Prasanna

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Maths Book Solutions Chapter 3 दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण युग्म Ex 3.7 Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण युग्म Ex 3.7

प्रश्न 1.
दो मित्रों अनी और बीजू की आयु में 3 वर्ष का अन्तर है। अनी के पिता धरम की आयु अनी की आयु की दुगुनी और बीजू की आयु अपनी बहन कैथी की आयु की दुगुनी है। कैथी और धरम की आयु का अन्तर 30 वर्ष है। अनी और बीजू की आयु ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
मान लीजिए अनी और बीजू की आयु क्रमशः x वर्ष एवं y वर्ष है, तो प्रश्नानुसार
x – y = 3 ….(1)
अनी के पिता धरम की आयु = 2x
एवं कैथी (बीजू की बहिन) की आयु = \(\frac { y }{ 2 } \)
तब 2x – \(\frac { y }{ 2 } \) = 30
⇒ 4x – y = 60 ….(2)
⇒ 3x = 57 [समीकरण (2) – समीकरण (1) से]
⇒ x = \(\frac { 57 }{ 3 } \) = 19 वर्ष
x का मान समीकरण (1) में, रखने पर
19 – y = 3 ⇒ y = 19 – 3 = 16 वर्ष
अतः अनी एवं बीजू की अभीष्ट आयु क्रमशः 19 वर्ष एवं 16 वर्ष है।

प्रश्न 2.
एक मित्र दूसरे से कहता है, “यदि मुझे एक सौ दे दो, तो मैं आपसे दो गुना धनी बन जाऊँगा।” दूसरा उत्तर देता है, “यदि आप मुझे दस दे दें, तो मैं आपसे छः गुना धनी बन जाऊँगा।” बताइए कि उनकी क्रमशः क्या सम्पत्तिया हैं? [भास्कर – II की बीजगणित से]
हल:
मान लीजिए कि दोनों की सम्पत्तियों क्रमशः x एवं y हैं तो
प्रथम शर्तानुसार, x + 100 = 2 (y – 100) = 2y – 200
⇒ x – 2y = – 300 ….(1)
एवं द्वितीय शार्तानुसार, y + 10 = 6 (x – 10) = 6x – 60
⇒ 6x – y = 70 ….(2)
⇒ 12x – 2y = 140 ….(3) [समीकरण (2) × 2 से]
⇒ 11x = 440 [समीकरण (3) में से समीकरण (1) को घटाने पर]
⇒ x = \(\frac { 440 }{ 11 } \) = ₹40
x का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
40 – 2y = – 300
⇒ 2y = 40 + 300 = 340
⇒ y = \(\frac { 340 }{ 2 } \) = ₹ 170
अत: दोनों मित्रों के पास क्रमश: ₹ 40 एवं ₹ 170 हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
एक रेलगाड़ी कुछ दूरी समान चाल से तय करती है। यदि रेलगाड़ी 10 km/hr अधिक तेज चलती होती, तो उसे नियत समय से 2 घण्टे कम लगते और यदि रेलगाड़ी 10 km/hr धीमी चली होती, तो उसे नियत समय से 3 घण्टे अधिक लगते। रेलगाड़ी द्वारा तय की गई दूरी ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
मान लीजिए रेलगाड़ी द्वारा तय की गयी दूरी = x km एवं उसकी नियत चाल = y km/hr तो उसकी यात्रा में लगा समय = \(\frac { x }{ y } \) hr
अब प्रथम शर्तानुसार, \(\frac { x }{ (y+10) } \) = \(\frac { x }{ y } \) -2 ….(1)
एवं द्वितीय शर्तानुसार, \(\frac { x }{ (y-10) } \) = \(\frac { x }{ y } \) + 3 ….(2)
⇒ xy = xy + 10x – 2y (y + 10) [समीकरण (1) से]
⇒ 2y² + 20y = 10x ….(3)
एवं xy = xy – 10x + 3y² – 30y
⇒ 3y² – 30y = 10x ….(4)
⇒ y² – 50y = 0 [समीकरण (4) – समीकरण (3) से]
⇒ y (y – 50) = 0
⇒ या तो y = 0 (जो असम्भव है)
अथवा y – 50 = 0 ⇒ y = 50
अब y का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर प्राप्त होता है:

अतः रेलगाड़ी द्वारा तय की गई अभीष्ट दूरी = 600 km.

प्रश्न 4.
एक कक्षा के विद्यार्थियों को पंक्तियों में खड़ा होना है। यदि पंक्ति में 3 विद्यार्थी अधिक होते तो एक पंक्ति कम होती है। यदि पंक्ति में 3 विद्यार्थी कम होते तो 2 पंक्तियाँ अधिक बनतीं हैं। कक्षा में विद्यार्थियों की संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
मान लीजिए कक्षा में विद्यार्थियों की कुल संख्या x है तथा प्रत्येक पंक्ति में । विद्यार्थी रखे जाते हैं तो कुल पंक्तियों की संख्या = \(\frac { x }{ y } \)
अब प्रथम शर्तानुसार, \(\frac{x}{y+3}=\frac{x}{y}-1\)
⇒ xy = xy + 3x – y² – 3y
⇒ y² + 3y = 3x ….(1)
एवं द्वितीय शर्तानुसार, \(\frac{x}{y-3}=\frac{x}{y}+2\)
⇒ xy = xy – 3x + 2y² – 6y
⇒ 2y² – 6y = 3x ….(2)
⇒ y² – 9y = 0 [समीकरण (2) – समीकरण (1) से]
⇒ y (y – 9) = 0
⇒ या तो y = 0 (जो असम्भव है)
अथवा y = 9
अब y का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
(9)² + 3 (9) = 3x
⇒ 81 +27 = 3x
⇒ 3x = 108 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 108 }{ 3 } \) = 36
अतः कक्षा में अभीष्ट छात्रों की संख्या = 36.

प्रश्न 5.
एक ∆ABC में ∠C = 3 ∠B = 2 (∠A+ ∠B) है तो त्रिभुज के तीनों कोण ज्ञात कीजिए
हल:
दिया है: ∠C = 3 ∠B = 2(∠A + ∠B) …..(1)
हम जानते हैं कि ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180° ….(2)
⇒ \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) ∠C + ∠C = 180° [समीकरण (2) एवं समीकरण (1) से]

[समीकरण (2) में ∠B एवं ∠C के मान रखने पर]
∠A = 180° – 40° – 120° = 180° – 160° = 20°
अतः त्रिभुज के तीनों कोणों का अभीष्ट मान ∠A = 20°, ∠B = 40° एवं ∠C = 120° है।

प्रश्न 6.
समीकरणों 5x – y = 5 और 3x – y = 3 के ग्राफ खींचिए। इन रेखाओं और y-अक्ष से बने त्रिभुज के शीर्षों के निर्देशांक ज्ञात कीजिए। इस प्रकार बने त्रिभुज के क्षेत्रफल का परिकलन कीजिए।
हल:
∵ 5x – y = 5 ….(1)
⇒ y = 5x – 5

एवं 3x – y = 3 ….(2)
⇒ y = 3x – 3
ग्राफीय निरूपण :

आकृति : 3.10

अतः त्रिभुज के अभीष्ट शीर्षों के निर्देशांक (1, 0), (0, – 3) एवं (0, – 5) हैं (ग्राफ के अनुसार)।
अब ∆ABC का क्षेत्रफल
चूँकि y – अक्ष और दत्त रेखाओं के मध्य ∆ABC बना है जिसका आधार BC = 2 इकाई एवं शीर्षलम्ब OA = 1 इकाई
∵ ar (∆ABC) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) × BC × OA
⇒ ar (∆ABC) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) × 2 × 1 = 1 वर्ग इकाई
अतः ग्राफ एवं y-अक्ष से बने ∆ABC का अभीष्ट क्षेत्रफल = 1 वर्ग इकाई।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्न रैखिक समीकरणों के युग्मों को हल कीजिए :
(i) px + qy = p – q; qx – py = p + q
(ii) ax + by = c; bx + ay = 1 + c
(iii) \(\frac { x }{ a } \) – \(\frac { y }{ b } \) = 0; ax + by = a² + b²
(iv) (a – b) x + (a + b)y = a² – 2ab – b²; (a + b) (x + y) = a² + b²
(v) 152x – 378y = -74; – 378x + 152y = – 604
हल:
(i) चूंकि px + qy = p – q ⇒ px + qy – (p – q) = 0 ….(1)
एवं qx – py = p + q ⇒ qx – py – (p + q) = 0 ….(2)

अतः दत्त समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = 1 एवं y = -1 है।

(ii) चूंकि ax + by = c ⇒ ax + by – c = 0 ….(1)
एवं bx + ay = 1 + c ⇒ bx + ay – (c + 1) = 0 ….(2)

(iii) चूँकि \(\frac{x}{a}-\frac{y}{b}=0 \Rightarrow b x-a y=0\) …..(1)
एवं ax + by = a² + b² …..(2)
समीकरण (1) से x = \(\frac { a }{ b } \) y समीकरण (2) में रखने पर प्राप्त होता है:

y का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
\(\frac{x}{a}-\frac{b}{b}=0 \Rightarrow \frac{x}{a}=1 \Rightarrow x=a\)
अत: दत्त समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = a एवं y = b है।

(iv) चूँकि (a – b) x + (a + b) y = a² – 2ab – b² …..(1)
एवं (a + b) (x + y) = a² + b² ….(2)
समीकरण (2) से \(\left(\frac{a^{2}+b^{2}}{a+b}-x\right)\) समीकरण (1) में रखने पर प्राप्त होता है :
\((a-b) x+(a+b)\left(\frac{a^{2}+b^{2}}{a+b}-x\right)=a^{2}-2 a b-b^{2}\)
⇒ (a – b)x + [(a² + b²) – x (a + b)] = a² – 2ab – b²
⇒ a² + b² + (a -b – a – b)x = a² – 2ab – b²
⇒ -2bx = -2b² – 2ab = -2b (b + a)
⇒ x = b + a = a + b
x का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
(a – b) (a + b) + (a + b)y = a² – 2ab – b²
⇒ a² – b² + (a + b)y = a² – b² – 2ab
⇒ (a + b)y = -2ab
⇒ y = – \(\frac { 2ab }{ a+b } \)
अतः दत्त समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = (a + b) एवं y = \(\frac { -2ab }{ a+b } \) है।

(v) चूँकि 152x – 378y = – 74
⇒ 152x – 378y + 74 = 0 ….(1)
एवं -378x + 152y = – 604
⇒ -378x + 152y + 604 = 0 ….(2)


अतः दत्त समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = 2 एवं y = 1 है।

प्रश्न 8.
ABCD एक चक्रीय चतुर्भुज है। (देखिए संलग्न आकृति 3.11) इस चक्रीय चतुर्भुज के कोण ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
संलग्न आकृति के अनुसार, ∠A = 4y + 20
∠B = 3y – 5
∠C = -4x
एवं ∠D = – 7x + 5

अब हम जानते हैं कि
∵ ∠A + ∠C = 180°
[चक्रीय चतुर्भुज के सम्मुख कोण हैं।]
⇒ 4y + 20 + (-4x) = 180°
⇒ – 4x + 4y + 20 = 180°
⇒ – 4x + 4y = 180° – 20° = 160°
⇒ -x + y = 40 …(1)
एवं ∠B + ∠D = 180° (चक्रीय चतुर्भुज के सम्मुख कोण हैं)
⇒ 3y – 5 – 7x + 5 = 180°
⇒ – 7x + 3y = 180°…..(2)
एवं – 7x + 7y = 280 …..(3) [समीकरण (1) × 7 से]
⇒ 4y = 100 [समीकरण (3) – समीकरण (2) से]
⇒ y = \(\frac { 100 }{ 4 } \) = 25
y का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
-x + 25 = 40
⇒ -x = 40 – 25 = 15
⇒ x = – 15
अब ∠A = 4y + 20
= 4 × 25 + 20 = 100 + 20 = 120°
∠B = 3y – 5
= 3 × 25 – 5 = 75 – 5 = 70°
∠C = -4x
= -4(-15) = 60°
∠D = – 7x + 5
= -7 (- 15) + 5
= 105 + 5 = 110°
अतः दिए चक्रीय चतुर्भुज के अभीष्ट कोण हैं ∠A = 120°, ∠B = 70°, ∠C = 60° एवं ∠D = 110°.

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Maths Book Solutions Chapter 3 दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण युग्म Ex 3.4 Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण युग्म Ex 3.4

प्रश्न 1.
निम्न समीकरणों के युग्म को विलोपन विधि तथा प्रतिस्थापन विधि से हल कीजिए। कौन-सी विधि अधिक उपयुक्त है?
(i) x + y = 5 और 2x – 3y = 4
(ii) 3x + 4y = 10 और 2x – 2y = 2
(iii) 3x – 5y – 4= 0 और 9x = 2y + 7
(iv) \(\frac { x }{ 2 } \) + \(\frac { 2y }{ 3 } \) = -1 और x – \(\frac { y }{ 3 } \) = 3
हल:
(i) विलोपन विधि :

x का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
\(\frac { 19 }{ 5 } \) + y = 5 ⇒ y = 5 – \(\frac { 19 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac { 25-19 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 5 } \)
अत: समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = \(\frac { 19 }{ 5 } \) एवं y = \(\frac { 6 }{ 5 } \) है।
प्रतिस्थापान विधि:
समीकरण (1) से y = 5 – x समीकरण (2) में प्रतिस्थापित करने पर हम पाते हैं
2x – 3 (5 – x) = 4 ⇒ 2x – 15 + 3x = 4
⇒ 5x = 15 + 4 = 19 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 19 }{ 5 } \)
एवं y = 5 – x = 5 – \(\frac { 19 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac { 25-19 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 5 } \)
अत: समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = \(\frac { 19 }{ 5 } \) एवं y = \(\frac { 6 }{ 5 } \) हैं।

(ii) विलोपन विधि :
3x + 4y = 10 ….(1)
एवं 2x – 2y = 2 ….(2)
⇒ 4x – 4y = 4 (3) [समीकरण (2) × 2 से]
⇒ 7x = 14 [समीकरण (1) + समीकरण (3) से]
⇒ x = 14/7 = 2
x का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
2 × 3 + 4y = 10 ⇒ 4y = 10 – 6 = 4
y = 4/4 = 1
अतः समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = 2 एवं y = 1 है।
प्रतिस्थापन विधि :
समीकरण (2) से x = (y + 1) समीकरण (1) में प्रतिस्थापित करने पर हम पाते हैं –
3 (y + 1) +4y = 10 ⇒ 3y + 3 + 4y = 10
⇒ 7y = 10 – 3 = 7 ⇒ y = \(\frac { 7 }{ 7 } \) = 1
एवं x = (y + 1) = 1 + 1 = 2
अत: समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = 2 एवं y = 1 है।

(iii) विलोपन विधि:
3x – 5y – 4 = 0 ⇒ 3x – 5y = 4 ….(1)
एवं 9x = 2y + 7 = 9x – 2y = 7 ….(2)
9x – 15y = 12 ….(3) [समीकरण (1) × 3 से]
⇒ 13y = -5 [समीकरण (2)- समीकरण (3) से]
⇒ y = \(\frac { -5 }{ 13 } \)
समीकरण (1) में y का मान रखने पर हम पाते हैं :
3x – 5 (\(\frac { -5 }{ 13 } \)) = 4
⇒ 39x + 25 = 52 ⇒ 39x = 52 – 25 = 27
⇒ x = \(\frac { 27 }{ 39 } \) = \(\frac { 9 }{ 13 } \)
अतः समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = \(\frac { 9 }{ 13 } \) एवं y = \(\frac { -5 }{ 13 } \) है।
प्रतिस्थापन विधि :
समीकरण (1) से x = \(\frac { 5y+4 }{ 3 } \) समीकरण (2) में प्रतिस्थापित करने पर हम पाते हैं :

अत: समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = \(\frac { 9 }{ 13 } \) एवं y = \(\frac { -5 }{ 13 } \) है।

(iv) विलोपन विधि:

अतः दत्त समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = 2 एवं y = -3 है।
प्रतिस्थापन विधि :
समीकरण (2) से x = \(\frac { y+9 }{ 3 } \) समीकरण (1) में प्रतिस्थापित करने पर हम पाते हैं :

y का मान समीकरण (2) में रखने पर हम पाते हैं :
3x – (-3) = 9 ⇒ 3x = 9 – 3 = 6 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 6 }{ 3 } \) = 2
अतः दत्त समीकरण युग्म का अभीष्ट हल x = 2 एवं y = – 3 है।
ज्ञातव्य : कभी-कभी विलोपन विधि प्रतिस्थापन विधि से उपयुक्त एवं सुविधाजनक होती है और कभी-कभी इसका विलोम भी होता है और कभी-कभी कोई भी अन्तर नहीं पड़ता।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्न समस्याओं में रैखिक समीकरण के युग्म बनाइए और उनके हल (यदि उनका अस्तित्व हो) विलोपन विधि से ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) यदि हम अंश में 1 जोड़ दें तथा हर में से 1 घटा दें तो भिन्न 1 में बदल जाती है। यदि हर में 1 जोड़ दें तो यह \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) हो जाती है। वह भिन्न क्या है?
(ii) पाँच वर्ष पूर्व नूरी की आयु सोनू की आयु की तीन गुनी थी। दस वर्ष पश्चात्, नूरी की आयु सोनू की आयु की दो गुनी हो जाएगी। नूरी और सोनू की आयु कितनी है?
(iii) दो अंकों की संख्या के अंकों का योग 9 है। इस संख्या का नौ गुना संख्या के अंकों को पलटने से बनी संख्या का दो गुना है। वह संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए।
(iv) मीना ₹ 2000 निकालने के लिए एक बैंक गई। उसने खजांची से ₹ 50 तथा ₹ 100 के नोट देने के लिए कहा। मीना ने कुल 25 नोट प्राप्त किए। ज्ञात कीजिए कि उसने ₹50 और ₹100 के कितने-कितने नोट प्राप्त किए? किराये पर पुस्तक देने वाले किसी पुस्तकालय का प्रथम तीन दिनों का एक नियत किराया है तथा उसके बाद प्रत्येक अतिरिक्त दिन का अलग किराया है। सरिता ने सात दिनों तक एक पुस्तकरखने के लिए ₹ 27 अदा किए जबकि सूसी ने एक पुस्तक पाँच दिनों तक रखने के लिए ₹ 21 अदा किए। नियत किराया तथा प्रत्येक अतिरिक्त दिन का किराया ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
(i) मान लीजिए अभीष्ट भिन्न का अंश x एवं हर y है, तो भिन्न का स्वरूप होगा \(\frac { x }{ y } \)
प्रश्नानुसार, \(\frac { x+1 }{ y-1 } \) = 1 ⇒ x + 1 = y – 1 ⇒ x – y = – 2 ….(1)
एवं \(\frac { x }{ y+1 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) ⇒ 2x = y + 1 ⇒ 2x – y = 1 ….(2)
⇒ [समीकरण (2) में से समीकरण (1) को घटाने पर]
x के मान को समीकरण (1) में रखने पर हम पाते हैं :
3 – y = – 2 ⇒ y = 3 + 2 = 5
अत: अभीष्ट भिन्न \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 } \) होगी।

(ii) मान लीजिए नूरी की आयु x वर्ष एवं सोनू की आयु y वर्ष है।
तो प्रश्नानुसार, (x – 5) = 3 (y – 5) ⇒ x – 5 = 3y – 15
⇒ x – 3y = 5 – 15 = – 10
एवं (x + 10) = 2 (y + 10) ⇒ x + 10 = 2y + 20
⇒ x – 2y = 20 – 10 = 10 ….(2)
⇒ y = 20 [समीकरण (2) में से समीकरण (1) को घटाने पर]
एवं y का मान समीकरण (2) में रखने पर हम पाते हैं :
x – 2 (20) = 10 ⇒ x – 40 = 10
⇒ x = 40 + 10 = 50
अतः नूरी एवं सोनू की अभीष्ट वर्तमान आयु क्रमशः 50 वर्ष एवं 20 वर्ष है।

(iii) मान लीजिए संख्या का दहाई का अंक x एवं इकाई का अंक y है तो संख्या का मान होगा 10x + y अब प्रश्नानुसार,
x + y = 9 ….(1)
संख्या के अंकों को पलटने पर बनी नई संख्या का मान होगा 10y + x एवं प्रश्नानुसार अब
9 (10x +y) = 2 (10y +x),
⇒ 90x + 9y = 20y + 2x
⇒ 88x – 11y = 0 ⇒ 8x – y = 0 ….(2)
समीकरण (1) एवं समीकरण (2) को जोड़ने पर हम पाते हैं :
9x = 9 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 9 }{ 9 } \) = 1
x का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर हम पाते हैं :
1 + y = 9 ⇒ y = 9 – 1 = 8
अतः अभीष्ट संख्या का मान = 10x + y = 10 × 1 + 8 = 10 + 8 = 18 है।

(iv) मान लीजिए मीना बैंक से ₹50 के नोट तथा ₹ 100 के नोट प्राप्त करती है, तो प्रश्नानुसार
x + y = 25 ….(1)
एवं 50x + 100y = 2000
⇒ x + 2y = 40 ….(2)
समीकरण (2) से समीकरण (1) को घटाने पर प्राप्त होता है :
y = 40 – 25 = 15
y का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर प्राप्त होता है :
x + 15 = 25 ⇒ x = 25 – 15 = 10
अत: ₹ 50 एवं ₹ 100 के नोटों की अभीष्ट संख्या क्रमश: 10 एवं 15 है।

(v) मान लीजिए पुस्तक का प्रथम तीन दिन तक का नियत किराया ₹x एवं शेष दिनों के लिए प्रतिदिन का किराया ₹y है तो प्रश्नानुसार
x + 4y = 27 ….(1)
[∵ अतिरिक्त दिन = 7 – 3 = 4]
एवं x + 2y = 21 ….(2)
[∵ अतिरिक्त दिन = 5 – 3 = 2]
⇒ 2y = 6 [समीकरण (1) – समीकरण (2) से]
⇒ y = \(\frac { 6 }{ 2 } \) = 3
y का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
x + 4 (3) = 27 ⇒ x + 12 = 27
⇒ x = 27 – 12 = 15
अतः पुस्तक का प्रथम तीन दिनों तक अभीष्ट नियत किराया = ₹ 15 एवं प्रत्येक अतिरिक्त दिन का किराया = ₹ 3.

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Maths Book Solutions Chapter 5 समान्तर श्रेढ़ियाँ Ex 5.3 Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 समान्तर श्रेढ़ियाँ Ex 5.3

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित समान्तर श्रेढ़ियों का योग ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) 2, 7, 12, ……………. 10 पदों तक।
(ii)-37,-33,-29, …………….. 12 पदों तक।
(iii) 0.6,1.7,2.8, ………………. 100 पदों तक।
(iv) \(\frac { 1 }{ 15 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 12 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \), ……….. 11 पदों तक।
हल:
(i) 2, 7, 12, ……….. 10 पदों तक
यहाँ a = 2,d = 7 – 2 = 5 एवं n = 10 है।
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ S₁₀ = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 2 + (10 – 1) × 5]
= 5 (4 + 45)
⇒ S_n = 5 × 49 = 245
अत: अभीष्ट योग = 245 है।

(ii) -37,-33,-29, ……… 12 पदों तक
यहाँ a = -37, d = (-33) – (-37) = -33 + 37 = 4 एवं n = 12
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1)व]
⇒ S₁₂ = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 } \) [2 × (-37) + (12 – 1) (4)]
= 6 (-74 + 11 × 4)
= 6 (-74 + 44)
= 6 (-30) = -180
अतः अभीष्ट योग = -180 है।

(iii) 0.6, 1.7, 2.8, …………. 100 पदों तक
यहाँ a = 0.6, d = 1.7 – 0.6 = 1.1 एवं n = 100
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1) d]
⇒ S₁₀₀ = \(\frac { 100 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 0.6 + (100 – 1) (1.1)]
= 50 (1.2 + 99 × 1.1)
= 50 (1.2 + 108.9)
⇒ S₁₀₀ = 50 × 110.1 = 5505.0
अभीष्ट योग = 5505 है।

(iv) \(\frac { 1 }{ 15 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 12 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \) ………. 11 पदों तक
यहाँ, a = \(\frac { 1 }{ 15 } \), d = \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 } \) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 15 } \) = \(\frac { 15-12 }{ 180 } \) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 180 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 60 } \) एवं n = 11
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ S₁₁ = \(\frac { 11 }{ 2 } \) [2 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 15 } \) + (11 – 1) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 60 } \)]
= \(\frac { 11 }{ 2 } \) [\(\frac { 2 }{ 15 } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)]
= \(\frac { 11 }{ 2 } \) [latex]\frac { 4+5 }{ 30 } [/latex] = \(\frac { 11 }{ 2 } \) × \(\frac { 9 }{ 30 } \) = \(\frac { 33 }{ 20 } \)
अतः अभीष्ट योग = \(\frac { 33 }{ 20 } \) है।

प्रश्न 2.
नीचे दिए गए योगफलों को ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) 7 + 10\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) + 14 + ……………….. + 84
(ii) 34 + 32 + 30 + ………….+ 10
(iii) -5 + (-8) + (-11) + ………….+ (-230)
हल:
(i) S_n = 7 + 10\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) + 14 + ……… + 84
चूँकि (10\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) – 7) = (14 – 10\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)) = 3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) ⇒ d = \(\frac { 7 }{ 2 } \)
अतः उक्त एक AP है, जहाँ a = 7 एवं a_n = 84.
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) d
⇒ 84 = 7 + (n – 1) (\(\frac { 7 }{ 2 } \))
⇒ 168 = 14 + 7n – 7
⇒ 7n = 168 + 7 – 14 = 175 – 14 = 161
⇒ n = \(\frac { 161 }{ 7 } \) = 23, अतः श्रेढ़ी में 23 पद हैं।
चूँकि S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [a + l] = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[a + a_n]
⇒ S_n = \(\frac { 23 }{ 2 } \) [7+ 84] = \(\frac { 23 }{ 2 } \) × 91
= \(\frac { 2093 }{ 2 } \) = 1046\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
अत: अभीष्ट योग = 1046\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) है।

(ii) S_n = 34 + 32 + 30 + …………… + 10
यहाँ a = 34,d = 32 – 34 = -2 एवं a_n = 10
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ 10 = 34 + (n – 1) (-2)
⇒ 10 = 34 – 2n + 2
⇒ 2n = 36 – 10 = 26
⇒ n = \(\frac { 26 }{ 2 } \) = 13, अतः श्रेणी में 13 पद हैं।
∴ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) (a + a_n)
⇒ S_n = \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) (34 + 10)
= \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) × 44 = 13 × 22 = 286
अत: अभीष्ट योग = 286 है।

(iii) S_n = (-5)+ (-8) + (-11) + ………. + (-230)
यहाँ a = -5, d= (-8) – (-5) = -8 + 5 = -3 एवं a_n = -230
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ – 230 = – 5 + (n – 1) (-3)
⇒ -230 = -5 – 3n + 3
⇒ 3n = 230 + 3 – 5 = 233 – 5 = 228
⇒ n = \(\frac { 228 }{ 3 } \) = 76
चूँकि S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [a + a_n]
= \(\frac { 76 }{ 2 } \) [-5 + (-230)]
= 38 (-235) = -8930
अतः अभीष्ट योग = -8930 है।

प्रश्न 3.
एक A.P. में
(i) a = 5, d = 3 और a_n = 50 दिया है। n और S_n ज्ञात कीजिए।
(ii) a = 7 और a₁₃ = 35 दिया है। d और S₁₃ ज्ञात कीजिए।
(iii) a₁₂ = 37 और d = 3 दिया है। a और S₁₂ ज्ञात कीजिए।
(iv) a₃ = 15 और S₁₀ = 125 दिया है। d और a₁₀ ज्ञात कीजिए।
(v) d = 5 और S₉ = 75 दिया है। a और a₉ ज्ञात कीजिए।
(vi) a = 2, d = 8 और S_n = 90 दिया है। n और a_n ज्ञात कीजिए।
(vii) a = 8, a_n = 62 और S_n = 210 दिया है। n और d ज्ञात कीजिए।
(viii) a_n = 4, d = 2 और S_n = -14 दिया है। n और a ज्ञात कीजिए।
(ix) a = 3, n= 8 और S = 192 दिया है। d ज्ञात कीजिए।
(x) l = 28, S = 144 और कुल 9 पद हैं। a ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
(i) यहाँ a = 5, d = 3 एवं a_n = 50 (दिए हैं)
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ 50 = 5 + (n – 1) × 3
⇒ 50 = 5 + 3n – 3
⇒ 3n = 50 + 3 – 5 = 48
⇒ n = \(\frac { 48 }{ 3 } \) = 16
⇒ n = \(\frac { 48 }{ 3 } \) = 16
और ∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) × a]
= \(\frac { 16 }{ 2 } \)[2 × 5 + (16 – 1) × 3]
= 8 (10 + 45) = 8 × 55 = 440
अतः n एवं Sn के अभीष्ट मान क्रमशः 16 एवं 440 हैं।

(ii) यहाँ a = 7 एवं a₁₃ = 35 (दिए हैं)
∵ a_n = a+ (n – 1) × d
⇒ 35 = a₁₃ = 7 + (13 – 1) × d
⇒ 35 = 7 + 12d
⇒ 12d = 35 – 7 = 28
⇒ d = \(\frac { 28 }{ 12 } \) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 3 } \)
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ S₁₃ = \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 7 + (13 – 1) × \(\frac { 7 }{ 3 } \)]
= \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) [14 + 12 × \(\frac { 7 }{ 3 } \)]
= \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) [14 + 28] = \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) [42]
= 13 × 21 = 273
अत: d एवं S₁₃ के अभीष्ट मान क्रमशः \(\frac { 7 }{ 3 } \) एवं 273 हैं।

(iii) यहाँ a₁₂ = 37 और d = 3 (दिए हैं)
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ 37 = a₁₂ = a + (12 – 1) × 3
⇒ 37 = a + 33
⇒ a = 37 – 33 = 4
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ S₁₂ = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 4 + (12 – 1) × 3]
= 6 [8 + 33] = 6 × 41 = 246
अत: a एवं S₁₂ के अभीष्ट मान क्रमशः 4 एवं 246 हैं।

(iv) यहाँ a₃ = 15 और S₁₀ = 125 (दिए हैं)
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ 15 = a₃ = a + (3 – 1) × d
⇒ a + 2d = 15 …..(1)
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ 125 = S₁₀ = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \) [2a + (10 – 1) × d]
⇒ 125 = 5[2a + 9d]
⇒ 2a + 9d = 25 …..(2)
एवं 2a + 4d = 30 [समीकरण (1) × (2) से]
⇒ 5d = – 5 ⇒ d = –\(\frac { 5 }{ 5 } \) = -1
d का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
a + 2 (-1) = 15 ⇒ a = 15 + 2 = 17.
अब ∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ a₁₀ = 17 + (10 – 1) × (- 1)
= 17 + 9 (-1) = 17 – 9 = 8
अत: d एवं a₁₀ के अभीष्ट मान क्रमशः -1 एवं 8 हैं।

(v) यहाँ d = 5 एवं S₉ = 75 (दिए हैं)
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [a + a_n]

समीकरण (2) से a का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,

अत: a एवं a₉ के अभीष्ट मान क्रमशः –\(\frac { 35 }{ 3 } \) एवं \(\frac { 85 }{ 3 } \) हैं।

(vi) यहाँ, a = 2, d = 8 और S_n = 90 (दिए हैं)
∴ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) × [2 × 2 + (n – 1) × 8] = 90
⇒ 4n + 8n² – 8n = 180
⇒ 8n² – 4n – 180 = 0
⇒ 2n² – n – 45 = 0
⇒ 2n² – 10n + 9n – 45 = 0
⇒ 2n(n – 5)+ 9(n – 5) = 0
⇒ (n – 5) (2n + 9) = 0
या तो 2n + 9 = 0 ⇒ n= –\(\frac { 9 }{ 2 } \) जो असम्भव है।
अथवा n – 5 = 0 ⇒ n = 5
अब ∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ a_n = 2 + (5 – 1) × 8
⇒ a_n = 2 + 32 = 34
अतः n एवं a_n के अभीष्ट मान क्रमशः 5 एवं 34 हैं।

(vii) यहाँ a = 8, a_n = 62 और S_n = 210 (दिए हैं)
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [a + a_n]
⇒ 210 = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [8 + 62] = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) × 70
⇒ 35n = 210 ⇒ n = \(\frac { 210 }{ 35 } \) = 6
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ 62 = 8 + (6 – 1) × d = 8 + 5d
⇒ 5d = 62 – 8 = 54 ⇒ d = 54/5
अत: n और 4 के अभीष्ट मान क्रमशः 6 और 54/5 हैं।

(viii) यहाँ a_n = 4, d = 2 और S_n = – 14 (दिए हैं)
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ 4 = a + (n – 1) × 2
⇒ a + 2n = 4 + 2 = 6 ….(1)
और ∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [a + a_n]
⇒ – 14 = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[a + 4]
⇒ – 28 = n(a + 4) …..(2)
समीकरण (1) से a = 6 – 2n का मान समीकरण (2) में रखने पर,
-28 = n[6 – 2n + 4] = n(10 – 2n)
⇒ -28 = 10n – 2n²
⇒ 2n² – 10n – 28 = 0
⇒ n² – 5n – 14 = 0
⇒ n² – 7n+ 2n – 14 = 0
⇒ n(n – 7) + 2(n – 7) = 0
⇒ (n – 7) (n+ 2) = 0
या तो n + 2 = 0 तब n = -2 जो असम्भव है।
अथवा n – 7 = 0 ⇒ n = 7
n = 7 का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
a + 2 × 7 = 6 ⇒ a = 6 – 14 = – 8
अत: a एवं n के अभीष्ट मान क्रमशः -8 और 7 हैं।

(ix) यहाँ a = 3, n = 8 और S = 192 (दिए हैं)
S = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ 192 = \(\frac { 8 }{ 2 } \)[2 × 3 + (8 – 1) × d]
⇒ 192 = 4 [6 + 7d]
⇒ 7d + 6 = 48
⇒ 7d = 48 – 6 = 42
⇒ d = \(\frac { 42 }{ 7 } \) = 6
अतः d का अभीष्ट मान 6 है।

(x) यहाँ l = 28, S = 144 और n = 9 (दिए हैं)
∵ S = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)(a + l)
⇒ 144 = \(\frac { 9 }{ 2 } \)(a + 28)
⇒ a + 28 = \(\frac{144 \times 2}{9}\) = 16 × 2 = 32
⇒ a = 32 – 28 = 4
अत: a का अभीष्ट मान 4 है।

प्रश्न 4.
636 योग प्राप्त करने के लिए AP: 9, 17, 25, ……… के कितने पद लेने चाहिए?
हल:
यहाँ S_n = 636 तथा AP : 9, 17, 25,………… दिए हैं; जहाँ a = 9 एवं d = 25 – 17 = 8.
∵ Sn = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ 636 = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2 × 9 + (n – 1) × 8]
⇒ 636 = 9n + 4n² – 4n
⇒ 4n² + 5n – 636 = 0
⇒ 4n² +53n – 48n = 636 = 0
⇒ n(4n + 53) – 12(4n + 53) = 0
⇒ (4n + 53) (n – 12) = 0
या तो 4n + 53 = 0 ⇒ n = –\(\frac { 53 }{ 4 } \) जो असम्भव है।
अथवा n – 12 = 0 ⇒ n = 12
अत: 636 योग प्राप्त करने के लिए दी गई AP के हमें 12 पद लेने चाहिए।

प्रश्न 5.
किसी AP का प्रथम पद 5, अन्तिम पद 45 और योग 400 है। पदों की संख्या एवं सार्वान्तर ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
यहाँ a = 5, l = 45 एवं S_n = 400 (दिए हैं)
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [a + l]
⇒ 400 = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [5 + 45] = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) × 50 = 25n
⇒ 25n = 400 ⇒ n = \(\frac { 400 }{ 25 } \) = 16
∵ a_n = l = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ 45 = 5 + (16 – 1) × d
⇒ 15d = 45 – 5 = 40
⇒ d = \(\frac { 40 }{ 15 } \) = \(\frac { 8 }{ 3 } \)
अत: अभीष्ट पदों की संख्या एवं सार्वान्तर क्रमश: 16 एवं 8/3 हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
किसी AP के प्रथम एवं अन्तिम पद क्रमशः 17 और 350 हैं। यदि सार्वान्तर 9 है, तो इसमें कितने पद हैं और इनका योग कितना है?
हल:
यहाँ a = 17, l = a_n = 350 एवं d = 9(दिए हैं)
∵ l = a_n = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ 350 = 17 + (n – 1) × 9
⇒ 350 = 17 + 9n – 9
⇒ 9n = 350 + 9 – 17 = 359 – 17 = 342
⇒ n = \(\frac { 342 }{ 9 } \) = 38
और ∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)(a + l)
= \(\frac { 38 }{ 2 } \)(17 + 350)
= 19 × 367
= 6973
अतः दी गई AP में अभीष्ट पदों की संख्या 38 तथा उनका योग 6973 है।

प्रश्न 7.
उस AP के प्रथम 22 पदों का योग ज्ञात कीजिए, जिसमें d = 7 है और 22वाँ पद 149 है।
हल:
यहाँ, d = 7, a₂₂ = 149 एवं n = 22 (दिए हैं)
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ a₂₂ = a + (22 – 1) × 7 = 149
⇒ a + 147 = 149 ⇒ a = 149 – 147 = 2
और ∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) (a + a_n)
⇒ S₂₂ = \(\frac { 22 }{ 2 } \) [2 + 149]
= 11 × 151 = 1661
अत: AP के प्रथम 22 पदों का अभीष्ट योग = 1661 है।

प्रश्न 8.
उस AP के प्रथम 51 पदों का योग ज्ञात कीजिए, जिसके दूसरे और तीसरे पद क्रमशः 14 और 18 हैं।
हल:
यहाँ n = 51, a₂ = 14 एवं a₃ = 18
∵ a₂ = a + (2 – 1)d = 14, ⇒ a + d = 14 ….(1)
एवं a₃ = a + (3 – 1)d = 18 ⇒ a + 2d = 18 …(2)
समीकरण (1) को समीकरण (2) से घटाने पर,
d = 18 – 14 = 4
d = 4 का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
a + 4 = 14 ⇒ a = 14 – 4 = 10
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ S₅₁ = \(\frac { 51 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 10 + (51 – 1) × 4]
= \(\frac { 51 }{ 2 } \) [20 + 200]
= \(\frac { 51 }{ 2 } \) × 220
= 51 × 110 = 5610
अतः प्रथम 51 पदों का अभीष्ट योग = 5610 है।

प्रश्न 9.
यदि किसी AP के प्रथम 7 पदों का योग 49 है और प्रथम 17 पदों का योग 289 है, तो उसके प्रथम पदों का योग ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
यहाँ
S₇ = 49 एवं S₁₇ = 289 दिए हैं।
⇒ S₇ = \(\frac { 7 }{ 2 } \)[2a + 6d] = 49
⇒ 7a + 21d = 49 ⇒ a + 3d = 7 …..(1)
एवं S₁₇ = \(\frac { 17 }{ 2 } \) [2a +16d] = 289
⇒ a + 8d = 17 …..(2)
समीकरण (2) में से समीकरण (1) को घटाने पर,
5d = 10 ⇒ d = \(\frac { 10 }{ 5 } \) = 2
d = 2 का मान समीकरण (1) में रखने पर,
a + 3 × 2 = 7 ⇒ a = 7 – 6 = 1
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2 × 1 + (n – 1) × 2]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2 + 2n – 2] = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) × 2n = n²
अतः प्रथम n पदों का अभीष्ट योग = n² है।

प्रश्न 10.
दर्शाइए कि a₁, a₂, ……… a_n, ….. एक AP बनाती है। यदि a_n नीचे दिए अनुसार परिभाषित हैं:
(i) a_n = 3 + 4n
(ii) a_n = 9 – 5n
साथ ही प्रत्येक स्थिति में प्रथम 15 पदों का योग भी ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:

एवं a_n = 3 + 4n
यहाँ a₁, a₂, a₃, ……… a_n, ……………
= 7, 11, 15, ……….. (3 + 4n), एक AP है।
जहाँ a = 7 एवं d = 4 (सार्वान्तर)
अतः a₁, a₂, a₃, ………… a_n …………. एक AP बनाती है, यदि a_n = 3 + 4n. इति सिद्धम् अब AP के प्रथम पन्द्रह पदों का योग –
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) d]
S₁₅ = \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 7 + (15 – 1) (4)]
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) [70] [14 + 14 × 4]= \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) [14 + 56]
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) [70] = 15 × 35 = 525
अतः AP के प्रथम 15 पदों का अभीष्ट योग = 525 है।

एवं a_n = 9 – 5n
यहाँ, a₁, a₂, a₃, ……….. a_n, ……..
= 4, -1, -6, …………. (9 – 5n), ………….. एक AP है। जहाँ a = 4 एवं d = -5
अतः a₁, a₂, a₃, ………… an………… एक AP बनाती हैं, यदि a_n = 9 – 5n.
इति सिद्धम अब AP के प्रथम पन्द्रह पदों का योग –
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) d]
S₁₅ = \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 4 + (15 – 1) (-5)]
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) [8 + 14 (-5)] = \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) [8 – 70]
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) (-62) = 15 (-31) = -465
अत: AP के प्रथम 15 पदों का अभीष्ट योग = -465 है।

प्रश्न 11.
यदि किसी AP के प्रथम n पदों का योग 4n – n² है, तो इसका प्रथम पद (अर्थात् S₁) क्या है? प्रथम दो पदों का योग क्या है? दूसरा पद क्या है? इसी प्रकार तीसरे, 10 वें और n वें पद ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
∵ S_n = 4n – n² (दिया है)
⇒ S₁ = 4 × 1 – (1)² = 4 – 1 = 3 ⇒ a = 3
⇒ S₂ = 4 × 2 – (2)² = 8 – 4 = 4
दूसरा पद a₂ = S₂ – S₁, = 4 – 3 = 1
⇒ सार्वान्तर d = a₂ – a₁ = 1 – 3 = -2
अब a₃ = a + 2d = 3 + 2 (-2) = 3 – 4 = -1
a₁₀ = a + 9d = 3 + 9 × (-2)= 3 – 18 = – 15
एवं a_n = a + (n – 1)d = 3 + (n – 1) (-2)
= 3 – 2n + 2 = 5 -2n
अतः अभीष्ट मान S₁ = a₁ = 3, S₂ = 4, a₂ = 1, a₃ = -1, a₁₀ = -15 एवं a_n = 5 – 2n है।

प्रश्न 12.
ऐसे प्रथम 40 धन पूर्णांकों का योग ज्ञात कीजिए जो 6 से विभाज्य हैं।
हल:
6 से विभाज्य धन पूर्णांक हैं:
6, 12, 18, 24, …………….
यहाँ a = 6, d = 12 – 6 = 6, n = 40.
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ S₄₀ = \(\frac { 40 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 6 + (40 – 1) × 6]
= 20 [12 + 240 – 6] = 20(246) = 4920
अतः अभीष्ट 6 से विभाज्य प्रथम 40 धन पूर्णांकों का योग 4920 है

प्रश्न 13.
8 के प्रथम 15 गुणजों का योग ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
8 के गुणज हैं : 8, 16, 24, 32, …
यहाँ a = 8,d = 16 – 8 = 8 एवं n = 15
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1) × d]
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 8 + (15 – 1) × 8]
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) [16 + 120 – 8]
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 2 } \) × 128 = 15 × 64 = 960
अत: 8 के प्रथम 15 गुणजों का अभीष्ट योग = 960 है।

प्रश्न 14.
0 और 50 के बीच की विषम संख्याओं का योग ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
0 और 50 के बीच की विषम संख्याएँ हैं:
1,3,5,7, ……………, 45,47, 49
जहाँ a = 1, d = 3 – 1 = 2, a_n = 49
∵ a_n = a + (n – 1) × d
⇒ 49 = 1 + (n – 1) × 2
⇒ 49 = 1 + 2n – 2 = 2n – 1
⇒ 2n = 49 + 1 = 50 ⇒ n = \(\frac { 50 }{ 2 } \) = 25
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[a + an]
⇒ S_n = \(\frac { 25 }{ 2 } \) (1 + 49) = \(\frac { 25 }{ 2 } \) × 50 = 25 × 25 = 625
अत: 0 और 50 के बीच सभी विषम संख्याओं का योग 625 है।

प्रश्न 15.
निर्माण कार्य से सम्बन्धित किसी ठेके में, एक निश्चित तिथि के बाद कार्य को विलम्ब से पूरा करने के लिए जुर्माना लगाने का प्रावधान इस प्रकार हैं : पहले दिन के लिए ₹200, दूसरे दिन के लिए ₹ 250, तीसरे दिन के लिए ₹300 इत्यादि अर्थात् प्रत्येक उत्तरोत्तर दिन का जुर्माना अपने से ठीक पहले दिन के जुर्माने से ₹50 अधिक है। एक ठेकेदार को जुर्माने के रूप में कितनी राशि अदा करनी पड़ेगी यदि वह इस कार्य में 30 दिन का विलम्ब कर देता है ?
हल:
जुर्माने की राशि प्रतिदिन क्रमशः ₹200, ₹250, ₹300 ……….. है, जो एक AP का निर्माण करती है।
जहाँ a = ₹ 200, d = ₹ 250 – ₹ 200 = ₹ 50 एवं n = 30 दिन।
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ S₃₀ = \(\frac { 30 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 200 + (30 – 1) × 50]
= 15 [400 + 1500 – 50]
= 15 [1900 – 50] = 15 × 1850
= ₹27750
अतः जुर्माने के रूप में कुल ₹ 27,750 राशि अदा करनी पड़ेगी।

प्रश्न 16.
किसी स्कूल के विद्यार्थियों के उनके समग्र शैक्षिक प्रदर्शन के लिए 7 पुरस्कार देने के लिए ₹ 700 की राशि रखी गयी है। यदि प्रत्येक पुरस्कार अपने से ठीक पहले पुरस्कार से ₹ 20 कम है, तो प्रत्येक पुरस्कार का मान ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
मान लीजिए प्रथम पुरस्कार ₹ a है तथा d = – ₹ 20, n = 7 एवं S7 = ₹ 700 (दिए हैं)
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ 700 = \(\frac { 7 }{ 2 } \) [2 × a + (7 – 1) × (- 20)]
⇒ 1400 = 7[2a – 120]
⇒ 1400 = 14a – 840
⇒ 14a = 1400 + 840 = 2240
⇒ a = \(\frac { 2240 }{ 14 } \) = 160
a₂ = 160 – 20 = 140, a₃ = 140 – 20 = 120, a₄ = 120 – 20 = 100, a₅ = 100 – 20 = 80, a₆ = 80 – 20 = 60 एवं a₇ = 60 – 20 = 40
अत: अभीष्ट पुरस्कार क्रमशः ₹ 160, ₹140, ₹ 120, ₹100, ₹ 80, ₹60 एवं ₹40 है।

प्रश्न 17.
एक स्कूल के विद्यार्थियों ने वायु प्रदूषण कम करने के लिए स्कूल के अन्दर और बाहर पेड़ लगाने के बारे में सोचा। यह निर्णय लिया गया कि प्रत्येक कक्षा का प्रत्येक अनुभाग अपनी कक्षा की संख्या के बराबर पेड़ लगाएगा। उदाहरणार्थ कक्षा I का एक अनुभाग पेड़ लगाएगा, कक्षा II का एक अनुभाग 2 पेड़ लगाएगा, कक्षा II का एक अनुभाग 3 पेड़ लगाएगा इत्यादि और ऐसा कक्षा XII तक के लिए चलता रहेगा। प्रत्येक कक्षा के तीन अनुभाग हैं। इस स्कूल के विद्यार्थियों द्वारा लगाए गए कल पेड़ों की संख्या कितनी होगी?
हल:
चूँकि प्रत्येक कक्षा के तीन-तीन अनुभाग हैं। इसलिए कक्षा I द्वारा 1 × 3 = 3 पेड़, कक्षा II द्वारा 2 × 3 = 6 पेड़, कक्षा III द्वारा 3 × 3 = 9 पैड़ इसी प्रकार कक्षा XII द्वारा 12 × 3 = 36 पेड़ लगाए जाएंगे। इस प्रकार 3, 6, 9, ……………, 36 एक AP का निर्माण करते हैं, जहाँ a = 3, d = 6 – 3 – 3 एवं n = 12.
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ S₁₂ = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 3 + (12 – 1) × 3]
= 6 [6 + 33] = 6 × 39 = 234
अतः विद्यार्थियों द्वारा लगाए गए कुल पेड़ों की अभीष्ट संख्या = 234 होगी।

प्रश्न 18.
केन्द्र A से आरम्भ करते हुए बारी-बारी से केन्द्रों A और B को लेते हुए, त्रिज्याओं 0.5 cm, 1.0 cm, 1.5 cm, 2.0 cm, …………. वाले उत्तरोत्तर अर्द्धवृत्तों को खींचकर एक सर्पिल (Spiral) बनाया गया है जैसा कि संलग्न आकृति 5.1 में दर्शाया गया है। तेरह क्रमागत अर्द्धवृत्तों से बने इस सर्पिल की कुल लम्बाई क्या है? (π = \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 } \) लीजिए।)

हल:
मान लीजिए l₁, l₂, l₃, ………. क्रमशः A, B,
A, ………… केन्द्रों वाले अर्धवृत्तों की लम्बाईयाँ हैं, तो
l₁ = 0.5 π cm, l₂ = 1:0 π cm, l₃ = 1.5 π cm
इस प्रकार l₁, l₂, l₃, …………… अर्थात्
0.5 π, 1.0 π, 1.5 π, …………… 13 पद एक AP का निर्माण करते हैं।
जहाँ a = 0.5 π, d = 1.0 π – 0.5 π= 0.5 π एवं n = 13.
चूँकि S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ S₁₃ = \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 0.5 π + (13 – 1) × 0.5 π]
= \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) [1.0 π + 6.0 π] = \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) × 7.0 π
= \(\frac { 13 }{ 2 } \) × 7.0 × \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 } \) = 143 cm
अतः अभीष्ट सर्पिल की कुल लम्बाई = 143 cm है।

प्रश्न 19.
200 लट्ठों (logs) को ढेरी के रूप में इस प्रकार रखा जाता है कि सबसे नीचे वाली पंक्ति में 20 लट्टे, उससे अगली पंक्ति में 19 लट्टे उससे अगली पंक्ति में 18 लट्टे इत्यादि (देखिए संलग्न आकृति 5.2)। ये 200 लट्टे कितनी पंक्तियों में रखे गये हैं तथा सबसे ऊपरी पंक्ति में कितने लट्ठे हैं?

हल:
पंक्तियों में लट्ठों की संख्याएँ एक AP का निर्माण करती हैं, जहाँ a = 20, d = 19 – 20 = – 1 एवं S_n = 200, दिया है।
∵ S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ 200 = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2 × 20 + (n – 1) × (-1)]
⇒ 400 = n(40 – n + 1)
⇒ 400 = 41n – n²
⇒ n² – 41n + 400 = 0
⇒ n² – 25n – 16n + 400 = 0
⇒ n(n – 25) – 16(n – 25) = 0
⇒ (n – 25) (n – 16) = 0
या तो n – 25 = 0 तब n = 25
तब a₂₅ = 20 + (25 – 1) (-1) = 20 – 24 = – 4
अतः सबसे ऊपरी पंक्ति में -4 लट्टे होते हैं, जो असम्भव है, इसलिए n – 16 = 0 एवं n = 16
तथा a₁₆ = 20 + (16 – 1) (-1) = 20 – 15 = 5 लट्टे
अत: कुल पंक्तियाँ 16 हैं तथा सबसे ऊपरी पंक्ति में 5 लट्टे हैं।

प्रश्न 20.
एक आलू दौड़ (Potato race) में प्रारम्भिक स्थान पर एक बाल्टी रखी हुई है, जो पहले आलू से 5 m की दूरी पर है तथा अन्य आलुओं को एक सीधी रेखा में परस्पर 3 m की दूरियों पर रखा गया है। इस रेखा पर 10 आलू रखे गए हैं। (देखिए संलग्न आकृति 5.3)

प्रत्येक प्रतियोगी बाल्टी से चलना प्रारम्भ करती है, निकटतम आलू को उठाती है, उसे लेकर वापस आकर दौड़ कर बाल्टी में डालती है, दूसरा आलू उठाने के लिए वापस दौड़ती है, उसे उठाकर वापस बाल्टी में डालती है और वह ऐसा तब तक करती रहती है जब तक सभी आलू बाल्टी में न आ जाएँ। इसमें प्रतियोगी को कुल कितनी दूरी दौड़नी पड़ेगी?
हल:
पहले आलू को उठाकर बाल्टी में डालने तक दौड़ी गई दूरी a₁ = 2 × 5 = 10 m = a
दूसरे आलू को उठाकर बाल्टी में डालने तक दौड़ी गई दूरी a₂ = 2 × (5 + 3)= 2 × 8 = 16 m
तीसरे आलू को उठाकर बाल्टी में डालने तक दौड़ी गई दूरी a₃ = 2 × (8 + 3) = 2 × 11 = 22 m
इस प्रकार दौड़ी गई दूरियाँ क्रमशः 10 m, 16 m, 22 m, ……………… एक AP का निर्माण करती हैं।
जहाँ a = 10 m, d = (16 m – 10 m) = 6 m एवं n = 10
चूँकि S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1) × d]
⇒ S₁₀ = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 10 + (10 – 1) × 6]
= 5 [20 + 54]
= 5 × 74 = 370 m
अतः प्रत्येक प्रतियोगी को कुल 370 m दूरी दौड़नी पड़ेगी।

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

The p-Block Elements Important Questions

The p-Block Elements Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
In which compound oxygen exhibits +2 oxidation state :
(a) H₂O
(b) Na₂O
(c) OF₂
(d) MgO.
Answer:
(c) OF₂

Question 2.
Reddish brown gas is formed, when nitric oxide oxidizes by air. This gas is :
(a) Na₂O₂
(b) Na₂O₄
(c) NO₂
(d) N₂O₃.
Answer:
(c) NO₂

Question 3.
H₃PO₃ is :
(a) Dibasic acid
(b) Monobasic acid
(c) Tribasic acid
(d) Tetrabasic acid.
Answer:
(c) Tribasic acid

Question 4.
Oxide which shows paramagnetic character :
(a) N₂O₄
(b) NO₄
(C) P₄O₆
(d) N₂O₅
Answer:
(b) NO₄

Question 5.
Ammonia can be dried by :
(a) H₂SO₄
(b) P₂O₅
(c) Anhydrous CaCl₂
(d) CaO.
Answer:
(d) CaO.

Question 6.
Nitric acid change iodine into :
(a) Iodic acid
(b) Hydroiodic acid
(c) Iodine pentaoxide
(d) Iodine nitrate.
Answer:
(a) Iodic acid

Question 7.
NH₃ is a Lewis base which forms complex salt with cations. Following cation does not form complex salt with NH₃ :
(a) Ag⁺
(b) Cu2⁺
(c) Cd2⁺
(d) Pb2⁺.
Answer:
(d) Pb2⁺.

Question 8.
Ammonia is soluble in :
(a) Hg₂Cl₂
(b) PbCl₂
(c) Agl
(d) Cu(OH)₂.
Answer:
(d) Cu(OH)₂.

Question 9.
Bleaching action of SO₂ is due to :
(a) Reduction
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Acidic nature.
Answer:
(a) Reduction

Question 10.
What happens when SO₂ is passed through acidic K₂Cr₂O₇ :
(a) Solution turns blue
(b) Solution turns colourless
(c) SO₂ reduced
(d) Green chromic sulphate is formed.
Answer:
(d) Green chromic sulphate is formed.

Question 11.
P₂O₂ forms which of the following acid :
(a) H₄P₂O₇
(b) H₃PO₄
(c) H₃PO₃
(d) HPO₃.
Answer:
(c) H₃PO₃

Question 12.
Most acidic halide is :
(a) PCl₅
(b) SbCl₃
(c) BrCl₃
(d) CCl₄
Answer:
(a) PCl₅

Question 13.
The catalyst used in manufacturing of H₂SO₄ is :
(a) Al₂O₃
(b) CrO₃
(c) V₂O₅
(d) MnO₂
Answer:
(c) V₂O₅

Question 14.
The hydrolysis of phosphorus triha lides give:
(a) One monobasjc acid and one dibasic acid
(b) One monobasjc acid and one tribasic acid
(c) One monobasjc acid and a salt
(d) Two dibasic acids.
Answer:
(a) One monobasjc acid and one dibasic acid

Question 15.
In the following reaction:
P₄ + 3NaOH + 3H₂O → PH₃ + 3NaH₂ PO₂
(a) P oxidises
(b) P oxidises and reduces
(c) P reduces
(d) Na oxidises.
Answer:
(b) P oxidises and reduces

Question 16.
Laughing gas is:
(a) NO
(b) N₂O
(c) N₂O₃
(d) N₂O₅.
Answer:
(b) N₂O

Question 17.
White phosphorus does not contain:
(a) 6 P – P single bond
(b) 4 P – p single bond
(c) 4 lone pair of electron
(d) Bond angle of P – P – P is 600.
Answer:
(b) 4 P – p single bond

Question 18.
On heating NH₄CI and NaNO₂ solution gives :
(a) N₂O
(b) N₂
(c) NO₂
(d) NH₃.
Answer:
(b) N₂

Question 19.
Formula of metaphosphoric acid is:
(a) H₃PO₃
(b) HPO₃
(c) H₃PO₃
(d) H₂PO₃.
Answer:
(b) HPO₃

Question 20.
Gas which cannot be collected on water:
(a) Na
(b) O₂
(c) SO₃
(d) PH₃.
Answer:
(c) SO₃

(B) Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Chlorine shows bleaching property in the presence of :
(a) Dry air
(b) Moisture
(c) Sunlight
(d) Pure oxygen.
Answer:
(b) Moisture

Question 2.
Which of the following element forms least number of compounds :
(a) He
(b) Ar
(c) Kr
(d) Xe.
Answer:
(a) He

Question 3.
Which is used for bright advertisement display :
(a) Xe
(b) Ar
(c) Ne
(d) He.
Answer:
(c) Ne

Question 4.
Monazite is a source of:
(a) Ne
(b) Ar
(c) Kr
(d) He.
Answer:
(d) He.

Question 5.
Which of the following is not obtained by the direct reactions of the constituents :
(a) XeF₂
(b) XeF₄
(c) XeO₃
(d) XeF₆.
Answer:
(d) PbI₄.

Question 6.
Which of the following halides are least stable and whose existence is suspicious :
(a) CI₄
(b) Gel₂
(c) Snl₄
(d) PbI₄.
Answer:
(d) PbI₄.

Question 7.
Which of the following is the strongest acid :
(a) HBr
(b) HCl
(c) HF
(d) HI.
Answer:
(d) HI.

Question 8.
Most electronegative element is :
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Br
(d) I.
Answer:
(a) F

Question 9.
Which halogen is solid at room temperature :
(a) Cl₂
(b) I₂
(c) Br₂
(d) F₂.
Answer:
(d) F₂.

Question 10.
Which has maximum electron affinity :
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Br
(d) I.
Answer:
(b) Cl

Question 11.
Electronic configuration of valence shell of halogen is :
(a) s²p⁵
(b) s²p³
(c) s²p⁶
(d) s²p⁴.
Answer:
(a) s²p⁵

Question 12.
Which element is most alkaline:
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Br
(d) I.
Answer:
(d) I.

Question 13.
The strongest reducing agent is:
(a) F^–
(b) Br^–
(c) I^–
(d) Cl^–
Answer:
(c) I^–

Question 14.
Which of the following is weakest acid:
(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI.
Answer:
(a) HF

Question 15.
Oxidizing property is highest of:
(a) 12
(b) Br₂
(c) F₂
(d) Cl₂.
Answer:
(c) F₂

Question 16.
Which Noble gas does not have octet complete:
(a) Helium
(b) Neon
(c) Argon
(d) Krypton.
Answer:
(a) Helium

Question 17.
Which Halogen sublimates :
(a) Chlorine
(b) Bromine
(c) Iodine
(d) Fluorine.
Answer:

Question 18.
12 easily dissolve in Kl solution to form :
(a) I
(b) KI₂
(c) KI
(d) KI₃
Answer:
(d) KI₃

Question 19.
Gas mixed in oxygen which is used in respiration for asthma patients :
(a) N₂
(b) Cl₂
(c) He
(d) Ne.
Answer:
(c) He

Question 20.
Deacon’s process is used for manufacture of :
(a) Bleaching powder
(b) Chlorine
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Sulphuric acid.
Answer:
(b) Chlorine

Question 21.
Sea grass is the source of industrial manufacture of :
(a) Chlorine
(b) Bromine
(c) Iodine
(d) Fluorine.
Answer:
(c) Iodine

Question 2.
(A) Fill in the blanks :

1. N₂O is a ……………….. oxide.
2. Formula of Caro’s acid is ………………..
3. Concentrated nitric acid has brown colour due to the dissolution of ……………….. gas.
4. Out of nitrogen oxides ……………….. and ……………….. are paramagnetic.
5. Pyrophosphoric acid is ……………….. basic acid.
6. H₂S gas cannot be dried by cone. H₂SO₄ because H₂S ……………….. it.
7. Fuming sulphuric acid dissolves in SO₃ to form ………………..
8. Oxidation state of S in H₂S₂O₈ (Marshall gas) is ………………..
9. NH₃ gives white fumes of ……………….. when it combines with HCl.
10. Elements of 16^th group are known as ………………..
11. ……………….. is used as a refrigerant.

Answer:

1. Neutral
2. H₂SO₅
3. NO₂
4. NO
5. NO₂
6. Tetra
7. Reduces
8. Oleum
9. +6
10. NH₄Cl
11. Chalcogen
12. Liquid NH₃.

(B) Fill in the blanks :

1. …………………. has the highest electron affinity.
2. In the presence of moisture, chlorine acts as a ………………… agent.
3. Bleaching powder is also called as …………………
4. At ordinaiy temperature bromine is a …………………
5. Inter halogen compound AX₅ has ………………… structure.
6. Chlorine was discovered by …………………
7. Neil Bertlett forms first noble compound which is …………………
8. Element with highest electron affinity is …………………
9. In oxy acid halogen present in ………………… hybride state.
10. Gas which is light due to which it is filled in aircraft tyres is …………………
11. ………………… inert gas is mostly used in advertisements.
12. Elements of Group 17^th are commonly known as …………………
13. ………………… is a radioactive inert gas.

Answer:

1. Chlorine
2. Bleaching
3. Calcium chlorohypochloride
4. Liquid
5. Square pyramidal
6. Scheele
7. Xe [PtF₆]
8. Chlorine,
9. sp³
10. Helium
11. Ne (Neon)
12. Halogen
13. Radon.

Question 3.
(A) Answer in one word / sentence :

1. Who protects earth from ultraviolet rays?
2. Give the chemical name of oil of vitriol or king of chemical.
3. Which gas is used for refrigeration?
4. At which temperature water has maximum density?
5. Give the name of compound formed by the dissolution of S03 in sulphuric acid.
6. Write name of an antichlor.
7. Which gas is used for bleaching of oil and elephant teeth?
8. Ammonium salts react with Nessler’s reagent to give which coloured precipitate?
9. On moving down from N to Bi, +3 oxidation state of Bi becomes more stable than +5. Why?
10. State the percentage of N₂ by volume in nature.

Answer:

1. Ozone layer
2. H²SO⁴
3. NH₃
4. 4°C
5. Oleum
6. SO₃
7. Ozone
8. Brown
9. Due to Inert pair effect
10. 80%.

(B) Answer in one word / sentence :

1. Give the name of radioactive halogen.
2. Which noble gas is used in bulb with nitrogen? (MP 2018)
3. Write the name of noble gas which is used in treatment of cancer.
4. Write the formula of Camalite.
5. Which noble gas is maximum available in the atmosphere?
6. What is the shape of XeF₆?
7. Write one use of fluorine.
8. Which type of hybridization is present in XeO₃?
9. Write the oxidation state of F.
10. Write only equation for the preparation of chlorine in the lab.
11. What is the shape of AX₃ type of Interhalogen compound?
12. Write the correct order of strength of halogen acid.
13. Which noble gases do not form compounds?
14. With which noble gas does F form compounds?
15. Sea weeds are the source of which halogen?

Answer:

1. Astatine
2. Ar
3. Rn
4. KCl.MgCl₂.6H₂O
5. Argon
6. Distorted octahedron
7. In preparing fluorocarbon, which is used in refrigeration
8. sp³
9. -1
10. MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂
11. T – shape
12. HF < HCl < HBr < HI
13. He, Ne and Ar
14. Xe
15. Iodine.

Question 4.
Match the following :
I.

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (f)
6. (g)
7. (e)
8. (i)
9. (j)
10. (h).

II.

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

III.

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (f)
5. (c)
6. (a)

General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are clathrate compounds?
Answer:
In the cavity or space of crystal lattice of a compound small sized elements like noble gases get trapped within. Such compounds are called clathrate compounds.
Example : Kr₃ (β – quinol).

Question 2.
Why is BiH₃ the strongest reducing agent amongst all the hydrides of Group 15 elements? (NCERT)
Answer:
Among the hydrides of Group – 15, BiH₃ is the least stable because Bi has largest size in group and has least tendency to form covalent bond with small hydrogen atom. Therefore, it can readily lost H atom and has strongest tendency to act as reducing agent.

Question 3.
Why is N₂ less reactive at room temperature? (NCERT)
Answer:
In N₂ molecule, there is a strong pπ – pπ overlap that results in the formation of triple bond between N atoms (N ≡ N). As a consequence, the bond dissociation energy of N₂ is very high and N₂ is less reactive at room temperature.

Question 4.
Why is Helium used in diving apparatus? (NCERT)
Answer:
Helium is used as a diluent for oxygen is modem diving apparatus because of its very low solubility in blood.

Question 5.
Noble gases are inert. Why?
Answer:
Noble gases are inert due to following reasons :
Noble gases are inert because octet of these gases are complete. It is the most stable state and do not have unpaired electrons. Ionisation energy of noble gases are high and electronegativity and electron affinity are zero. Therefore, these gases neither accept electron nor release electron. Thus, noble gases are inert in nature.

Question 6.
Complete the following reactions: (NCERT)
(i) C₂H₂ + O2 →
(ii) 4AI + 3O₂ →
Answer:

Question 7.
Arrange the following in the order of property indicated for each set: (NCERT)
(i) F₂, Cl₂, Br₂,I₂ – increasing bond dissociation enthalpy.
(ii) HF, HCl, HBr, HI – increasing acid strength.
(iii) NH₃, PH₃, ASH₃, SbH₃, BiH₃ – increasing base strength.
Answer:
(i) I₂ < F₂ < Br₂ < Cl₂

Here F₂ has very less bond dissociation energy inspite of having small size. It is due to repulsion between the lone pair of electrons on small size F – atoms.

(ii) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
It depends upon their bond dissociation enthalpy, which decreases from H – F to H – I as the size of atom increases from F to I.

(iii) BiH₃ < SbH₃ < AsH₃ < PH₃ < NH₃.
They are Lewis bases due to presence of lone pair of electrons on central atom of hydrides. The availability of lone pair of electrons is maximum in nitrogen owing to its small size therefore, NH₃ is maximum basic and as the size of central atom increases availability decreases.

Question 8.
Describe the laboratory preparation of chlorine.
Answer:
Laboratory preparation:
HCl and MnO₂ is taken in a round bottom flask. Cone. HCl is added from thistle funnel. The flask is heated slowly so that green yellow colour of Cl₂ gas evolved.
MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂

Question 9.
Fluorine is strong oxidizing agent as compared to chlorine. Why?
Answer:
Because of following points, fluorine is strong oxidizing agent:

1. The size of F atom is smaller than Cl atom.
2. Electronegativity of fluorine is higher than Cl atom.
3. Dissociation energy of fluorine is less than that of chlorine.
4. E° value of fluorine is more than chlorine.

Question 10.
F₂O is not considered to be the oxide of fluorine. Why?
Answer:
Fluorine is the most electronegative element. Its electronegativity is higher than oxygen. In naming a compound less electronegative elements are first and then more electronegative elements are written, Therefore, F₂O or OF₂ is known as oxygen difluoride and not fluorine oxide.

Question 11.
Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogen. Why?
Answer:
X – Y bonds of interhalogen compounds are more polar due to difference in the electronegativities of halogen and are generally weaker than X – Y bonds of pure halogen. Therefore, interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens.

Question 12.
Helium and Neon do not form compounds with Fluorine. Why?
Answer:
Due to absence of d – orbitals in the valence shell of He and Ne, their electrons cannot get excited into higher energy d – sub – shells. Therefore, He and Ne do not form compounds with fluorine.

Question 13.
Explain why NH₃ is basic while BiH₃ is only feebly basic. (NCERT)
Answer:
Atomic size of N(70pm) is much smaller than that of Bi (148 pm). Therefore, electron density on the N – atom is much higher than that on Bi – atom. Consequently, the tendency of N in NH₃ to donate the pair of electrons is much higher than that of Bi in BiH₃. Thus, NH₃ is basic while BiH₃ is only feebly basic.

The p – Block Elements Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain with reason :

1. HF is liquid while other hydrides of halogens are gases at normal temperature.
2. Fluorine does not form polyhalide.

Answer:
1. The electronegativity of fluorine is maximum than other halogens. Therefore, HF molecule is conjugated by H – bond and the boiling point of HF is more to other halogen acids therefore HF is liquid while halides of other halogens are gases at room temperature.
H – z….H – F….H – F….H – F

2. The electronic configuration of fluorine is 1s², 2s², 2p⁵. Due to absence of orbital in its valency shell it does not show higher oxidation state and so it does not made polyhalide.

Question 2.
How is SO₂ an air pollutant? (NCERT)
Answer:
SO₂ dissolves in rain water and produces acid rain. The acid rain contains sulphuric acid.

In addition to H₂SO₄, acid rain also contains HNO₃.

Question 3.
Why are halogens strong oxidising agents? (MP 2018, NCERT)
Answer:
Halogens are strong oxidising agents due to their low bond dissociation enthalpy, high electronegativity and large negative electron gain enthalpy. Halogens have a strong tendency to accept electrons and thus get reduced.
X₂ + 2e^– → 2X^–
As a result, halogen acts as strong oxidising agents. Their oxidising power however decreases from F₂ to I₂ as is evident from their electrode potentials :
E°_F2/F^– = + 2.87 V
E°_Cl2/Cl^– = + 1.09 V
E°_Br2/Br = +1.09 V
E°_Br2/I = + 0.54 V

Question 4.
Why does the reactivity of nitrogen differ from phosphorus? (NCERT)
Answer:
Molecular nitrogen exist as a diatomic molecule having a triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms, N ≡ N (due to it stability to form pπ – pπ multiple bonding). The bond dissociation energy is very high (941.4 kJ mol^-1). Thus, under ordinary conditions, nitrogen behaves as an inert gas. On the other hand, white and yellow phosphorus exists as a triatomic molecule (P₄) having single bonds. The dissociation energy of P – P bond is low (213 kJ mol^-1). Thus, phosphorus is much more reactive than nitrogen.

Question 5.
Give the reason for bleaching action of Cl₂. (NCERT)
Answer:
Bleaching action of chlorine is due to its oxidation. In the presence of moisture, chlorine gives nascent oxygen.
Cl₂ + H₂O → 2HCl + [O]
Because of nascent oxygen, it bleaches colouring substance as
Colouring substance + [O] → Colourless substance.
It bleaches vegetables or organic matter. The bleaching action of chlorine is permanent.

Question 6.
Explain, why:

1. Noble gases are monoatomic?
2. Atomic radii of noble gases are largest?
3. Ionisation energy of noble gases are highest?

Answer:

1. There is no any unpaired electron in electronic configuration of noble gases. So these do not form chemical bonds and are monoatomic.
2. Outermost shell of noble gases are completely filled so atomic radii of noble gases are maximum.
3. All electrons in outermost orbit of noble gases are paired and energy required to make them unpaired is very high. Thus, noble gases have maximum ionisation energy in respective periods.

Question 7.
Why does nitrogen show catenation properties less than phosphorus? (NCERT)
Answer:
The catenation properties depends upon the strength of the element – element bond. The N – N bond strength is much weaker (due to repulsion of lone pairs on nitrogen because of its small size) than the P – P bond strength, therefore, nitrogen shows catenation less than phosphorus.

Question 8.
Write the formulae and structure of any five oxy – acids of sulphur.
Answer:
Main oxyacids of sulphur and oxidation state of sulphur in them are as follows :

Question 9.
Contact process of manufacturing of H₂SO₄ is supposed to be more advance than lead chamber process. Why?
Answer:

1. The acid obtained by contact process is pure while the acid obtained by lead chamber process is impure.
2. The plant for lead chamber process requires large area while plant used in contact process occupies comparatively less area.
3. The catalyst used in contact process is platinised asbestos while in lead chamber process catalyst is gaseous (NO₂ gas) and to maintain its flow regular is tedious.
4. In contact process concentrated sulphuric acid is obtained while in lead chamber process dilute acid is obtained.
5. In contact process running of the plant is less costly while in lead chamber process running of the plant is costly.

Question 10.
Why does NH₃ form hydrogen bond but PH₃ does not? (NCERT)
Answer:
The N – H bond in ammonia is quite polar as nitrogen is highly electronegative in nature. As a result, NH₃ molecules are linked by intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

On the other hand, P – H bond is non – polar as both P and H have same electronegativity. Hence in phosphine no hydrogen bonding is present.

Question 11.
Bond angle in PH₄⁺ is higher than that in PH₃. Why? (NCERT)
Answer:
PH₄⁺ is a regular tetrahedral structure, thus bond angle is 109°28′.
PH₃ molecule has a pyramidal structure. The bond angle is 93°. Hence, bond angle in PH₄⁺ ion is higher.

Question 12.
What happens when white phosphorus is heated with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO₂? (NCERT)
Answer:
When white phosphorus is heated with cone. NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO₂, phosphine gas is prepared.

Question 13.
What happens when PCl₅ is heated? (NCERT)
Answer:
PCl₅ has three equatorial and two axial bonds. Since axial bonds are weaker than equatorial bonds, therefore, when PCl₅ is heated, the less stable axial bond breaks to form PCl₃.

When heated, it sublimes but decomposes on stronger heated.

Question 14.
How are Xenon fluorides XeF₂, XeF₂ and XeF₆ prepared?
Answer:
Xenon Fluorides:
Three fluorides of xenon are important. These are xenon difluoride (XeF₂), xenon tetrafluoride (XeF₄) and xenon hexafluoride (XeF₆).The fluorides of xenon can be prepared by the direct combination between xenon and fluorine under different conditions.

Question 15.
Write the difference between the bleaching action of SO₂ and Cl₂.
Or,
Bleaching of flowers by Cl₂ is permanent while bleaching by SO₂ is temporary, why?
Answer:
Bleaching action of SO₂:
Bleaching by SO₂ is due to the process of reduction in the presence of moisture.
SO₂ + 2H₂O →H₂SO₄ + 2 [H] (nascent)
The nascent hydrogen liberated in the reaction is responsible for bleaching flower but when the flower comes in contact with air. It gets oxidized and become coloured.
Coloured substance + [H] → Colourless \(\underrightarrow { air }\)Colour

Bleaching action of Cl₂:
Bleaching by Cl₂ is due to the process of oxidation in the presence of moisture.
Cl₂ + H₂O → 2HCl + [O ] (nascent)
Coloured substance + [O] > Colourless
The oxygen liberated in the reaction is responsible for bleaching, colour bleached by Cl₂ is permanent and original colour cannot be restored on exposure to air.

Question 16.
Write main differences between the properties of white phosphorus and red pljosfrtiorus. (NCERT)
Answer:
Comparison of properties of White and Red phosphorus :

Question 17.
Give equations for the reaction of chlorine with the following :

1. NH₃
2. NaOH
3. H₂O
4. Bleaching property.

Answer:
Reaction of chlorine :

1. With NH₃ :
(a) Cl₂ reacts with excess of NH₃ and form NH₄Cl and N₂.

(b) When chlorine is taken in excess, an explosive product nitrogen trichloride is formed.
NH₃ +3C₁₂ → NC₁₃ +3HCl

2. With NaOH :
(a) Cold and dilute NaOH reacts with Cl₂ and form chloride and hypochlorite.
Cl₂ + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaClO + H₂O

(b) Hot and concentrated caustic soda reacts with Cl₂ and form chloride and chlorate.
3Cl₂ + 6NaOH → NaC1O₃ + 5NaCl + 3H₂O

3. With H₂O :
Cl₂ reacts with water and form chlorine water which is called hypochlorous acid which decomposes into HCl.

4. Bleaching action:
In presence of moisture chlorine bleaches coloured object and vegetables. It decolourises the coloured substance. This property is due to oxidation.

Thus, bleaching by chlorine is a permanent process.

Question 18.
Give reason :

1. Iodine exhibits some metallic property.
2. Halogens are strongly oxidizing, Why? (MP 2018)

Answer:
1. Ionization energy of iodine is small so it gives out one electron from its valence shell. In some reaction Iodine gives I⁺ ion so it has some metallic property.
I → I⁺ + e^–

2. Halogens are only one electron short to complete their octet and attaining stable structure. So halogens have strong tendency to accept electron. Thus, halogens are strong oxidising agents because of accepting electrons in reduction, oxidising power of halogens decreases from fluorine to iodine.
F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂

The p-Block Elements Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are interhalogen compounds? How many types are they? Give one example of each type with structure.
Or,
Explain hybridization in ABS and AB? type of interhalogen compounds and draw their structures.
Answer:
Because of difference in the electronegativity value of halogen member it is possible to combine to form compound. When two different halogen combine together to form binary compound, then it is known as interhalogen compound. There are four types of interhalogen compound, which has general formula XY_n, where n = 1, 3, 5 or 7.

Structure of interhalogen compound:
1. AB Type :
Like ClF, BrCl, IBr, ICl. Their geometry is linear. In the ground state electronic configuration of chlorine it is clearly observed that there is one unpaired electron which forms covalent bond with other halogen atom.

2. AB₃ Type :
It is T – shaped. Like ClF₃molecule, Its central atom X shows sp³ hybridization.

3. AB₅ (IF₅ ,BrF₅ )TyPe :
These type of compounds show sp³ d² hybridization. Then structure is square pyramidal in which there is lone pair of electron at one place. Like in the figure formation of IF₅ molecule is shown.

4. AB₇(IF₇) Type :
Its geometry is pentagonal bipyramidal which is formed by sp³d² hybridization. Hybridization in IF7 molecule is sp³d³.

Question 2.
Write the uses of Noble gases.
Answer:
Uses of Noble Gases :
Uses of Helium :

1. It is used in filling air ships and balloons for weather study as it is light and non – inflammable.
2. Helium is used in research work for maintaining very low temperatures.
3. It is used in producing inert atmosphere, for food preservation and as filler in electric transformer.
4. Sea divers use mixture of helium and oxygen for deep sea diving.

This is due to the fact that under high pressure helium is less soluble in blood as compared to nitrogen. If for breathing in deep sea diving air is used then more nitrogen will dissolve in blood under pressure and when the diver comes back at the surface of the sea, the solubility of nitrogen in blood decreases due to decrease in pressure and changes into nitrogen bubbles. This causes severe pain in diver’s body. It may also cause blisters and vomiting.

Uses of Neon:
Neon lights are used for commercial advertisements. It consists of a long tube fitted with electrodes at both ends. On filling the tube with neon gas and passing electric discharge of about 1000 volt potential, a bright red light is produced. Different colours can be obtained by mixing neon with other gases. For producing blue or green light neon is mixed with mercury vapours.

Uses of Argon:

1. Like helium, it is also used to create inert atmosphere in welding of aluminium and stainless steel.
2. It is filled in electric bulbs along with 25% nitrogen.
3. It is also used in radio valves.
4. Argon alone or its mixture with neon is used in tubes for producing lights of different colours.

Uses of Krypton and Xenon:

1. They are also used in electric bulbs in place of argon, but they are costly.
2. Both are used in flash photography.
3. Krypton is mainly used in producing fluorescence, incandescence and electric lights.
4. Krypton lamp is used as indicator at aeroplane terminals for landing of the aeroplane.

Uses of Radon:

1. In treatment of malignant growths (cancer) and non – healing wounds. Also, used in researches associated with radioactivity.
2. Used as a substitute for X – rays in radiology.
3. Radon is soluble in fatty compounds and recently a radon containing ointment has been manufactured for radiotherapy.

Question 3.
Explain manufacture of chlorine under the following heads :
Answer:

1. Labelled diagram of Nelson cell
2. Principle
3. Deacon’s process.

Answer:
1. Nelson cell:
In Nelson cell, graphite anode is suspended in a perforated cylindrical steel cathode provided with asbestos. Brine solution is taken in steel cathode. On electrolysis, chlorine gas is liberated at anode and is drawn off through the outlet at the top. Na reacts with H₂O at bottom to form NaOH and H₂. Hydrogen escapes through the exit.

2. Principle:
Nelson method or By electrolysis:
Chlorine is manufactured by electrolysis of NaCl solution, chlorine is obtained as by product.
NaCl ⇌ Na⁺ + Cl^–

At cathode : 2Na⁺ + 2e^– → 2Na
2Na⁺ + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂

At anode : cl⁺ + e^– → Cl
Cl + Cl → Cl₂

Deacon’s process:
Previously chlorine was manufactured by Deacon’s process. In this process, HCl gas is heated with oxygen at 450°C in presence of CuCl₂ catalyst.

Question 4.
Explain Siemen – Halskey ozonizer processor the manufacture of ozone and draw labelled diagram.
Answer:
For commercial production of ozone Siemen – Halskey ozonizer is used. It consists of an iron box fitted with 6 to 8 glass cylinders. Each cylinder is 3 ft high and 10″ in width. The box is divided into three compartments. Cold water flows through the central compartment for cooling. Each cylinder is fitted with an aluminium rod which are resting on insulating glass slab in the lower compartment.

There is annular space between rod and sides of cylinder. A current of air flows through this annular space. The aluminium rods are subjected to high potential of 8,000 to 10,000 volts. The air which enters at bottom escapes at the top and contains about 5% of ozone. If pure oxygen is used in place of oxygen then ozonized oxygen contains about 15% of ozone.

Question 5.
Explain the structures of XeF₂ and XeF₄.
Answer;
Structure of XeF₂:
In XeF₂ molecule Xe atom is in sp³d hybrid state hence, its structure is trigonal bipyramidal but its geometry is linear.

Structures of XeF₄:
XeF₄ formed under second excited state of Xe where two of sp – orbitals are unpaired and 4 unpaired electron develop. Being sp³d² hybridization involved, the structure is octahedral but due to presence of two lone pair of electron geometry molecules get distorted and becomes square planar.

Question 6.
Dtim labelled diagram of laboratory method of phosphine and give chemical emurfion.
Answer:
Phosphine is prepared in laboratory by heating white phosphorus with NaOH in an inert atmosphere of CO₂ and oil gas. Phosphine produced is highly inflammable due to the presence of phosphorus dehydride as impurity. Vapour of phosphine form vortex noing of smoke in contact with air. Alcoholic KOH can be used in place of NaOH.

Question 7.
Describe Brodie’s Ozonizer with diagram.
Answer:
It is U – shaped glass tube, consists Pt wire with dil. H₂SO₄. The whole apparatus is put into glass utensil, outer utensil also contain H₂SO₄ and Pt electrode. Dry O₂ is passed through U – tube under the influence of high electric discharge oxygen gets converted to ozonised oxygen, the outcoming gas contains 20% of ozone.

Question 8.
Give chemical reaction of ozone with

1. K₂MnO₄
2. I₂
3. Ag₂O
4. CH₂ ≡ CH₂ and (v) PbS.

Answer:
1. With K₂MnO₄ : Potassium permangnate is formed.
2K₂MnO₄ + H₂O + O₃ → 2KMnO₄ + 2KOH + O₂

2. With I₂ : Iodic acid is formed.
I₂ + H₂O + 50₃ → 2HIO₃ + 5O₂

3. With Ag₂O : Silver is formed.
Ag₂O + O₃ → 2Ag + 2O₂

4. With CH₂ = CH₂ : Ethene ozonide is formed.

5. With PbS : PbS04 is formed.
PbS + 4O₃ → PbSO₄ + 4O₂

Question 9.
Explain Ostwald’s process of manufacture of nitric acid drawing labelled diagram.
Answer:

Principle of Ostwald’s process:
The mixture of ammonia and air when passed over platinum gauze catalyst at 750 – 900°C, ammonia gets oxidized to nitric oxide.

The reaction is exothermic and the heat liberated maintains the temperature of the catalyst. The nitric oxide is then oxidised to nitrogen dioxide by air which is cooled to 50°C and absorbed by water to produce nitric acid.

Question 10.
Describe the manufacture of H₂SO₄ by contact process. (NCERT)
Answer:
Manufacture of sulphuric acid:
Sulphuric acid is prepared on large scale by contact process. The basic raw material used is either sulphur or iron pyrites.

Principle of contact process:
When pure and dry SO₂ mixed with air is passed over V₂O₅ catalyst it gets oxidised to SO₃ which is absorbed by H₂SO₄ to form oleum i.e,, H₂S₂O₇.
2SO₂ + O₂ → 2SO₃ + 45.2 cal
SO₃ + H₂SO₄ → H₂S₂O₇

Details of the process are given below :
(a) Sulphur or pyrite burners : SO₂ is produced by burning sulphur or roasting pyrites in pyrite burners.

(b) Purification unit: This unit is an assembly of various parts like.
(i) Dust chamber : SO₂ gas produced is passed through dust chamber through which steam is sprayed from top. Dust particles absorb moisture, become heavy and settle down.

(ii) Cooling pipes : Now, the gaseous mixture is passed through cooling pipes to lower the temperature to 100°C.

(iii) Washing tower or scrubbers : It is filled with quartz and showers of cold water continue from top. Dust particles as well as soluble impurities settle down and are removed.

(iv) Drying tower : It is a high tower full of quartz pieces. Cone. H₂SO₄ is sprayed from the top. Gases enter the tower from bottom and get dried in contact with cone. H₂SO₂.

(v) Arsenic purifier : It is filled with shelves containing freshly prepared ferric hydroxide which absorb the impurities of arsenic purified and dried.

(c) Testing box:
Before sending the gaseous mixture to contact chamber it is tested here. A strong beam of light is thrown into the testing box, if the gaseous mixture contains dust or any other particles they become visible, hence gaseous mixture is repurified. The completely pure gas is then sent to the contact chamber.

(d) Preheater:
Pure gas free from dust particle is heated in preheater to 450°C and then passed into contact tower, where SO₂ gets oxidized to SO₃. This reaction is exothermic due to which temperature of contact tower raises to 450°C. After this the pure gases are pumped directly into the contact tower.

(e) Contact tower:
It consists of a big iron container containing several pipes filled with vanadium pentoxide or platinized asbestos or any other suitable catalyst. Temperature is maintained at 450°C. Pure and dry SO₂ reacts with air in these pipes to form sulphur trioxide.

On account of exothermic nature of reaction, sufficient heat is available.

(f) Absorption tower:
The sulphur trioxide is then passed into a tower in which cone, sulphuric acid flows down in the form of spray. Sulphuric acid absorbs SO₃ and becomes more concentrated. This acid, due to excess of SO₃ produces a fog in the tower. The acid obtained is called fuming sulphuric acid or oleum.

Oleum is mixed with calculated quantity of water to form acid of a particular strength.
H₂S₂O₇ + H₂O → 2H₂SO₄
It may be noted that sulphur trioxide is not directly absorbed in water to form sulphuric acid because it forms a dense fog of sulphuric acid which does not condense easily.

Question 11.
Write formula, structure and oxidation state of any three oxy – acids of chlorine
Answer:

Structure:

Structure of HClO:
The central atom Cl in CIO ion of HCIO, forms four hybrid orbitals by sp3 hybridization. On three orbitals lone pair of electron is present and fourth orbital forms σ – bond by overlapping with d – orbital of oxygen atom. It’s structure is linear.

Structure of HClO₃ :

Structure of HClO₄ :
sp³ hybridization is found in it’s central atom Cl, hence structure of ClO₄ ion is tetrahedral.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry

Surface Chemistry Important Questions

Surface Chemistry Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
In the adsorption process of acetic acid on activated charcoal, acetic acid is :
(a) Adsorber
(b) Absorber
(c) Adsorbent
(d) Adsorbate.
Answer:
(d) Adsorbate.

Question 2.
Cause of stability of lyophobic sol is :
(a) Brownian movement
(b) Tyndall effect
(c) Electric charge
(d) Brownian movement and Electric charge
Answer:
(d) Brownian movement and Electric charge

Question 3.
In the coagulation of As₂S₃ colloidal solution value of whose coagulating power will be minimum :
(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) BaCl₂
(d) AlCl₃.
Answer:
(d) AlCl₃.

Question 4.
Adsorption process is :
(a) Endothermic
(b) Exothermic
(c) No heat change
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Exothermic

Question 5.
Size of colloidal particles in the range of:
(a) 10^-7 to 10^-9 cm
(b) 10^-9 to 10^-1 cm
(c) 10^-5 to 10^-7 cm
(d) 10^-2 to 10^-8 cm.
Answer:
(c) 10^-5 to 10^-7 cm

Question 6.
Which of the following is not used for the preparation of lyophilic colloid :
(a) Starch
(b) Gum
(c) Gelatin
(d) Metal sulphide.
Answer:
(d) Metal sulphide.

Question 7.
Sol which can act like a protective colloid :
(a) As₂S₃
(b) Gelatin
(c) Au
(d) Fe(OH)₃.
Answer:
(b) Gelatin

Question 8.
Fog is an example of colloidal system of:
(a) Liquid dispersed in gas
(b) Gas dispersed in gas
(c) Solid dispersed in gas
(d) Solid dispersed in liquid.
Answer:
(a) Liquid dispersed in gas

Question 9.
Gelatin is mostly used in making ice creams in order to :
(a) Prevent forming a colloidal sol.
(b) Enrich the fragrance
(c) Prevent crystallization and stabilize the mixture
(d) Modify the taste.
Answer:
(c) Prevent crystallization and stabilize the mixture

(a) Auto catalyst
(b) Poison
(c) Negative catalyst
(d) Positive catalyst.
Answer:
(b) Poison

Question 11.
The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of electric fields is :
(a) Cataphoresis
(b) Electrodialysis
(c) Electrophoresis
(d) Electrical dispersion.
Answer:
(c) Electrophoresis

Question 12.
Hardy – Schulze law is related with :
(a) Solution
(b) Coagulation
(c) Solids
(d) Gases.
Answer:
(b) Coagulation

Question 13.
How many phases are present in a colloidal solution :
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 14.
Which is an emulsion among the following :
(a) Air
(b)Wood
(c) Butter
Answer:
(d) Milk.

Question 15.
Butter is :
(a) A gel
(b) An emulsion
(c) A sol
(d) Not a form of colloid.
Answer:
(a) A gel

Question 16.
Sol which acts as protective colloid is :
(a) Gelatin
(b) Au
(c) As₂S₃
(d) Fe(OH)₃
Answer:
(a) Gelatin

Question 17.
Which is not correct for physisorption :
(a) A reversible process
(b) Needs low heat of adsorption
(c) Needs activation energy
(d) Needs low temperature.
Answer:
(c) Needs activation energy

Question 18.
In which among the following is Tyndall effect not expected :
(a) Suspension
(b) Emulsion
(c) Sugar solution
(d) Gold sol.
Answer:
(c) Sugar solution

Question 2.
Answer in one word/sentence :

1. Conversion of precipitate into colloidal solution is known as. (MP 2016)
2. Dissociation of emulsion into its constituent liquid is known as.
3. The catalyst which is used for hydrogenation of oils.
4. In dissociation of H₂O₂, phosphoric acts as which type of catalyst?
5. Which catalyst converts glucose into alcohol?
6. Cleansing action of soap based on which principle? (MP 2013)
7. Who used the word catalyst for the first time? (MP 2013)
8. Write the size of colloidal particles.
9. What is the effect of temperature on chemical adsorption?
10. Why does colloidal particle show Tyndall effect? (MP 2013)
11. Movement of particles of colloids is called …………….
12. Give an examples of catalytic poisoning.
13. Colloidal Solution of liquid in liquid is known as …………… (MP 2012 Supply 18)

Answer:

1. Peptization
2. Demulsification
3. Ni
4. Negative
5. Zymase
6. Emulsification
7. Berzellius
8. 10^-5 to 10^-7 cm
9. Increases
10. Scattering of light by colloidal particles
11. As₂O₃ is contect process
12. Brownian movement
13. Emulsion.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks :

1. Rate of physical adsorption ………………. with the increase in temperature.
2. Particles of As₂O₃ sol are ……………….
3. In the contact process of manufacture of H₂SO₄ for Pt catalyst ………………. act as
4. Oxidation of oxalic acid by KMnO₄ is an example of ……………….
5. Biological catalysts are necessarily ……………….
6. Movement of colloidal particles under the effect of electric field is called ……………….
7. Scattering of light by colloidal particles under the effect of electric field is called ……………….
8. Intermediate compound theory is applicable to ………………. catalyst.
9. The substance on whose surface adsorption takes place is called an ……………….
10. Milk is an example of ……………….
11. Blood is a ………………. charged colloid.
12. Adsorption is an ………………. process.
13. Colloidal solution of solid in liquid is called ……………….
14. Catalytic promoter substance is ……………….
15. On adding electrolyte, precipitation of colloidal particles is known as ……………….
16. According to Hardy Schulze law, coagulating capacity of ions depend on the ………………. of ions.

Answer:

1. Decreases
2. Negatively charged
3. As₂O₃, poison
4. Auto catalysis
5. Enzyme
6. Electrophoresi
7. Tyndall effect
8. Homogeneous
9. Adsorbent
10. Emulsion
11. Negatively
12. Exothermic
13. Gel
14. Molybdenum
15. Coagulation
16. Charge.

Question 4.
Match the following :
I.

Answer:

1. (f)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (g)
6. (e)
7. (b)
8. (h).

II.

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

III.

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Surface Chemistry Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why does physisorption decreases with the increase of temperature? (NCERT)
Answer:
It is an exothermic process
Solid + Gas ⇌ Gas/Solid + Heat
Thus, when temperature is raised, reaction proceeds in backward direction and gas adsorbed gets released. It is accordance to Le – Chatelier’s principle.

Question 2.
Why is it necessary to remove CO when ammonia is obtained by Haber’s process? (NCERT)
Answer:
For the preparation of ammonia in Haber’s process solid catalyst is used. It is necessary to remove the CO produced because the gas reacts with iron and forms Fe(CO)₅ which exist in liquid state at the temperature of the chamber and obstructs in the production of NH₃ because at high temperature CO and H₂ react by which production of ammonia decreases. In short CO acts as poison for the iron catalyst used in the process. It is therefore, necessary to remove CO.

Question 3.
Why is adsorption always exothermic? (NCERT)
Answer:
Adsorption leads to decrease in disorder, thus ∆S = +ve. For the process to be performed value of ∆G should be -ve. Thus, in equation ∆G = AH – T ∆S, ∆G will be negative when ∆H will be negative i.e., exothermic. Thus, adsorption is an exothermic process.

Question 4.
What is adsorbent?
Answer:
Solid substances which adsorb the gases or solution are called adsorbent. Like : animal charcoal, silica etc.

Question 5.
What are adsorbate?
Answer:
Gas molecules, vapours or ions which are adsorbed on the surface of solids are called adsorbate.

Question 6.
Delta is formed when river water meets sea water. Explain.
Answer:
In the river water negatively charged particles of soil and sand are present. When river water meets sea – water, various ions Na⁺, K⁺ or Mg⁺⁺ present in sea water causes coagulation and soil particles etc. are settle down. Thus a delta is formed.

Question 7.
How is rain possible by spraying silver iodide on clouds?
Answer:
Clouds are charged due to colloidal nature. Silver iodide is an electrolyte. Spraying it on clouds lead to coagulation by which it rains.

Question 8.
How is the adsorption of a gas related to its critical temperature?
Answer:
Higher is the critical temperature of a gas, greater is the ease of liquification of gas i.e., larger are the van der Waals’ forces of attraction. Therefore, greater is the adsorption.

Question 9.
What happen when a freshly precipitated Fe(OH)₃ is shaken with little amount of dilute solution of FeCI₃?
Answer:
A reddish brown colloidal solution of Fe(OH)₃ is obtained. This process is called peptization. The Fe⁺³ ions from FeCl₃ are absorbed on the surface of the precipitate and form positively charged colloidal solution.
Fe(OH)₃ + Fe⁺³ → [Fe(OH)₃] Fe⁺³

Question 10.
Why is sky blue in colour?
Answer:
Dust particles present in air forms colloidal solution whose particles shows Tyndall effect and hence sky appears blue in colour.

Question 11.
KMnO₄ decolourises slowly initially and then rapidly when added to oxalic acid. Why?
Answer:
Addition of KMn04 to oxalic acid oxidises it. Mn⁺² ion produced in this reaction acts as autocatalyst and hence decolourisation occur rapidly.
2MnO₄^– + 5C₂O₄^-2 + 16H^– → 2Mn⁺² + 10CO₂ + 8H₂O

Question 12.
How does emulsifier provide stability to emulsion? Write the name of two emulsifiers?
Answer:
For the stability of emulsion, emulsifier is added. Emulsifier forms an interfacial film between the emulsifying medium and the suspended particles. For an oil/water emulsion, protein, gum acts as an emulsifier and for water/oil emulsion salts of fatty acids and heavy metals are the main emulsifier.

Surface Chemistry Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are emulsions? What are their different types? Give examples of each type. (NCERT)
Answer:
The colloidal system in which dispersed phase and dispersion medium both are liqvid, is called emulsion.

Types of emulsions :
1. Oil in Water type (O/W) : In this type of emulsion small droplets of oil are dispersed in the water or dispersion medium, example Milk, Vanishing cream.

2. Water in Oil (W/O) : In this type of emulsion, small quantity of water is dispersed in the form of droplets in oil (dispersion medium), example Butter, Cod – liver.

Question 2.
What is the difference between multimolecular and macromolecular colloids? Give one example of each. How are associated colloids different from these two types of colloids?
Answer:
1. Multimolecular collodis:
In this type of colloids the colloidal particles consist of aggregates of atoms or small molecules with diameter of less than 1 nm. For example, a gold sol may contain particles of different sizes having several atoms of gold. Similarly sulphur sol contains about one thousand of S₈ molecules. These are held together by van derwaals forces.

2. Macromolecular colloids:
In macromolecular colloids the dispersed particles themselves are big molecules, usually polymers. The molecular masses of these macromolecules range from thousands to millions. Synthetic compounds e.g. polyethylene, polystrene, nylon, rubber etc. are macromolecules. Since these molecules have dimensions comparable to those of colloidal particles, there dispersions are known as macromolecular colloids. Most lyophillic sols are of this category.

3. Associated colloids (Micelles):
There are certain substances which behave as normal, strong electrolytes at low concentration, but exhibit colloidal properties at higher concentrations due to the formation of aggregated particles. These are called Micelles. These substances are also called Associated Colloids. Surface active agents like soaps and detergents are of this class.

Question 3.
Explain, what is observed :

1. when a Deam oi ngnt is passed through a colloidal sol?
2. An electrolyte, NaCI is added to hydrated ferric oxide sol?
3. Electric current is passed through a colloidal sol?

Answer:

1. Scattering of light by colloidal particles takes place and path of the. light becomes visible (Tyndall effect).
2. The positively charged colloidal particles of Fe(OH)₃ get coagulated by the oppositely charged CF ions provided by NaCI.
3. On passing electric current, the colloidal particles move towards the oppositely charged electrode where, they lose their charge and get coagulated. This is electrophoresis process.

Question 4.
What do you understand by protective colloids?
Answer:
Protective colloid:
On adding small quantity of electrolyte, Lyophobic colloids easily coagulated but if some quantity of hydrophillic colloid is added in Lyophobic colloids, it minimize the effect of addition of electrolyte and coagulation is prevented or very slowly coagulated. This process is called protection of colloid. The hydrophillic colloid which is responsible for protection against coagulation is called protective colloid.

Example:
If a small amount of gum, gelatin or starch is added to As₂S₃sol, its coagulation of NaCI solution is prevented. Thus starch, gum or gelatin protects the As₂S₃ sol.

Question 5.
Give the method of preparation of colloidal solution of ferric hydroxide and sulphur in water.
Answer:
1. To prepare sol of ferric hydroxide, FeCl₃ solution is added in the boiling water dropwise with shaking. Excess of FeCl₃ and HCl are separated by electrodialysis and sol is also stablized by this.
FeCl₃ + 3H₃O → Fe(OH)₃ + 3HCl

2. H2S gas is passed in the solution of nitric acid (oxidising agent) and colloidal solution of sulphur is obtained.
2HNO₃ + H₂S → S + 2H₂O + 2NO₂.

Question 6.
What is catalysis? Explain induced catalysis with an example.
Answer:
Catalysis:
A catalyst is a substance which alters the rate of chemical reaction without being used in the reaction and the phenomenon is known as catalysis.

Induced Catalysis:
In induced catalysis, one reaction already taking place, catalyse the other reaction also which does not occur separately.

Example:
Sodium sulphite (Na₂SO₃) oxidise in the atmosphere easily while sodium arsenite (Na₂AsO₃) does not oxidise in atmosphere separately. When (Na₂SO₃) and Na₃AsO₃ both are kept together, both are oxidised.

Question 7.
What is coagulation? Write Hardy – Schulze’s law.
Answer:
Coagulation:
Colloidal particles are either positively charged or negatively charged. It is seen that on adding some oppositely charged ions or electrolyte, which cancels the charge of colloidal particles and these particles aggregate and change into precipitates. Precipitation of colloidal particles by electrolytes is called coagulation.

Hardy – Schulze’s law:
Coagulating power of an ion is governed by this law according to which, “Greater the valency of an ion greater will be its coagulating power.”

Thus, to coagulate negative sol, the coagulating power of different cations are found to be in the order :
Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺

Similarly, for the coagulation of a positive sol of Fe(OH)3, the coagulating power of different anions is found to be in the order :
PO₄^3- > SO₄^2- > Cl_–

Question 8.
What do you understand by catalytic promoter and catalytic poison? Give an example of each.
Answer:
Catalytic promoter : Chemical substances which are used to increase the activity of the catalyst are known as Catalytic promoter.
Example :

Catalytic poison : Substances which are used to reduce the activity of catalyst are known.

Question 9.
What do you understand by Electro – dialysis?
Answer:
Electro – dialysis:
Particles of true solutions pass through parchment paper or cellophane but sol particles cannot pass through such membranes. In dialysis, the sol filled in a bag of parchment or cellophane is suspended in pure water. This process is very slow and takes a long time for completion. However, it can be quickened under the influence of an electric field and the process is known as Electro – dialysis.

Artificial kidney used in medical science works on the principle of dialysis.

Question 10.
What is homogeneous and heterogeneous catalysis? Explain with example.
Answer:
Homogeneous catalysis:
The chemical reaction in which reactants and cata¬lysts are in same physical state, are example of homogeneous catalysis.
Example : In lead chamber process of manufacturing of sulphuric acid reactant and catalyst NO are in same physical state – gaseous.

Heterogeneous catalysis:
The chemical reactions in which reactants and catalysts are in different physical state, are examples of heterogeneous catalysis.
Example : In Haber process manufacture of Ammonia.

Question 11.
What is ‘Gold number’? Explain with example.
Answer:
Gold Number:
Protective actions of different lyophilic colloids are compared with gold number. Gold number can be defined as:
“Gold number is the number of miligrams of protective colloid (Lyophilic) which on adding prevents the coagulation of 10 ml. standard gold sol by addition of 1 ml. of 10% NaCl solution.” Thus smaller the value of gold number, higher is it’s protecting action. For example, gold number of gelatin and gum arobic are 0.005 and 0.15 respectively. It means gelatin is better protective colloid because it’s only 0 005 mg quantity is required to prevent coagulation if 10 ml Au sol by addition of 1 ml. 10% NaCl.

Question 12.
What is the importance of emulsifying agents in emulsifications?
Answer:
The process of making emulsions is called emulsification. Emulsions are formed when suitable liquids are mixed and shaked, but the emulsions are thus formed are not stable. To make these emulsions stable some other substances are added, which are known as emulsifying agents. Soap, gum, starch etc. act as emulsifying agents. In absence of emulsifying agents, disperse drops of liquid meet each other to distroy emulsion state. It is supposed that emulsifying agents form membrane at interphase of oil and water which checks the union of droplets.

Question 13.
Give reason :

1. Milk turns sour on adding acid to it.
2. Alum is added to purify water.
3. Delta is formed where river water meets sea.

Answer:
1. Milk is an emulsion of fats dispersed in water. Albumin and caesin are emulsifiers. Addition of acid destroys emulsifiers and hence milk gets coagulated.

2. In impure water, soil particles, bacteria and other soluble impurities are dissolved. When alum is added, the Al+3 ion present in alum destroys the negative charge of impure water. Due to neutralization of charge the impurities are coagulated and settle down.

3. In the river water negatively charged particles of soil and sand are present. When river water meets sea – water, various salts present in sea water causes coagulation and soil particles etc. are settle down. Thus a delta is formed.

Question 14.
Explain positive and negative catalysis with example.
Answer:
Positive Catalysis:
When the velocity of any chemical reaction increases with the presence of catalyst, this type of catalysis is called positive catalysis.

Negative Catalysis:
Catalysts when decrease the velocity of chemical reaction are called negative catalysts or retarders and the process is known as negative catalysis.

Question 15.
What is peptization? Explain.
Answer:
Peptization:
Peptization is a good method of preparing colloidal sols from precipitates. A fresh precipitate is taken for the purpose and a suitable reason or peptizing agents are added. These peptizing agents are generally dilute solutions of electrolytes of common ion. Peptization process is opposite of the process of coagulation.

Example:
When fresh precipitate of aluminium hydroxide is boiled with dilute HCl mixed water, colloidal solution of Al(OH)₃ is obtained. When an electrolyte is added to a fresh precipitate then the particles of the electrolyte preferentially adsorbs an ion and due to electrostatic repulsion undergo in colloidal state. On adding electrolyte ferric chloride to ferric hydroxide precipitate, sol of ferric hydroxide is obtained.

Question 16.
Write difference between Lyophilic and Lyophobic colloids. (MP2016)
Answer:
Differences between Lyophilic and Lyophobic colloids :

Question 17.
What is Brownian motion?
Answer:
Continuous and zig – zag motion of colloidal particles is called Brownian motion. Such movement was first observed by Robert Brown in 1827, hence it is called Brownian motion. Brownian movement is due to the unequal collision at between molecules of dispersed phase and colloidal particles. On increase of size of colloidal particles or decrease in temperature the motion becomes slower.
Example:

1. Zig – zag motion of dust particles entering through ventilator is Brownian motion.
2. Lycopodium powder particles move in water due to Brownian motion.

Question 18.
Write difference between Physical adsorption and Chemical adsorption.
Answer:
Differences between Physical adsorption and Chemical adsorption :
Physical adsorption:

• Low value of enthalpy of adsorption (20 – 40 kJ mol^-1)
• This type of adsorption involves weak ‘van der Waals’ forces between adsorbent and adsorbate.
• Usually takes place at low tempera¬ture and decreases with increase in temperature.
• It is reversible in nature.
• The extent of adsorption is approxi-mately related to the case of liquification of the gas.
• Forms multimolecular layers.
• On increasing pressure, adsorption also increases.

Chemical adsorption:

• High value of enthalpy of adsorption (40 – 400kJmol^-1)
• This type of adsorption involves strong forces of attraction due to chemical bond formation.
• Takes place at high temperature.
• It is irreversible.
• No such correlation.
• Forms monomolecular layers.
• No any effect of pressure.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Important Questions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 8 National Awakening and Establishment of Political Organizations in India Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 8 National Awakening and Establishment of Political Organizations in India

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Text Book Exercise

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions:
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (a)
The president of Congress during in its first convention was:
(a) Dada Bhai Naoroji
(b) V.C. Benarjee
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Firoj Shah Mehta.
Answer:
(b) V.C. Benarjee

Question (b)
Who introduced English Education in India?
(a) Rant Krishna Gopal
(b) Maxmullar
(c) Macaulay
(d) Bhartendu Harish Chandra.
Answer:
(b) Maxmullar

Question (c)
Through which Newspaper did Lala Lajpat Rai inspired the people of India to struggle?
(a) Kesari
(b) Samvad Kaumudi
(c) Hindustan
(d) Kayasth Samachar.
Answer:
(d) Kayasth Samachar.

Question (d)
Who among the following was not a moderate thinker?
(a) Dada Bhai Naoroji
(b) Arvind Ghosh
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Firoj Shah Mehta.
Answer:
(b) Arvind Ghosh

Question (v)
With whom do this proclamation associated with “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it?”
(a) Vipin Chandra Pal
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Arvind Ghosh
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Answer:
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The reactionary policy of Viceroy ………………….. was full of racist thinking.
2. The founder of Congress is considered to be …………………..
3. Vande Mataram was written by ………………………
4. In 1883 the national convention of Indian association was called in ……………………….

Answer:

1. Lord Litten
2. A.O. Hume
3. Barikim Chandra Chatterji
4. 1883.

Question 3.
Match the column:

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (f)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (c)
6. (e).

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the measures adopted by Congress to address the grievances and complaints in the initial period?
Answer:
Appeals, Memorandum, Delegation, Dharna and Strike.

Question 2.
Name the leaders of aggressive nationalism?
Answer:
Arvind Ghosh, Vipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai Bal Gangadhar Tilk (Lai Bal Pal).

Question 3.
Explain, what is Boycott?
Answer:
Boycott means to boycott the foreign goods, the Government jobs institutions and awards.

Question 4.
What was the policy adopted by Lord Curzon for Governance?
Answer:
Divide and Rule policy was followed by Lord Curzon in 1905 to divide Bengal in two parts.

Question 5.
What were objectives in the mind of Humes while establishing Indian National Congress?
Answer:
A.O. Hume founded the Indian National Congress as a protective shield for British Government providing a platform to register the demand of leader through appeal, memorandum are the objectives of Hume.

Question 6.
How many representatives participated in the first convention of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
There were 72 representatives in the first convention of Indian National Congress.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the role of western thinking and education in the development of national consciousness?
Or
Describe the role of western thinking and education in the development of national awakening in India? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Impact of western culture, education and thinkers:
With the intention or uprooting nationalistic feeling from the Indian hearts, Lord Macaulay introduced western education in India. His intention in spreading western education in English was to develop a class of people who would work in the interest of British Government.

But, on the contrary the spread of English education inspired Indians to free themselves from the clutches of foreign rule. With the knowledge of English language, Indians became acquainted with the western literature, thinking and philosophy and administration.

Question 2.
Name the newspapers which played an important role in the development of national awakening?
Answer:
The analytical review of British rule was being printed in Indian newspapers. Among Indian newspapers, there were “Samvad Kaumudi”, “Amrit Bazar Patrika”, “Bambai Samachar”, Kesari”, “Maratha”, “Hindu”, “Patriot”, “Swadeshi Mitram”, “Arya Darshan” etc. which contributed in developing national awakening. Press developed Indian consciousness and gave political teaching to Indians.

Question 3.
How were the cottage industries affected by British Policy of economic exploitation?
Or
How the Indian cottage industry was effected by economic exploitation policy of Britishers? (MP Board 2009, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Dissatisfaction arises from the economic exploitation. With the establishment of British empire and the industrial revolution in England, Indian cottage industries suffered a blow.

The goods exported from India had a heavy tax levied on them in foreign market whereas imported goods from England were made tax free, to sell in the Indian market. This made the money flow out of India and destabilized the economy. This drove the Indians to struggle against the economic slavery.

Question 4.
Why did the Europeon staying in Indian protested against the Illbert Bill? (MP Board 2010, 2012)
Answer:
The viceroy Lord Rippon attempted to make a bill to abolish the policy of discrimination. This was prepared by law member Ilbert, that’s why it was called Illbert Bill. According to this bill, Indian Magistrates and Session Judges were given entitlement to hear criminal cases against Europeans.

Prior to the introduction of this bill Indian Magistrates were not authorized to hear the court cases against European criminals and, Illbert Bill was a step to remove the discriminating policy against Indians. Europeans staying in India collectively protested against this bill and called it a black ruling. At last British Government had to withdraw the Illbert Bill, this affected Indians adversely.

Question 5.
What were the objectives of establishment of Congress?
Or
Write main objectives of establishment of Indian National Congress? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
The main objectives are:

1. To stimulate the feelings of patriotism nationalism and unity among the people.
2. To place the popular demands peacefully before the British Government. The main demands of the period were:
   • The party demanded reform and expansion of the Legislative councils in a Constitutional manner.
   •  It demanded economic reform.
   • It demanded the appointment of Indians to hold positions in the government.
   • It demanded that the miserable condition of Indian industry be improved.
   • Drinking must be prohibited.
   • They demanded a cut in defence expenditure and in taxes too.
   • Primary education must be expanded and technical education be paid due attention.
3. To create a popular support for the Indian National Congress among the masses.

Question 6.
What were the reasons, which in the end of 19th century encouraged the aggressive nationalism? (MP Board 2013)
Or
Write any five causes of rise of aggressive nationalism? (MP Board 2009)
Write main causes of the rise of aggressive nationlism in India? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
The following are the causes for the emergence aggressive nationalism in the India:

1. Dissatisfaction of moderator.
2. Failure of legitimate movements.
3. Reactionary policy of the British rule.
4. Social, culture and economic movements.
5. Impact of western thinking and foreign revolutions.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Long Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the role of religious and social reform movements in the national awakening? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
The religious and social reform movements also played a major role in the development of nationalistic feelings. The leaders who pioneered these movements became the prominent leaders of the political awakening. These movements developed a feeling of respect for Indian culture in the hearts of the Indian.

The social and religious reformers and leaders like – Raja Ram Mohan Rai, Swami Vivekanand, Swami Dayananda Saraswati, Ramkrishna Paramhans, Mrs. Annie Besant, etc.

The movements of 19th century were basically religious in nature, yet they had the inclusion of nationalistic feelings in them. In addition to Swami Dayanand Saraswati’s “Arya Samaj” and Swami Viyekanand’s “Ram Krishna Mission” there were many more such movements, to which the nation owed its reawakening.

Among Muslims there were Aligarh and Deoband movements, among Sikhs there were Singh Sabha and Gurudwara reform movements and, Theosophical Society’s movements which changed the society and its thinking. These movements made the future generations ready for the leadership of the nation.

Question 2.
Describe the causes which led to the establishment of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Between the years 1870 and 1880, Indian people had become politically conscious and by the year 1885, there was a platform ready for establishment of a political organization on national basis. The credit for giving a definite structure to the All India Organization goes to a retired British officer A.O. Hume.

He was a liberal minded person. Hume had been feeling a need for a political organization which would bridge the gap between the rulers and the people being ruled. Hume wanted the people to adopt the path of valid politics instead of violence and aggression. With the efforts of Mr. Hume, “Indian National Union” was formed.

Hume obtained the permission from Lord Darfin to convene a meeting of “Indian National Union” between 25th December and 31st December in Pune. The objective of the meeting was to acquaint the work force with one another, which was working for the national development and define a political agenda for the development.

Although the place of convention was decided to be Pune, the venue was changed to Mumbai in the last minute. The convention was held on 28th December, 1885 in Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College. With the suggestion from Sir Hume the meeting was named, “Indian National Congress” and thus, Indian National Congress was born.

There were 72 representatives in the convention of formation Indian National Congress. Vyomesh Chandra Benarjee was President of the first convention of Indian National Congress.

Question 3.
Explain how the working style of moderates was different from that of aggressive nationalists?
Answer:
The main moderate leaders were Dadabhai Naoroji, Surendranath Benarjee, Firoj Shah Mehta, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Ras Bihari Bose, Mahadev Govind Ranade. These leaders had faith in moderate thinking and wanted to pursue their objectives through gradual and legitimate means.

Moderates were believers of legitimate means to pursue their objectives through appeals, memorandums and delegations. In order to influence the British people and politicians, moderates had sent a delegation to England. To make British people aware of problems in India, moderates had started publishing a newspaper called “India”, from London.

Every year moderates used to pass a proposal and convince their demands through logical approach. There was no place for agitation in their programme. They were apprehensive that agitation might result into lawlessness. Initially British took a sympathetic view towards Congress.

Even Government officials used to attend the conventions but/gradually the attitude changed and it was declared as an organisation representing minorities and anti – British. Lai, Bal, Pal led the aggressive movement in India. Lala Lajpat Rai in Punjab and V.C. Pal in Bengal activated the movement.

The scheme of working of aggressive leaders was quite different from that of moderates. They believed in sacrifice and martyrdom, as means to achieve freedom. Boycott, Swadeshi and Indian education were there three weapons, which they used to free themselves from the British clutches.

These leaders used the word “Swadeshi” or “Self – Governance” in a different connotation. By self – governance they not only meant obtaining the political rights but also, establishing a political system which would help the Indians progress. The hardliners (aggressive nationalists) were staunch supporters of Boycott and self – rule. By boycott they not only meant to boycott the foreign goods but also, the boycott of Government jobs, institutions and awards.

Question 4.
Write notes on

1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
2. Vipin Chandra Pal
3. Lala Lajpat Rai.

Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
Tilak is called as father of aggressive nationalism. His political thinking was very evidently influenced by his religious thinking. His beliefs were firmly placed in natural rights, political freedom and principles of justice.

He gave the proclamaition “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it”. He fought for the cause of freedom and self governance, all his life. He inspired the youngsters to struggle fearlessly and, to be prepared for sacrifice for the country.

Vipin Chandra Pal:
Another aggressive nationalist Vipin Chandra Pal was an influential orator, an accomplished journalist and an educationist. He voiced his opinions through “New India” and “Vande Mataram”. Partition of Bengal was instrumental in drawing his thinking towards aggressive nationalism. Vipin Chandra Pal played a major role in national awakening in Bengal.

Lala Lajpat Rai:
Lala Lajpat Rai was in protest of moderate thinking and actions in Congress. He protested very strongly against the partition of Bengal. He believed that Swaraj was essential for the nation’s development and no reforms and good governance could ever replace Swaraj.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions:

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions:
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (a)
Lord Curzon divided Bengal in …………………..
(a) 1902
(b) 1903
(c) 1904
(d) 1905.
Answer:
(d) 1905.

Question (b)
The Ganesh Festival was organised by Tilak in:
(a) Bengal
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Punjab
(d) Tamilnadu.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question (c)
During the establishment of Indian National Congress the Vicerory of India was:
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Durfin
(d) Lord Vilington.
Answer:
(c) Lord Durfin

Question (d)
The second convention of Indian Association was told in:
(a) 1883
(b) 1884
(c) 1885
(d) 1886.
Answer:
(c) 1885

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. After the event of the …………………….. company rule in India ended.
2. ‘Anand Math’ was written by ……………………
3. Delhi – Durbar was organised in the honour of ……………………..
4. Swami Dayanand was the founder of Arya Samaj in 1875 at …………………….

Answer:

1. 1857
2. Bankim Chandra
3. George V
4. Bombay.

Question 3.
True and False type questions:

1. Ramkrishna Mission was established by Ramkrishna Paramhansa.
2. A.O. Hume was a social reformer.
3. The period between 1885 to 1905 is known as liberal period.
4. Divide and rule was the policy of moderates.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False.

Question 4.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answer in One – Two Words or One Sentence

Question 1.
Name the three social evils prevelent in the Muslim society?
Answer:
Purdah system, polygamy, the process of easy divorce and child marriage.

Question 2.
Who was the founder of Brahma Samaj?
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Rai in 1928 founded Brahmo Samaj.

Question 3.
Who founded Arya Samaj?
Answer:
Arya Samaj was founded by Dayanand Saraswati in the year 1875.

Question 4.
Who founded Ramkrishna Mission?
Answer:
Swami Vivekanand in 1879.

Question 5.
Who founded Prarthana Samaj?
Answer:
Atmaram Pandurang in 1867.

Question 6.
When was Indian National Congress established?
Answer:
On 28th December 1885.

Question 7.
Who were the main members of East India Association?
Answer:
Anand Mohan Bose and Surendra Nath Benarjee were the main members of East India Association.

Question 8.
Which period is known as liberal period in the history of freedom movement in India?
Answer:
Between 1885 and 1905.

Question 9.
When was first time Ganesh Utsav organized in the public domain?
Answer:
In 1893.

Question 10.
Who led the aggressive movement in Punjab?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who were known as Lal, Bal and Pal?
Answer:
Bal Gangdhar Tilak of Maharashtra, Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal and Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab were known as Lal, Bal and Pal.

Question 2.
Which new social class had emerged in India during the British rule?
Answer:
The middle class, consisting many neolandlords, traders, intelligents and professional class, intelligents became the leading group for demanding modernisation.

Question 3.
What was the aim of Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan in establishing the Scientific Society?
Answer:
Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan (1817 – 1899) founded the Scientific Society in 1862. Its main aim was to translate, and publish scientific work in urdu so to familiarise the people with modern science.

Question 4.
Who did the Indian National Congrees wish to speak for?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress wished “to speak for the good of all countrymen. It will speak not only for one class or community of India, but of all the different communities of India.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Bal – Pal – Lal in the development of extremism in India?
Answer:
Lokmanya Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal played an important part in the development of extremism in India. These leaders instilled the feelings of national pride, glory and rich heritage in the Indian people. They prepared the people to fight against injustice, exploitation and foreign imperialism with all their might.

Question 6.
Why is Raja Rammohan Roy called the Father of Modern India?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy took the lead in the direction of social and religious reforms. The condemned social evils like sati, child – marriage, polygamy, etc., and was devoted to the spread of modern knowledge and modernisation of Indian society.

Question 7.
Write any two advantages that the beginning of the press had on Indian society?
Answer:

1. The press made the people of India aware of the need for reforming their religious and social evils.
2. If spread knowledge and revolutionary ideas among the people.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the effects of the reform movements of the 19th century on the Indian society?
Answer:
The effects of the reform movements of the 19th century Indian society can be stated as under:

1. Significant advances were made in the field of emancipation of women. Sati was banned; infanticide was outlawed; education for women was propagated; widow – remarriage was allowed.
2. The reform movements helped in awakening of the people to the need of change.
3. As most of the social evils had became associated with religious practices, these social reform movements were inevitably religious in nature. They reformed both the religion and society,
4. These reform movements contributed a great deal to the birth of Indian nationalism.

Question 2.
What were the main objectives stated in the first convention of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
The first President of Congress, Vyomesh Chandra Benarjee stated the objectives of the Congress in its first convention in 1885. These were:

1. To promote the friendship and mutual intimacy among people, who work enthusiastically for the country.

2. To eradicate the differences of cast, religion and regions and remove the prejudices through friendship and direct contact, to develop unity and nationalistic feelings, which were developed during the administrative regime of Lord Rippon.

3. To document the contemporary and burning problems of India, with the help of educated and matured individuals through a careful and detailed discussion.

4. To chart a programme of political activities and public good for next 12 months.

Question 3.
What were the differences between the moderates and the extremists?
Answer:
Moderates:

1. The moderates believed in the peaceful and constitutional measures for the realization of their aims and objectives.
2. They favoured to carry out the economic reforms by remaining under the rule of Britishers.
3. The moderates did not hate the British Rule. They did not find anything wrong in the western culture and their literature.
4. Moderates were never persecuted by the British Government. Some of the moderates are: Dadabhai Naoroji

Extremists:

1. Extremists were the militant nationalists. They were against the petitions and the peaceful methods. They advocated and practiced the use of force and revolutionary methods to attain their goals.
2. Extremist aimed at achieving complete sivaraj. They wanted to have their own government.
3. The extremists hated the British rule.
4. Extremists like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai etc. were sent to jail many times.

Question 4.
What was Swami Vivekananda’s mission in life?
Answer:
His mission was the revival of the best traditions of the Hindu religion, including the vedas. Vedanta, according to him, was the religion of all and not of the Hindus alone. To establish this fact, he attended the Parliament of Religious at Chicago (USA).

His forceful speech at the Parliament made him a world figure. His great desire was to improve all aspects of national life, particularly the depressed economic conditions of the masses and the low status of women. He wanted the youth to take pride in their motherland.

Question 5.
How were the cottage industries affected by British policy of economic explantions?
Answer:
With the establishment of British empire and the industrial revolution in England, Indian cottage industries suffered a blow. The goods exported from India had a heavy tax leaved on them in foreign market, whereas the imparted goods from England were made tax free, to sell in the Indian market.

This made the money to flow out of India and established the economy. India become consumer country of foreign goods due to which india became the narket of raw material for British industries.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Enumerate the measures taken by reform movements to improve the conditions of the women?
Answer:
Measures taken by reform movements to improve the women conditions:
Many reform movements were started in 19th century to improve the condition of women in the society. Raja Rammohan Rai, Ishwar Chandra were the most famous.

1. Abolition of sati practices:
Raja Rammohan Rai, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, and Swami Dayanand Saraswati persuaded the case too much and were able to make law against Sati system by Lord William Bentick.

2. Re – marriage of widow:
Widows were considered as sin, slave and unfortunate black spot in Indian society. They were not allowed for remarriage. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar and other reformers tried their level best to solve this problem. At last they were able to convince many people.

3. Opposition of purdah system:
Modem social reformers were against purdah system as hindered it the development of woman in the society. They moved for abolition of purdah system, succeeded in their efforts.

4. Stressed on woman education:
Modern reformers stressed on her education. They opened many schools and colleges, for women education. Raja Rammohan Rai and Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Swami Dayanand Saraswati and Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan had played commendable roles in women education. Thus, in the 2nd half of 19th century the condition of woman was better than before.

Question 2.
Discuss the political organization’s responsibility for making the base of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
By the end 6f 19th century, the peaceful political movements began in India. Educated Indians were not unaware of the economic and political subjugation, this class started organized political activities. The objective of these organized movements was to establish representative organisation, freedom of expression and thinking and abolition of economic exploitation.

These activities gradually converted in the demands for freedom. These activities started from Bengal, Mumbai, Madras, where British Raj had first established. After the srtruggle of 1857, the national awakening intensified and the main political organizations which formed were Poona Sarvajanik Sabha (1870), Indian League (1875), East India Association (1876), Madras Mahajan Sabha (1884) and Bombay Presidency
Association.(1885).

These organizations not only advocated their demands about local issues but also vehemently advocated national demands there was no organization of national level established since then. To fulfill the requirement of a national level organization, Surendra Nath Benarjee called a national of Indian Association in Kolkata in 1883. About 200 representatives participated in the convention.

Again there was a second convention in 1885 in Kolkata this was a major step in the direction of forming a national organization in India. The objective of all these organizations is to provide a common platform to all the organizations and to address the problems and issues of common good.

Although the British Government ignored the demands put up by the political organizations, Indian newspapers gave sound publicity to the demands. The main members of East India Association were Anand Mohan Bose and Surendranath Benarjee. By 1885 there were 60 branches of the association, all over the country.

Question 3.
Describe the causes of emergence of aggressive nationalism in India?
Answer:
Following are the causes of emergence of aggressive nationalism:

1. Dissatisfaction towards the working of moderates:
The aggressive leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai, Vipin Chandra Pal, Arvind Ghosh and others realised that Indians would never get the political right through memorandums and appeals. Aggressive leaders had no trust in so called British justice and philanthropy. They wanted to launch a powerful mass movements against British rule. Lokmanya Tilak said “Indians will not get the freedom on a silver platter”.

2. Failure of legitimate movements:
Having received a lot of requests and appeals from moderates, British finally in 1892 accepted the Bhartiya Parishad Adhiniyam, but, it did’not provide any valid rights to Indians. This made all the hopes of getting political rights through legitimate means fade.

3. The reactionary policy of British Rule:
The main reason of emergence of aggressive nationalism was the reactionary policy of British Government, whatever promises Indians were given through the (Bharat Shasan Adhiniyam) and queen Victoria’s announcement in 1858, they proved to be only verbal force.

They were never followed in its true spirit. The policy of exploitation and discrimination continued as before. During the period of narrow – minded rule in Britain, the command of Indian rule was also given to the reactionary viceroys in. India
the attitude of British administration was completely racially prejudiced and inhuman towards Indians. Lord Lytton and Lord Curzon had hurt the Indian feelings about their race.

4. Economic policy of British Government:
Indian agriculture and industries suffered a major set – back due to the economic exploitation policy of British Government. Their economic policy patronized the interests of capitalists. The import duty was removed from the British goods which caused a heavy loss to Indian cottage industries.

Question 4.
Why Raja Rammohan Rai has been called the fore – runner of the Indian Renaissance?
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Rai was one of the greatest son of this great country that India can be proud of. He greatly loved his people and country, and throughout his life worked hard for the social, religious, intellectual and political upliftment of the country.

Raja Rammohan Rai played an important role in the social and cultural awakening of the country. He is rightly called the “Father of Modern India”. His contributions can be summarised as follows :

1. Raja Rammohan Rai vigorously attacked the caste system and declared it as inhuman.

2. He raised his voice against the in human Practice of Sati. He cited the authority of the sacred books and showed that the Hindu religion was opposed to this practice.

3. He was a great champion of women’s rights. He stood for equal rights for women and make a demand for granting the right of property and inheritance to them for raising their social status. He also advocated the right of widows to remarriage.

4. He tried to persuade the government to abolish the child- marriage.

5. He paid stress on the spread of western education and sciences in order to eradicate useless traditional and blind faiths.

6. He was an internationalist who supported the cause of freedom everywhere.

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Maths Book Solutions Chapter 14 सांख्यिकी Ex 14.2 Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 14 सांख्यिकी Ex 14.2

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित सारणी किसी अस्पताल में एक विशेष वर्ष में भर्ती हुए रोगियों की आयु को दर्शाती है :

उपरोक्त आँकड़ों का बहुलक और माध्य ज्ञात कीजिए। दोनों केन्द्रीय प्रवृत्तियों की तुलना कीजिए और उनकी व्याख्या कीजिए।
हल :
बहुलक के परिकलन के लिए:
यहाँ बहुलक वर्ग 35-45 है क्योंकि इसकी बारम्बारता सर्वाधिक 23 है। इस वर्ग की निम्न सीमा l = 35, बारम्बारता f₁ = 23, वर्ग माप h = 45 – 35 = 10, बहुलक वर्ग से पहले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₀ = 21 एवं बाद के वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₂ = 14

अंतः, अभीष्ट बहुलक = 36.82 एवं माध्य = 34.08 है।
व्याख्या : अस्पताल में भर्ती अधिकतम रोगी 36.82 वर्ष आयु (लगभग) के हैं जबकि अस्पताल में भर्ती किए गए औसत रोगियों की आयु = 34.08 (लगभग) है।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित आँकड़े 225 बिजली उपकरणों के प्रेक्षित जीवनकाल (घण्टों में) की सूचना देते हैं:

उपकरणों का बहुलक जीवनकाल ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
उपर्युक्त प्रेक्षकों में बहुलक वर्ग 60-80 है जिसकी निम्न सीमा l = 60, वर्ग माप h = 80-60 = 20, बारम्बारता f₁ = 61 है तथा इससे पहले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₀ = 52 एवं ठीक बाद के वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₂ = 38 है।

अतः बहुलक जीवनकाल का अभीष्ट मान = 65.63 घण्टा (लगभग) है।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित आँकड़ों किसी गाँव के 200 परिवारों के कुल मासिक घरेलू व्यय के बंटन को दर्शाते हैं। इन परिवारों का बहुलक मासिक व्यय ज्ञात कीजिए साथ ही माध्य मासिक व्यय भी ज्ञात कीजिए।

हल :
बहुलक के परिकलन के लिए :
यहाँ अधिकतम बारम्बारता 40 है अतः बहुलक वर्ग 1500-2000 है जिसकी वर्ग माप h = 2000 – 1500 = 500, निम्न सीमा l = 1500, बारम्बारता f₁ = 40 है तथा इससे ठीक पहले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₀ = 24 एवं ठीक बाद वाले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₂ = 33 है।

अतः परिवारों का अभीष्ट बहुलक मासिक व्यय h = 1847.83 (लगभग) है।
माध्य के परिकलन के लिए:

कल्पित माध्य a = 2750 एवं वर्ग माप h = 500

अतः परिवारों का अभीष्ट माध्य मासिक व्यय = Rs 2662.50 है।.

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित बंटन भारत के उच्चतर माध्यमिक स्कूलों में राज्यों के अनुसार शिक्षक-विद्यार्थी अनुपात को दर्शाता है। इन आँकड़ों के बहुलक और माध्य ज्ञात कीजिए। दोनों मापकों की व्याख्या कीजिए।

हल :
बहुलक के परिकलन के लिए :
यहाँ अधिकतम बारम्बारता वाले बहुलक वर्ग (30-35) की बारम्बारता f₁ = 10, निम्न सीमा l = 30, वर्ग माप h = 35-30 = 5, ठीक पहले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₀ = 9 एवं ठीक बाद वाले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₂ = 3 है

कल्पित माध्य a = 32.5 एवं वर्ग माप h = 5

अतः अभीष्ट बहुलक = 30.625 (लगभग) एवं अभीष्ट माध्य = 29.2 (लगभग) है।
व्याख्या : अधिकांश राज्यों/संघीय क्षेत्रों में छात्र एवं विद्यार्थियों का अनुपात 30.625 (लगभग) है और औसतन अनुपात 29.2 (लगभग) है।

प्रश्न 5.
दिया हुआ बंटन विश्व के कुछ श्रेष्ठतम बल्लेबाजों द्वारा एकदिवसीय अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट मैचों में बनाए गए रनों को दर्शाता है:

इन आँकड़ों का बहुलक ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
अधिकतम बारम्बारता 18 वाला वर्ग (4,000–5,000) बहुलक वर्ग है जिसकी निम्न सीमा
l = 4,000, वर्ग माप h = 5,000 – 4,000 = 1,000, बारम्बारता f₁ = 18 है तथा इससे ठीक पहले वाले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₀ = 4 एवं ठीक बाद वाले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₂ = 9 है।

अतः अभीष्ट बहुलक = 4,608.7 (लगभग) है।

प्रश्न 6.
एक विद्यार्थी ने एक सड़क के किसी स्थान से होकर जाती हुई कारों की संख्याएँ नोट की और उन्हें नीचे दी हुई सारणी के रूप में व्यक्त किया। सारणी में दिया प्रत्येक प्रेक्षण 3 मिनट के अन्तराल में उस स्थान से होकर जाने वाली कारों की संख्याओं से सम्बन्धित है। ऐसे 100 अन्तरालों पर प्रेक्षण लिए गए। इन आँकड़ों का बहुलक ज्ञात कीजिए।

हल :
सर्वाधिक बारम्बारता 20 वाला वर्ग (40-50) बहलक वर्ग है जिसकी निम्न सीमा l = 40. वर्ग माप h = 50-40 = 10 एवं बारम्बारता f₁ = 20 है तथा इससे ठीक पहले वाले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₀ = 12 एवं ठीक बाद वाले वर्ग की बारम्बारता f₂ = 11 है।

अतः अभीष्ट बहुलक = 44.71 (लगभग) है।

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 13 Functioning of Indian Democracy Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 Functioning of Indian Democracy

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 13 Textbook Exercises

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions
(Choose the correct Answer from the following)

Question (i)
Number of members of the Legislative Assembly of Madhya Pradesh – (MP Board 2009, 2013)
(a) 320
(b) 270
(c) 250
(d) 230
Answer:
(d) 230

Question (ii)
Who is empowered to nominate members to the Council of States –
(a) The President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Supreme Court.
Answer:
(a) The President

Question (iii)
Who from amongst the following is empowered to promulgate ordinance in a State –
(a) Governor
(b) Home Minister
(c) Judiciary
(d) Council of States.
Answer:
(a) Governor

Question (iv)
Governor of a State is an integral part of –
(a) Parliament
(b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Judiciary
(d) Council of States.
Answer:
(a) Parliament

Question 2.
Match the coloumn:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (d)

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 13  Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the age of retirement of a Justice of the Supreme Court? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
65 years.

Question 2.
What is the number of members of Parliament from Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
29.

Question 3.
Who elect the Speaker of the House of People?
Answer:
The House of People (Lok Sabha) elects the Speaker and Deputy Speaker from among its members.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 13 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write qualifications of a members of the House of People?(MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Qualifications of Members of the House of People: He/She –

1. Should be citizen of India.
2. Should be 25 years or more.
3. Should not be on any office of profit in the Central or State Governments.
4. Is not declared insane or insolvent by any competant court of Law.
5. Has not been declared disqualified to contest election by any law of Parliament.

Question 2.
Describe functions of District Panchayat? (MP Board 2009, 2013)
Answer:
Functions of the District Panchayat:

1. To exercise control over the Janpad Panchayats and Village Panchayats, ensure coordination among them and guide them.
2. To coordinate the schemes of Janpad Panchayats.
3. To forward to the State Government, demands for grant for special purposes.
4. To implement such schemes of the district which fall in the area of  two or more Janpad Panchayat.
5. To advise the State Government in the matters of development related activities, social forestry, family and child welfare and games and sports.
6. To do such other work which the State Government directs.

Question 3.
Write functions of the Prime Minister? (MP Board 2009, 2013)
Answer:
In position Prime Minister is the strongest of all the Minister in the Central Council of Ministers. His functions can be summed lip as under.

1. He makes and reshuffles the other Ministers.
2. He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
3. He coordinates the work of the other ministries. The bills presented in the House are prepared under the direction of the Prime Minister.
4. He is the link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
5. He is the chief advisor to the President.
6. He is the leader of the Lok Sabha and as such, of the nation and accordingly the ultimate government authority.

Question 4.
Write Functions of the Council of States? (MP Board 2011)
Answer:
Functions of the Council of States:
Except financial matters the Council of States normally enjoys all the powers of the House of People.

1. Legislative Powers:
The Council of States enjoys the powers of Legislation which vest in the House of People. Any Bill can be initiated in either of the House but unless both the Houses pass a Bill it cannot become an Act.

2. Financial Powers:
Any Finance Bill is initiated only in the House of People. In respect of financial matters, powers of the Council of States are negligible. Any money bill is sent to the Council of States only for consideration after it is presented in the House of People and it has to be passed by it within 14 days.

3. Control over the Executive:
The members of the Council of States exercise control over the Cabinet of Ministers by asking questions on the matters of public interest.

4. Like the members of the House of People:
The members of the Council of States have the right to participate in the elections of the President and the Vice – President.

Question 5.
Write four functions of the Governor? (MP Board 2010, 2011)
Answer:
1. Functions in respect of the Executive:
The Governor appoints the Chief Minister. He appoints the leader of the party which has won by majority as Chief Minister. He appoints other ministers at the advice of the Chief Minister and allocates works to them. The Governor appoints the Advocate General, Chairman of the Public Service Commission and other senior officers of the State.

2. Legislative Functions:
The Governor is an essential part of the government. He summons meetings of the Legislative Assembly, suspends them and adjourns them. He can dissolve the Assembly on the advice of the Chief Minister. After the elections and in the beginning of a Session of the Legislative Assembly he addresses it. As per need he can send messages to the Legislatures.

Governor’s assent is essential on the bills passed by the Legislative Assembly for reconsideration. If again the Bill is passed by the Legislative Assembly and sends it to the Governor, it is necessary for the Governor to give assent to it.

3. To Promulgate Ordinance:
When the Assembly is not in session the Governor can promulgate ordinance. Approval of the Legislative Assembly is necessary within 6 weeks of the promulgation of the ordinance.

4. Financial Powers:
The governor causes the State budget to be presented every year in the Legislative Assembly. He also causes to be presented the Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General in the House.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 13 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the special features of Federal Form of Government? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
The following are the special features of Federal Government:

1. Dual Governments:
In the Indian Union there are both the Governments viz. Union Government and the State Governments. There is an Executive in the Union where there is a Council of Ministers and there are President, the Prime Minister and there is a Legislature (Parliament) of peoples’ representatives. Similarly in the states also there is Executive and Legislature wherein there are Governor and Council of Ministers under the Chief Minister, and a Legislative Assembly of Peoples representatives. This arrangement is known as Dual form of Government.

2. Division of Powers:
There is a division of power between the Union and the States under the Constitution. Accordingly the Centre and the States make laws and rim the administration as per the subjects under their Jurisdiction. The powers have been allocated in the Constitution in the manner of union rist, state list and concurrent list.

3. Supremacy and Written form of Constitution:
Under the Federal form of Government written Constitution is a necessity. Constitution is supreme and Basic Law of the Land. The Union and State Governments follow the Constitution under this System of Governments. To ensure supremacy of the Constitution the procedure of its amendments has been made difficult.

4. Supremacy of Judiciary:
Under the Federal form of Government Supremacy of Judiciary is important. The Supreme Court is the protector of the Constitution. Laws framed and decisions taken contrary to the constitution can be declared null and void by the Supreme Court. Necessary provisions have been made in the Constitution to ensure independence of the Judiciary.

5. Two Houses of the Legislature:
As per Federal form of Government Indian Legislature has two houses. First house is called the Parliament and the Second one is called the Council of States. The Council of States (Rajya Sabha) represents the States.

Question 2.
How has division of administrative powers been made between the Central Government and State Government?
Answer:
Inspite of clear division of powers between the Union and the States, it is necessary that there should be proper cooperation between the Union and the States for successful administration. There are certain provisions in the Constitution through which the Union exercises effective control over the States.

1. Directions to the State Governments:
The Central Government gives directions to the State Governments on Subjects of national importance and the States follow these directions. Subjects like national defence, political relations with foreign countries, come under this category.

2. Entrust Some Works out of Union Subjects:
The Union executive can entrust some works to State Governments. The Union can give directives to the States to follows any international treaty or agreement. Such instructions can also be given in respect of subjects like security of railway tracks, etc.

3. All India Services:
In India certain services are All India Service like the Indian Administrative Service (I.A.S.), the Indian. Police Service (I.P.S.) etc. Selection to these services is made by the Union Public Service Commission. The service conditions of these services are decided by the Central Government. Besides serving in their respective States, these officers serve in the Centre from time – to – time. Thus, the Central Government exercise control over the States.

4. Financial Assistance:
The money State Governments receive from taxes is insufficient. Important sources of income are with the Central Government. The Centre gives grants to State Government from time-to-time. Through such grants the Centre exercises control over the States.

5. Powers of Parliament:
The Parliament has powers to divide a State or form one State by integrating two States or some parts of these states and form a new State. Parliament has power to increase or decrease the area of a State or change the boundaries of a State.

Question 3.
Write the procedure of passing a bill in the Parliament?
Answer:
The procedure of passing a Bill:
1. First Reading or Presentation of the Bill:
Any member of Parliament after giving one month’s notice can present a bill with prior permission of the chairman of council of States/Speaker of the House of People. At the time of the first reading only the Caption of the Bill is read. Normally no discussions take place at the time of first reading i.e., mere presentation of the bill is its first reading. After presentation of the bill it is published in the Gazette of India.

2. Second reading:
Before the commencement of second reading copies of the bill are distributed among the members. At this stage every section of the bill is not discussed in details, only the basic features of the bill are discussed. At that stage no amendments are suggested either. If necessary the bill is sent to the combined Select Committee.

3. Committee Stage:
For deliberations the House is divided into small committees. Members of the Committee study minutely every article/para of the bill and deliberate on it. The committee may consult subject specialists if needed. The Committee has also the powers to make amendments in the bill. After due consideration the committee submits its report to the Chairman of the Legislative Council/Speaker of House of People (as the case may be).

4. Report Stage:
Copies of the Report of the Committee along with the amendments suggested are given to the members of the House. The House may accept the report of the Committee as it is. Discussion takes place in the House on the Bill. Detailed discussion take place on every sections of the Bill. In the end voting takes place. If the bill is passed after voting, then this stage is deemed to be over.

5. Third Reading:
After the report stage, the stage of passing of the bill is called the last stage or the third reading. At this stage deliberations take place only on the main features of the bill and not on every section of the Bill. At this stage no changes are made in the draft bill. If the bill is passed by the House it is sent to another House under the signature of the Speaker or Chairman of the House.

6. Sending Bill in the Second House:
When a bill is passed in one House it is sent to another House in die aforesaid manner.

7. Assent of the President:
When the bill is passed, in both the Houses of Parliament, it is sent to the President for assent. After the assent of the President the bill becomes the Law, and it is published in the Government Gazette. On ordinary bills the President may give assent or send it for reconsideration of both the Houses. If both the Houses again pass the bill the President has to give assent.

Question 4.
Write the emergency powers of the President? (MP Board 2009, 2010)
Answer:
Emergency Powers of the President:

1. The President may declare emergency in the Country in cases of external aggression, internal armed uprisings, constitutional failures in States or financial crises. The emergency can be declared by the President only on the advice of the cabinet, ratification of both the houses of Parliament is necessary within two months of such declaration.

Under such circumstances the Parliament acquires the powers of enacting Laws for the whole country or a part there of the Union Government can under such circumstance give directions to the states.

2. From the Report of the Governor or from any other source when the President has reason to believe that the administration of a State is not running as per the provisions of the Constitution then the President, with prior approval of the Central Cabinet, may impose Presidents rule in that State. Approval of both of the Houses of Parliament is necessary on any such declaration within two months of such declaration.

During this period complete or partial administration of that State comes in the hands of the President. He/she may delegate the power of administration to the Governor. During such period the power of framing laws vests in the Parliament. During this period the governor enjoys all the administrative powers of the State save the powers of the High Court.

3. When the President has reason to believe that severe financial emergency has arisen in the country he/she may impose financial emergency in the country.

Question 5.
Describe functions of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
Functions of the Council of Ministers:
1. Formulation of Policies:
With regard to the problems and matters relating to economic, social foreign and political, the Council of Ministers frame suitable policy for their solution.

2. Matters Relating to Appointments:
All important appointments in the Country and outside, like the Governors, Ambassadors, Chairmen and members of various commissions. Attorney General etc. are made by the Council of Ministers.

3. Matters Relating to Finance:
The Council of Ministers exercises control over the income and expenditure of the country. The Finance minister drafts the budget, presents it before the Council of Ministers and after its approval it is presented in the House. If the budget is not passed by the Parliament the whole Cabinet has to tender resignation. .

4. Advice to the President:
The Council of Ministers advises the President from time – to – time. The President has to accept the advice of the Cabinet.

Question 6.
Describe the powers of the Supreme Court of India?
Answer:
The powers of the Supreme Court are as under:

1. Original Jurisdiction:
Such disputes which do not go in other courts of the country are put up only in the Supreme Court of India. It decides centre – state (s) disputes. It decides disputes between two or more states. The Supreme Court has power to take action for protection of fundamental rights of citizens.

2. Appelate Jurisdiction:
The Supreme Court is the highest and final court of appeal of the country. The Supreme Court has the power to hear Constitutional appeals, Civil appeals, Criminal appeals, Special appeals.

3. Consultative Function:
Under Article 143 of the Constitution in the President seeks advice on any constitutional or legal matter, the Supreme Court may give such advice to the President.

4. Jurisdiction as to Judicial Review:
The Supreme Court has the power to examine the validity of laws and administrative orders passed by Parliament and State Assemblies and see whether they are in accordance with the constitutional provisions or not. Through this power the Supreme Court protects the”constitution.

5. Court of Record:
Supreme Court is also acts as Court of Record, i.e. all its Judgements and records are in writing and published, and they are kept as record. In the subordinate courts these judgments are produced as examples and the subordinate courts follow them.

6. Other Works:
The Supreme Court, besides the above, does following work:

• Inspections and enquiry of subordinate courts.
• To decide service conditions, promotion and termination of services of its own staff as well as subordinate officers and staff.
• Power to punish any person found guilty of contempt of court.

Question 7.
Explain the Panchayat Raj System and describe the functions of local bodies.
Answer:
The Local Government system is not uniform in rural and urban areas. In our country the local government institutions in rural and urban areas are of three types. In rural areas there are Village Panchayats, Block (level) Panchayats and District Panchayats. In town areas, ‘Nagar Panchayat’ municipalities and municipal corporations are there. These units of local administration work under the guidance and control of the elected representatives who are elected by the people. This arrangement of local government is known as Local Self – Government.

Panchayati Raj System for Rural India:
Gram Panchayats have been formed for the villages of the state for maintaining cleanliness, providing health services, lighting, drinking water and other similar facilities. If the size of the villages is small then one Gram Panchayat is formed for two or more villages. The people of rural areas manage the affairs of their villages through the Gram Panchayats.

Such arrangements is popularly known as Panchayati Raj System. The local government in different states of the country has been organised according to the laws framed in this respect by the Legislative Assemblies of the respective states. Therefore, the System of Local Government in all the States is of different type and not uniform.

The system of Panchayat Raj in Madhya Pradesh is as under:

1. Gram Sabhas and Gram Pranchayats for villages.
2. A Janpad Panchyat for every development block.
3. A Zila Panchayat or District Panchayat for every district.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 13 Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions.
(Choose the correct Answer from the following)

Question (i)
Which of the following is not included in the Indian Administrative System –
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Local Government
(d) Federal Government
Answer:
(d) Federal Government

Question (ii)
The number of members in Rajya Sabha is –
(a) 300
(b) 275
(c) 250
(d) 350
Answer:
(c) 250

Question (iii)
Council of Ministers consist of the categories of –
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(c) Three

Question (iv)
The organs  of Government are –
(a) Legislative
(b) Executive
(c) Judiciary
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

Question (v)
The local self – government system is divided into –
(a) Two parts
(b) Three parts
(c) Four parts
(d) Five Parts
Answer:
(b) Three parts

Question (vi)
Minimum age limit for the candidate of President post is – (MP Board 2009)
(a) 45 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
(b) 35 years

Question (vii)
Mininum age of the Rajya Sabha membership is – (MP Board 2009)
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 50 years
Answer:
(b) 35 years

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The Prime Minister is elected by the ……………..
2. There are ………… states and …………. union territories in Indian union.
3. Upper House is called ……………..
4. Lok Sabha can bring a oaotion of impeachment of the ……………..
5. Maximum number of Members of Council of States is ………….
6. Maximum number of Member of House of People is …………… (MP Board 2009)
7. Number of member of the Lagistative Assembly of Madhya Pradesh is ………… (MP Board 2009)
8. The ………….. is a small but effective part of the council of ministers.(MP Board 2009)

Answer:

1. President
2. 22, 7
3. Council of States
4. President
5. 250
6. 545
7. 230

Question 3.
True and False type questions

1. The age limit for the member of the house of people is 30 years.
2. The tenure of the member of the Council of States is 6 years.
3. The President of India is the Supreme Commander of army.
4. The Chief Justice of India is elected by the Prime Minister.
5. Money Bills are introduced in the House of People. (MP Board 2009)
6. Supreme Court is the protector of fundamental rights. (MP Board 2009)
7. On the advice of Prime Minister, President can dissolve Parliament. (MP Board 2009)
8. There are 29 Judges and a Chief Justice in the Supreme Court. (MP Board 2009)
9. Maximum numbers of the members of council of Stat is 250.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. True.

Question 4.
Match the Column:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

Answer in One – Two Words or in One Sentence

Question 1.
Which are the constituents that combine to make a Parliament?
Answer:
The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, the President.

Question 2.
How many members are there in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Lok Sabha has a total strength of 545 members.

Question 3.
Which class of people are nominated in the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
People belonging to arts, literature, science and social work.

Question 4.
Who decides that a particular bill is a money bill?
Answer:
The speaker of the Lok Sabha decides that a particular bill is a money bill.

Question 5.
In what name the majority leader of the Lok Sabha is called?
Answer:
The majority leader of the Lok Sabha is called the Prime Minister.

Question 6.
Mention the retirement age of High Court Judge. (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
62 years.

Question 7.
What is minimum age for the Parliament Membership? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
25 years.

Question 8.
Who elects the Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (MP Board 2013)
Answer:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the Lok Sabha members.

Question 9.
Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha.

Question 10.
Who does preside over the joint session of the Parliament?
Answer:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint session of the Parliament.

Question 11.
Who does conduct the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The Vice – President conducts the proceeding, of the Rajya Sabha and in his absence, the Vice – Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 12.
Which body makes laws for India?
Answer:
The Parliament of India makes laws for India.

Question 13.
On what conditions the Prime Minister has to tender his resignation?
Answer:
When the Prime Minister loses confidence of the Lok Sabha, he resigns from his office.

Question 14.
What is the minimum age required for the Parliament?
Answer:
The minimum age required for the President is 35 years of age.

Question 15.
Why are Union Territories not given the status of full – fledged states?
Answer:
The Union Territories are not given the status of full – fledged status because they usually have small areas and population.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 13  Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many members are nominated in the Lok Sabha and by whom?
Answer:
The President nominated two members in the Lok Sabha. These members belong to the Anglo – Indian community. The President does so when he is satisfied that the Anglo-Indian community has not been adequately represented in the Lok Sabha.

Question 2.
Describe the composition of the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 550. Out of this 530 members are taken from the numerous states whereas 20, from the union territories. The whole country, statewise, is divided into as many constituencies as are the seats. Each constituency elects its own representation. Any candidate obtaining the largest number of votes is declared elected.

Question 3.
How is the Rajya Sabha constituted?
Answer:
The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Indian Parliament. It consists of a maximum strength of 250. Out of this, 12 members are nominated by the President who have excelled in art, literature, science and social work. The remaining 238 members are elected by the respective legislative assemblies of the states.

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of federal form of Government?
Answer:

1. Dual Governments.
2. Division of Powers.
3. Constitution to be supreme and in written form.
4. Supremacy of Judiciary.
5. Two Houses of Legislators.

Question 5.
What are three non – legislative functions of Parliament?
Answer:

1. The Member of Parliament can ask and Answer the questions.
2. The Parliament can give approval to emergency proclamations.
3. It can consider the no – confidence motions.

Question 6.
What grade of ministers are in the Central Council of Ministers?
Answer:

1. Ministers of Cabinet rank.
2. Ministers of States.
3. Deputy Minsiters.

Question 7.
How is the Chief Minister of the State appointed?
Answer:
The Chief Minsiter of the State is appointed by the Governor. The Governor appoints the leader of the political party that obtains majority in the Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister of a State.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Contempt of Court?
Answer:
The Contempt of Court meAnswer that the court can publish any one who does not abide by the decision/judgement of the Supreme Court of other Courts. The Court has the authority to fine and imprison for the contempt of itself.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science  Chapter 13 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the legislative powers of the President?
Answer:
The legislative powers of the President are:

1. The President calls the sessions of both the Houses and prorogues them. He can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the recommendations of the Prime Minister.
2. He inaugurates the Parliament by addressing the Lok Sabha.
3. No bill can become law without his assent.
4. He can issue ordinances during the intervals of the sessions of the Parliament.

Question 2.
Describe the minimum qualifications for the post of the President. What is the term of office?
Answer:
The minimum qualifications for the post of the President are:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should be of 35 years at least.
3. He should possess qualifications required for the member of the Lok Sabha.
4. He should not hold any office of profit. He is elected for a period of five years with the provision of re-election.

Question 3.
Write any four functions of chairman of Parliament. (MP Board 2009, 2012)
Or
What are the main functions of the speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Main functions are:

1. He presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha. If need be, he can call the joint session of both the Houses of Parliamnet. He also presides over their joint sitting.

2. He can adjourn the House if it lacks quorum (1/10 of its total strength).

3.He decides whether a bill is a money bill or an ordinary bill.

4. He maintains order and discipline in the House.

5.  He conducts the business of the house in accordance with the rules. No member can speak without his permission. All members, weather of the treasury benches or the opposition have to obey his authority.

Question 4.
Write the main legislative powers of the Government. (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Legislative Power of the Government:

1. He summons, prorogues and dissolves the Lower House of the State Assembly lpefore its terms finishes, on the advice of the Chief Minister.

2. He issues ordinances during the intervals of the session of the state legislature. Such ordinance would remain in fource 6 weeks after the next session of the legislature commences, unless they are reviewed earlier.

3. He gives assent to the Bills passed by the State Legislative. Without his approval the bill cannot become a law.

4. The budget is presented to the Legislative on his name.

5. He has the power to nominate 1/6 of the members of the Legislative Council from among persons who are renowned one’s in various fields.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the supremacy of Parliament ?
Answer:
The Indian Parliament is the creation of the constitution of India which have specified its power. The Parliament is the highest law making body of the country. It is the legislative organ of the Union Government and comprises the representatives of the people. It cari remove the Council of Minister by withdrawing confidence in it. It has a full control over the national finance. The above account proves its supermacy. However, it is not a soverigh body uncontrolled with unlimited powers.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science  Chapter 13 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss briefly the powers and functions of the Parliament of India?
Answer:
The Parliament of India is the legislative organ of the Union Government.
It has two Houses the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha. The powers and functions of the Parliament are:

1. Ordinary bills can be introduced is any of the two Houses. Each bill has to pass through various stages before it becomes a law. After the bill is passed by both the Houses, it is presented to the President for his assent.

2. The Parliament is empowered to approve the, budget. It is on the approval of the Parliament that the taxes are collected and expenditure are made.

3. The Parliament’s members ask questions and supplementary questions. The Parliament can pass vote of no confidence, cut in motions, adjournment motion against the executive.

4. The Parliament participates in the amendment of the constitution. It also participates in the elections of the President and the Vice – President.

5. The Parliament approves proclamation of emergency issued by the President and can extend its period six monthly.

6. It participates in the impeachment proceedings to remove the President or the judges of the Supreme High Courts.

Question 2.
Describe the relationship between the President and the Council of Ministers.?
Answer:
India has adopted a parliamentary system. Under this system, the executive is in constant touch with the legislature. Actually it is a part of it there are, in parliamentary system two types of executive nominal and real. In India nominal executive is the President and the real executive is the Council of Ministers. The President is the Head of the State whereas the Chairman of the Council of Ministers, i.e., the Prime Minister, is the Head of the Government. The President does what the Council of Ministers wants him to do.

He has to act on the aid and advice of the Cabinet. At most, he can ask the cabinet (the Council of Ministers) the reconsider the decision. If the cabinet makes the same decision, the President has to accept it. Like the king (Queen) of England, the President governs but does not rule. The ruling authority, in India, is the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Question 3.
Describe the executive powers of the President
Answer:
The executive powers of the President are vast. Some of these are:

1. The President appoints the Prime Minister and on his advice, he appoints other members of Council of Ministers.

2.All government’s decisions are taken in the name of the President.

3. The President appoints Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

4. He appoints the State Governor, the Attorney General, the Comptroller and Auditor General, Chairman and members of the UPSC and ambassadors to other’ countries.

5. He is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces.

Question 4.
Write the Right of Constitutional review of the Supreme Court of India?
Answer:
Supreme Court avails the five varieties of right regarding constitution review that are as follow:

Habeas Corpus:
Habeas Corpus is a writ issued by the Supreme Court/High Court to release the detained person and bring him before the court. The court does so because it is continued that it is wrong to detain the person.

Mandamus:
Through,mandamus, the Supreme Court or the High Court can force a lower court, a person, or an institution to discharge specific duty. If, for example, the election of a particular institution is not held, the Supreme Court can order such election.

Prohibition:
Prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court to the subordinate court for refraining it to do anything. It is a writ which stalls the proceedings of the lower court on the ground that the case in question does not fall under its jurisdiction.

Certiorari:
Is a writ issued by the Supreme Court/High Court when it wants.to hear itself any case which is being heard in some lower court. After this writ has been issued, the hearing in the lower court is suspended, and the case is forwarded to the higher court.

Quo Warranto:
Quo Warranto is a writ which forbid an erring and individual to assume office and can ask him to relinguish office wrongfully held by him. The individual concerned has to comply with the orders.

Question 5.
Discuss the composition, jurisdiction and position of the Supreme Court of India?
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India is the highest court in the country. It is also called the apex court. It consists of 26 judges, including the Chief Justice. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President and the other Judges in consultation with the Chief Justice. A judge of the Supreme Court retires at the age of 64, unless removed earlier by impeachment on grounds of misbehaviour and incapacity. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be stated as under:

1. Its original jurisdiction extends to disputed in which the Union or the States are parties.

2. Its appellate jurisdiction relates to constitutional, civil and criminal appeals; constitutional when interpretation of any article of the constitution is involved civil when a substantial question of law is involved; criminal when death penalty is instituted.

3. It can review its own decisions.

4. It acts as a courts of records.

5. It has jurisdiction of advisory opinion in so far as it gives the President advice on any legal matter. But it is binding on the President to accept the advice. The Supreme Court is the protector of the constitution, the federal scheme and of the fundamental rights of the citizens of India.

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 17 मुद्रा एवं वित्तीय प्रणाली Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 मुद्रा एवं वित्तीय प्रणाली

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 पाठान्त अभ्यास

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

प्रश्न 1.
मुद्रा का प्रमुख कार्य है –
(i) विनिमय का माध्यम
(ii) मूल्य संचय
(iii) स्थगित भुगतानों का मान
(iv) ये सभी।
उत्तर:
(iv) ये सभी।

प्रश्न 2.
साहूकारों की महत्त्वपूर्ण भूमिका रही है –
(i) औद्योगिक वित्त में
(ii) विकास वित्त में
(iii) कृषि वित्त में
(iv) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(iii) कृषि वित्त में

प्रश्न 3.
विदेशी विनिमय बैंक का प्रमुख कार्य है –
(i) जमाएँ स्वीकार करना
(ii) ऋण देना
(iii) मुद्रा का विनिमय करना
(iv) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(iii) मुद्रा का विनिमय करना

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

प्रश्न 1.
एक वस्तु से दूसरी वस्तु की अदला-बदली करके आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करना ……………. प्रणाली कहा जाता है।
उत्तर:
वस्तु-विनिमय

प्रश्न 2.
वित्तीय प्रणाली में वित्तीय संस्थायें धन उधार लेकर उसे अन्य जरूरतमन्दों को ……………. देता है।
उत्तर:
ऋण के रूप के उधार

प्रश्न 3.
स्व-सहायता समूह में सदस्यों की अधिकतम संख्या ……………. होती है।
उत्तर:
20

प्रश्न 4.
औद्योगिक बैंक उद्योगों को अल्पकालीन एवं दीर्घकालीन ……………. प्रदान करती हैं।
उत्तर:
ऋण

प्रश्न 5.
बचत बैंक लोगों की ……………. को एकत्रित करती हैं।
उत्तर:
बचत।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वस्तु-विनिमय प्रणाली की मुख्य समस्या क्या थी ?
उत्तर:
वस्तु-विनिमय प्रणाली की सबसे बड़ी कठिनाई यह थी कि कोई ऐसा व्यक्ति मिले जो एक व्यक्ति द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तु को स्वीकार करे एवं बदले में उसकी आवश्यकता की वस्तु को उपलब्ध कराए।

प्रश्न 2.
‘चिट फण्ड’ भारत के किस हिस्से में सर्वाधिक प्रचलित है ?
उत्तर:
चिट फण्ड योजनाओं का दक्षिण भारत के राज्यों में लम्बा इतिहास रहा है। दक्षिण भारत के गाँव में यह बहुत लोकप्रिय रहा है।

प्रश्न 3.
बैंक तथा गैर-बैंकिंग वित्तीय कम्पनियों में मुख्य अन्तर क्या है ?
उत्तर:
बैंक मध्यस्थ साख निर्माण करते हैं। वे जनता से जमाएँ लेकर निश्चित दर पर रिजर्व अनुपात रखते हुए बाकी धन उधार देते हैं जबकि गैर-बैंकिंग वित्तीय कम्पनियाँ साख का निर्माण नहीं करतीं। ये तो केवल तरलता निर्माण करती हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
भूमि विकास बैंक किसान को किस अवधि के ऋण देता है ?
उत्तर:
भूमि विकास बैंक किसानों को दीर्घकालीन ऋण देते हैं। यह बैंक भूमि में सुधार करने, कुआँ खोदने, नलकूप लगाने, कृषि यन्त्र खरीदने, ट्रैक्टर खरीदने आदि के लिए कम ब्याज पर 15 से 20 वर्ष की अवधि तक के लिए ऋण देते हैं। चूँकि इन बैंकों द्वारा भूमि की जमानत पर ऋण दिया जाता है, अतः इनका लाभ बड़े किसानों द्वारा अधिक उठाया जा रहा है।

प्रश्न 5.
राष्ट्रीय कृषि एवं ग्रामीण विकास बैंक का संक्षिप्त नाम क्या है ?
उत्तर:
इसे संक्षेप में ‘नाबार्ड’ कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
देश में नोट छापने का कार्य किस बैंक द्वारा किया जाता है ?
उत्तर:
देश में नोट छापने का कार्य ‘रिजर्व बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया’ द्वारा किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 7.
देश का पहला मोबाइल बैंक किस प्रदेश में स्थापित किया गया है ?
उत्तर:
मध्य प्रदेश के खरगोन जिले में मोबाइल बैंक की स्थापना की गई है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
प्राचीन काल में किन-किन वस्तुओं का मुद्रा के रूप में प्रयोग किया जाता था ? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
प्राचीन युग का मनुष्य अपनी आवश्यकता की सभी वस्तुओं का उत्पादन स्वयं नहीं कर सकता था। फलतः उसने अपने द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तु का दूसरे व्यक्तियों द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तुओं से बदलना प्रारम्भ किया।

समय के साथ – साथ वस्तु-विनिमय प्रणाली की अनेक कठिनाइयाँ सामने आईं। फलतः ऐसी वस्तुओं की खोज की गई जो सभी व्यक्तियों को स्वीकार हो। प्रारम्भ में गाय, बकरी, सीप, मछली के काँटों, जानवरों की खाल, हाथी दाँत आदि को मुद्रा की इकाई के रूप में अपनाया गया।

प्रश्न 2.
साहूकारी व्यवस्था के दोषों को बताइए।
उत्तर:
साहूकारी व्यवस्था के दोष-साहूकारी व्यवस्था के निम्नलिखित दोष हैं –

1. ब्याज की ऊँची दर-साहूकार बहुत ऊँची ब्याज की दर पर रुपया उधार देता है।
2. ब्याज पर ब्याज लगाना-साहूकार ब्याज पर ब्याज लगाते हैं जिसके कारण ऋण का भार और भी बढ़ जाता है जो ऋणी को असहनीय हो जाता है।
3. हिसाब में गड़बड़ी-साहूकार के पास केवल बहियाँ होती हैं जिन पर गलत लेखे किये जाते हैं। इन लेखों का न तो निरीक्षण होता है और न प्रकाशन। दूसरे, वे रुपया प्राप्त करके ऋणी का रसीद नहीं देते जिससे ऋणियों का शोषण होता है।
4. बेगार कराना-कोई-कोई साहूकार बहुत प्रभावशाली होता है। वह विशेष अवसरों पर ऋणी की सेवाएँ आदि बेगार के रूप में निःशुल्क लेता है।

प्रश्न 3.
मुद्रा की परिभाषा दीजिए।
उत्तर:
मार्शल के अनुसार, “वे समस्त वस्तुएँ जो कि (किसी समय अथवा स्थान पर) बिना किसी सन्देह अथवा विशेष जाँच के बाद वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के खरीदने तथा व्यय के भुगतान के साधन के रूप में सामान्य रूप से स्वीकृत की जाती हैं।” इसी प्रकार प्रो. ऐली के अनुसार, “जो कोई वस्तु विनिमय के रूप में एक व्यक्ति से दूसरे व्यक्ति को स्वतन्त्रतापूर्वक हस्तान्तरित होती रहती है और जिसे ऋणों के अन्तिम भुगतान में साधारणतः ग्रहण कर लिया जाता है, मुद्रा कहलाती है।”

इस परिभाषा के आधार पर यह आवश्यक नहीं है कि मुद्रा केवल धातु निर्मित होनी चाहिए वरन् ऐसी मुद्रा हो सकती है जिसे विनिमय माध्यम एवं ऋणों के अन्तिम भुगतान के रूप में सामान्य स्वीकृति प्राप्त हो। इस आधार पर हम चैकों, हुण्डियों, विनिमय-पत्र को मुद्रा रूप में स्वीकार नहीं कर सकते, क्योंकि न तो इनका स्वतन्त्रतापूर्वक हस्तान्तरण होता है और न ये बिना विशेष जाँच के स्वीकार किये जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
व्यापारिक बैंक किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
व्यापारिक बैंकों से आशय ऐसे बैंकों से है, जो सामान्य बैंकिंग का कार्य करते हैं। ये बैंक रिजर्व बैंक के अधीन कार्य करते हैं तथा बैंकिंग नियमन अधिनियम का पालन करते हैं। ये जनता का धन जमा के रूप में स्वीकार करते हैं तथा उन्हें ऋण उपलब्ध कराते हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त ये बैंक एजेन्सी सम्बन्धी तथा सामान्य उपयोगिता सम्बन्धी अनेक कार्य करते हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
वित्तीय प्रणाली से क्या तात्पर्य है ?
उत्तर:
जब हमारी आय, अपनी आवश्यकता से अधिक होती है, तब उसे सुरक्षित रूप से रखने और उससे लाभ कमाने के लिए वित्तीय संस्थाओं की जरूरत होती है। इस प्रकार वित्तीय संस्थाएँ हमारी अतिरिक्त आय या बचत को जमा के रूप में अपने पास रखती हैं और जिन व्यक्तियों को धन की आवश्यकता होती है, उन्हें ऋण के रूप में उधार देती हैं। अतः जमा के रूप में धन एकत्रित करने और ऋण देने की प्रक्रिया को वित्तीय प्रणाली के रूप में जाना जाता है। इस प्रकार अर्थव्यवस्था में धन या पूँजी की माँग एवं पूर्ति के मध्य समन्वय बनाये रखने की प्रक्रिया को वित्तीय प्रणाली कहा जाता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
मुद्रा के विकास पर एक लेख लिखिए।
अथवा
वस्तु विनिमय प्रणाली क्या है तथा इसकी मुख्य समस्या क्या है ? उसकी दो कठिनाइयों को उदाहरण सहित लिखिए। (2012)
[संकेत – मुद्रा का विकास’ शीर्षक का प्रथम भाग देखें।]
उत्तर:
मुद्रा का परिचय-‘मुद्रा’ शब्द का आविष्कार अंग्रेजी भाषा के ‘Money’ तथा लैटिन भाषा ‘Moneta’ के शब्द से हुआ है। कहा जाता है कि प्राचीन काल में मुद्रा, देवी जूनो (Goddess Juno) के मन्दिर में बनायी जाती थी और देवी जूनो को ही Moneta कहा जाता था। इटली की दन्त कथाओं के अनुसार देवी जूनो स्वर्ण की रानी का नाम है, इसलिए कुछ अर्थशास्त्रियों ने मुद्रा को स्वर्गीय आनन्द का प्रतीक माना है। ऐसा मत है कि प्राचीन समय में रोम के मन्दिर में ही मुद्रा की ढलाई होती थी जिससे इसका अंग्रेजी नामकरण ‘मनी’ हुआ।

मुद्रा का विकास

आज जो मुद्रा का स्वरूप देखने को मिलता है, उसके विकास का एक लम्बा इतिहास है। प्राचीन युग का मनुष्य भी अपनी आवश्यकता की सभी वस्तुओं का उत्पादन स्वयं नहीं कर सकता था। फलतः उसने अपने द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तु का दूसरे व्यक्तियों द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तुओं से बदलना प्रारम्भ किया। इसे ‘वस्तु विनिमय’ के रूप में जाना जाता है। यह प्रणाली काफी समय तक प्रचलित रही। समय के साथ-साथ वस्तु विनिमय प्रणाली की अनेक कठिनाइयाँ सामने आईं। परिणामस्वरूप ऐसी वस्तुओं की खोज की गई जो सभी व्यक्तियों को स्वीकार हो, किन्तु इस व्यवस्था में भी अनेक कठिनाइयाँ सामने आईं, जैसे प्रमापीकरण का अभाव, संचय की कठिनाई आदि। इससे धातुओं के उपयोग की प्रेरणा मिली। राजा एवं महाराजाओं ने जालसाजी को रोकने के लिए इन सिक्कों की तौल, आकार, रंग-रूप आदि को निर्धारित किया तथा इन सिक्कों की प्रामाणिकता के लिए उन पर सरकार की मुहर लगाई जाने लगी।

समय के साथ-साथ धातु मुद्रा की कठिनाइयाँ सामने आने लगी। फलतः बैंकिंग व्यवस्था के साथ-साथ पत्र मुद्रा का विकास हुआ। पत्र मुद्रा का विस्तार अनेक रूपों में हुआ; जैसे-लिखित प्रमाण-पत्र, प्रतिनिधि कागजी मुद्रा, परिवर्तनीय कागजी मुद्रा, अपरिवर्तनीय कागजी मुद्रा आदि । केन्द्रीय बैंक एवं व्यापारिक बैंक के विस्तार के साथ-साथ चैक, हुण्डी, ड्रॉफ्ट के रूप में साख मुद्राओं का विकास हुआ। वर्तमान में क्रेडिट कार्ड एवं ए. टी. एम. कार्ड के रूप में प्लास्टिक मुद्रा भी चलन में है। इस प्रकार स्पष्ट है कि वर्तमान में हम जो मुद्रा देख रहे हैं उसका एक लम्बा इतिहास है। इसे निम्न चार्ट द्वारा भी स्पष्ट किया जा सकता है –

मुद्रा का विकास क्रम

प्रश्न 2.
स्व-सहायता समूह किसे कहते हैं ? इसके गठन के क्या-क्या उद्देश्य हो सकते हैं ? लिखिए। (2009)
अथवा
स्व-सहायता समूह के गठन के कोई चार उद्देश्य लिखिए। (2009, 13)
उत्तर:
स्व-सहायता समूह-स्व-सहायता समूह निर्धन व्यक्तियों का एक स्वैच्छिक संगठन है। इन समूहों का गठन आपसी सहयोग द्वारा अपनी समस्याओं के समाधान के लिए किया जाता है। यह समूह अपने सदस्यों के बीच छोटी-छोटी बचतों को प्रोत्साहित करता है। इन बचतों को बैंक में जमा किया जाताहै। बैंक के जिस खाते में यह राशि जमा की जाती है, वह खाता समूह के नाम होता है। सामान्यतः एक समूह के सदस्यों की अधिकतम संख्या 20 होती है।

प्रायः समूह के सदस्य ऐसे व्यक्ति होते हैं जिनकी पहुँच बैंक आदि वित्तीय संस्थाओं तक नहीं होती। अतः समूह सदस्यों को बचत की ऐसी विधि सिखाता है, जो सदस्यों की आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति हेतु उपयुक्त है। समूह सदस्यों को कम ब्याज दर पर आसानी से छोटे ऋण उपलब्ध कराता है। इन समूहों ने महिला सशक्तिकरण की दिशा में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई है। समूह की बैंकिंग सम्बन्धित गतिविधियों का उद्देश्य समाज के उन निर्धन और पिछड़े व्यक्तियों को बैंकों से जोड़ना है जिनको अभी तक अनदेखा किया गया है। देश में स्व-सहायता समूह महिलाओं का हो सकता है, पुरुषों का हो सकता है या फिर महिला और पुरुष दोनों का मिश्रित हो सकता है, परन्तु यह देखा गया है कि महिला स्व-सहायता समूह अधिक सफल रहे हैं।

स्व-सहायता समूह के गठन के उद्देश्य

स्व-सहायता समूह के गठन के निम्नलिखित उद्देश्य हो सकते हैं –

1. सामूहिक रूप से संगठित होकर कार्य करने की भावना विकसित करना।
2. सदस्यों में बेहतर भविष्य के लिए बचत करने की आदत विकसित करना।
3. सदस्यों में स्वावलम्बन की भावना का विकास करना।
4. स्वास्थ्य, पोषण, शिक्षा और घरेलू हिंसा जैसे विषयों के प्रति जागृति उत्पन्न करना।
5. सदस्यों को ऋण प्रदान करके स्वरोजगार के अवसरों का सृजन करना।
6. सरकार, बैंक तथा अन्य स्वयंसेवी संस्थाओं की सहायता से कल्याणकारी गतिविधियों का संचालन आदि।

प्रश्न 3.
भारत में पायी जाने वाली निजी वित्तीय संस्थाएँ कौन-कौनसी हैं ? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
निजी वित्तीय संस्थाएँ

निजी क्षेत्र की वित्तीय संस्थाओं के अन्तर्गत उन संस्थाओं को रखा जाता है जिनका स्वामित्व निजी व्यक्तियों या संस्थाओं के हाथों में होता है; जैसे-जमींदार, चिट-फण्ड आदि। वर्तमान में अनेक व्यापारिक बैंक एवं बीमा कम्पनियाँ भी निजी क्षेत्र के अन्तर्गत कार्य कर रही हैं।

भारत में कार्यरत् निजी क्षेत्र की प्रमुख वित्तीय संस्थाएँ निम्नलिखित हैं –

(1) साहूकार-साहूकार या महाजन वह व्यक्ति है जो अपने ग्राहकों को समय-समय पर ऋण उपलब्ध कराता है। साहूकार दो प्रकार के होते हैं –

• जमींदार या कृषक साहूकार, तथा
• व्यावसायिक साहूकार।

(i) कृषक साहूकार या जमींदार-कृषक साहूकार वे व्यक्ति कहलाते हैं, जो मुख्य रूप से कृषि करते हैं लेकिन धनवान होने के कारण, धन उधार देने का कार्य सहायक व्यवसाय के रूप में करते हैं।
(ii) व्यावसायिक साहूकार-व्यावसायिक साहूकार वे व्यक्ति कहलाते हैं जिनका मुख्य व्यवसाय उधार देना ही होता है।

साहूकारों के कार्य करने का तरीका बहुत सरल होता है। ये अल्पकालीन, मध्यमकालीन व दीर्घकालीन तीनों प्रकार के ऋण देते हैं। ये उत्पादन व उपभोग दोनों कार्यों के लिए ऋण देते हैं। ऋण जमानत लेकर व बिना जमानत लिए दोनों प्रकार के होते हैं।

(2) जमींदार – इस प्रथा का प्रारम्भ 1793 में लार्ड कार्नवालिस ने बंगाल में किया था। जमींदार बड़े भू-स्वामी होते थे। इनका कार्य किसानों से लगान वसूल करना था। ये किसानों से लगान वसूल करके सरकार को देते थे। जमींदार आवश्यकता पड़ने पर किसानों को उनकी आवश्यकता पूर्ति के लिए ऋण भी दिया करते थे। इनके द्वारा किसानों को दिए गये ऋणों पर ब्याज की दर बहुत ऊँची होती थी। इनके द्वारा प्रदत्त ऋणों की शर्ते भी कठोर होती थीं। ये ऋण वसूली में निर्दयता का व्यवहार करते थे, जिससे किसानों का शोषण होता था।

फलस्वरूप सभी राज्यों ने कानून बनाकर जमींदारी प्रथा को पूर्णतः समाप्त कर दिया है किन्तु वर्तमान समय में भी जमींदारों द्वारा ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में ऋण देने का कार्य किया जाता है।

(3) चिट-फण्ड – चिट-फण्ड भारत में पायी जाने वाली एक प्रकार की बचत योजना है। इसमें निर्धारित संख्या में सदस्य बनाये जाते हैं। ये सदस्य पूर्व निर्धारित समय अन्तराल के बाद एक निश्चित स्थान पर एकत्रित होकर, तयशुदा धनराशि एक स्थान पर एकत्रित करते हैं। फिर इस एकत्रित धनराशि की सदस्यों के बीच नीलामी की जाती है। इस नीलामी में जो सदस्य सबसे ऊँची बोली लगाता है, उसे एकत्रित धनराशि सौंप दी जाती है। इस प्रकार की चिट-फण्ड योजनाएँ किसी पंजीकृत वित्तीय संस्था या कुछ मित्र या रिश्तेदार आपस में मिलकर भी चलाते हैं। उद्देश्य में भिन्नता के साथ-साथ, अलग-अलग तरह की अनेक चिट-फण्ड योजनाएँ देश में चल रही हैं।

(4) व्यापारिक बैंक – सन् 1991 के बाद निजी क्षेत्र में अनेक बैंक स्थापित किए गए हैं। उदाहरणार्थ आई. सी. आई. सी. आई (ICICI) बैंक, एच. डी. एफ. सी. (HDFC) बैंक, इन्डस (INDUS) बैंक आदि निजी क्षेत्र की बैंक हैं। वर्तमान में निजी क्षेत्र में बैंकों का कार्यक्षेत्र बहुत अधिक बढ़ गया है। बीमा क्षेत्र भी निजी कम्पनियों के लिए खोल दिया गया है।

प्रश्न 4.
बैंकों के विभिन्न प्रकार कौन-कौनसे हैं? लिखिए
उत्तर:
बैंकों के प्रकार

भारत में निम्न प्रकार की बैंकें पायी जाती हैं –

(1) व्यापारिक बैंक (Commercial Bank) – व्यापारिक बैंक वह होती है जो साधारणतया व्यापार और उद्योग को अल्पावधि ऋण सहायता प्रदान करती है। ये बैंक जनता से जमाओं के रूप में नकदी प्राप्त करती हैं। जमाकर्ताओं की ये जमा उनके माँगने पर स्वयं उनको अथवा उनके आदेशानुसार किसी भी व्यक्ति अथवा संस्था को वापस लौटाती है। वर्तमान में ये बैंक इसके अतिरिक्त अन्य कार्य; जैसे-ड्राफ्ट, धन का हस्तान्तरण, लॉकर सुविधा आदि प्रदान करते हैं।

(2) औद्योगिक बैंक (Industrial Bank) – औद्योगिक बैंक वे होते हैं जो उद्योग-धन्धों की दीर्घकालीन वित्त सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करते हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त ये बैंक अंशों एवं ऋणों-पत्रों का अभिगोपन भी करते हैं। भारत में औद्योगिक विकास बैंक (IDBI), औद्योगिक वित्त निगम (IFC), राज्य वित्त निगम (SFC) तथा भारतीय औद्योगिक साख एवं विनियोग निगम (ICICI) आदि औद्योगिक बैंक के रूप में कार्य कर रहे हैं।

(3) विदेशी विनिमय बैंक (Foreign Exchange Bank) – ये बैंक विदेशी विनिमय में व्यापार करते हैं तथा विदेशी व्यापार की व्यवस्था करते हैं। इन बैंकों का प्रमुख कार्य विदेशी विनिमय की अर्थव्यवस्था करना होता है। ये बैंक विदेशी व्यापार के लिए उधार धन देने, सलाह देने, विदेशी बिलों को भुनाने, क्रय-विक्रय करने तथा आयात-निर्यात की व्यवस्था करने का कार्य करते हैं। ये बैंक विदेशी विनिमय दरों में स्थिरता बनाये रखने का कार्य करते हैं।

(4) सहकारी बैंक (Co-operative Bank) – सहकारिता की भावना को लेकर इन बैंकों का उदय हुआ है। ये बैंक परस्पर सहयोग के सिद्धान्त पर कार्य करती हैं। ये बैंक सहकारी समिति अधिनियम के अधीन पंजीकृत होते हैं। ये तीन स्तर पर पाये जाते हैं –

1. राज्य स्तर पर (राज्य सहकारी बैंक)
2. जिला स्तर पर (जिला सहकारी बैंक)तथा
3. ग्राम स्तर पर (सहकारी साख समिति)।

(5) केन्द्रीय बैंक (Central Bank) – केन्द्रीय बैंक देश की सम्पूर्ण बैंकिंग व्यवस्था का शीर्ष होता है। यह बैंक या अन्य बैंकों से भिन्न होता है। इस बैंक का मुख्य कार्य देश की बैंकिंग प्रणाली को व्यवस्थित एवं सुसंगठित रूप से संचालित करना तथा देश के अन्य बैंकों पर प्रभावी ढंग से नियन्त्रण करना होता है। केन्द्रीय बैंक देश की आवश्यकतानुसार पत्र-मुद्रा का निर्गमन करता है, देश की साख एवं बैंकिंग प्रणाली का नियन्त्रण करता है तथा सरकार के वित्तीय प्रतिनिधि के रूप में कार्य करता है। भारत में रिजर्व बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया केन्द्रीय बैंक के रूप में कार्य करता है।

(6) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंक (International Bank) – अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंकों के अन्तर्गत उन बैंकों को शामिल किया जाता है जिनकी स्थापना अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय आर्थिक समस्याओं को निपटाने तथा सदस्य राष्ट्रों को आर्थिक सहायता प्रदान करने के लिए की गयी है। इस दिशा में सन् 1945 में दो संस्थाओं विश्व बैंक तथा अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष की स्थापना की गयी।

प्रश्न 5.
मुद्रा के प्रमुख कार्यों की व्याख्या कीजिए। (2009)
अथवा
मुद्रा के कोई दो कार्य लिखिए। (2016)
अथवा
मुद्रा किसे कहते हैं ? इसके प्रमुख कार्य लिखिए। (2009)
[संकेत : मुद्रा का आशय लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न 3 के उत्तर में देखें
उत्तर:
मुद्रा के प्रमुख कार्य मुद्रा के प्रमुख कार्य निम्नलिखित हैं –

(1) विनिमय का माध्यम – यह मुद्रा का अत्यन्त महत्वपूर्ण कार्य है। इस कार्य द्वारा मुद्रा ने वस्तु विनिमय के दोहरे संयोग के अभाव की कठिनाई को दूर करके विनिमय रीति को व्यवस्थित और सरल बना दिया है अर्थात् प्रत्येक व्यक्ति अपनी वस्तु के बदले मुद्रा प्राप्त करता है और फिर उस मुद्रा से अपनी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करता है। प्रो. मार्शल के अनुसार, “मुद्रा को केवल इसलिए प्राप्त नहीं किया जाता है कि वह स्वयं मूल्यवान होती है वरन् इसलिए कि इसके द्वारा वस्तुओं और सेवाओं को प्राप्त किया जा सकता है, क्योंकि उसमें सामान्य क्रय-शक्ति होती है।”

(2) मूल्य का मापक – मुद्रा का दूसरा महत्वपूर्ण कार्य मूल्य मापक के रूप में विभिन्न वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं की विनिमय शक्ति को आँकने का रहा है। वस्तु विनिमय के अन्तर्गत विभिन्न वस्तुओं का अन्य वस्तुओं के रूप में मूल्य मापन एक कठिन कार्य था। मुद्रा के प्रचलन से अब यह कठिनाई दूर हो गयी है और सभी वस्तुओं व सेवाओं के मूल्यों को मुद्रा में मापा जा सकता है। प्रो. कोलबर्न के अनुसार, “यह माप या तुलना अत्यन्त महत्वपूर्ण है, क्योंकि सम्पूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था में लाभ और हानि का अनुमान इसी के आधार पर लगाया जाता है।”

(3) मूल्य संचय का आधार – प्रत्येक व्यक्ति भविष्य की आवश्यकताओं को पूरा करने के लिए संग्रह करना आवश्यक समझता है। यदि यह संग्रह वस्तुओं के रूप में किया जाए तो यह स्पष्ट है कि वस्तुएँ कुछ समय पश्चात् नष्ट हो जाएँगी। मुद्रा के आविष्कार ने इस समस्या का समाधान किया। वर्तमान में प्रत्येक व्यक्ति मुद्रा को संग्रह करके रखता है, क्योंकि मुद्रा में वस्तुओं को क्रय करने की शक्ति होती है।

(4) मूल्य का हस्तान्तरण – मुद्रा द्वारा मूल्य का हस्तान्तरण एक व्यक्ति से दूसरे व्यक्ति और एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर सरलतापूर्वक किया जा सकता है, क्योंकि इसमें सामान्य स्वीकृति का गुण पाया जाता है। जैसे कोई व्यक्ति आगरा छोड़कर इलाहाबाद बसना चाहता है तो वह आगरा में स्थित मकान व अन्य सम्पत्ति को मुद्रा में बेचकर उसी मुद्रा से इलाहाबाद में नया मकान व सम्पत्ति क्रय कर सकता है।

इसके साथ ही मुद्रा के माध्यम से उधार लेन-देन की प्रक्रिया बहुत सरल हो गई है। उपभोक्ता मुद्रा के माध्यम से अधिकतम सन्तुष्टि प्राप्त करता है तथा उत्पादक अपने उत्पादन की मात्रा को बढ़ाता है। संक्षेप में, मनुष्य के जीवन में मुद्रा अनेक महत्वपूर्ण कार्य करती है।

प्रश्न 6.
कृषि ऋण देने वाले संस्थाओं की विवेचना कीजिए।
उत्तर:
कृषि ऋण देने वाली संस्थाएँ

कृषि व्यवस्था, व्यापार तथा उद्योग-धन्धों से भिन्न होती है। अतः इसकी ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताएँ व्यापार तथा उद्योग-धन्धों की ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं से भिन्न होती हैं। यही कारण है कि कृषकों की आवश्यकता को पूरा करने के लिए कृषि बैंकों की स्थापना की गई। कृषि वित्त की आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति अग्रलिखित कृषि बैंकों द्वारा की जा रही है –

(1) कृषि सहकारी बैंक – कृषि सहकारी बैंक किसानों को अल्पकालीन ऋणों की सुविधाएँ कम ब्याज की दर पर प्रदान करते हैं। भारत में सहकारी बैंकों की रचना त्रिस्तरीय है। सबसे नीचे ग्राम स्तर पर प्राथमिक सहकारी साख समिति होती है। इन समितियों के ऊपर केन्द्रीय सहकारी बैंक (या जिला सहकारी बैंक) होते हैं जो आवश्यकता पड़ने पर इन समितियों को ऋण देते हैं। इन केन्द्रीय सहकारी बैंकों के ऊपर राज्य सहकारी बैंक होते हैं। राज्य सहकारी बैंक जिला सहकारी बैंक की ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करता है। राज्य सहकारी बैंकों को जब ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकता होती है तो राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक (नाबार्ड) इनकी मदद करता है।

(2) भूमि विकास बैंक – भूमि विकास बैंक किसानों को दीर्घकालीन ऋण देते हैं। यह बैंक भूमि में सुधार करने, कुआँ खोदने, नलकूप लगाने, कृषि यन्त्र खरीदने, ट्रैक्टर खरीदने आदि के लिए कम ब्याज पर 15 से 20 वर्ष की अवधि तक के लिए ऋण देते हैं। चूँकि इन बैंकों द्वारा भूमि की जमानत पर ऋण दिया जाता है, अतः इनका लाभ बड़े किसानों को अधिक प्राप्त हो रहा है।

(3) क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक – क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक की स्थापना वर्ष 1975 में हुई थी। इन बैंकों की स्थापना विशेषकर दूर-दराज के ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों के लोगों को बैंकिंग सुविधाएँ पहुँचाने के उद्देश्य से की गई है। इन बैंकों द्वारा छोटे एवं सीमान्त कृषकों, कृषि श्रमिकों, ग्रामीण शिल्पकारों एवं छोटे उद्यमियों को ऋण प्रदान किये जाते हैं। देश में 30 जून, 2015 को क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंकों की 20,290 शाखाएँ कार्यरत् हैं।

(4) राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक (नाबार्ड) – राष्ट्रीय कृषि एवं ग्रामीण विकास बैंक की स्थापना कृषि विकास हेतु ऋण उपलब्ध कराने के उद्देश्य से 12 जुलाई, 1982 को की गई। यह संस्था अनेक वित्तीय संस्थाओं; जैसे-राज्य भूमि विकास बैंक, राज्य सहकारी बैंक, वाणिज्यिक बैंक तथा क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक को .पुनर्वित्त की सुविधाएँ प्रदान करती है। अपनी ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए नाबार्ड भारत सरकार, विश्व बैंक तथा अन्य संस्थाओं से धन प्राप्त करता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 अन्य परीक्षोपयोगी प्रश्न

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

बहु-विकल्पीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
लैटिन भाषा में मुद्रा को कहते थे – (2012)
(i) मोनेटा
(ii) जूनो
(iii) पैक्यूना
(iv) पैकस।
उत्तर:
(iii) पैक्यूना

प्रश्न 2.
व्यापारिक बैंकों का राष्ट्रीयकरण किस वर्ष में हआ ?
(i) 1975
(ii) 1969
(iii) 1965
(iv) 1962
उत्तर:
(ii) 1969

प्रश्न 3.
राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक की स्थापना हुई थी –
(i) 12 जुलाई, 1982 को
(ii) 14 अगस्त, 1980 को
(iii) 30 जुलाई, 1975 को
(iv) 30 मई, 1985 को।
उत्तर:
(i) 12 जुलाई, 1982 को

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

1. वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं का क्रय-विक्रय …………. के माध्यम से होता है।
2. मनुष्य स्वभाव से भावी विपत्तियों से निपटने के लिए ……… करता है।
3. स्व-सहायता समूह का एक स्वैच्छिक संगठन है।

उत्तर:

1. मुद्रा
2. बचत
3. गरीब व्यक्तियों।

सत्य/असत्य

प्रश्न 1.
जमींदारी प्रथा का प्रारम्भ 1793 में लार्ड कार्नवालिस ने बंगाल में किया था।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 2.
साहूकारों का औद्योगिक वित्त में महत्वपूर्ण स्थान है।
उत्तर:
असत्य

प्रश्न 3.
चिट-फण्ड योजनाओं का दक्षिण भारत के राज्यों में लम्बा इतिहास रहा है।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 4.
क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक छोटे एवं सीमान्त किसानों, कृषि श्रमिकों को ऋण प्रदान करते हैं।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 5.
केन्द्रीय बैंक का सम्बन्ध जनता से सीधा होता है।
उत्तर:
असत्य।

जोड़ी मिलाइए

उत्तर:

1. → (ग)
2. → (ङ)
3. → (घ)
4. → (क)
5. → (ख)

एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
एच. डी. एफ. सी. (HDFC) बैंक सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र का बैंक है या निजी क्षेत्र का ?
उत्तर:
निजी क्षेत्र का

प्रश्न 2.
स्व-सहायता समूहों के माध्यम से बांग्लादेश में ग्रामीण बैंकों की स्थापना कब और किसने की ?
उत्तर:
1970 में, मोहम्मद यूनुस ने

प्रश्न 3.
भारत में बैंकों का राष्ट्रीयकरण कब हुआ ? (2012, 15, 18)
उत्तर:
14 जुलाई, 1969

प्रश्न 4.
भारत में सहकारी बैंकों की रचना किस प्रकार की है ?
उत्तर:
त्रिस्तरीय

प्रश्न 5.
क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक की स्थापना किस वर्ष में की गई थी ?
उत्तर:
वर्ष 1975 में

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 आत लघु उत्तराय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
ICICI बैंक सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र का बैंक है या निजी क्षेत्र का ?
उत्तर:
निजी क्षेत्र का।

प्रश्न 2.
वस्तु विनिमय क्या है ?
उत्तर:
एक वस्तु के बदले में दूसरी वस्तु प्राप्त करना या अदला-बदली करना वस्तु विनिमय कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
‘मुद्रा’ क्या है ?
उत्तर:
वह वस्तु है जो वस्तुओं तथा सेवाओं को खरीदने एवं ऋणों का भुगतान करने के लिए स्वीकार की जाती है।

प्रश्न 4.
पत्र मुद्रा से क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर:
वह कागजी मुद्रा है जिसे केन्द्रीय बैंक द्वारा सरकार की साख के आधार पर जारी किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 5.
विदेशी विनिमय से क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर:
एक राष्ट्र की मुद्रा के बदले में दूसरे राष्ट्र की मुद्रा प्राप्त करना विदेशी विनिमय कहलाता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
ए. टी. एम. (ATM) क्या है ? (2015) इसके लाभ लिखिए। (2012)
उत्तर:
ए. टी. एम. (ATM) (Automated Teller Machine) – ए. टी. एम. से आशय एक ऐसी व्यवस्था से है जिसमें कभी भी पैसे निकाले जा सकते हैं। इसका कार्ड प्लास्टिक का बना होता है और इसमें धातु की एक चिप लगी रहती है, जिस पर बैंक एकाउण्ट से सम्बन्धित सभी विवरण दर्ज रहते हैं। ए. टी. एम. से एक दिन में एक निश्चित धनराशि ही निकाली जा सकती है। वास्तविकता यह है कि ए. टी. एम. ने बैंकिंग कार्य को बहुत सरल एवं सुविधाजनक बना दिया है।

प्रश्न 2.
केन्द्रीय बैंक से आप क्या समझते हैं ? इसके प्रमुख कार्य संक्षेप में लिखिए।
उत्तर:
केन्द्रीय बैंक – केन्द्रीय बैंक देश का राष्ट्रीय बैंक होता है। यह बैंक अन्य बैंकों से भिन्न होता है। इस बैंक का मुख्य कार्य देश की बैंकिंग प्रणाली को व्यवस्थित एवं सुसंगठित रूप से संचालित तथा देश के अन्य बैंकों पर प्रभावी ढंग से नियन्त्रण करना होता है। केन्द्रीय बैंक देश की आवश्यकतानुसार पत्र मुद्रा का निर्गमन करता है, देश की साख एवं बैंकिंग प्रणाली का नियन्त्रण करता है तथा सरकार के वित्तीय प्रतिनिधि के रूप में कार्य करता है। भारत में रिजर्व बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया केन्द्रीय बैंक के रूप में कार्य करता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित पर टिप्पणी लिखिए –
(i) राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक
(ii) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंक।
उत्तर:
(i) राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक (नाबार्ड) – राष्ट्रीय कृषि एवं ग्रामीण विकास बैंक की स्थापना कृषि विकास हेतु ऋण उपलब्ध कराने के उद्देश्य से 12 जुलाई, 1982 को की गई। इसे संक्षेप में ‘नाबार्ड’ कहते हैं। यह ग्रामीण एवं कृषि ऋणों से सम्बन्धित एक शीर्ष संस्था है। यह संस्था अनेक वित्तीय संस्थाओं; जैसे-राज्य भूमि विकास बैंक, राज्य सहकारी बैंक, वाणिज्यिक बैंक तथा क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक को पुनर्वित्त की सुविधाएँ प्रदान करती है। अपनी ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए ‘नाबार्ड’ भारत सरकार, विश्व बैंक तथा अन्य संस्थाओं से धन प्राप्त करता है।

(ii) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंक – अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंकों के अन्तर्गत उन बैंकों को सम्मिलित किया जाता है जिनकी स्थापना अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय आर्थिक समस्याओं को निपटाने तथा सदस्य राष्ट्रों को आर्थिक सहायता प्रदान करने के लिए की गयी है। इस दिशा में 1945 में दो संस्थाओं विश्व बैंक तथा अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष की स्थापना की गयी।

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Movement and Related Events Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Movement and Related Events

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Text Book Exercise

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions:
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (a)
Main objective of division of Bengal was? (MPBord 2011)
(a) To establish administrative system in Bengal
(b) To suppress nationalist feelings
(c) To promote nationalist feelings
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) To suppress nationalist feelings

Question (b)
Congress was split in? (MP Bord 2011)
(a) Nagpur session
(b) Surat session
(c) Lahor session
(d) Mumbai session.
Answer:
(b) Surat session

Question (c)
Why did Gandhiji support ‘Khilafat Movement’?
(a) Because of Khalifa favoured freedom struggle of India
(b) Because Gandhiji wanted support of the Muslims against the Britishers.
(c) Because the Khalifa loved Indian civilisation.
(d) Because Turky supported India’s freedom.
Answer:
(b) Because Gandhiji wanted support of the Muslims against the Britishers.

Question (d)
The objective of the Rowlett Act was?
(a) To declare illegal all strikes.
(b) To supress the volunteers of the movement.
(c) To establish equality among all.
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question (e)
Which programme is not there in the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) The people of the country should prepare salt.
(b) To burn foreign cloth.
(c) To violate laws through violent means.
(d) Picketing before the liquor shops.
Answer:
(a) The people of the country should prepare salt.

Question (f)
Who did found the Forward Block? (MP Bord 2009, 2011)
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Ras Bihari Bose
(c) Chandrashekhar Azad
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose.

Question (g)
In July 1947 the British Parliament passed the Indian Independent Act, according to which following two independent countries came into being? (MP Bord 2011, 2013)
(a) India – Bangladesh
(b) India – Pakistan
(c) India – Srilanka
(d) India – Nepal.
Answer:
(d) India – Nepal.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. In 1905 Bengal, ……………………. , Orissa were included in the Bengal Province.
2. The call (slogan) for ‘Do or Die’ was given in ………………….. movement.
3. In 1928 the revolutionaries formed ………………………
4. At the time of independence of India …………………….. was the viceroy. (MP Board 2009)
5. Under the leadership of the merger of …………………….. princely states was done.

Answer:

1. Bihar
2. Quit India
3. Hindustan Republican Association
4. ilord Mount Batton
5. Sardar Patel.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why was the partition of Bengal cancelled?
Answer:
Due to aggressive movement of Indians the partition of Bengal cancelled.

Question 2.
Why was the ‘Non – cooperation Movement’ abruptly suspended?
Answer:
In February 1922, Gandhiji decided to launch a movement to not to pay tax in Bardoli district. But on 4th February in a place called Chouri – Choura in UttarPradesh, the people got frenzied and burnt a Police Station. 22 police men died in the incident. Gandhi shocked with the event and decided abruptly to suspend the movement.

Question 3.
What were the objectives of the ‘Khilafat’ and ‘Non – cooperation Movement?
Answer:
Mohammed Ali and Shoakat Ali of India started Khilafat movement programme to achieve Swaraj. Congress adopted a new programme of ‘Non – cooperation’ in 1920, in the leadership of Ghandhiji. Protest against Jalianwallah Bagh Massacre, Rollet Act, breach of promise from British Government and achieving Swaraj were the main objectives of Non – cooperation movement.

Question 4.
Which places were freed by the Azad Hind Army from the Britishers by attacking them?
Answer:
Ramu, Kohima, Polem and Tiddim were freed by the Azad Hind Army from the Britishers.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the objectives of the British Government behind partition of Bengal?
Or
What was the aim of partition of Bangal? Write? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
The most imprudent decision taken in the regime of Lord Curzon was the partition of Bengal. Bihar, Assam and Orissa were also included in Bengal. Lord Curzon was of the opininon that, it was difficult to provide effective rule by only one Lieutenant Governer from the administrative point of view. In order to justify his view, he made a plan to divide Bengal into two parts.

Question 2.
Division of Congress proved to be fatal from the point of view of Indian National Movement? Explain?
Answer:
After the incident of Surat, the moderates and aggressive nationalists were forced to think of a common agenda but, many leaders did not agree upon concluding the differences and, finally there was a divide in Congress. This divide in Congress is known as “Divide of Surat”.

This event proved to be potentially damaging for the national movement. British Government considered it as their Victory. Infact “Surat Divide” harbingered a new chapter in the freedom movement. A new consciousness was taking place not only in the select few people of middle class.

Question 3.
What is the importance of Lahore session of 1929 in the history of freedom struggle?
Answer:
A Congress convention started in Lahore in December 1929. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the president of the convention. He declared that “there is only one. aim before us and that is of total independence.” In this convention, Congress accepted the proposal of Total independence, on the mid night of 31st December, 1929, Congress President, in front of a huge crowd, hoisted the flag of “Total independence” on the bank of river Ravi. Congress took the decision of observing 26th January, 1930 as the total independence day. Thus independence day was celebrated with zeal and enthusiasm, in all over the country.

Question 4.
What were the reasons of conducting Civil Disobedience Movement? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
In December 1929, in the Lahore convention, the working committee of Congress got the approval to start the “Civil Disobedience Movement”. The viceroy, Lord Irwin had refused to, accept the proposal of total independence but, Gandhiji was still hopeful about an agreement. He declared that if demands were not met, the Civil Disobedience Movement will be started.

Gandhiji wanted that Government should consider the reduction in the rate of exchange, reduction of land revenue, should force total ban on drinking liquor, should give licences to keep guns, withdrawal on tax on salt, release political prisoners who refrain from violence, keep control on Secret Service Department, 50% reduction in military expenses and reduce the import of cloth. Since Viceroy rejected all the demands, Gandhiji started Civil Disobedience Movement, as per plan.

Question 5.
How was ‘Quit India Movement’ different from the initial movements launched by Gandhiji? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
’’Quit India Movement” was literally a Mass Movement. This was truly a self – inspired and self – driven mass movement, which was the result of intense desire of Indians to gain freedom.

On the night of 8th of August “Quit India” proposal was passed in Bombay with majority. On this occasion Gandhiji said, “Each and every individual should consider himself a free individual. He/she should, in order to achieve the freedom in reality try hard and be prepared to lay the life”. Ghandhiji said “I am not going to accept anything less than total independence, we shall either do or die.”

Question 6.
Which methods Gandhiji advised to adopt during the freedom movement?
Answer:
Ghandhiji led a very simple life. He talked to people in a language which they would understand. That’s why soon he was called “Mahatma”. Gandhiji incorporated highest, moral values in the freedom movement and succeeded in converting it into a mass movement.

His life was based on principles of truth and non – violence. For all the political problems, he provided a solution which was in conformity with truth and non – violence. He also reiterated that means were more important to achieve an objective. The methodology which he employed to struggle against the British Rule is called ‘Satyagrah’.

Question 7.
Explain the importance of revolutionary movements in the history of India?
Answer:
The revolutionary movement started in the 20th century had spared its roots in many parts of India. The Government strictly suppressed their activities, hundreds of revolutionaries were hanged and many more were sent to jail. Although gradually the revolutionary movement slowed down but it has gone in the History of Freedom Struggle as very important chapter.

Indian people hold them in very high regard because these revolutionaries had no selfish motive behind their actions. They were setting an example of sacrifice and selflessness before the youth. Whenever a revolutionary was hanged people used to be sad and angry and a sense of patriotism was arousing in them. This promoted public awakening. The Indian National Army and the Navy revolt also have a place of significance in the history of freedom struggle.

Question 8.
What was the objective of the Cabinet Mission? To what extent it succeeded in its mission? (MP Board 2009, Set D)
Answer:
Cabinet Mission (1946) came to India to grant independence to the India. The Cabinet Mission proposed the formation of a Union of India with four zonal provinces, with their own constitution and autonomy except in areas. Cabinet Mission also proposed the formation of a constitution making body elected by the provincial legislatures on the basis of communal electorates. Congress accepted the Cabinet Mission proposals to avoid delay in independence.

The Recommendation of the Cabinet Mission:

1. There should be a federation of India comprising both from Indian States and British India. Matters like foreign affairs, defence and communications should be dealt with this federation at the central level.

2. It proposed the formation of a constitution making body not elected by the people but the provincial legislature.

3. An interim government of all the parties should be set up in the centre pending the completion of the constitution.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Quit India Movement and when did it start? Write the importance of this movement in the history of Indian Independence?
Answer:
There are many reasons for starting of this movement. India was not willing to be take part in the Second World War but, was forced to join without any consent. The economy of the country worsened, the running expenditure went up threefolds. Profiteering and exploitation continued. In such a dire condition, Congress decided to start non-cooperation movement.

Even before the movement started, on the night of 9th August, 1942, Government arrested leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Moulana Azacl, Sardar Patel, Jawaharlal Nehru, Sarojini Naidu and other members of working committee and sent them to Pune. This hastened action on the part of Government started off the movement, without any effort. The mob came on road. There were strikes, demonstrations and public meetings all over the country. Bombay, Ahmedabad, Pune, Delhi, Kanpur, Allahabad, Varanasi, Jabalpur, Patna, even in the smaller towns and districts, people organized themselves for the struggle.

The importance of Quit India movement is that, this made Freedom for the country an instant demand of national movement. The movement was successful on one account that British Government realised that the demand for freedom by Indians can not be ignored for a long time. Because of this movement, the international opinion was formed against England. That’s why, after the movement ended, the only question to be addressed was of transfer of government.

Question 2.
What do you know about the revolutionaries? What methods did they adopt against the British Administration?
Answer:
The revolutionaries believed that political rights cannot be achieved through non – violent and constitutional means. The revolutionaries were of the view that independence and self – rule can be got by violence and threats to the British Rule. To achieve these objectives, the revolutionaries formed secret organisations of revolutionaries imparted them military training, collected arms and ammunition and propagated revolutionary ideology through newspapers and other means.

In Uttar Pradesh and Delhi, Rasbehari Bose and Shachindra Sanyal organised the revolutionaries. In 1912 a bomb was hurled at the Viceroy in Delhi but he narrowly escaped. The revolutionaries who were arrested were tried in ’Delhi Conspiracy’ case. Several revolutionaries were hanged.

During those days the active revolutionaries in Maharashtra were Shyamji Krishna Verma, Vasudev Balwant Phadke, Chafekar brothers and Savarkar brothers. Revolutionary feelings gathered momentum in Punjab in 1907. Here Shri Parmanand and Lala Hardayal and other leadersled the revolutionaries. In 1909 Madanlal Dhingra killed Sir Villiam Curzon Bailey and Anant Kanhere killed the sessions Judge Mr. Jackson in Nasik.

The revolutionaries needed money to carry out their activities and therefore planned to loot Government treasuries on 9th August, 1925 they stopped a train at a place called ‘Kakori’ near Lucknow and looted the Government money. In Punjab, Bhagat Singh organised ‘Naujawan Bharat Sabha’. This organisation was set up to arouse partition among the youths.

The British Government wanted to pass ‘Public Safety Bill’. To prevent , the passing of this Bill the revolutionaries planned to throw a bomb in the Central Assembly. Sardar Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt were entrusted ‘this work. When this bill was being discussed in the assembly on 9th August, 1929 Bhagat Singh hurled a bomb in the assembly.

Question 3.
Why was the Indian National Army set up? Write about its contribution in the freedom struggle of India? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Popularly known as Indian National Army was formed by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose in 1940 A.D. It consisted of the Indian soldiers and officers captured by the Japanese in Burma. The purpose of organising such an army was to liberate India from British Rule.

On October 1943, Netaji proclaimed the setting up of the provisional Government of Free India. In 1944, some units of INA moved close to the Indian borders. The attack was repulsed but the INA did strengthen the anti – imperialist struggle in India.

Subhash Chandra Bose was associated with the Indian Independence League. In this work he got cooperation from the famous revolutionary Rashbehari Bose. In the year 1943, in the capacity of Commander of the Indian National Army he formed fin interim Government of Independent India in Singapore and took oath to fight for achieving Independence till the last drop of the blood.

Subhash Chandra Bose started war on the Indo – Burrna border. In February 1944 Indian National Army launched another attack and freed Ramu, Kohima Palem, Tiddim areas from the possession of the British. In April 1944 the Indian National Army surrounded Imphal but due to heavy rains and shortage of supplies it had to withdraw from there. Unfortunately the position of Germany and Japan weakened and from May 1944 the position of the Indian National Army went on becoming weak due to adverse circumstance and shortage of supplies.

Question 4.
How background for formation of Pakistan was created by the action of the Muslim – League? Explain.
Answer:
In the beginning of the 20th Century the feelings of communalism became strong. One section, of the Muslims started feeling Congress to be anti – Muslim. The British rulers also viewed the Congress movements as anti – British. Therefore they wanted to promote an anti – Congress organisation.

Looking to the indications of the British rulers a delegation of the Muslims under the leadership of Agakhan met the Viceroy of India Lord Minto in October 1906 and put fourth certain demands through a memorandum.

Main objectives of the Muslim League were:

• To arouse a sense of devotion towards the British Raj amongst the Muslims of India.
• To put forth demand before the Britishers for the political rights and interests of Muslims.
• Without jeopardising the interests of the league, keep good relations with other communities.

In the elections of 1937 Congress got good success but the Muslim League fared badly. The relations between the Congress and the League became bitter after the elections. The working committee of the Muslim League in its meeting of 20 March, 1938 alleged that the Congress is doing injustices and victimising the Muslims.

Congress was helpless before the obstinate attitude of Jinnah. Later on the Muslim League claimed that Muslims are not a Community but a nation and they have right to self – decision. Muslim League observed 22 December, 1939 as ‘Liberation Day’.

Demand for Pakistan by the League:
The idea of a separate nation, Pakistan did not occur to the Muslim leaders abruptly; it gr a dully developed in their minds In the Allahabad Convention of the Muslim League in 1930, Dr. Mohammad Iqbal mooted the idea of formation of Pakistan.

The idea of a separate nation of Pakistan was due to the feelings for ‘All Muslims’. According to the English encyclopedia, the idea of Pakistan was the brain child of Punjabi of muslim Rahmat Ali. Earlier a nationalist Mr. Jinnah ultimately became communal and in October 1938 he demanded two nations.

In 1941, the Muslim League in its Madras convention, made formation of Pakistan as its important objectives. In 1942, the Crip’s Mission by supporting the claim of Pakistan added fuel to the fire. Thus, the Congress had to try for unanimity on the issue of partition of India.

Question 5.
Under what circumstances partition of India was made? Why did Congress accept the partition?
Answer:
The factors which were responsible for partition of India were, helplessness of the Interim Government and the Congress serious communal riots, obstinacy of Muslim League and the British diplomacy. The plan presented by Mountbatten comprised partition of India into two parts viz.

India and Pakistan and transfer of powers to take place on 15th August, 1947. In the plan, policy regarding Punjab, Bengal, Sindh, Assam and Baluchistan was also made clear. Congress consented to the Mountbatten Plan. Muslim League wanted whole of Bengal, Assam, North – West Frontier province to be merged in Pakistan but had to yield to the pressure of Mountbatten and accepted his freedom.

After ariving the Crips Mission in India 22nd March, 1942 and had discussions with the leaders of all the prominent political parties. The proposal of Crips were in two parts: proposal to be made applicable during the war and post – war proposals.

Congress was not satisfied with these proposals because it proposed giving independence within the colonial rule and the demand of the Congress was total independence. The League was not satisfied because nothing was mentioned clearly about its demand for separate Pakistan:

Further, the Cabinet Mission (1946) submitted a plan in which a mention was made about the picture of India that will emerge after granting independence to India. The plan was mainly in two parts: Short term plan of establishment of interim Government and long term plan of formulation of the Constitution.

On 2nd September, 1946 the Interim Government under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru was sworn in. The League joined the interim Government but started putting hindrances in the smooth working of the Government.

Mountbatten Plan and Partition of India:
On 23 March, 1947 Lord Mountbatten took over as new Governor General of India in place of Lord Wavel. The British Government had fully authorised him to operationalise the plan of transfer of power to the Indians through the interim Legislative Assembly constituted under the Cabinet Mission.

The Congress did not want partition but the League was
not willing to accept any thing less than partition. Therefore to avert further communal bitterness, Congress agreed for partition.

Project Work

Question 1.
Collect pictures of Indian National Movement and prepare an album for the school?
Answer:
Do yourself with the help of your teacher.

Question 2.
Draw a line of period between 1905 to 1922 and show important events of the freedom struggle there in?
Answer:
Do yourself with the help of your teacher.

Question 3.
Organise an exhibitoin on the ‘The Histroy of Freedom Movement’ with the help of your teachers, guardians and colleagues and include in it the pictures of leaders, events related with them and reports from newspapers.
Answer:
Do yourself with the help of your teacher.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions:
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (a)
The slogan ‘Inqalab Zindabad’ was given by:
(a) Chandrashekhar Azad
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Batukeshwar Dutt
(d) Rajendra Lahiri.
Answer:
(b) Bhagat Singh

Question (b)
Who was the Prime Minister of Britain during the World War II:
(a) Glad Stone
(b) Churchill
(c) Ataly
(d) Walpole.
Answer:
(b) Churchill

Question (c)
Muslim League was formed in:
(a) 1904
(b) 1905
(c) 1906
(d) 1907.
Answer:
(c) 1906

Question (d)
Indians were given to the right of formation of constituent assembly under the provisions of:
(a) Crips Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission
(c) Uevel Plan Mission Cabinet
(d) Shimla Pact.
Answer:
(b) Cabinet Mission

Question (e)
Who shot dead the Governor of Punjab O’Dyre?
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Chandrashekar Azad
(c) Udham Singh
(d) Mangal Pandey (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
(c) Udham Singh

Question (f)
Who divide Bengal into two parts:
(a) Lord Curbon
(b) Lord Rippon
(c) William Bentinck
(d) Queen Victoria
Answer:
(a) Lord Curbon

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Khudiran Bose was related to the Muzaffarpur Bomb case in ……………………..
2. ……………………… was known as the Frontier Gandhi.
3. ………………….. visited India on 17th Novemeber, 1921.
4. Kasturba Gandhi, the wife of Gandhiji died in
5. In 1942 ……………………. Mission came in India. (MP Board 2009)
6. The slogan of Jai Hind was given by …………………… (MP Board 2009)
7. Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College was established by …………………….. (MP Board 2009)
8. People protested against portition of Bengal through demonstration on roads with changing the ………………………. Poem. (MP Board 2012)

Answer:

1. 1908
2. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
3. Prince of Wales
4. 1944
5. Crips
6. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
7. Sir Sayyad Ahmed Khan
8. Vande Mataram.

Question 3.
True and False type questions:

1. Mohammad Ali was the leader of Khilafat Movement
2. Partition of Congress took place in 1907 at Surat.
3. Communal award was declared in 1935.
4. ‘Do or Die’ the slogen was given by Bhagat Singh.
5. First World War ended in 1920. (MP Board 2009)
6. Congress conference of Lahore was held in December, 1929. (MP Board 2009)
7. Second World War started on 3 September, 1939. (MP Board 2009)
8. Muslim League was established in 1906. (MP Board 2009)
9. Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of Congress in 1938. (MP Board 2009)
10. India did not become Independent on 15 August, 1947. (MP Board 2009)
11. The proposal of Total Independence was passed in Lahore convention in 1929.(MP Board 2009)
12. Ras Behari Bose founded the “Forward Block”. (MP Board 2009)

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. False.

Question 4.
Match the column:

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (d)
5. (a)

Answer in One – Two Words or One Sentence

Question 1.
When and by whom the partition of Bengal was made?
Answer:
The partition of Bengal was made in 1905 by Lord Curzon. Q.l. When was Rowlett Act applied? (MP Board 2009)

Question 2.
In which year Forward Block organisation was established by Subhash Chandra Bose?
Answer:
In 1939.

Question 3.
Name two revolutionaries who were associated with the Lahore conspiracy case of 1929?
Answer:
Chandrashekhar and Bhagat Singh.

Question 4.
Name any three places associated with the Indian National Movement?
Answer:
Bombay, Surat and Lahore.

Question 5.
When was the Gandhi – Irwin pact signed?
Answer:
In March, 1931.

Question 6.
When did Cripp’s mission arrive in India? (MP Board 2012)
Answer:
22nd March 1947.

Question 7.
What is the importance of Quit India movemnt?
Answer:
The importance of Quit India movement is that this made freedom for the country an instant demand.

Question 8.
When was first meeting of constitutional Assembly held? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
In the mid – night of 14-15 August, 1947 a special session of the Constituent Assembly was held in Delhi.

Question 9.
When did Kasturba die?
Answer:
On 23rd February, 1944.

Question 10.
When did Gandhiji start fast for 3 weeks?
Answer:
On 10th February,, 1943.

Question 11.
Who did organise “Swaraj Dal”?
Answer:
Swaraj Dal was organised by Chittaranjan Das.

Question 12.
Who did establish Mohammedan Anglo – oriental College in Aligarh?
Answer:
Sir Sayyad Ahmed Khan.

Question 13.
Who founded the forword block? (MP Board 2013)
Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which important resolution was passed in the Lahore session of the Congress?
Answer:
The Lahore session of the Congress passed the ‘purna swaraj’ or complete independence revolution and a pledge to be taken on January 20, 1930 for making all efforts to obtain independence.

Question 2.
Mention the two chief features of the Gandhi – Irwin pact?
Answer:

1. The British government promised to release all political prisoners except those charged with acts of violence.
2. The Congress agreed to participate in the Second Round Table conference which had been called to consider a scheme for a new constitution of India.

Question 3.
What is Communalism?
Answer:
Communalism means that the interest of different religious communities are separate and different from one – another. It also implies that interests of one community are antagonistic to the other.

Question 4.
By whom was Congress Khilafat Swarajya Party or Swarajya Party formed?
Answer:
The Congress Khilafat Swarajya Party or Swarajya Party was formed by the people like Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das after the withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement by Garrdhiji.

Question 5.
Why did Gandhiji called off the Non – Cooperation Movement in 1922?
Or
Why did the non – cooperation movement suddenly come to an end in 1922?
Answer:
Gandhiji called off the Non – Cooperation Movement because an angry mob had attacked and set on fire to a police station at Chauri Chaura (U.P.) killing 22 policemen. This act of violence was against Gandhiji’s belief of Ahimsa.

Question 6.
State any two decisions made as the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress in 1929?
Answer:

1. The Indian National Congress declared at its Lahore session in 1929 the attainment of complete independence as its aim.
2. Launching of a Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where is Jallianwala Bagh situated? What for is it known?
Answer:
Jallianwala Bagh is in Amritsar. General Dyer of British Government had orderd the shooting of innocent people who had gathered for the meeting, being held to resist the arrest of its two leaders. Children, women and old people were also present there. Hence it is known for Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the Lucknow Pact of 1916?
Answer:
Lucknow’Pact is an expression of Hindu-Muslim unity. As the Pact brought Hindu and Muslims on a common platform. The Indian National Congress and the Muslim League unitedly made the demand of self – government ‘swaraj’ to the British Government. So the Lucknow Pact enjoys great importance, in the Histroy of freedom movement as both the communities had decided to move unitedly for ‘Swaraj’.

Question 3.
Explain briefly the defects of the Montford reforms?
Answer:
Defects in the Chelmsford – Montague Reforms:

1. The introduction of ‘diarchy’ or dual government system in Province was not good but it was totally defective.
2. The franchise was only allowed to rich people and it was based on property which very few people could fulfill.
3. To make separate electorates possible on the basis of Communalism, Sikhs, Scheduled Castes, Anglo – Indians, European were separated.
4. The central and provincial legislative councils have been more powers but still Viceroy and Governors could reject any bill passed by councils.

Question 4.
When and why was the Simon Commission sent in India? Why the Indians opposed it?
Answer:
The Simon Commission was sent to India in 1928. The Commission was sent to examine the working of the Act of 1919, especially the dyarchy part. The Indians opposed the Commission because it was wholly constituted by the English. The Indians had no hope that it would make a favourable report, in their favours.

Question 5.
When and where was the slogan of complete independence adopted?
Answer:
The National Congress held a historic session in Lahore in 1929 under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru. It was in this session, a resolution declaring Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) was mooted, passed and adopted. This Congress session also announced the launching of a civil disobedience movement.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about revolutionaries?
Answer:
Due to the reactionary policy of the British Rule, Revolutionary nationalism started in India from the last decade of the 19th century. After the partition of Bengal, revolutionary feelings developed amongst Indians. The revolution aries believed that political rights cannot be achieved through non – violent and constitutional means. The revolutionaries were of the view that independence and self rule can be got by voilence and threats to the British rule.

They wanted to free the motherland from the shackles of foreign rule as early as possible. Ter achieve these objectives the revolution aries formed secret organisation and imparted them military training, collected arms and ammunitions and propagted revolutionary ideology through newspaper and other means.To achieve these objectives the revolutionaries set up communities for follow up in Bengal. These committees oriented the yout’s about India’s history . and culture and aroused feeling for freedom in them.

Question 2.
Which national and international events after World War I made India’s struggle for independence a mass movement?
Answer:
The Home Rule League Movements launched by Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the emergence of Gandhiji on the chess – board of Indian politics were such national events which made India’s struggle for independence a mass and country – wide movement.

Similarly, the rise of fascist powers in Italy, Germany and Japan also led the Congress and the Indian leaders feel that if they had to face the mighty English, they would have to make the freedom movement a mass movemnet and not only of the middle class educated Indians. Gandhiji launched various movements with this aim in view.

Such movements were Non – co – operation Movement (1920 – 1922), the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930 – 1934), the Individual. Satyagraha (1940), Quit Indian Movement’ (1942). By launching these; movements,, Gadhiji made the nationalist movement a Congress movement and the Congress movement a mass movement.

Question 3.
What did the slogan ‘Swaraj’ mean? How was the slogan of complete independence different from it?
Answer:
’Self – Government’ was the meaning given to the term Swaraj. It did not mean complete independence from the foreign rule. But it meant that Indian people should have a system of government as was prevailing in the self – governed colonies of Britishers.

The difference between swaraj and complete independence is that the swaraj was self – government within the perview of the foreign rule but complete independence means freedom from all internal and external control. The slogan of complete independence was adopted by the Congress in its session at Madras, while the team ‘swaraj’ was used by Dada Bhai Naoroji in 1906 in his presidential speech at Calcutta.

Question 4.
What is Independence of India Act ? Write its main provisions? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Independence of India Act 1947:
As per the plan of Mountbatten, the Government prepared the draft of ‘Independence of India Act’ and sent to the Congress and the League for consent. After acceptance the British Government passed the Bill and it became an Act on 18th July, 1947.

Main provisions of the Act:
The Act had 20 sections and 2 schedules. Main provisions of the Act were:

1. India was to be divided into two sovereign states India and Pakistan. The responsibilities of the Government of India were to be handed over to Indian leaders.
2. As per the Act there would be a Governor General to be appointed by the Emperor of Britain in each of the sovereign states India and Pakistan.
3. Borders of both the sovereign states were decided. It was stated in it that Bengal, Punjab and Assam were to be divided and their borders were to be, demarcated.
4. Legislative Assemblies of both the states will have the right to formulate their constitution. Pending formulation of the constitutions by both the states, the states shall be governed as per the provisions of the Government of India Act.
5. The post of Secretary of India was to be abolished and in its place a Secretary of the common wealth shall be appointed.

No Act passed by the British Parliament after 15th August, 1947 was to be applicable to India. Thus India got independence from the British Control after the Independence Act became operational. Indian independence was the dawn of a new era and the Indians were to decide their own fate.