds of years. Life span of bacteria is short and the life of span a banyan tree may be even hundred of years.

Question 7.
‘All living things respond to external stimuli’. Explain.
Answer:
An important character of plants and animals is their response to external stimuli that is touch, fight, sound, water, chemicals or smell. Plants grow in the direction of fight. Earthworm moves away from fight and saline medium. Cockroaches five in dark corners.

Question 8.
How can you say that plants respond to stimulus?
Answer:
Plants like animals respond to stimulus. For example, the shoot grow towards fight and root grow towards water. The touch – me – not plant shows the most clear example as its leaves drops on touching.

Question 9.
How do plants differ from each other?
Answer:
Plants differ from each other in their habitat, food habits, structure, shape of leaves, type of flower, type of fruit, etc. Some plants five in water, others in marshes and still others on land. Some plants are green, others are non – green, some plants have their body divided into stem, root or leaf but in others there is no stem, root or leaf.

Question 10.
What is photosynthesis?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is the process by which the green plants manufacture their own food from carbon dioxide and water in presence of sunlight. In the process they produce oxygen also.

Question 11.
Name five plants and five animals whose habitat is pond.
Answer:
Pond is the habitat for variety of plants and animals.

Plants found in pond:
Spirogyra (algae), water lily, hydrilla, water hyacinth, sundew, bladder wort. Sundew and bladder wort are insectivorous plants.

Animals found in pond:
Frog, fish, trutles, ducks, snail, kingfisher, etc.

Question 12.
How does reproduction take place in plants and creatures?
Answer:
Every adult living being has the capability to give birth to child like itself. For example, adult cat gives birth to its young ones, and they grow and become adult. The reproduction in plants take place when the seeds sowed in the soil get germinated, sprout out and a sapling is born. Gradually it grows up and become a plant. In case of some of the plants, Certain portion is put under the soil.

Question 13.
How is the growth in plants different from growth in animals?
Answer:
The growth in plants is a continuous process. It occurs throughout their life. In animals the growth occurs only for a limited period of time. For example, in human growth takes place only in the first twenty years of life.

Question 14.
Why is the process of excretion important for living?
Answer:
As a result of metabolism various toxic substances are continuously formed. These wastes (carbon dioxide, ammonia compounds, other salts) if allowed to accumulate in the body (cells), would disturb the chemical composition of the protoplasm and produce toxic effects, crippling the life activities. Hence their elimination is most important. This is done by the process of excretion.

The Living Organisms and their Surroundings Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the surroundings in sea and desert regions?
Answer:
In the sea, plants and animals are surrounded by saline (salty) water. Most of them use the air dissolved in water.
There is very little water available in the desert. It is very hot in the day time and very cold at night in the desert. The animals and plants of the desert live on the desert soil and breathe air from the surroundings. The sea and the desert are very different surroundings and we find very different kind of plants and animals in these two regions.

For example, a fish and a camel. There are so many kinds of fish. All the ones shown here have the streamlined shape. This shape helps them move inside water. Fish have slippery scales on their bodies. These scales protect the fish and also help in easy movement through water. Fish have flat fins and tails that help them to change directions and keep their body balance in water. Gills present in the fish help them to use oxygen dissolved in water.

The body structure of a camel helps it to survive in desert conditions. Camel have long legs which help to keep their bodies away from the heat of the sand. They excrete small amount of urine, their dung is dry and they do not sweat. Since camels lose very little water from their bodies, they can live for many days without water.

We see that the features of a fish help it to live inside water and the features of a camel help it to survive in a desert.

Question 2.
Define acclimatisation?
Answer:
There are some changes that can happen in an organism over a short period of time to help them adjust to some changes in their surroundings. For instance, if we live in the plains and suddenly go to high mountain regions, we may experience difficulty in breathing and doing physical exercise for some days. We need to breathe faster when we are on high mountains.

After some days, our body adjusts to the changed conditions on the high mountain. Such small changes that take place in the body of a single organism over short periods, to overcome small problems due to changes in the surroundings, are called acclimatisation. These changes are different from the adaptations that take place over thousands of years.

Question 3.
How animals living in mountain regions adapt themselves? Is there any change in surroundings?
Ans. Animals living in the mountain regions are also adopted to the conditions there. They have thick skin or fur to protect them from cold. For example, yaks have long hair to keep them warm. Snow leopard has thick fur on its body including feet and toes. This protects its feet from the cold when it walks on the snow. The mountain goat has strong hooves for running up the rocky slopes of the mountains.


As we go up in the mountainous regions, the surroundings change and we see different kinds of adaptations at different heights.

Question 4.
Discuss the features of lion and deer that help them to survive in forests or grasslands?
Answer:
A lion lives in a forest or a grassland and is a strong animal that can hunt and kill animals like deer. It is light brown in colour. Lions have long claws in their front legs that can be withdrawn inside the toes. It’s light brown colour helps it to hide in dry grasslands when it hunts for prey (animals to eat). The eyes in front of the face allow it to have a correct idea about the location of its prey.

A deer is another animal that lives in forests and grasslands. It has strong teeth for chewing hard plant stems of the forest. A deer needs to know about the presence of predators (animals like lion that make it their prey) in order to run away from them and not become their prey.

It has long ears to hear movements of predators. The eyes on the side of its head allow it to look in all directions for danger. The speed of the deer helps them to run away from the predators. There are many other features of a lion, a deer or other animals and plants that help them to survive in their habitat.

Question 5.
Which life activities take place in livings being? Explain every activities in three to four sentences.
Answer:
The life activities take place in living being are as follows:

1. Nutrition:
Nutrition is very much essential for living beings for growth and for sustaining life. Every living being takes food in some or other form which provides nutrients to its body.

2. Respiration:
The process of respiration takes place in every living being. There can not be a life without respiration. Generally, the respirations is called as breathing. Exhaling and inhaling are the two steps of respiration.

3. Excretion:
To extrete urine and other harmful material out of body is the most important characteristics of living being. The harmful things like urine, stools, sweat and carbon – di -oxide, etc. are excreted through excretory organs of living beings.

4. Reproduction:
Every adult living being has the capability to give birth to child like itself.

5. Growth:
When we sow seed, it germinates, sprout out, gradually grows and it becomes adult. In this way, the growth takes place in every living being and this process is called growth.

6. Movement and Speed:
Movement and speed is one of the important property of living things. Animals move from one place to another in search of food or to save themselves from enemies. Like animals, no movement takes place in case of plants but despite remaining stationary at one place, they do their movements for procurring sunlight.

7. Response:
Every living being is sensational to the external stimulus. For example, during winter we wear woolen clothes.

Question 6.
What do you mean by growth?
Answer:
Growth means an increase in the size, weight or volume of an organism. It is permanent change in a living organism. The growth in animal is limited only upto the primary stages of life. In plants, the growth is unlimited and continues upto the last stage of life.

Question 7.
Discuss the reproduction in animals.
Answer:
Animals reproduce their own kind. The mode of reproduction may be different, in different animals. Some animals produce their young ones through eggs. Some animals give birth to the young ones. [See figure (i)] Many birds lay their eggs in the nest. Some of the eggs may hatch and young birds come out of these. [See figure (ii)]

Question 8.
Discuss the reproduction in plants.
Answer:
Plants also reproduce. Like animals, plants also differ in their mode of reproduction. Many plants reproduce through seeds. Plants produce seeds, which can germinate and grow into new plants. [See figure (i)]

Some plants also reproduce through parts other than seeds. For example, a part of a potato with a bud, grows into a new plant. [See figure (ii)] Plants also reproduce through cuttings.

MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.2

Assume π = \(\frac{22}{7}\) unless stated otherwise.

Question 1.
The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm is 88 cm². Find the diameter of the base of the cylinder.
Solution:
h = 14 cm
CSA of cylinder = 88 cm²
CSA of cylinder = 2 πrh
88 = 2x \(\frac{22}{7}\) xr x 14
\(\frac{88}{4}\) = 2r
r = \(\frac{2}{2}\) = 1
Diameter = 2 r
= 1 x 2 = 2 cm.

Question 2.
It is required to make a closed cylindrical tank of height 1 m and base diameter 140cm from a metal sheet. How many square metres of the sheet are required for the same?
h = 1 m
d = 140 cm
r = 7o cm = 0.7 m
Area of metal required = TSA of cylinderical tank
= 2 πr (r + h)
= 2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 0.7 (0.7 + 1)
= 4.4 x 1.7 = 7.4m²

Question 3.
A metal pipe is 77 cm long. The inner diameter of a cross section is 4 cm. the outer diameter being 4.4 cm. (see Fig.). Find its

(i) inner curved surface area.
(ii) outer curved surface area.
(iii) total surface area.

(iii) TSA = ICSA + OCSA + 2 x area of ring
= 968 + 1064.8 + 2 x 2.64
= 2032.8 + 5.28
= 20.38.08 cm².

Question 4.
The diameter of a roller is 84 cm and its length is 120 cm. It takes 500 complete revolutions to move once over to level a playground. Find the area of the playground in m².
Solution:
d = 84cm
∴ r = 42 cm
h = 120 cm
No. of revolution = 500
CSA of the roller = 2πrh
= 2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 42 x 120
= 44 x 720
= 31680 cm²
Area of the playground = 31680 x 500
= 15840000 cm²
Area in m² \(\frac{ 15840000}{100 x 100}\)
= 1584 m².

Question 5.
A cylindrical pillar is 50 cm in diameter and 3.5 m in height Find the cost of painting the curved surface of the pillar at the rate of ₹ 12.S0 per m².
Solution:
d = 50cm
r = 25 cm²
h = 3.5 m = 350 cm
CSA of pillar = 2πrh
= 2x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 25 x 350
= 44 x 1250
= 55000 cm²
CSA in m² = \(\frac{55000}{100×100}\)
Cost of painting the cylindrical pillar = ₹ 12.50 x 5.5
= ₹ 68.75

Question 6.
Curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 4.4 m². If the radius of the base of the cylinder is 0.7 m, find its height.
Solution:
CSA = 4.4m².
r = 0.7 m
CSA of cylinder =2πrh
4.4 = 2x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 0.7 x h
4.4 = 44 x 0.1 x h
4.4 = 4.4 x h
h = \(\frac{44}{4.4}\) = 1m

Question 7.
The inner diameter of a circular well is 3.5 m. It is 10 m deep. Find

1. its inner curved surface area
2. the cost of plastering this curved surface at the rate of ₹ 40 per m².

Solution:
d = 3.5m
r = 1.75 m
h = 10 m

1. ICSA of the well = 2πrh
= 2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 1.75 x 10
= 110 m²

2. Cost of plastering = ₹ 40 x 110
= ₹ 4400.

Question 8.
In a hot water heating system, there is a cylindrical pipe of length 28 m and diameter 5 cm. Find the total radiating surface in the system.
Solution:
h = 28m
d = 5cm
r = 2.5cm = 0.025m
Total radiating surface = CSA of pipe = 2πrh
= 2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 0.025 x 28
= 4.4 m².

9. Find

1. The lateral or curved surface area of a closed cylindrical petrol storage tank that is 4.2 m in diameter and 4.5 m high.

2. How much steel was actually used, if \(\frac{1}{2}\) of the steel actually used was wasted in making the tank.

Solution:
1. d = 4.2 m
r = 2.1m
h = 4.5 m
CSA of cylinderical tank = 2πrh
= 2x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 2.1 x 4.5
= 59.4 m².
TSA = 2πrr(r + h)
= 2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 2.1 (2.1 + 4.5)
= 2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 2.1 x 6.6
= 44 x 1.98
= 87.12 m²

2. Let A be the area of sheet actually used
TSA = A – \(\frac{1}{12}\)

A = 95.04m².

Question 10.
In Fig. you see the frame of a lampshade. It is to be covered with a decorative cloth. The frame has a base diameter of 20 cm and height of 30 cm. Amargin of 2.5 cm is to be given for folding it over the top and bottom of the frame. Find how much cloth is required for covering the lampshade.
Solution:

d = 20 cm
r = 10 cm
h = 30 + 2.5 + 2.5 cm = 35 cm
Area of cloth required = CSA of cyliner of height 35 cm
= 2πrh
= 2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 10 x 35
= 44 x 50 = 2200 cm².

Question 11.
The students of a Vidyalaya were asked to participate in a competi-tion for making and decorating penholders in the shape of a cylinder with a base, using cardboard. Each penholder was to be of radius 3 cm and height 10.5 cm. The Vidyalaya was to supply the competitors with cardboard. If there were 35 competitors, how much cardboard was required to be bought for the competition?
Solution:
r = 3 cm
h = 10.5 cm
Cardboard required for one penholder = CSA of penholder + Area of base
= 2πrh + πr²

MP Board Class 9th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Heron’s Formula Ex 12.2

Question 1.
A park, in the shape of a quadrilateral ABCD, has ∠C = 90°, AB = 9 m, BC = 12 m, CD, = 5 m and AD = 8 m. How much area does it. occupy?
Solution:
In ∆DCB
DB² = DC² + BC²

In ∆DBA P = (8 + 9 + 13)m = 30m
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = 15 m
s – a = 15 – 13 = 2
s – b = 15 – 9 = 6
s – c = 15 – 8 = 7
Area of ∆DBA = \(\sqrt{15x 2x6x7}\)
\(\sqrt{3x5x2x2x3x7}\)
= 2 x 3\(\sqrt{5×7}\) x 7 = 6\(\sqrt{35}\)m²
Area of quadrilateral ABCD = (30 + 6\(\sqrt{35}\)) m²
= 30 + 6 x 5.91
= 30 + 35.46
= 65.46 m2

Question 2.
Find the area of a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm, CD = 4 cm, DA = 5 cm and AC = 5 cm.
Solution:
In ∆ABC

P = 3 + 4 + 5 = 12cm
s = \(\frac{12}{2}\) = 6 cm
s – a = 6 – 5 = 1 cm
s – b = 6 – 4 = 2cm
s – c = 6 – 3 = 3 cm
Area of ∆ABC = \(\sqrt{6x1x2x3}\)
= \(\sqrt{2x3x2x3}\)
= 2 x 3 = 6 cm²
In ∆ADC P = 5 + 5 + 4 = 14 cm
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = 7 cm
s – a = 7 – 5 = 2cm
s – b = 7 – 5 = 2cm
s – c = 7 – 4 = 3cm
Area of ∆ADC = \(\sqrt{7x2x2x3}\) = 2\(\sqrt{21}\) cm²
Area of ∆BCD = Area of ∆ABC + Area of ∆ADC
= (6 + 2\(\sqrt{21}\)) cm²
= (6 + 2 x 4.58)
= 15.16 cm²

Question 3.
Radha made a picture of an aeroplane with coloured paper is shown in Fig. Find the total area of the paper used.
Solution:
The figure is divided into five parts as shown in Fig.

• Part I – Triangle having sides 5 cm, 5 cm and 1 cm
• Part II – Rectangle having sides 1 cm and 6.5 cm
• Part III – Trapezium having sides 2,1,1,1.
• Part IV and V. Right angled triangles having sides 6 cm and 1.5 cm.

For Part I:
a = 5 cm
b = 5 cm
c = 1 cm
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{5+5+1}{2}\) = \(\frac{11}{2}\) = 5.5 cm
s – a = 5.5 – 5 = 0.5
s – b = 5.5 – 5 = 0.5
s – c = 5.5 – 1 = 4.5

Area of triangle IV and V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 1.5 x 6 = 4.5 cm²
∴ Area of paper required = Area of part I + Area of part II + Area of part III + Area of part IV + Area of part V

= 2.49 + 1.27 + 15.5
= 19.26 cm²

Question 4.
A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the &me area. If the sides of the triangle are 26 cm, 28 cm and 30 cm, and the parallelogram stands on the base 28 cm, find the height of the parallelogram.
Solution:

In ∆ABE
a = 30 cm
b = 28 cm
c = 26 cm
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{30+28+26}{2}\) = 42 cm
s – a = 42 – 30 = 12
s – b = 42 – 28 = 14
s – c = 42 – 26 = 16
Area of ∆ABE = \(\sqrt{42x12x14x16}\)
= \(\sqrt{2x3x7x2x2x3x2x7x4x4}\)
= 2 x 3 x 7 x 2 x 4
= 336 cm²

Area of parallelogram ABCD = area of ∆ABE = 336 cm² (given)
Area of parallelogram = b x h
336 = 28 x h
⇒ \(\frac{336}{28}\)
h= 12 cm.

Question 5.
A rhombus shaped field has green grass for 18 cows to graze. If each side of the rhombus is 30 m and its longer diagonal is 48 m, how much area of grass field will each cow be getting?
Solution:
We know that the diagonal of a rhombus divide it into two triangles of equal area.

a = 48m
b = 30m
c = 30m
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{48+30+30}{2}\) = \(\frac{108}{2}\) = 54
s – a = 54 – 48 = 6 cm
s – b = 54 – 30 = 24 cm
s – c = 54 – 30 = 24 cm
Area of ∆ABD
= \(\sqrt{54x6x24x24}\)
= \(\sqrt{2x3x3x3x2x3x2x2x2x3x2x2x2x3}\)
= 2 x 3 x 3 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 2 = 432 cm²
Area of rhombus = 2 x 432 = 864 cm2
Area of grass field for each cow = \(\frac{864}{18}\) = 48 cm²

Question 6.
An umbrella is made by stitching 10 triangular pieces of cloth of two different colours (see Fig.), each piece measurig 20 cm, 50 cm and 50 cm. How much cloth of each colour is required for the umberella?
Solution:

a = 50 cm
b = 50cm
c = 20 cm
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{50+50+20}{18}\) = 60 cm
s – a = 60 – 50 = 10
s – b = 60 – 50 = 10
s – c = 60 – 20 = 40
Area of a ∆ = \(\sqrt{60x10x10x40}\)
= \(\sqrt{2x3x10x10x10x2x2x10}\)
= 10 x 10 x 52\(\sqrt{6}\)
= 200\(\sqrt{6}\) cm²
Area of cloth of each type = 200\(\sqrt{6}\) x 5 = 1000\(\sqrt{6}\) cm²

Question 7.
A kite in the shape of a square with a diagonal 32 cm and an isosceles triangle of base 8 cm and sides 6 cm each is to be made of three different shades as shown in Fig. How much paper of each shade has been used in it?
Solution:

∠AOB = 90°
BD = AC = 32 cm
OA = OC = 16 cm
Area (ABD) = area (DBC) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 32 x 16 = 256 cm²
In ∆CEF
a = 6 cm
b = 6 cm
c = 8 cm
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{6+6+8}{2}\) = 10
s – a = 10 – 6 = 4
s – b = 10 – 6 = 4
s – c = 10 – 8 = 2

Area of ∆CEF = \(\sqrt{10x4x4x2}\)
= \(\sqrt{5x2x4x4x2}\)
= 8\(\sqrt{5}\) cm²
= 8 x 2.24 = 17.92 cm²

Question 8.
A floral design on a floor is made up of 16 tiles which are triangular, the sides of the triangle being 9 cm, 28 cm and 35 cm (see Fig.). Find the cost of polishing the tiles at the rate of the field.
Solution:

a = 35 cm
b = 28 cm
c = 9 cm
s = \(\frac{P}{2}\) = \(\frac{35+28+9}{2}\)
s = a = 36 – 35 = 1
5 = b = 36 – 28 = 8
c = c = 36 – 9 = 27
Area of a tile = \(\sqrt{36x1x8x27}\)
= \(\sqrt{2x2x3x3x2x2x2x3x3x3}\)
= 2 x 3 x 2 x 3\(\sqrt{6}\) = 36\(\sqrt{6}\) cm²
= 36 x 2.45 = 88.2 cm²
Total area of tiles = 16 x 88.2 = 1411.2 cm²
Cost of polishing the tiles per cm² = 50 P
Total cost of polishing the tiles = 1411.2 x 50 P
= ₹ \(\frac{1411.2×50}{100}\) = ₹ 705.60

Question 9.
A field is in the shape of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 25 m and 10 m. The non-parallel sides are 14 m and 13 m. Find the area of the field.
Solution:
ABCD is a trapezium. Draw BE parallel to AD. Draw BF ⊥ DC. ABED is a parallelogram
AB = DE = 10 m and AD = BE = 14 m
EC = DC – DE = 25 – 10 = 15 m
In ∆BEC
a = 15m
b = 14m
c = 13m
s = \(\frac{15+14+13}{2}\) = 21

s – a = 21 – 15 = 6
s – b = 21 – 14 = 7
s – c = 21 x 13 = 8

MP Board Class 9th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Fibre to Fabric Test Book Exercise

Question 1.
Classify the following fibres as natural or synthetic: nylon, wool, cotton, silk, polyester, jute?
Answer:
Natural Fibre. Wool, cotton, silk, jute. Synthetic Fibre. Nylon, polyster.

Question 2.
State whether the following statemepts are true or false –

1. Yarn is made from fibres.
2. Spinning is a process of making fibres.
3. Jute is the outer covering of coconut.
4. The process of removing seed from cotton is called ginning.
5. Weaving of yarn makes a piece of fabric.
6. Silk fibre is obtained from the stem of a plant.
7. Polyester is a natural fibre.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. False.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Plant fibres are obtained from …………………….. and …………………………
2. Animals fibres are ………………………. and ……………………….

Answer:

1. Jute, cotton
2. Silk, wool.

Question 4.
From which parts of the plant cotton and jute are obtained?
Answer:
Cotton fibres are obtained from cotton seeds. Cotton fibres are hairs of cotton seeds. Jute fibres are obtained from the stem of jute plants by retting process.

Question 5.
Name two items that are made from coconut fibre?
Answer:
The items that are made from coconut fibre:

1. Coir in mattress
2. Ropes.

Question 6.
Explain the process of making yarn from fibre?
Answer:
Hold some cotton wool in one hand. Pinch some cotton between the thumb and forefinger of the other hand. Now, gently start pulling out the cotton, while continuously twisting the fibres. The process of making yarn from fibres is called spinning. In this process, fibres from a mass of cotton wool are drawn out and twisted.

This brings the fibres together to form a yarn. A simple device used for. spinning is a hand spindle, also called takali (Fig. a). Another hand operated device used for spinning is charkha (Fig. b). Use of charkha was popularized by Mahatma Gandhi as part of the Independence movement. He encouraged people to wear clothes made Of homespun yarn and shun imported cloth made in the mills of Britain.

Spinning of yarn on a large scale is done with the help of spinning machines. After spinning, yarns are used for making fabrics.

Fibre to Fabric Additional Important Questions

Fibre to Fabric Objective Type Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question (a)
Natural clothing materials includes:
(a) Cotton
(b) Nylon
(c) Rayon
(d) Polyester.
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question (b)
Man – made clothing materials are:
(a) Rayon
(b) Nylon
(c) Polyester
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question (c)
The process of pulled out cotton seeds from cotton is called:
(a) Ginning
(b) Retting
(c) Spinning
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Ginning

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The jute fibres are obtained from the stem of plant called ………………………
2. Cotton and jute are examples of fibres obtained from ………………………..
3. The fruits of the cotton plant are about the size of a ……………………….
4. Weaving of fabric is done on ………………………….
5. Weaving and knitting are used for making different kinds of ………………………
6. In olden days, silk comes from ………………………..

Answer:

1. Patsun
2. Plants
3. Lemon
4. Looms
5. Fabric
6. China.

Question 3.
State whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. Silk and wool fibres are obtained. from animal.
2. Jute crops are cultivated in worm season.
3. In olden days, the yarn was spun directly by charkha.
4. Big reels of yarn is called bobbine.
5. Coconut fibres have a rough surface.
6. Wool is a fibre of animals.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. True

Question 4.
Match the items in Column A with Column B:

Answer:

(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)
(v) – (e)

Fibre to Fabric Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is yarn?
Answer:
Yarns are made up of fibres.

Question 2.
Name some fibres obtained from plants and animals?
Answer:
Silk, wool, jute and cotton fibres are obtained from plants and animals.

Question 3.
Give two examples of synthetic fibres?
Answer:
Nylon and polyester.

Question 4.
Which type of clothes burn slowly?
Answer:
Cotton clothes are burn slowly.

Question 5.
Which type of clothes burn quickly?
Answer:
Polyester and nylon clothes are burn quickly.

Question 6.
Which type of clothes absorb water quickly?
Answer:
Cotton clothes.

Question 7.
What are the fruits of the cotton plant called?
Answer:
Cotton bolls.

Question 8.
Define “ginning”?
Answer:
The process of pulled out cotton seeds from cotton is called griming.

Question 9.
Write any two uses of cotton?
Answer:
As absorbent in hospitals and manufacture of textiles.

Question 10.
In which season are cotton crops grown?
Answer:
Summer season.

Question 11.
Where is cotton chops grown in India?
Answer:
In India cotton crops are grown in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Question 12.
How is cotton collected?
Answer:
Cotton is usually hand picked.

Question 13.
Which part of jute plant gives jute?
Answer:
Jute fibres is obtained from the stem of jute plant.

Question 14.
In which season are jute crops grown?
Answer:
Rainy season.

Question 15.
Where is jute grown in India?
Answer:
In India jute grown is Bihar, Assam and West Bengal.

Question 16.
Name any two processes by which fabrics are made from yarns?
Answer:
Wearing and knitting.

Question 17.
Why a coconut fibres not used for making yarns?
Answer:
Coconut fibres are not used for making yarns because they are very hard.

Question 18.
Why are fibre twisted?
Answer:
By twisting fibres, they become strong and their co¬hesion power increase.

Question 19.
What is flaxl?
Answer:
Flax is also a plant that gives natural fibres.

Question 20.
Where cotton and flax were cultivated in ancient Egypt?
Answer:
Near the river Nile.

Question 21.
What materials people used in ancient times for clothes?
Answer:
In ancient time people used the bark and big leaves of trees or .animal skins and furs to cover themselves.

Question 22.
What is knitting?
Answer:
In knitting, a single yarn is used to make a piece of fabric.

Question 23.
Name some dresses which are used as an unstitched piece of fabric?
Answer:
Saree, Lungi, Dhoti and Turban.

Fibre to Fabric Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define natural fibres?
Answer:
The fibres of some fabrics such as cotton, jute, silk and wool are obtained from plants and animals. These are called natural fibres.For examples, wool and silk fibres are obtained from animals while cotton and jute are obtained from plants.

Question 2.
Define synthetic fibres?
Answer:
In the last hundred years or so, fibres are also made from chemical substances, which are not obtained from plant or animal sources. These are called synthetic fibres. For examples, nylon, polyester and acrylic.

Question 3.
What is spinning machines?
Answer:
Spinning of yarn on a large scale is done with the help of spinning machines. After spinning, yarns are used for making fabrics.

Question 4.
Describe the process of weaving?
Answer:
A fabric is made up of two sets of yarns arranged together. The process of arranging two sets of yarns together to make a fabric is called weaving. The weaving of fabric is done on looms. The looms are either hand operated or power operated.

Question 5.
How was cloth making developed?
Answer:
The cloth making was developed in three stages. First stage was making cloth from plant fibres, second stage was the beginning of the use of animal fibres and the third stage began with man-made fibres in nineteenth century.

Question 6.
Why do we wear clothes?
Answer:
We wear clothes due to the following reasons:

1. They protect against weather.
2. They protect against injury.
3. They protect against wind.

Fibre to Fabric Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where does this cotton came from? Also define ginning of cotton?
Answer:
Cotton plant is grown in the fields. They are usually grown at places having black soil and worm climate. In India, cotton crops are grown in Punjab, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. The fruits of the cotton plant (cotton bolls) are about the size of a lemon. After maturing, the bolls burst open and the seeds covered with cotton fibres can be seen.

From these bolls, cotton is usually picked by hand. Fibres are then separated from the seeds by combing. This process is called ginning of cotton. Ginning was traditionally done by hand as shown in the following figure. These days, machines are also used for ginning.

Question 2.
Write the process to obtained jute fibres from a jute plant?
Answer:
Jute fibre is obtained from the stem of the jute plant. It is cultivated during the rainy season. In India, jute is mainly grown in West Bengal, Bihar and Assam. The jute plant is normally harvested when it is at flowering stage. The stems of the harvested plants are immersed in water for a few days. The stems rot and fibres are separated by hand.

MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Science Solutions Chapter 9 Soil

Soil Intext Questions

Question 1.
I wonder why I found some pieces of plastic articles and polythene bags in the soil sample collected from the roadside and the garden?
Answer:
It is because people throw used plastic things and polythene bags in the soil.

Question 2.
I want to know whether ‘the soil from a field can be used to make toys?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 3.
I want to know: What kind of soil should be used for making making  and surahis?
Answer:
Clayey soil.

Question 4.
Boojho wondered why there was a difference in the absorption of water in the two squares?
Answer:
Because different soils are used to make the two squares.

Question 5.
What is the difference between rate of percolation and the amount of water retained?
Answer:
Rate of percolation is the amount of water percolated per unit time through soil. Whereas the amount of water retained is the amount of water absorbed by soil. Thus, rate of percolation and water retention are opposite attributes.

Activities

Activity 1
Collect some soil samples and observe them carefully. You can use a hand lens. Examine each sample carefully and fill in Table. Answer:
Table

Activity 2
Take a little soil. Break the clumps with your hand to powder it. Now take a glass tumbler, three quarters filled with water, and then add a handful of soil to it. Stir it well with a stick to dissolve the soil. Now let it stand undisturbed for some time. Afterwards, observe it and answer the following questions:

1. Do you see layers of particles of different sizes in the glass tumbler?
2. Draw a diagram showing these layers?
3. Are there some dead rotting leaves or animal remains floating on water?

Answer:

1. Yes
2. 
3. Yes

Activity 3
Find from your teachers, parents and farmers the type of soils and crops grown in your area. Enter the data in the following Table,

1. Which kind of soil would be most suitable for planting rice?
2. Soil with a higher or lower rate of percolation?

Answer:

1. Loamy soil.
2. Lower rate of percolation.

Soil Text Book Exercises

Tick the most suitable answer in questions 1 and 2.

Question 1.
In addition to the rock particles, the soil contains?

1. Air and water
2. Water and plants
3. Minerals, organic matter, air and water
4. Water, air and plants.

Answer:
3. Minerals, organic matter, air and water.

Question 2.
The water holding capacity is the highest in?

1. Sandy soil
2. Clayey soil
3. Loamy soil
4. Mixute of sand and loam.

Answer:
2. Clayey soil.

Question 3.
Match the items in Column I with Column II:

Answer:

(i) (b)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (e)
(v) (d).

Question 4.
Explain how soil is formed?
Answer:
The soil is the mtter which cover the top most layer of the earth in most of area. It is one of the most important natural resources. Long ago earth was a very hot sphere and then converted into a very hard and rocky land. These rocks were broken into smaller pieces by violent earthquakes. Volcanic eruptions also made the rocks and lava into smaller pieces. In cold temperatures the ice in the services of rocks expanded to break it into smaller pieces and thus gradually the soil was formed. The nature of any soil depends upon the rocks from which it has been formed and the type of vegetation that grows in it.

Question 5.
How is clayey soil useful for crops?
Answer:
Clayey soil is good at retaining water. They, are rich in humus and are very fertile. They also hold sufficient water due to the presence of smaller particles and certain enough air due to the presence of some large particles.

Question 6.
List the differences between clayey soil and sandy soil?
Clayey soil:

1. They contains more than 50% of clay particles.
2. Water holding capacity is very high.
3. Suitable for plant growth.
4. Low percolation rate.

Sandy Soil:

1. They contains about 60% of sand particles.
2. Water holding capacity is very low.
3. Not suitable for plant growth.
4. High percolation rate.

Question 7.
Sketch the cross section of soil and label the various layers?
Answer:

Question 8.
Razia conducted an experiment in the field related to the rate of percolation. She observed that it took 40 min for 200 mL of water to percolate through the soil sample. Calculate the rate of percolation.
Answer:
We know that,

Thus, the rate of percolation is 5ml/min.

Question 9.
Explain how soil pollution and soil erosion could be prevented?
Answer:
Polythene bags and plastics pollute the soil. They also kill the organisms living in the soil. That is why there is a demand to ban the polythene bags and plastics. Other substances which pollute the soil are a number of waste product, chemicals and pesticides. Waste products and chemicals should be treated before they are released into the soil.

The use of pesticides should be minimised. Soil erosion can be slowed down and soil can be conserved by regulating the factors responsible for it. Some methods to prevent or slow down the soil erosion are:

1. To stop the unnecessary cutting of forests and trees.
2. To stop the excessive use of grass land due to overgrazing by cattle.
3. Growing vegetation along the boundary of the fields and open grounds.
4. Making use of proper and scientific methods for cultivation such as crops rotation. This maintains the natural fertility of the soil and at the same time soil also maintains its capacity to hold water. Soil remains wet and cannot be easily carried away by water and blown up by wind.
5. Making use of scientific methods for irrigation and water drainage.
6. Gutting the hill slopes into steps or terraces and adopting terrace cultivation on hill slopes.

Question 10.
Solve the following crossword puzzle with the clues given:

Across:

2. Plantation prevents it.
5. Use should be banned to avoid soil pollution.
6. Type of soil used for making pottery.
7. Living organism in the soil.

Down:

1. In desert soil erosion occurs through.
3. Clay and loam are suitable for cereals like.
4. This type of soil can hold very little water.
5. Collective name for layers of soil.

Answer:

Soil Additional Important Questions

Soil Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct alternative:

Question (i)
The constituents of the soil are –
(a) Mineral particles, air and water
(b) Living of organisms
(c) Organic and inorganic substances
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (ii)
Soil is the thin layer of fine material containing –
(a) Organic matter
(b) Air and water
(c) Weathered rock materials
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (iii)
Soil formation is brought about by –
(a) physical factors
(b) Chemical factors
(c) Biological agent
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question (iv)
Which profile contains humus –
(a) A – horizon
(b) B – horizon
(c) C – horizon
(d) R – horizon.
Answer:
(a) A – horizon

Question (v)
Which of these has the smallest size of particles –
(a) Sand
(b) Silt
(c) Clay
(d) Gravel.
Answer:
(b) Silt

Question (vi)
What kind of soil is best for growing cotton –
(a) Black soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Red laterite soil
(d) Mountain soil.
Answer:
(a) Black soil

Question (vii)
What kind of soil is good for growing tea and coffee –
(a) Red laterite soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Mountain soil.
Answer:
(c) Laterite soil

Question (viii)
The dead and decaying organisms are –
(a) Humus
(b) Gravel
(c) Clay
(d) Inorganic material.
Answer:
(a) Humus

Question (ix)
Which kind of soil is best for growing wheat, rice and sugarcane –
(a) Black soil
(b) Mountain soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Desert soil
Answer:
(c) Alluvial soil

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Wheat and rice grow best in …………… soil.
2. Humus is present in the ………….. layer of soil, known as the ………….. horizon.
3. Clay is the smallest size of particles less than …………… in diameter.
4.  …………… is a mixture of sand, silt, clay and humus.
5. Weathering of rocks is a …………… process.
6. …………… is the breaking down of rocks into smaller pieces.
7. Soil commonly found in India is of …………….. main types.
8. Red colour of the soil is due to ………………

Answer:

1. Alluvial
2. Upper, A
3. 0.002 mm
4. Loam
5. Slow
6. Weathering
7. Six
8. Iron.

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. The soil is uppermost layer of the land surface.
2. The soil with particle size greater than 2 mm in diameter is gravel.
3. The soil with particle size greater than 2 mm in diameter is clay.
4. Decayed organic matter in the soil forms humus.
5. Most fertile farm lands consist of alkaline soil.
6. No humus is present in C – horizon.
7. Black soil is rich in iron and magnesium.
8. B – horizon is the most fertile part of the soil.
9. Laterite soil is rich in nutrients.
10. Soil is classified in sand, silt and clay.
11. The process of .carrying away of top soil by natural process is called soil erosion.
12. Black soil is loamy in texture with plenty of humus.
13. Overgrasing is a means of soil conservation.
14. Extremely acidic soil supports plants.
15. Planting of trees in a large area is known as afforestation.

Answer:

1. True (T)
2. True (T)
3. False (F)
4. True (T)
5. False (F)
6. True (T)
7. True (T)
8. False (F)
9. True (T)
10. True (T)
11. True (T)
12. False (F)
13. False (F)
14. False (F)
15. True (T).

Match the items in Column A with items in Column B:

Answer:

(i) (d)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (b)
(v) (e).

Soil Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention two main components of soil?
Answer:
The two main components of soil are mineral particles and organic particles.

Question 2.
Name the different types of particles present in the soil?
Answer:
The different types of particles present in the soil are water, air, humus, mineral particles and living organisms.

Question 3.
What is soil?
Answer:
The soil is the outer layer of earth’s crust capable of supporting plant growth.

Question 4.
Mention two functions of soil?
Answer:
The two functions of soil are:

1. It provides water and minerals to the plants.
2. It provides anchorage to the plants.

Question 5.
What is the role of plants in the formation of soil?
Answer:
The roots of plants on penetrating into the crevices of rocks break these and help in the formation of soil.

Question 6.
Name some of the living organisms which are present in the soil?
Answer:
Fungi, bacteria, earth worms, round worms, and protozoams are the living organisms present in the soil.

Question 7.
What do you mean by soil texture?
Answer:
The structure or texture of soil determines the relative proportion of particles of different sizes.

Question 8.
What is the difference between soil texture and structure?
Answer:
Soil texture pertains to particle size, composition of a soil and soil structure refers to arrangement of soil particles into aggregates.

Question 9.
What is meant by the term weathering?
Answer:
Weathering is the breaking down of huge pieces of rocks into smaller pieces by the action of natural forces, such as water, wind, glaciers and roots of plants.

Question 10.
Which layer of soil contains the largest rock pieces?
Answer:
Bedrock contains the. largest rock pieces.

Question 11.
Which layer of soil will have the highest humus content and which the least?
Answer:
The upper most layer (A-horizon) will have the highest humus content and lowest layer (C-horizon) will have the least.

Question 12.
Which types of soil is most suitable for crops like wheat, rice and sugarcane?
Answer:
Alluvial soils is the most suitable for crops like wheat, rice x – and sugarcane.

Question 13.
Define residual soil?
Answer:
The soil which remains at the place of its formation is called residual soil.

Question 14.
Which soil is classified as alluvial type?
Answer:
The soil transported by flowing water is classified as alluvial type.

Question 15.
What are mountainous soil?
Answer:
Mountainous soil consist of clay, shales, sandstones and limestones. This type of soil is usually found in depressions and valley basins or on gently inclined slopes.

Question 16.
Define loam?
Answer:
Loam is a mixture of sand, silt and clay and also has humus in it.

Question 17.
What is soil pollution?
Answer:
The contamination of soil with excess of fertilizers, herbicides, weedicides, insecticides and industrial waste is called soil pollution.

Question 18.
Define soil moisture?
Answer:
Soil holds water in it, which is called soil moisture.

Question 19.
Name the three types of soil erosion?
Answer:
The three types of soil erosion are sheet erosion, gaily erosion and wind erosion.

Question 20.
How does vegetation help to prevent soil erosion?
Answer:
Flowing water and wind take away the top layer of the soil if there is no vegetation. The grasses, trees hold the soil in place.

Question 21.
How does soil erosion take place?
Answer:
Soil erosion can take place by natural processes such as floods, forest fire, winds, deforestation and overgrazing.

Question 22.
Which horizon of soil profile contains humus?
Answer:
A – horizon of soil profile contains humus.

Question 23.
Which type of soil is classified as residual soil?
Answer:
The soil, which remains at the place of its formation is called residual soil. This type of soil is generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorus and humus.

Question 24.
The soil at a given place was found to consist of sand stones, clay, shales and limestone. What is the type of the soil and how it might have formed?
Answer:
The type of the soil is mountainous soil. It might have formed, when the weathered soil particles are taken away to other places.

Soil Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What does soil consist of?
Answer:
Soil consists of tiny bits of mineral particles which come from larger rocks and humus which is dark brown in colour and consists of decaying remains of plants and animals. Soil also contains water, air and living organisms such as bacteria, fungi, earth worms, round worms, and insects etc.

Question 2.
How is the soil formed? Explain in brief?
Answer:
Millions years ago, the surface of earth was very hard, rugged and rocky. In the long run, weathering of these rocks resulted in formation of soil which with the flow of river water came down to the lower plains and got deposited. Gradually it spread out on whole surface of the earth. Formation of soil is a very slow process. In this process rocks crack and break down into fine particles to form soil.

Question 3.
Define alluvial soil and its distribution?
Answer:
Alluvial soil is loamy soil which contains abundant amount of water in it. This is very fertile soil. This type of soil is very suitable for the production of wheat and rice. This soil is found in the plains of northern India, i.e., in the state of Punjab, Bihar, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.

Question 4.
What are physical properties of soil?
Answer:
The physical properties of soil are:

1. Colour
2. Moisture storage capacity
3. Texture
4. Presence of living organisms
5. Porosity.

Question 5.
Give an account of the importance of physical properties of soil?
Answer:
The physical properties .of soil exert a great influecne on soil fertility. These are taken into consideration when soil is to be used as a medium for plant growth but also when soils are to be [ used as a structural material for making highways, dams, foundation for buildings as well as for the manufacture of bricks and tiles.

Question 6.
What are organic and inorganic components of soil?
Answer:
The inorganic components of soil comprise minerals which are derived from fragmentation and weathering of rocks. The porespaces formed between the mineral particles of soil are filled with water and gases. The organic component of soil comprise organic wastes, dead animals, plants and their decomposition products.

Question 7.
Explain the role of various organisms present in the soil?
Answer:
Bacteria in the soil helps in decomposing dead remains of plants and animals to make humus. Some bacteria can convert atmospheric nitrogen into water soluble nitrates which plants can easily use for their growth. Earthworms help in loosening of soil. They also improve the texture of the soil thus causing better growth of plants.

Question 8.
Name four common sources of pollution of soil?
Answer:
The common sources of pollution of soil are:

1. Excessive use of fertilisers.
2. Spraying of crops with insecticides and herbicides.
3. Garbage and other kitchen refuge.
4. Industrial wastes such as chemicals, plastic, leather, fly ash, etc.

Question 9.
Define A – horizon layer. Give also the main characteristic of A – horizon.
Answer:
A – horizon layer:
The uppermost layer of the soil is called A – horizon. It is generally known as upper soil or earth’s crust. The main characteristics of this layer of soil are as under:

1. It generally bears dark colour.
2. It contains lot of dead and decaying plant and animal matter called humus.
3. Due to presence of humus this layer is highly fertile.
4. The soil in this layer is porous, soft and has comparatively more water retaining capacity.
5. In this layer living organisms such as earth worms, insects, bacteria and fungi etc. are found.

Question 10.
Define B – horizon layer. Also give the main characteristics of B – horizon.
Answer:
B – horizon layer:
This layer lies next to A – horizon. The main characteristics of this layer of soil are as under:

1. The colour of this layer is comparatively dull.
2. This layer of soil is usually harder and more compact than the top soil.
3. This layer contains very less amount of organic matter in it.
4. This layer is rich in iron oxide and soluble mineral salts,
5. Roots of large and old trees are found in this layer.

Question 11.
Differentiate between Alluvial soils and Desert soils.
Answer:
Alluvial soils:

1. Loamy in texture with plenty of humus.
2. Very fertile, good for crops like wheat and rice.
3. In India, it is mainly found in the plains of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Bihar, West Bengal and in the coastal regions of Orissa and Andhra Pradesh.

Desert soils:

1. Soil sandy and porous, cannot hold much water.
2. If irrigated, crops can be grown.
3. In India, it is mainly found in Rajasthan and in some parts of Gujarat.

Soil Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the various steps involved in the formation of soil?
Answer:
There is a hard surface of the rocks just below the layer of the soil. In the past, these rocks were broken into smaller pieces by a process known as weathering. Weathering is the breaking down of huge pieces of rocks into smaller pieces by the action of natural forces, such as water, wind, glaciers and roots of plants, etc.

1. Rain water enters crevices of rocks. In winter, as this water freezes, it expands. This expansion breaks the rocks into smaller pieces.

2. The broken pieces roll down by the force of flowing or wind.

3. The broken pieces get converted into very fine particles, and mix with humus to form soil.

4. Roots of tree growing through rocks exert great pressure on the rocks. This causes cracks in the rocks, leading to weathering.

5. Large variation in day and night temperatures.

6. In hot and humid climates, the minerals in rocks react with oxygen of the air. Such oxidised rocks crumble to form soil.

Question 2.
Describe various types of soil on the basis of their classification?
Answer:
There are mainly six types of soil found in India. These are:

1. Red soil:
It is red in colour due to the presence of red iron oxide in it. It is poor in humus but can be made fertile by adding manure. This type of soil is generally found in southern part of. India.

2. Black soil:
It is derived from the lava of volcanic eruptions and is rich in minerals containing iron and magnesium. This type of soil is found in Maharashtra and parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.

3. Alluvial soil:
It is a loamy soil which contains abundant amount of water in it. This is very fertile soil. This type of soil is very suitable for the production of rice and wheat. This soil is found in the plains of northern India.

4. Desert soil:
It is grey to brown in colour. The soil is sandy and porous, and cannot hold much water. This soil is found in Rajasthan and Gujarat.

5. Mountain soil:
It has the highest humus content among all soils in India. These soils are highly, fertile. This soil is found in the Himalyan region and the north – eastern parts of India.

6. Laterite soil:
It is red in colour and good for crops such as tea, coffee and coconut. This type of soil is typical of the rainy climate and rich in nutritive elements. This soil is found in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Assam and Orissa.

Question 3.
Write an essay on the importance of soil?
Answer:
Soil is an important part of our earth. It is not only a natural habitat for various worms and insects but plants also grow and absorb water and minerals for their growth and development in the soil.

1. For food, clothing and shelter:
By supporting growth of plants, the soil provides us with food. Much of our clothing, such as cotton and wool, can be traced to the soil. Plants also provide us fuel, paper, medicines and wood for use in furniture and for constructing houses.

2. For minerals:
We depend on the soil for minerals. Industries use the minerals dug out from the earth to extract metals such as gold, silver, iron, etc. and for use in thousands of industries that produce various useful things for us. Minerals, such as petroleum, natural gas, and coal obtained from soil provide us fuel and many other useful things.

3. For clay:
We depend on the soil for clay which is the raw material used to make tiles, bricks, procelain and pottery.

4. For water:
We depend on the soil for water. Water that seeps into the soil is stored underground as subsoil water. We use this water for drinking and other purposes.

Question 4.
Write a note on soil erosion?
Answer:
The process of water or wind carrying away soil from one place to another is called soil erosion. Following are the main reasons for soil erosion:

1. Erosion by natural forces:
Fast moving wind generally . carries away with it the top soil from the surface of the earth. Similarly, heavy rainfall creates flood situation and fast moving water washes away with it the top fertile soils from our fields which combinely result into erosion of soil.

2. Erosion by human activities. Various human activities are responsible for erosion of soil such as cutting of forests, improper and unscientific methods of agriculture and extensive use of grass lands.

Question 5.
What are the main causes for the erosion of soil?
Answer:
The main causes for the erosion of soil are:
1. Cultivation:
Continuous cultivation of land by only one type of crop further adds to the loss of soil fertility. Once the top of soil is lost, the sub-soil becomes a part of the layer for cultivation. This layer has less nutrient retention power, organic matter and aeration.

2. Deforestation:
It is due to increasing population and increasing industrialization. Deforestation leads to flooding and soil erosion. Forested land looses one tonne of soil per year whereas unforested land looses approximately 40 times more soil.

3. Floods:
The soil taken away by flood often gets deposited in ponds, rivers and lakes’. This causes the water to become muddy and reduces the depth of ponds, rivers and lakes. It also raises their bed due to silting, which has an adverse impact on aquatic life.

4.Overgrasing:
Animal overgrase the slopes that leads to removal of vegetation cover from the soil. All these animals pulverise the soil which is easily washed away in time of heavy rainfall. By overgrasing the soil is denuded of its protective covering of roots and grass.

Question 6.
How will you demonstrate that the vegetation prevents erosion of soil?
Answer:
Take two trays or baskets. Fill them with garden soil. Grow grass or some cereal in one of them and water it properly for a few days. Now keep both the trays in a slightly inclined position by placing a brick below their one side. Let the water fall on both the trays. You will find that the water that flows from the tray with vegetation contains less amount of soil particles in it. This is due to the fact that the roots of plants bind the soil and do not allow it to flow with water.

Question 7.
Differentiate between Black soils and Red soils?
Answer:
Black soils:

1. Rich in iron and magnesium derived from basaltic rocks.
2. Soil is clayey, contains dead organic matter and water; ideal for growing cotton and sugarcane.
3. In India, it is mainly found in Maharashtra, parts of Andhra Padesh, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.

Red soils:

1. Red colour is due to the presence of iron oxide.
2. Poor in humas but cannot be made fertile by adding manure or fertilizers.
3. In India, it is found in interior regions of Kerala and Tamil Nadu, Southern Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Eastern Madhya.

Question 8.
What are the human activities responsible for soil erosion?
Answer:
The various human activities responsible for soil erosion are:

1. Cutting of forests:
With the increase in population and civilisation, deforestation started. Deforestation disturbed the natural habitat of wild animals and at the same time, it enchanced the process of soil erosion.

2. Improper and unscientific methods of agriculture:
Improper and unscientific methods of agriculture also increase the rate of soil erosion.

3. Extensive use of grass lands:
Extensive use of grass lands due to overgrazing by cattle also reduces grass and other, vegetation on the earth which causes erosion of soil.

MP Board Class 7th Science Solutions

MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Components of Food

Components of Food Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Name the major nutrients in our food?
Answer:
The major nutrients, in our food are proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals. In addition to above, food also contains dietary fibres and water.

Question 2.
Name the following:

1. The nutrients which mainly give energy to our body.
2. The nutrients that are needed for the growth and maintenance of our body.
3. A vitamin required for maintaing good eyesight.
4. A mineral that is required for keeping our bones healthy.

Answer:

1. Fats and carbohydrates
2. Proteins
3. Vitamin A
4. Calcium

Question 3.
Name two foods each rich in:

1. Fats
2. Starch
3. Dietary fibre
4. Protein.

Answer:

1. Fats: Groundnuts, til, milk, ghee.
2. Starch: Peanuts, dal (cooked), rice (cooked), raw potato.
3. Dietary fibre: Fresh fruits, grains, pulses, potatoes.
4. Protein: Gram, soyabeans, eggs, paneer.

Question 4.
Tick (✓)  the statements that are correct?

1. By eating rice alone, we can fulfill nutritional requirement of our body.
2. Deficiency diseases can be prevented by eating a balanced diet.
3. Balanced diet for the body should contain a variety of food items.
4. Meat alone is sufficient to provide all nutrients to the body.

Answer:

1. (x)
2. (✓)
3. (✓)
4. (x)

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks:

1.  ……………………….. is caused by deficiency of Vitamin D.
2. Deficiency of ………………………. causes a disease known as beri – beri.
3. Deficiency of Vitamin C causes a disease known as ……………………….
4. Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of ………………….. in our food.

Answer:

1. Rickets
2. Vitamin B
3. Scurvy
4. Vitamin A.

Projects And Activities

Activity 1.
Prepare a table to show that means from different regions/states?
Answer:
Some common meals of different regions/states

Activity 2.
Prepare a table to show that various nutrients present in some food items?
Answer:
Nutrients present in some food items

Activity 3.
Make a list of uncooked items of food that are found around you. Indicate the importance of each one of these in your diet. How can these items be protected from spoiling or contamination?
Answer:
Uncooked food items, their importance in diet and method of protection.

Activity 4.
Define diagrammetically the daily requirement of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in an adult?
Answer:
Daily requirement of carbohydrates of an adult is about 400 g to 500 g per day and that of proteins is 65 g to 75 g per day. The daily requirement of fats for females is 50 g to 55 g per day and for males 60 g to 70 g per day. During pregnancy and lactation period, protein requirement in females is greater than that for the males.

Activity 5.
Define diagrametically the daily requirement of some minerals in an adult?
Answer:
The minerals present in our body are mainly in the form of compounds of sodium phosphorous, calcium, chlorine, iron, potassium, sulphur, copper and iodine. Only small amount of minerals are required in our daily diet. Each one of these minerals is necessary for a proper growth of the body and to maintain good health. Following figure shows the daily requirement of some minerals for adults.

Activity 6.
Define diagrametically the daily requirements of some vitamins in adults?
Answer:
Vitamins are an essential component of our diet as they perform specific functions in our body. Different types of vitamins have been given specific names, like vitamin A, vitaminC, vitamin D, vitamin E and vitamin K. Some of the vitamins are soluble in water while some others dissolve only in fats. Daily requirement (in mg) of various vitamins are shown in following diagram: vitamin A = 0.5 mg

Activity 7.
What is the basic functions of food and what it does to our body?
Answer:

Components of Food Intex Questions

Question 1.
Our body also prepares Vitamin D in the presence of Sunlight?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 2.
Paheli wonders whether animal food also consists of these different components and do they also need a balanced diet?
Answer:
Yes, animals also need a balanced diet.

Components of Food Additional Important Questions

Objective type Questions Components of Food

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question (a)
Which one of the following foods provides energy to the body:
(a) carbohydrates
(b) proteins
(c) minerals
(d) vitamins.
Answer:
(a) carbohydrates

Question (b)
Salad in our diet mainly contains:
(a) carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) proteins
(d) roughage.
Answer:
(d) roughage.

Question (c)
Which one of the following is an example of fats?
(a) Banana
(b) Wheat
(c) Butter
(d) Lemon.
Answer:
(c) Butter

Question (d)
Kishmish is a dry form of:
(a) grapes
(b) watermelon
(c) mango
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(a) grapes

Question (e)
Which one of the following represents a balanced diet?
(a) Leafy vegetables
(b) Mango
(c) Milk
(d) Wheat and rice.
Answer:
(c) Milk

Question (f)
The total requirement of fats for an adult is about –
(a) 60 g to 80 g per day
(b) 50 g to 70 g per day
(c) 80 g to 100 g per day
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) 60 g to 80 g per day

Question (g)
Communicable diseases are caused by:
(a) virsues
(b) bacteria
(c) fungi
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.

Question (h)
Which is a water – soluble vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(b) Vitamin C

Question (i)
Beri – Beri is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) K
Answer:
(b) B

Question (j)
One of the following is not a communicable disease –
(a) malaria
(b) scurvy
(c) typhoid
(d) dysentery.
Answer:
(b) scurvy

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Organism feeding on flesh are called ………………………….
2. Less intake of proteins in diet causes ………………………….
3. Less intake of nutrients than required is …………………………..
4. Carbohydrates and fats are composed of ………………………..
5. Pulses are rich in …………………………..
6. Starch is a ………………….. sugar.
7. ………………….. is the essence of life.
8. A …………………….. includes both of these components in required proportion.
9. …………………….. is an example of saturated fat.
10. A bad taste and fuel smell indicates that the food has been infested with ………………………..
11. Vitamin K helps in ……………………….
12. Deficiency of B₁₂ causes ………………………..
13. Deficiency of iron causes ………………………….
14. ……………………….. and ……………………… are essential nutrients.
15. Lack of vitamins causes and leads to ………………………..

Answer:

1. Carnivorous
2. Kwashiorker
3. Malnutrition
4. Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
5. Proteins
6. Polymers
7. Water
8. Balance diet
9. Vanaspati
10. Micro – organisms,
11. Clotting of blood
12. Anaemia
13. Anaemia
14. Vitamins, minerals
15. Specific diseases.

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. Proteins supply the maximum calories to our bodies.
2. We can live without proteins.
3. A diet that supplies enough calories is a balanced diet.
4. Protein is a staple food.
5. Potato is rich in carbohydrates.
6. Tomatoes contain Vitamin C.
7. Milk, meat, pulses and fish are sources of proteins.
8. Fats contain more energy than carbohydrates.
9. Expensive food is not always the best food.
10. Roughage contains all the food components.
11. High dose of vitamins to children may not harmful.
12. Rice is one of the major basic foods.
13. Over – eating does not causes any diseases.
14. Vitamin D deficiency may occur during pregnancy and lactation.
15. Vitamin C is not soluble vitamin.
16. Phosphorus is very important for the development of body.
17. Deficiency of Vitamin A makes our bones weak.
18. Deficiency of iron causes paleness.
19. Deficiency of Vitamin D cause swollen and bleeding gums.
20. Deficiency of vitamin B help to increase for palliate.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. False
12. True
13. False
14. True
15. False
16. True
17. False
18. True
19. False
20. False.

Question 4.
Match the items of Column A with the items of Column B:

Answer:

(i) – (c)
(ii) – (e)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (f)
(v) – (b)
(vi) – (d)

Components of Food Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following produce energy: Fat or Carbohydrates?
Answer:
Carbohydrates.

Question 2.
What is calorie?
Answer:
Calorie is the unit of heat. The food which we take is oxidised, in the presence of oxygen with the liberation of energy.

Question 3.
Which one offers you more energy 100g of grapes or one banana?
Answer:
One banana.

Question 4.
Which has more vitamins 100 g of grapes or 100g of spinach?
Answer:
100g of spinach.

Question 5.
What are nutrients?
Answer:
Nutrients are the components of food that the body needs in adequate amount for growth to reproduce and lead a normal healthy life.

Question 6.
Write the sources of car body drates?
Answer:
The carbohydrates are mainly found in sugar, wheat, maize and cereal etc.

Question 7.
What are the sources of fats?
Answer:
The sources of fats are ghee, butter, nuts and vegetable oils.

Question 8.
How much energy is produced from one gram of carbohydrates?
Answer:
16.8 kJ of energy is produced from one gram of carbohydrates.

Question 9.
Write the names of any two water soluble vitamins?
Answer:
Vitamin B and C.

Question 10.
What are the sources of Vitamin A?
Answer:
The sources of Vitamin A are milk, carrot, fish, oil etc.

Question 11.
Name the fat soluble Vitamins?
Answer:
Vitamin A and D.

Question 12.
What are the sources of Vitamin D?
Answer:
The sources of Vitamin D are eggs, fish, oil and milk products.

Question 13.
Which mineral is vital for bones and teeth?
Answer:
Calcium and phosphorus.

Question 14.
Name the main constituent of roughage?
Answer:
Cellulose is the main constituent of roughage.

Question 15.
What do you mean by staple food?
Answer:
The main food that we eat to provide us energy is called staple food. For example, chapati, rice, bread, etc.

Question 16.
Name the two biotic factors that damage the food – grains?
Answer:

1. Temperature, and
2. Moisture content.

Question 17.
Grapes get spoiled faster as compared to apples. Why?
Answer:
Because grapes contain more water content than apples, so they spoil faster.

Question 18.
Write the cause for food poisoning?
Answer:
Food poisoining is caused by micro – organisms like bacteria which can reproduce rapidly.

Question 19.
What is dehydration?
Answer:
Removal of water from fruits and vegetables is called dehydration.

Question 20.
Name two sources each of animal and vegetable proteins?
Answer:
Sources of animal proteins are Egg, Meat, Fish and Milk. Sources of vegetable proteins are Pulses, Peas, Bean and Soyabean.

Question 21.
What are the symptoms of Vitamin C deficiency?
Answer:
Deficiency of Vitamin C causes trouble in gums.

Question 22.
Name the disease caused by deficiency of Vitamin A?
Answer:
Deficiency of Vitamin A causes weakness in eyes and night blindness.

Question 23.
Same mass of which nutrient gives more energy fats or carbohydrates?
Answer:
The fats produce more energy than carbohydrates because they have less oxygen percentage. A gram of carbohydrate produce 4.2 kcal While a gram of fat produce 9.1 kcal of heat.

Question 24.
What is a balanced diet?
Answer:
A meal which contains various constituents of food which are necessary to keep the body healthy. A balanced meal has an appropriate food ratio of carbohydrate, protein, fat, vitamins and minerals.

Question 25.
Mention the factors which effect our health?
Answer:
The factors which effect our health are:

1. Unbalanced food
2. Diseases caused by infection.

Question 26.
What are the major factors affecting the human health?
Answer:
The major factors affecting the human health are:

1. Intrinsic (or internal) factors
2. Extrinsic (or external) factors.

Question 27.
Define intrinsic factors?
Answer:
The disease causing factors which exist within the humun body are called intrinsic factors?

Question 28.
Define extrinsic factors?
Answer:
The disease causing factors which come from outside the human body are called extrinsic factors.

Question 29.
Name the disease caused by deficiency of Vitamin C?
Answer:
Scurvy.

Question 30.
Name the disease caused by deficiency of Vitamin D?
Answer:
Rickets.

Question 31.
How much proteins do you need in your daily diet?
Answer:
We need proteins according to our body weight which is 2.5 gm per kilogram weight of the body.

Question 32.
When you fry your food in oil, which Vitamins are generally lost?
Answer:
Vitamin C.

Question 33.
Name some water – borne diseases?
Answer:
Water – borne disease are jaundice, cholera, polio, diarrhoea, typhoid.

Question 34.
Name some air – borne diseases?
Answer:
Air – borne diseases are whooping cough, common cold.

Question 35.
Name some of the diseases caused by extrinsic factors?
Answer:
Kwashiorkor, goitre, obesity, malaria, T.B., AIDS etc.

Question 36.
List some food – borne diseases?
Answer:
Some food – brone diseases are diarrhoea, dysentery and cholora during the rainy season.

Components of Food Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How can we say that the fats are like an energy bank in living organism?
Answer:
We know that the fats have more calories of energy than carbohydrates in a unit mass. Fats have less oxygen and give more energy. Only fat can be stored for the future use as the polar bear does. It takes food before winter and then hibernates for several months. During this period the stored fat is consumed and thus fat acts as an energy bank.

Question 2.
How will you test for carbohydrate?
Answer:
To test the carbohydrate we take the given material and heat it with water. Then we put two drops of iodine solution in it and see the result. If the colour is changed to blue black, then carbohydrate is there otherwise not.

Question 3.
Name any three sources of carbohydrates?
Answer:
Carbohydrates are the compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. These are one of the compound of our food which provide us energy. Various sources from where we get carbohydrates are rice, wheat, cereals, sugar etc.

Question 4.
What are proteins?
Answer:
Proteins are the polymers of amino acids. There are only twenty amino acids known to us. They link together to form proteins. The amino acids are made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen. However some also contains phosphorous, sulphur etc. The important sources of proteins are meat, fish, egg, milk and all pulses.

Question 5.
What are minerals?
Answer:
Minerals are the chemical elements present in our food. They help to regulate various metabolic activities in our body. The importatant minerals required are calcium, phosphorous, iron, iodine, potassium sodium and magnesium. Calcium and phosphorous are required for bone and teeth formation, iron is required for the formation of haemoglobin and sodium and potassium are required for normal functioning of the nerve cells.

Question 6.
Why does living organisms required food?
Answer:
Every living being needs energy for its life processes. This energy can be obtained only from the food. So to meet out the energy requirement of the body, food is necessary. Food is also needed for growth and control of various life activities of the body.

Question 7.
What are the three important qualities of balanced diet?
Answer:
The three important qualities of balanced diet are as follows:

1. It should be rich in essential nutrients such as vitamins, minerals, amino acids, etc.
2. It should be able to provide enough raw material to meet the basic needs of growth, repair and replacement of cells in our body.
3. It should provide energy required by the body.

Question 8.
How can you vary your diet without making it costlier?
Answer:
We can vary our diet by adopting the following instructions without making it costlier:

1. We should take seasonal vegetables and fruits because they are cheap at that time.
2. Rice and wheat should be eaten alternately so that a balanced diet may be obtained at low cost.
3. We should use cheap and nutritious fruits e.g., banana, guava, are more nutritious than grapes.

Question 9.
Name the foods needed?

1. For strong bones and teeth.
2. To prevent scurvy.
3. To avoid constipation.
4. For warmth.
5. For growth.

Answer:

1. For strong bones and teeth. Milk, Fish, Oils, Eggs,
2. To prevent scurvy. All citrus fruits, Amla, Orange, Lemon, etc.
3. To avoid constipation. Water, Juicy fruits, Fresh vegetables, etc
4. For warmth. Meat, Fish,
5. For growth. Green leafy vegetables, Milk.

Question 10.
Explain why you should:

1. Eat less cakes and ice – cream.
2. Remove most of the fat from meat.
3. Eat fresh food instead of processed food.
4. Eat more fruits and vegetables.

Answer:

1. Cakes and ice – cream have too much carbohydrates and sugar.
2. Fat is not digested quickly. It is used as fuel in the deficiency of carbohydrates only otherwise in deposits in the inner side of blood vessels.
3. The perishable food items are processed to keep them edible for a long time but many food nutrients are destroyed during processing, so we should eat fresh food. Moreover the nutrients present in the food can easily be processed food.
4. Fruits and vegetables contain more food nutrients than the preserved and non-perishable food items, so we should eat more fruits and vegetables.

Question 11.
What is the main difference between vitamins and minerals?
Answer:
Vitamins:

1. Vitamins are chemical substances which help the proteins particularly enzymes in their proper functioning.
2. Their main source are fruits, vegetables, milk and other food items. They cannot be extracted from the earth.

Minerals:

1. Minerals are the main constituents of our body parts such as teeth, bone blood etc.
2. The minerals can be extracted from the earth. But animals obtain them from fruits, vegetables, milk, etc.

Question 12.
What are deficiency diseases?
Answer:
There are many vitamins which are used as nutrients. They are named by alphabet letters such as A, B, B₁, B₂, B₆, B₁₂, C, D, K. Each of them plays its own role. If any one of them is not present, an abnormality in the body can be seen. Such abnormalities are known as vitamin deficiency diseases.

Question 13.
List some diseases that are caused by vitamin deficiency in the body.
Answer:
Vitamin deficiency diseases are:

Components of Food Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the various functions of protein?
Answer:
The various functions of proteins are:

1. They form enzymes which are very important for living organisms.
2. They are able to repair cells of the body which have undergone wear and tear.
3. They are also used in making new cells.
4. Proteins help in building of the body.
5. Proteins help in digestion of body.
6. Haemoglobin is a kind of protein which helps in the transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
7. Muscle, skin, hair and nails are all proteins.
8. Proteins also act as the body materials.

Question 2.
What are the roles of each of these components?
Answer:
Components of Food

1. Carbohydrates
2. Proteins
3. Fats
4. Vitamins
5. Minerals.

Question 3.
How can you balance your diet without adding to its cost? Suggest any one method to do so?
Answer:
We should eat the things which are easily available and cheap and having the food nutrients in equal quantity as that of costly food items. We should find out the nutrients and their percentage in the edible things and also their cost and then suggest the people to eat those things.
A list is given for average daily calorie needs of people of different ages.

Question 4.
What are carbohydrates?
Answer:
The carbohydrates are components of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. The simple carbohydrate is glycose. The other carbohydrates include sucrose, lactose, sugar, starch etc. The staple foods like rice, wheat, maize are rich sources of carbohydrates together with potato, sugarcane, grapes etc.

Question 5.
Draw a neat diagram of some sources of fats?
Answer:

Question 6.
Write a short note on Vitamin B complex?
Answer:
Vitamin ‘B’ complex is not a single vitamin but it is a group of many vitamins. The main vitamins of this group are Vitamin B₁, Vitamin B₂, Vitamin B₁₂.

Vitamin B₁:
It is found in egg, meat, cereals, yeast, cabbage, soyabean. This is important in helping the digestive system and the nervous system. The deficiency disease of this vitamin is known as Beri – Beri.

Vitamin B₂:
The chief sources of this vitamin are green leafy vegetables, peas, beans, cheese. It is helpful in keeping our mouth and skin healthy and for normal growth.

Vitamin B₁₂:
This vitamin is available in milk, cheese, etc. and is responsible for proper growth of the body. The deficiency disease due to this vitamin is the anaemia.

Question 7.
Write down the sources, importance and deficiency diseases of Vitamin A, Vitamin C, Vitamin D and Vitamin K?
Answer:

Vitamin A:
The main sources of this vitamin are milk, butter, cheese, egg, liver oils, green and yellow vegetables. This is important for eyes, hair and skin and the deficiency disease due to Vitamin ‘A’ is night blindness.

Vitamin C:
Citrus fruits as the lemon, organges are the main sources and is also available in plenty amount in goose berries, guava and amla. This vitamin is helpful in keeping teeth, gums and joints healthy. The deficiency disease is known as the scurvy.

Vitamin D:
The main sources are fish, liver oil, milk. Our body can prepare it in sunlight. It is essential for the normal growth of the bones. The deficiency disease is known as the rickets.

Vitamin K:
It is available in green leafy vegetables, tomatoes and egg yolks in sufficient amount. Due to its deficiency there is excessive bleeding after injury. Vitamin D helps in clotting of the blood.

Question 8.
What are the functions of iron and iodine in the body?
Answer:
The function of iron in our body are:
It gives red colour to the blood and transmits oxygen to body. It is needed for the formation of blood cells (RBC). The functions of iodine in our body are: It is very important component of thyroxin, a hormone secreted by the thyroid gland situated in the neck. Iodine deficiency can cause disorders resulting in retarded growth and mental disability. It also causes abnormal enlargment of the thyroid gland commonly known as goitre.

MP Board Class 6th Science Solutions