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MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 5 Subsidiary Books-I

Subsidiary Books-I Important Questions

Subsidiary Books-I Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is entered in cash – book –
(a) Only cash transactions
(b) Only credit transactions
(c) Both cash and credit transactions
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Only cash transactions

Question 2.
Cash – book always show –
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Debit or Credit balance
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Debit balance

Question 3.
The cash – book meant for recording petty expenses is called –
(a) Simple cash – book
(b) Petty cash – book
(c) Triple column
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Petty cash – book

Question 4.
The entry which affects cash and bank column of a triple column cash – book is known as –
(a) Compound entry
(b) Contra entry
(c) Journal entry
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Contra entry

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Only …………… transactions are recorded in cash – book.
2. Cash – book is a main book as well as …………… book.
3. ………….. entry is passed in triple column cash – book for depositing cash in bank.
4. Advancing money to petty cashier is called ……………
5. Contra entry is made in …………… book.

Answer:

1. Cash
2. Subsidiary
3. Contra
4. Float
5. Cash.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1.(c)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (a).

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. The book used for recording cash and bank related transactions is.
2. Which book is maintained to record day – to – day expenses?
3. Mention any transaction for which contra entry will be done.
4. Which side of cash – book records all cash payments?

Answer:

1. Double column cash – book
2. Petty cash – book
3. Cash deposited in bank
4. Credit side.

Question 5.
State True or False:

1. Cash – book is only a subsidiary book.
2. When a cheque is received, it is recorded in both sides of cash – book?
3. Cash – book always shows debit balance.
4. The cash balance as per cash-book is tallied daily with the physical cash balance.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True.

Subsidiary Books-I Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“A cash-book never shows a credit balance.” Explain.
Or
A cash – book always shows debit balance. Why?
Answer:
In cash – book, only cash transactions are recorded. All the cash receipts are entered in debit side and all the cash payments are entered in credit side. The payments can be done only out of the total receipts, i. e., it is not possible to make payment more than the cash receipts. Hence, a cash – book has never been a credit balance.

Question 2.
What is petty cash – book?
Answer:
Petty cash – book is a book where small expenses like postage, tax, refreshments, etc. are entered. It is maintained by a petty cashier. It is also known as retail cash – book or small cash – book.

Question 3.
Write the difference between petty cash – book and main cash – book.
Answer:
The following are the differences between cash – book and petty cash – book. They are:

Cash – book:

1. All cash transactions are entered here.
2. It is prepared by the main cashier.
3. Cash balance is transferred to Balance and then to balance Sheet.

Petty Cash – book:

1. Only small type of expenses are entered here.
2. It is prepared by the petty cashier.
3. Balance is transferred to cash – book.

Question 4.
Explain the advantages of maintaining petty cash – book. Five points.
Answer:
The following are the advantages of petty cash – book:

1. In big business concerns, it is essentially to make numerous expenses of small amounts. When these expenses are done through the petty cash – book, the main cashier should get free from such disturbances.
2. When the petty expenses are entered separately, then they can be checked occasionally and be controlled.
3. By making petty cash its ledger account can be maintained easily and correctly.
4. Though the petty cash – book is maintained by petty cashier, it is checked by the main cashier. So, errors can be maintained and rectified.
5. It can be maintained even by an ordinary person.

Question 5.
Differentiate between cash account and cash – book.
Answer:
Following are the differences between cash account and cash – book:

Cash Account:

1. It is an account prepared in ledger book.
2. Posting in cash account is done from journal.
3. Only one aspect of the transaction i.e., cash is recorded in account.
4. Account has no types.

Cash – book:

1. It is a separate book maintained for entering cash transactions.
2. It is a book of prime entry cash transactions are directly recorded in cash – book.
3. In this book both aspects of the transactions are recorded (triple column cash – book).
4. Cash – book are of four types
   • Simple
   • Double column
   • Triple column
   • Petty cash – book.

Question 6.
“Cash – book is not only a subsidiary book but also a principal book of accounts”. Explain.
Answer:
There is difference of opinion that whether cash – book is a subsidiary book or a principal book of accounts. The following points argues that cash – book is a subsidiary book:

1. In this book, only cash transactions are entered.
2. It is the main journal and with the help of it, ledger accounts can be maintained.

The following points argue that cash – book is a ledger account:

1. By keeping this, cash account and bank account can be easily maintained,
2. By maintaining this, the cash position of the business can be known easily at any time.

Hence, we can say that cash-book is not only a subsidiary book but also a principal book of accounts.

Question 7.
What do you mean by three column cash – book?
Answer:
It is a cash – book, where transactions relating to cash, bank and discount are entered at a time, i.e., In a three column cash – book there are separate columns for entering cash, bank and discount columns on both the sides.

Question 8.
What are contra entries? When they are made?
Answer:
Contra entries:
The transactions which take place between bank and office are entered on both the sides of cash – book in separate columns. If the transaction is written in the debit in cash column, it would be written in the credit in bank column. Those entries which are entered in the opposite side on one are called ‘Contra entries’.

In the following circumstances, contra entries are entered:

1. When cash is deposited
2. When cash is withdrawn from bank for business purpose
3. When the cheque is sent to the bank for collection, which was entered in the cashbook.

Question 9.
What is proper Journal and what are its uses?
Answer:
There are certain transactions which are not recorded in subsidiary books. To keep a record of such transactions, it is necessary to maintain a separate book which is known as Journal proper or proper Journal. The uses of proper Journal are as follows:

1. Opening entries – Opening entries means balances of personal and real A/c of the previous year and it will recorded in the beginning of new financial year. This type of entry is enter in proper Journal
2. Adjustment entries – The transaction of adjustment entry are also recorded in it.
3. Transfer entry – Transfer of one A/c to another A/c is done by means of transfer entries.
4. Rectification entry – The entry passed for rectifying the error are also enter in it.
5. Other entry – Whatever entries are left out to record in subsidiary books are entered in it.

Subsidiary Books-I Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any five advantages of cash – book.
Answer:
The following are the advantages of maintaining cash – book:

1. Knowledge of cash in hand – The balance of cash can easily and readily be known from the cash – book.
2. Saving of time – Only the cash transactions are recorded in the cash – book. Thus, cash – book saves time.
3. Less burden of accounts – Cash – book reduces the burden of ledger and there remains no need to maintain a separate cash account.
4. Other advantages – All the advantages which a trader may get from subsidiary books are also available from cash – book.
5. Knowledge of bank balance and discount – When three column cash – book is maintaining in the business, it helps the businessmen to get the bank balance and the amount of discount allowances and receipts at a time.

Question 2.
“Cash – book is a principle book as well as subsidiary book”. Explain.
Answer:
There is difference of opinion that whether cash – book is a subsidiary book or a principal book of accounts. The following points argues that cash – book is a subsidiary book:

1. In this book, only cash transactions are entered
2. It is the main journal and with the help of it, ledger accounts can be maintained.

The following points argue that cash – book is a ledger account:

1. By keeping this, cash account and bank account can be easily maintained,
2. By maintaining this, the cash position of the business can be known easily at any time.

Hence, we can say that cash – book is not only a subsidiary book but also a principal book of accounts.

Question 3.
Explain the Imprest system of petty cash – book.
Answer:
Under this system, the head cashier gives an advance amount for a fixed period to the petty cashier for the payment of petty expenses. The amount what he spends is reimbursed, i. e., he never allows to keep more than the imprest amount. It is also known as Float system of petty cash – book.

Question 4.
What is three column cash – book? How it is prepared?
Answer:
It is a cash – book, where transactions relating to cash, bank and discount are entered at a time.

The following are the rules of its preparation:

1. It is starting with a cash balance as ‘To balance b/d’ in the debit side. But if the business is in commencing stage, then it will be entered as ‘To capital account’. The bank account has either a debit balance or a credit balance.

2. When the cash is receiving and discount is allowing, it is entering in the debit side in the cash column and discount column respectively. When the cash is paying and discount is receiving, it is entering in credit side in the cash column and discount column respectively.

3. When a cheque or draft receives and directly deposits in the bank, it enters in the bank column in debit side. If such a cheque or draft is not immediately deposits in the bank, then it enters in the cash column. When there is a cheque or draft payment, then it enters in credit side of bank column. When the interest receives from the bank, it enters in the debit side and when bank charges as interest then it is credited, in the bank column.

4. Contra entries:
These entries are made when cash is deposited in the bank or cash is withdrawn from the bank for business purpose. In this condition, the entries are made on both the sides. It is represented as ‘C’ in the L.F. column.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 1 Accounting for Non-profit Organization

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Important Questions

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Advance Subscription received during a year is a:
(a) Income
(b) Expenses
(c) Liabilities
(d) Assets.
Answer:
(c) Liabilities

Question 2.
Receipts and payment account is prepared by:
(a) Firms
(b) Sole Trader
(c) Company
(d) Non-trading Concern.
Answer:
(d) Non-trading Concern.

Question 3.
Loss on sale of machine will be recorded in:
(a) Receipts & Payment A/c
(b) Income & Expenditure A/c
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) None of these. A/c
Answer:
(b) Income & Expenditure A/c

Question 4.
Entrance fee if no specific instruction is given will be treated as:
(a) Capital item
(b) Revenue item
(c) Assets
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Revenue item

Question 5.
The system of accounting used by non-trading concern and professional person:
(a) Single Entry System
(b) Double Entry System
(c) Mixed Accounting System
(d) Cash System.
Answer:
(d) Cash System.

Question 6.
Balance Sheet is a:
(a) Statement
(b) Account
(c) Account & Statement
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Statement

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Opening Balance Sheet is prepared when opening balance of is not given…………….
2. The first (debit) side of Income & Expenditure Account shows ………………
3. Non-trading concern maintain their of account by ……………
4. Receipts and payment account is a summary of ……………
5. The aim of ……………… is not to earn profit

Answer:

1. Capital fund
2. Expenditure
3. Cash System
4. Cash book
5. Non-trading Concern

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (d) Opening Capital
2. (a) Non-trading Concern
3. (e) School
4. (f) Real Account.
5. (b) Nominal Accounts
6. (c) Receipts & Payment A/c

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Receipts and payment account is like profit and loss account.
2. Among the various fund provided by government, scholarship given to the students will be debited in Income Expenditure Account.
3. If Sport Fund is shown then all the expenses related to sports will be shown in debit side of Income and Expenditure Account.
4. Receipts and Payment Account does not show the difference between capital and receipts.
5. The Receipt and payment account is a summary of all capital receipts and payment.
6. Donation for specific purpose will be always capitalized.
7. Receipts and payment account only record the revenue matured receipts and payment.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. True
7. False.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

1. Income & Expenditure account is prepared on the basis of which account ?
2. Which type of institution prepare Income Expenditure account ?
3. Persons who earn income utilizing their intelligence and skills are called as ?
4. Non-trading concern keep their accounts by which system ?
5. Account which is the summary of cash book is known as ?

Answer:

1. Receipts & Payment A/c
2. Non-trading Concern
3. Professional person
4. Cash system
5. Receipts & Payment A/c

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write one important difference between receipts and payment account and Income and Expenditure account
Answer:
Receipts and payment account is a real account while Income and Expenditure account is a nominal account.

Question 2.
Write any one basis of difference between trading concern and non-trading concern.
Answer:
Aim of non-trading concern is to serve the society while the aim of trading concern is to maximize profit.

Question 3.
What do you mean by non-trading concerns ?
Answer:
Non-trading concerns are those concerns, whose aim is not to do business and earn profit but to serve the public. It includes hospitals, clubs, schools and colleges, etc.

Question 4.
Write the names of incomes and expenses of a non-trading concern.
Answer:
The following are the incomes and expenses of a non-trading concerns : Income : Annual membership fee, charity, interest, rent from sublet, income from the sale of waste materials, etc.
Expenses : Stationery, wages, charity, postal charges, electricity charges, subscription to newspapers, etc.

Question 5.
What do you mean by receipt and payment account ?
Answer:
Receipt and payment account is the summary of cash book in which all receipts are debited and all the payments are credited. In receipt and payment opening balance and closing balance of cash is also shown.

Question 6.
Why non-cash transactions are not entered in receipts and payment ac¬count ?
Answer:
Non cash transactions are not entered in receipts and payment account because it is prepared on the basis of cash book of accounting.

Question 7.
What do you mean by income and expenditure account and by whom it is prepared ?
Answer:
Income and expenditure account is a type of profit and loss account, which is prepared at the end of the accounting year with the help of receipts and payments by the non-trading concerns. Income and expenditure account is prepared by non-trading institutions and professional persons to know their annual income and expenditure.

Question 8.
What is the nature of income and expenditure account ?
Answer:
Income and expenditure is a nominal account.

Question 9.
Which account is prepared by non-trading concern is place of profit and loss account ?
Answer:
Income and expenditure account is prepared in place of profit and loss account.

Question 10.
What is surplus in income and expenditure account ?
Answer:
Excess of income over expenditure refers to surplus in an income and expenditure account.

Question 11.
What is the basis of preparing income and expenditure account ?
Answer:
Income and expenditure account is prepared on accrual basis.

Question 12.
A school collected Rs. 50,000 as donation for the construction of buildings. In which side of school’s balance sheet will it be showed ?
Answer:
In the liabilities side of balance sheet.

Question 13.
Following balance appeared in the books of Modern club in the beginning of the year :

• Fixed assets Rs. 50,000,
• Bank overdraft Rs. 5,000,
• Subscribed received in advance  Rs. 2,000.
• Prepared rent Rs. 1,000.

Find the opening capital.

Answer:
Capital fund = Rs. 50,000 + Rs. 1,000 – Rs. 5,000 – Rs. 2,000
= Rs. 51,000 – Rs. 7,000 = Rs. 44,000.

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is life time membership fees ?
Answer:
In non-trading organization some person becomes the life time member of the firm. The fee taken from such kind of persons is called as life time membership fee. This fees is not for a particular year but for the whole period. So it is treated as capital receipts and added to capital fund. It is also shown separately in the liabilities side.

Question 2.
What do you mean by endowment fund ?
Answer:
The cash or assets received by the members of the concern from the third person is called ‘endowment fund’. It is of capital nature, hence is written in receipt and payment account and is Shown in liability side of balance sheet.

Question 3.
state the meaning of ‘Not – for – Profit’ Organizations.
Answer:
Not – for – Profit Organizations (NPO) are set up with the prime objective of providing services and not to earn profit thereby enhancing the welfare of society. Such organizations include schools, hospitals, trade unions, religious organizations, etc. The person/s or the groups of individuals who govern and manage the working of an NPO are known as trustees.

NPO’s main sources of income are donations, subscriptions, life membership fees, grants etc. As these organizations are not set up with profit motive, they do not prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account. Instead, they maintain Receipt and Payments Ac-count, Income and Expenditure Account and Balance Sheet.

Question 4.
State the meaning of Receipt and Payment Account.
Answer:
Receipts and Payments Account is a summary of the Cash Book. All cash receipts are recorded on the Receipts side (i’. e., Debit side) and all cash payments are recorded on the Payments side (i.e., Credit side) of Receipts and Payments Account. It is prepared on the basis of cash and bank transactions recorded in the Cash Book. It begins with the opening balance of cash and bank and ends with the closing balances of cash and bank (balancing figure) at the end of the accounting period.

It records all cash and bank transactions both of capital and revenue nature. It not only records the cash and bank transactions relating to the current accounting period, but also the cash and bank receipts (or payments) received during the current accounting period that may be related to the previous or next accounting period. This account only helps us to ascertain the closing balance of the cash and bank and helps in assessing the cash position of an NPO.

Question 5.
State the meaning of Income and Expenditure Account.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account (I&E) is similar to the Profit and Loss Account in the sense that while the former is prepared to ascertain surplus or deficit during an accounting period, the latter is prepared to ascertain net profit or net loss incurred during an accounting period. I&E Account is a nominal account and is prepared on the accrual basis. It records all transactions of revenue nature that are related to the current accounting period (whether outstanding or prepaid) for which the books are maintained.

All expenses and losses are recorded on the debit side (Expenditure side) and all income and gains are recorded on the credit side (Income side) of I&E Account. The closing balance or the balancing figure of I&E Account is termed as surplus (or deficit), if the sum total of the Income side exceeds (is lesser than) the sum total of the Expenditure side.

Question 6.
Write the objective of receipts and payment account.
Answer:
Following are the objectives of receipts and payment account:

1. Knowledge of cash: This account is summary of cash book on the basis of which the closing cash balance for a certain period can be known.
2. Knowledge of cash receipts: By the help of this account the cash receipts of the organization at the beginning, mid of the year and at the end of the year can be easily found out.
3. Knowledge of cash payments: Receipts and payment account shows all the cash payments made by the organization at the end of the year.
4. 4. Basis of income and expenditure a/c:  With the help of receipts and payment account, income and expenditure account is prepared.

What is subscription? How is it calculated?
Answer:
subscription is the main source of income for an NPO besides entrance fees, donations, grants, etc. Subscriptions refer to the amount of money paid by the members on periodic basis for keeping their membership with the organization alive. It is paid monthly, quarterly, half yearly or annually by the members.

It is shown in the debit side of the Receipt and Payment Account with the total amount received during the year that may be related to the current period and to the previous and next accounting period. While calculating subscription for the current period, advance subscription received for the current period in the previous period and outstanding subscription for the current period are added to the subscription received during the current period.

Whereas, on the other hand, advance subscription received for the next accounting period during the current period and outstanding subscription for the preceding period are deducted from the subscription received during the current period.

Calculation of Subscription:
Subscription received during the year
Add: Subscription received (in advance) during previous year for current year
Add: Subscription outstanding at the end of the year
Less: Subscription received in advance for the next year
Less: Subscription outstanding for the previous year
## Subscription shown in Income and Expenditure Account

This subscription is related to the current accounting period and is shown in the In-come side of the Income and Expenditure Account.

Question 8.
What is Capital Fund? How is it calculated?
Answer:
Capital fund is the excess of NPOs’ assets over its liabilities. In other words, the excess of assets over the liabilities for a profit earning organization is termed as capital and the same for an NPO is termed as capital fund. Any surplus or deficit ascertained from Income and Expenditure account is added to (deducted from) the capital fund. It is also termed as Accumulated Fund.

Calculation of Capital Fund
Capital Fund at the beginning of the year
Add: Surplus from Income and Expenditure Account
Add: Subscription Amount (Capitalized amount)
Add: Life membership fee.
Less : Deficit from Income and Expenditure Account
Capital Fund at the end of the year

Question 9.
Explain the statement: “Receipt and Payment Account is a summarized version of Cash Book”.
Answer:
Receipts and Payments Account is a summary of the Cash Book. This account is prepared by those organizations which maintain their books on cash basis. All cash receipts are recorded on the Receipts side (i.e., Debit side) and all cash payments are recorded on the Payments side (i.e., Credit side) of Receipts and Payments Account. It is prepared on the basis of cash and bank transactions recorded in the Cash Book.

It begins with the opening balance of cash and bank and ends with the closing balances of cash and bank (balancing figure) at the end of the accounting period. It records all the cash and bank transactions both of capital and revenue nature. It not only records the cash and bank transformations relating to the current accounting period, but also cash and bank receipts (or payments) received during the current accounting period that may be related to the previous or next accounting period.

This account only helps us to ascertain the closing balance of the cash and bank and helps in assessing the cash position of an NPO. It also forms the basis for the preparation of Income and Expenditure Account.

Question 10.
What steps are taken to prepare Income and Expenditure Account from a Receipt and Payment Account ?
Answer:
The following steps are taken to prepare Income and Expenditure Account (I&E) from Receipts and Payment Account (R&P).

Step 1:
All the revenue expenditures paid for the current accounting period are transferred from the Payments side of R&P to the Expenditure side of I&E.

Step 2:
All the revenue receipts for the current accounting period are transferred from the Receipts side of R&P to the Income side of I&E.

Step 3:
Expenses outstanding for the current period and expenses paid in advance (prepaid expenses) for the current period in the preceding accounting periods are to be added (adjusted) to their related expenses in the Step 1.

Step 4:
Income outstanding (accrued income) for the current period and income re-ceived in advance for the current period in the preceding accounting periods are to be added (adjusted) to their related incomes in Step 2.

Step 5:
Non-cash items like depreciation, appreciation for the current accounting period are to be adjusted in the I&E.

Step 6:
After adjusting all the revenue items for the current accounting period, the Income and the Expenditure sides are totaled. If the sum total of the Income side exceeds (or is lesser than) the sum total of the Expenditure side, then the balancing figure is termed as surplus (or deficit).

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate the receipts and payments account and cash account, (any 2)
Answer:
Difference between receipts and payments account and cash account:
Receipts and Payments A/c:

1. It is maintained by non-trading concerns.
2. It is a summary of cash account.
3. Income and expenditure account is prepared from it.
4. Date is written at the top along with the heading.

Cash A/c:

1.  It is prepared by both the trading and non-trading concerns.
2. It is main account and write daily.
3. Receipts and payments account is prepared from it.
4. Date is written along with each transact-ion.

Question 2.
“Income and Expenditure Account of a Not – for – Profit Organisation is akin to Profit and Loss Account of a business concern”. Explain the statement.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account (I&E) is similar to Profit and Loss Account (P&L), in the sense that the former is prepared by Not-for-profit-Organisations and the latter is prepared by profit earning organisations. Both the accounts are prepared on the accrual basis.

Similar to the P&L, all the expenses and losses pertaining to the current accounting period are recorded on the debit side (Expenditure side) and all the gains and income of the current accounting period are recorded on the credit side (Income side) of the I&E.

The balancing figure of the I&E is surplus or deficit and that of the P&L is net profit or net loss. Both the accounts record only revenue items which are related to the current accounting period. Similarities between Income and Expenditure Account and Profit and Loss Account I&E Account of an NPO is akin to the Profit and Loss Account of a profit earning business in the following manners.

1. Nature of Account: Both the concerned accounts are nominal in nature.

2. Basis of Recording: Both the accounts record only revenue expenses and revenue income related to the current accounting period. The items of capital nature are not ignored while preparing these accounts.

3. Period: Transactions related to current year are recorded in Income and Expenditure account in the same manner in which profit and loss account is prepared. Transactions related to previous year or next year are excluded.

4. Adjustments: The treatment of adjustments like, outstanding expenses, prepaid expenses, income received in advance, income due but not received, depreciation, bad debts etc. is same as that in Profit and Loss Account. Thus, both the accounts are prepared on the accrual basis.

Question 3.
Why does non-trading concerns maintain their accounts on the basis of cash system ? Given any five reasons.
Answer:
Due of the following reasons, non-trading concerns are maintaining these books of accounts according to the cash system of book-keeping.

1. Easy method: Cash system is in easy method. It is a part of cash-book and its is maintained as a cash-book is prepared.
2. Less expensive system: Under this method, no need for keeping more accounts. Even untrained and un experienced persons can do this work.
3. Limited transactions: In non-trading concerns, the number of receipts and payments are limited.
4. Cash transaction: Only cash receipts and payments are entered here as in the cash-book. If there is more credit transactions it will be entered in memorandum book.
5. Checking of correctness: Correctness can be checked by comparing with cash-book.

Question 4.
What points should be kept in mind while preparing the receipts and payments account ?
Answer:
The following points should be kept in mind while preparing receipts and payments account:

1. In this account, enter first of all the opening cash balance. This balance might be closing balance of the previous year.
2. Only cash transaction, i.e., cash receipts and payments are entered and no credit transaction.
3. All types of capital and revenue nature transactions are entered here.
4. All types of receipts and payments whether they relate to previous, current or coming year should be entered.
5. No adjustment relating to outstanding, prepaid, as earned and accrued are done here.

Question 5.
Differentiate the receipts and payments account and income and expenditure account ? (any 4 points)
Answer:
Differences between receipts and payments and income and expenditure

Question 6.
Describe in brief the sources of income of non-trading concern.
Answer:
The various sources of income of non trading concern are :

(a) Subscription:
Subscription is the main source of income for the non-trading concern. It is the amount paid by the members of the organization monthly or yearly for keeping their membership with the organization alive.

(b) Donation:
Donation refers to the amount received by the organization as gift from the members or outsiders. If the amount of donation is merge, it will be treated as revenue income. But if the amount is huge and for specific purpose, then it is treated as capital receipt.

(c) Entry fee:
Amount paid by new member at the time of joining an organization is known as entry fee. It is paid by every member once at the time of becoming a member of the organization.

(d) Interest:
For increasing its sources of income, these non-trading organization invest money outside. The interest earned on this investment is also a source of income.

(e) Income from entertainment:
These organization organize various types of cultural programmes and collected income from the common people.

(I) Rent received:
By giving the building or some other portion in rent, the rent received is also a source of income for them.

Question 7.
What are the process of preparing income and expenditure account from receipts and payments account ?
Answer:
The following is the process of preparing income and expenditure account from receipts and payment account:

(a) Opening cash and bank balance:
It is not entered in income and expenditure account. It is shown in assets side of opening balance sheets.

(b) Closing cash and bank balance:
It is not recorded in income and expenditure account. It is shown in assets side of closing balance sheet.

(c) Capital receipts:
Capital receipts are not entered in income and expenditure account. It is shown in liabilities side of closing balance sheet. Example of capital receipts are donation fund, sports fund, prize fund etc.

(d) Reserve and fund:
Reserve and funds are not recorded in income and expenditure account. It is shown in liabilities side of balance sheet and the concerned expenses are deducted from it.

(e) Sale of fixed assets:
Sale of fixed assets is not shown in income and expenditure account. It is entered in assets side of balance sheet by deducting if from concerned assets.

(f) Capital payments:
Capital payments are not entered in income and expenditure account. It is shown in assets side of closing balance sheet. Example of capital payments are purchase of assets, investment fixed deposits etc.

Question 8.
How is capital fund ascertained in non-trading organization ?
Or
How is initial capital ascertained in non-trading organizations ? Explain.
Answer:
For calculating initial capital, an opening balance sheet is prepared with the help of last year’s assets and liabilities. The total of liabilities side is deducted from the total of assets side and the difference thus gained is called initial capital.
Capital = Total assets – Total liabilities on opening date.

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 9 Trial Balance

Trial Balance Important Questions

Trial Balance Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What kind of accuracy is tested by Trial balance –
(a) Theoritical
(b) Practical
(c) Arithmetical
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Arithmetical

Question 2.
How many methods are there for preparing Trial Balance –
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Four

Question 3.
Which of the following is prepared on the basis of Trial Balance –
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Final Accounts
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Final Accounts

Question 4.
Of the two sides of Trial balance does not tally, which Account is opened –
(a) Suspense Account
(b) Personal Account
(c) Real Account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Suspense Account

Question 5.
The error which can be disclosed by Trial balance –
(a) Error of ommission
(b) Error of principal
(c) Compensatory error
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 2.
Fill in the Blanks:

1. Trial balance is merely a …………… not an Account.
2. …………….. are prepared on the basis of Trial balance.
3. Trial balance is a test of …………….. Accuracy.
4. Generally …………… does not form a part of Trial balance.
5. ……………. stock is not included in Trial balance.

Answer:

1. Statement
2. Final Accounts
3. Arithmetical
4. Closing stock
5. Closing stock.

Question 3.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. “A Trial balance is a statement of debit and Credit Balances Extracted from the ledger with a view to test the arithmetical accuracy of the books.” Who said this?
2. Mention any account which can show Debit or Credit Balance.
3. Debtor’s Accounts always show which balance?
4. What Balance is shown by Drawing Account?
5. How many methods are there for preparing trial balance?
6. Is trial balance Ultimately proof of accuracy of accounts?
7. What is the nature of suspense A/c ?

Answer:

1. J.R. Batliboi
2. Rent
3. Debit
4. Debit
5. Four methods
6. No
7. Fluctuating.

Question 4.
State True or False:

1. Closing stock appears outside the trial balance.
2. A trial balance is not a conclusive proof of accounting accuracy.
3. Trial balance is a test of only Arithmetical accuary.
4. Trial balance helps to check the principles of Double Entry System.
5. Trial balance is a part of ledger.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False.

Question 5.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (e)
4. (f)
5. (b)
6. (a).

Trial Balance Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define trial balance. Discuss its objects.
Answer:
A trial balance may be defined as “A trial “balance is not an account. It is a statement or a test of debit and credit balances of all ledger accounts as on a given date, prepared with the object of proving the arithmetical accuracy of ledger accounts”.

The main objects of preparing a trial balance are:

1. The balance of any ledger account can be easily found from the trial balance without going through the pages of the ledger book.
2. To check the arithmetical accuracy of the books.
3.  It is a base for the preparation of final accounts.

Question 2.
Mention the merits and demerits of balance method of preparing trial balance.
Answer:
Following are the merits and demerits of balance method:

1. Helpful in preparing final accounts – With the help of balances from trial balance in this method, final accounts are prepared.
2. Small size – Some accounts show no balance and hence they are not recorded in trial balance. Hence the size reduces.
3. Less chance of error – Due to small size, the totaling becomes easy and the chances of errors are minimised.

Question 3.
Explain the preparation of trial balance under balancing method.
Answer:
Under this method, each account is totaled and balanced. Then this balance is transferred to the trial balance. If a particular account shows a debit balance, it is transferred to the debit balance column of trial balance and vice versa. At the end, both the columns are totaled in the trial balance. There should not be any difference. If there is some difference, there is some mistake and it must be corrected.

Question 4.
What is suspense account?
Answer:
Even after checking of journal and ledger completely, the errors are not located, then the difference amount is transferred to a temporary account, i.e., suspense account in order to tally the Trial Balance. In future, when errors are detected, suspense account is closed.

Trial Balance Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is trial balance a conclusive proof of accuracy of accounts? Explain.
Or
Explain the errors which are not disclosed by a trial balance.
Answer:
Generally, it is treated that, when the debit total and credit total agrees, the ledger accounts are prepared correctly. But then also it is not possible to agree with the accuracy of accounts because there are some errors which are not disclosed by a trial balance and the trial balance may agree. They are as follows:

1. Errors of omission:
If an entry is omitted to record in journal, it will not reflected in ledger accounts and trial balance, such type of an error, will not be disclosed by a trial balance. This type of an error is called ‘Errors of omission’ e.g., Sold goods to Mr. Kshitij for 5,000 is not entered in Journal.

2. Errors of principle:
When the transactions are entered against the principles of double entry system, it is said to be Errors of Principle’. For e.g. Machinery purchased for Rs. 5,000 is entered in purchase account. As per the rule of D.E.S. when an asset buys that particular asset is debited. This type of error will not be disclosed by the trial balance.

3. Compensating errors:
These are those errors where one error is compensated with another error, e.g., In wages A/c, it is entered Rs. 100 less and in salary account it entered Rs. 100 more. In this condition, both are errors. But one error is adjusted with another error. This type of error will not affect the agreement of trial balance and it will not be disclosed there.

4. Wrong posting in ledger accounts:
When journal entries are posted wrongly in ledger account, it will affect the agreement of trial balance, e.g., Instead of salary paid Rs. 1,000 entered in wages account with the same amount. This type of error will not disclose by the trial balance.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 8 Bank Reconciliation Statement

Bank Reconciliation Statement Important Questions

Bank Reconciliation Statement Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is Bank Reconciliation Statement prepared?
Answer:
When it is found that there are some differences between the cash-book balance and passbook balance, these differences should be rectified. For this purpose, a statement is prepared on a particular date, which is known as Bank Reconciliation Statement.

Question 2.
What are the different methods of preparing B.R. statement ?
Answer:
The following are some of the methods of preparing B.R. statement:

1. On the basis of debit balance as per cash – book
2. On the basis of credit balance as per cash – book
3. On the basis of debit balance as per passbook
4. On the basis of credit balance as per passbook.

Question 3.
In a B.R. statement if the debit balance of a cash – book is given, which items to be added?
Answer:
The following items are added to the debit balance of a cash – book, when a B.R. statement is going to prepare:

1. Cheques issued, but not presented for payment.
2. Interest allowed by the bank, only entered in passbook.
3. Dividends etc. collected and credited only in the passbook.
4. A customer directly deposited in the customers account and only entered in pass¬book.
5. Cheques issued and dishonoured but not entered in cash – book.
6. Any wrong entry in credit side of passbook.

Question 4.
Write five reasons why the cash – book balance and the passbook balance differ.
Answer:
Due to the following reasons, the cash-book balance and passbook balance may vary

1. Cheques issued but not presented for payment
2. Cheques deposited in the bank but not credited in the passbook
3. Cheques deposited entered in the cash – book, but forget to sent the bank
4. Interest on deposit allowed by the bank entered in the passbook but not in cash – book
5. Bank charges charged by the bank only entered in the passbook and not in the cash-book.

Question 5.
Explain the advantages of Bank Reconciliation statement.
Or
Explain the benefits of preparation of Bank Reconciliation statement.
Or
Write the utility or importance of Bank Reconciliation statement.
Answer:
The following are the advantages of preparing B.R. statement:

1. Discovery of errors – With the help of its preparation, the errors which might committed either in the cash – book or in the passbook can be discovered.
2. Helps to enter the transactions in the cash – book – The bank provides various agency services to the customers. But sometimes the bank fails to inform him then and there. For this purpose, the statement will become useful.
3. Wrong entry in passbook – By preparing the B.R. statement, the wrong entry made in the passbook can be found out.
4. To find out the correct balance – By preparing the B.R. statement, the correct balance at bank can be ascertained.
5. For audit purpose – For audit purpose, it is necessary to prepare B.R. statement.

Question 6.
Explain the four features of bank reconciliation statement.
Answer:
The different characteristics of B.R. statement are as follows:

1. When there is difference between cash – book balance and passbook balance, B. R. statement is prepared
2. It is prepared on a fixed date
3. It is prepared by the bank’s customer and not the bank
4. It can be make even on a sheet of paper
5. The main aim of this statement is to the reveal the errors and compare it.

Question 7.
What are uncollected cheques? Explain.
Answer:
As soon as the cheques are received by a trader, he sends them to bank for collection. If the amount is not deposited in trader’s account in the bank till a bank reconcilation statement is prepared, such cheques are called uncollected cheques.

Question 8.
How a B.R. statement is prepared on the basis of balance as per cash – book?
Answer:
In the following ways, B. R. statement is prepared on the basis of cash – book balances. They are added to it:

1. Cheques issued but not presented for payment.
2. Interest on deposit etc. entered only in passbook.
3. Wrong entry in the credit side of passbook.
4. Dividend collected by bank only entered in passbook.
5. The customer directly deposited the amount in the customers A/c.

The following items are deducted from the cash-book balance :

1. Cheques, bills, drafts, etc. deposited for collection but not collected till date.
2. Bank charges, commission, expenses, etc. charged by the bank only entered in passbook.
3. Interest on overdraft and charges only in passbook.
4. Bills discounted with the bank but dishonoured.
5. Cheques debited in cash – book but forget to send them to the bank.

Question 9.
How a B.R. statement is prepared by taking passbook balance?
Answer:
The debit balance of passbook means that the businessman (customer) has to give money to the bank or the customer has taken an overdraft from the bank and credit balance of passbook shows the deposit balance of the customers.When a B.R. statement is prepared the following points should be kept in mind. When the passbook shows a credit balance, the following items are added:

1. Cheques deposited in the bank, but not collected there.
2. Expenses paid by bank, commission charged, interest on overdraft, etc. entered only in the passbook and not in the cash-book.
3. A discounted bill, dishonoured which was not entered in the cash-book.

The following items are deducted:

1. Cheques issued but not presented for payment.
2. Interest on deposit only entered in cash – book.
3. Dividend collected by the bank not entered in cash – book.
4. Direct deposit made by a customer not entered in cash – book.
5. When the passbook shows a debit balance, added items will be deducted and deducted items be added.

Bank Reconciliation Statement Long Answer Type Questions 

Question 1.
What is B.R. statement? Explain fully why and how it is prepared?
Answer:
When it is found that there are some difference between the cash – book balance and passbook balance, it should be rectified by means of statement on a particular date. This statement is known as bank reconciliation statement. There are various reasons behind this difference of balances. But it must be necessary to find out and reconcile it. With this aim, the bank reconciliation statement is prepared.

Objects:

1. To find out the real bank balance
2. To know the amount of interest allowed by the bank on deposit
3. To know the amount of interest charged on overdraft By the bank
4. To find out whether there is any error in passbook or in cash – book.

The need of bank reconciliation statement is as follows:

1. By comparing the passbook balance with cash – book balance, it can be easily known about any undue delay in the clearance of cheque.
2. If any errors were committed, it can be found out by comparing the balances in the B. R. statement.
3. By preparing B. R. statement, the trader can find out how many cheques were presented for payment out of his issue and how many of them were not presented for payment.
4. B. R. statement shows the total amount of interest allowed by the bank on customer’s deposit.
5. It show’s how many cheques were collected by the bank directly from trader’s customers.

It is prepared as follows:

1. It is prepared on the basis of cash-book or passbook balance.
2. If it is prepared on the basis of RB. balance, C.B. balance is ascertained and vice versa.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions Unit 5 Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option:

Question (a)
It is found in rural areas of India:
(a) Educated unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Seasonal unemployment
(d) Frictional unemployment.
Answer:
(b) Disguised unemployment

Question (b)
What is important in organic farming:
(a) Crop rotation
(b) Animal manure
(c) Mechanical agriculture and Natural fertilizer control
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (c)
Fair in villages are held:
(a) Weekly
(b) Fortnightly
(c) Daily
(d) On special occasions.
Answer:
(a) Weekly

Question (d)
In 1951 number of universities in country:
(a) 25
(b) 27
(c) 36
(d) 53.
Answer:
(b) 27

Question (e)
When was state of Madhya Pradesh established:
(a) 1948
(b) 1956
(c) 1961
(d) 1856.
Answer:
(b) 1956

Question (f)
When price index increases it means:
(a) Value of currency increases
(b) Value of currency decreases
(c) No effect of value of currency
(d) None of the these.
Answer:
(b) Value of currency decreases

Question (g)
Element of commercial energy:
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Gas and electricity
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question (h)
Energy from hot spring:
(a) Small hydro power
(b) Biomass
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Hydro – electricity
Answer:
(c) Geothermal energy

Question (i)
In india supply of electricity started first:
(a) In Delhi
(b) In Chennai
(c) In Darjeeling
(d) In Bhopal.
Answer:
(c) In Darjeeling

Question (j)
National literacy mission is related to:
(a) Primary education
(b) High education
(c) Rural
(d) Adult education.
Answer:
(d) Adult education.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Economic development is ……………………..
2. Per capita income = ……………………….. /Total population.
3. Universal indicator of Quality of life is ………………………….
4. Economic development leads to …………………….. pollution.
5. In approx ……………………….. % cities of India amount of sulphur – dioxide and S.P.M. is maximum.
6. …………………… is a challenge for Indian economy.
7. For poverty eradication in Aug 1979 ………………………… plan was started.
8. Nehru employment plan was started in …………………………
9. …………………………… % of Indian population lives in villages.
10. Main problems of farmers is …………………….. and ………………………..
11. Duration of ………………………….. loan is 15 months to 5 years.
12. ………………………. is physical capital.
13. In order to improve quality of school education ……………………….. is the best organisation.
14. In India for every 100 people there are ………………………………
15. Repo Rate causes increase in consumption expenditure and …………………………… expenditure.

Answer:

1. Continuous
2. National income
3. Three
4. Environment
5. 20
6. Unemployment
7. Trisem
8. 28 April 1989
9. 74 – 3%
10. Agriculture finance
11. Temporary
12. Dynamic
13. NCERT
14. 40
15. Investment.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (f)
4. (g)
5. (a)
6. (i)
7. (l)
8. (n)
9. (c)
10. (e)
11. (k)
12. (h)
13. (j)
14. (o)
15. (m).

Question 4.
State true or false:

1. Poverty line is same for rural and urban areas.
2. Trisem plan is working at present.
3. Bio farming and organic farming are different.
4. Proportion of man in working population is higher to woman.
5. Rate of participation of women in rural areas as compared to urban area is higher.
6. By the end of 11 plan no. of unemployed people will be 480 lakh.
7. Inflation results in favourable settlement.
8. Economic development is a short term process.
9. Indian medical has six recognition system.
10. With the passing time use of electricity is decreasing in agriculture.
11. Life expectancy of women is less as compared to man.
12. Forest destruction is a result of soil erosion.
13. Environment includes biological and non – biological elements.
14. Midday meal programme started from 15 August 1995.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. False
11. False
12. True
13. True
14. True.

Question 5.
Answer in one word:

1. Reason for poverty in India.
2. Person who is willing to work and have qualification too but could not get job.
3. Farming were chemical fertilizer and insecticides are not used.
4. This type of marketing started in 1912 in India.
5. Reason for rural unemployment.
6. When was NABARD was established.

Answer:

1. Increase in population
2. Unemployed
3. Organic farming
4. Agriculture
5. Mechanization of agriculture
6. 12 July.

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Very Short Answer type Questions

Question 1.
Define Poverty?
Answer:
Poverty refers to a state in which an individual is unable to fulfill even the basic necessities of life.

Question 2.
What are the two sources of Human capital of a nation?
Answer:

1. Investment in Education
2. Investment in health.

Question 3.
Name two indicators of educational achievement of a nation?
Answer:

1. Primary Education
2. Youth literacy rate
3. Adult literacy rate.

Question 4.
What is worker?
Answer:
All those persons who are engaged in various economic activities and hence . contribute to gross domestic products, are workers.

Question 5.
Define worker population ratio?
Answer:
Worker population ratio is defined as the percentage of total population which is actively contributing to GDP of the nation.

Question 6.
Are the following workers: a beggar, a thief, a smuggler, a gambler? Why?
Answer:
These are not workers because they are not involved in any economic activity and hence not contributing to GDP of the nation.

Question 7.
What are the various non – commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
The various sources of non – commercial energy are:

1. Agricultural wastes
2. Firewood
3. Dried dung.

Question 8.
What are the basic sources of generating power?
Answer:
The basic sources of generating power are:

1. Water
2. Coal
3. Oil.

Question 9.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:
It is the development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.

Question 10.
What happens when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration?
Answer:
Environmental crisis occur when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration.

Question 11.
What is poverty line?
Answer:
Poverty line may be defined as a cut off point on the line of distribution which divides the population as poor and non – poor. People with income below poverty line are poor and people with income above poverty line are non – poor.

Question 12.
What is the factor considered while defining poverty line in India?
Answer:
Consumption of calories by people.

Question 13.
What is the measure of poverty line in India?
Answer:
Those people who do not get 2000 calories in cities and 2400 calories in villages are called poor.

Question 14.
Who thought about poverty line before independence in India?
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji.

Question 15.
Which organization collects data on poverty in India?
Answer:
Planning commission.

Question 16.
When was food for work programme started?
Answer:
In 1970.

Question 17.
Give two examples of self – employment programmes?
Answer:

1. Swamajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana.
2. Sampooma Grameen Rozgar Yojana.

Question 18.
What is agricultural diversification?
Answer:
Diversification towards new areas such as livestock, fisheries and other non- agricultural activities is necessary not only to reduce the risk from agriculture sector but also to provide productive sustainable livelihood options to our rural people.

Question 19.
What is Human capital?
Answer:
It represents enhanced labour productivity, which is an acquired ability and an outcome of deliberate investment decisions with an expectation that it will increase future income sources.

Question 20.
What is human capital formation?
Answer:
Human capital formation implies the additions to the stock of abilities and skills among the population of the country.

Question 21.
When are people considered as the asset of a nation?
Answer:
When people are educated, healthy and having working ability.

Question 22.
When are people considered as liability of a nation?
Answer:
When people are unhealthy and illiterate.

Question 23.
Define Training?
Answer:
Training is that process which increases the ability, skills and capability of employees.

Question 24.
Out of the total educational expenses of India in which education major part is invested?
Answer:
Primary education.

Question 25.
What is the difference between human capital and human development?
Answer:
Human capital is a means while human development is ends.

Question 26.
What is education?
Answer:
Education means attaining knowledge in schools and colleges.

Question 27.
What is the difference between education and literacy?
Answer:
Literacy is a narrow concept while education is a wider concept.

Question 28.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
Life expectancy at a specified age is the average the people at that specified age at a given point of time.

Question 29.
What is maternal mortality rate?
Answer:
The annual ratio of death of mothers during delivery period and birth is called maternal mortality rate.

Question 30.
What is mortality rate?
Answer:
Mortality rate is the annual number of deaths per 1000 people.

Question 31.
What is Infant mortality rate?
Answer:
The ratio of children died before one year and birth of children in same year is called infant mortality rate.

Question 32.
What is the traditional source of agricultural credit?
Answer:
Indigenous bankers.

Question 33.
When was NABARD formed?
Answer:
In 1982.

Question 34.
What is NABARD?
Answer:
NABARD is an apex body to co – ordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system.

Question 35.
What is Golden Revolution?
Answer:
The period between 1991 – 2003 is known as period of golden revolution because during this period the planned investment in horticulture became highly productive and the sector emerged as sustainable livelihood option.

Question 36.
Why is diversification needed?
Answer:
To reduce the risk in agriculture.

Question 37.
What is operation flood?
Answer:
It is a system whereby all formers can pool their milk produced according to different grading and the same is processed and marketed to urban centers through co – operatives.

Question 38.
What is organic farming?
Answer:
The whole system of fanning that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance is called organic farming.

Question 39.
What is co – operative marketing?
Answer:
Under this system, farmers get together and form marketing societies to sell the produce collectively and take benefit of collective bargaining to secure a better price of their product.

Question 40.
What is agricultural credit?
Answer:
Agricultural credit means that credit which is required for agricultural work, e.g., for purchasing seeds, manure, machinery, etc.

Question 41.
What are regular workers?
Answer:
Regular workers are hired on permanent basis.

Question 42.
What are casual workers?
Answer:
Causal workers are not hired on permanent basis.

Question 43.
What is labour force?
Answer:
Labour force refers to the number of persons who are working and those who are not working but are able and willing to work at the existing wage rate.

Question 44.
What is formal sector?
Answer:
It is an organized sector which includes all the public sector enterprises and private enterprises which employ 10 or more than 10 workers.

Question 45.
What is informalisation of employment?
Answer:
Informalisation of employment means those private industries where labour laws are not implemented.

Question 46.
What is unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment means open involuntary unemployment. It is a situation under which those who are willing not to get work.

Question 47.
Which type of unemployment is found in agricultural sector?
Answer:
Disguised unemployment.

Question 48.
What is open unemployment?
Answer:
It refers to the unemployment in which people are able and willing to work but fail to get work.

Question 49.
What is seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
When workers does not get employment whole year or in all seasons means they have work for 5 to 6 month and remains unemployed for the remaining is called seasonal unemployment.

Question 50.
What is disguised unemployment?
Answer:
Disguised unemployment may be defined as a situation where more people work than what is required.

Question 51.
When was National Rural employment guarantee act passed?
Answer:
In 2005.

Question 52.
What is Infrastructure?
Answer:
Infrastructure means a network of physical facilities and public services which supports an economic system to work effectively and efficiently.

Question 53.
What is economic infrastructure?
Answer:
It includes those aspects of economic system which provides a support to the process of economic development.

Question 54.
What is social infrastructure?
Answer:
It includes those aspects of economic system which provides a support to the process of social development.

Question 55.
How has Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh developed in agriculture and farming?
Answer:
Due to better irrigation facilities.

Question 56.
Why is Gujarat and Maharashtra far ahead than other states in terms of Industries?
Answer:
Because they have better means of transportation and are situated near ports which helps in easily receiving of raw – materials.

Question 57.
Why does Bangalore attracts many multinational companies?
Answer:
Because here world class means of communication is available.

Question 58.
What is commercial source of energy?
Answer:
The energy which is largely used for commercial purposes in industries, agriculture and service sector are called commercial sources of energy.

Question 59.
What are non – commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
It is commonly used by rural households for domestic consumption.

Question 60.
What is conventional source of energy ?
Answer:
Conventional sources of energy include both commercial and non – commercial sources of energy e.g., natural gas, coal, petroleum, etc.

Question 61.
What is non – conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
These are basically renewable sources of energy. They have environment friendly characteristics and involves less cost of production, e.g., solar energy, wind energy, etc.

Question 62.
How are non – conventional source of energy better than conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Non – conventional sources of energy do not pollute the environment.

Question 63.
What is Bio – energy ?
Answer:
Bio – energy is an energy generated by agricultural wastes, dried dung and other biological materials.

Question 64.
What is Bio – mass?
Answer:
Bio – mass is the production of fuel which is produced by converting agricultural wastes in pillets and briquette.

Question 65.
Why is more preference given to air and water sources in energy policy of India?
Answer:
Because they are not fossil fuels and it does not effect the environment negatively.

Question 66.
What is health?
Answer:
Health means a state of complete physical, mental and social soundness.

Question 67.
What is the meaning of AYUSH?
Answer:
AYUSH means:
A – Ayurveda
Y – Yoga
U – Unani
S – Siddha
H – Homeopathy.

Question 68.
What is morbidity?
Answer:
Morbidity is a term used to describe how often a disease occurs in a specific area or is term used to describe a focus on death.

Question 69.
What is environment?
Answer:
Environment is defined as the total planetary inheritance and the totality of all resources.

Question 70.
What are renewable resources?
Answer:
The resources which may be regenerated through natural process such as forest, animals, water, etc.

Question 71.
What are non – renewable resources?
Answer:
The resources which are available to as a fixed stock, which cannot be regenerated such as coal, gas and petroleum.

Question 72.
What is environmental crisis?
Answer:
Due to pollution in environment it creates an imbalance in the environment which is called as environmental crisis.

Question 73.
When was pollution control board formed?
Answer:
In 1974.

Question 74.
What is Pollution?
Answer:
It refers to those chemicals, substances which contaminate the environment.

Question 75.
What is global warming?
Answer:
The gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere, as a result the increase in greenhouse gases since industrial revolution.

Question 76.
What is ozone depletion?
Answer:
It referes to the phenomenon of reduction in the amount of ozone in the stratosphere.

Question 77.
What is the objective of Chipko movement?
Answer:
To save forests in Himalaya festival.

Question 78.
What is the major cause of air pollution?
Answer:
Smoke from vehicles.

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘Food for Work’ programme?
Answer:
‘Food for work programme’ is one of the programmes to generate wage employment for the poor unskilled people living in rural areas. Under this programme, wages is paid partly in kind in the form of foodgrains and partly in cash. The food component of wages ensures that poor workers get some minimum amount of food for their consumption requirement.

Question 2.
How can creation of income earning assets address the problem of poverty?
Answer:
Creation of earning assets will lead to increase in domestic product and per capita income. Increase in domestic product would spread to all sections of society and will trickle down to the poor sections of society also. Swamajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana aims at encouraging self – employment among the poor by providing income earning assets through a mix of loans and subsidies.

Question 3.
What programme has the government adopted to help the elderly people and poor and destitute women?
Answer:
The government has many of social security programme to help some specific groups. One such programme is National Social Assistance Programme. Under this programme elderly people who do not have anyone to take care of them are given pension to question themselves. Poor woman who are destitute and windows are also covered under this scheme.

Question 4.
Is there any relationship between unemployment and poverty? Explain?
Answer:
There exists a deep relationship between unemployment and poverty. Unemployment or under employment and the casual and intermittent nature of work in both rural and urban areas drives unemployment people who do not have resources to make their ends meet into indebtedness and poverty.

Due to unemployment, income of the people is reduced to a large extent and they are unable to get access to education, health facilities, proper sanitation, etc. This causes poor quality of living and hence poor human capital and skills.

Question 5.
What is the difference between relative and absolute poverty?
Answer:
Absolute poverty is defined as inability to secure minimum human needs con¬cerning food, clothing, housing, education and health. On the other hand, relative poverty is a concept that enable us to understand the relative position of different regiments of the population in the social ladder.

Question 6.
Why do we observe regional difference in education attainment in India?
Answer:
The regional differences in educational attainment in India is due to:

1. Low expenditure by the government in education sector.
2. Inequality of Income.

Question 7.
Bring out the differences between Human capital and Human development?
Answer:
Following are the differences between human capital and human development:

1. Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity. On the other hand, human development considers education and health integral to human well – being.

2. Human capital treats human beings as a means to an end; the end being the increase in productivity. Human development treats human beings as ends in themselves. In the context of human development basic education and basic health are the rights of every individual irrespective of their contribution to labour productivity.

Question 8.
How is human development a broader term as compound to human capital?
Answer:
Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity. Human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well – being because only when people have the ability to read and write and the ability to lead a long and healthy life, they will be able to make other choices they value.

Question 9.
Distinguish between Human capital and Physical capital?
Answer:
Difference between human capital and physical capital:

1. Human capital and physical capital are both types of capital resources that are essential to the smooth running of any business. Human capital refers to the skills, abilities, experience and value that is brought on to a firm by its employees.

Physical capital refers to all non – human assets created by human and used in the production process such as machinery, buildings, vehicles, etc. An important point to note is that physical and human capital must go hand in hand for a business to run its business operations successfully.

2. The right human capital can enhance the value of physical capital and without the right physical capital human capital cannot contribute to its full extent.

Question 10.
What is the role of human capital in economic development?
Answer:
Role of human capital formation in economic development:
The human capital formation plays crucial role in the economic development. Firstly, formation of human capital would tend to change the traditional society to modem society, which has higher scope for economic development.

Secondly, human capital increases the productivity of the physical capital (For example, they can handle the tools and machines in better way). Enhanced productivity would accelerate the growth.

Thirdly, higher standard of the life is possible only via development of human capital. Fourthly, human capital formation facilitates the use and growth of innovation. Innovation is the principle determinant of growth. Fifthly, human capital formation increases the rate of participation.

Higher the rate of participation, greater is the degree of economic equality in the society. Finally, investment in human capital yields larger returns and the returns on this type of investment far outweigh its input costs. For example, training of the workers increases their productivity which ultimately leads to overall increase in production.

Question 11.
Education is considered to be an important input for the development of a nation? How?
Answer:
Education is the process of teaching, training, learning, impacting knowledge and develop skills. It facilitates the use of natural and human resources of all regions of the country. Following points are describing why education is an important input for the development of a nation:

1. Knowledge and Skills:
A better educated person has greater skills and knowledge which enhance productivity and therefore provide a greater opportunity to work and earn higher income.

2. Rationality:
Education develops logics in people and helps them in making rational choices which lead to efficient utilization of resources resulting in higher productivity.

3. Values and Ethics:
Education inculcates moral values and professional ethics in people making them law abiding citizens who help each other and hence contribute in the well – being of the nation.

4. Adoption of Modern technology:
Education develops the skills required for understanding and adoption modem technology. This helps in increasing output and growth of the nation.

5. Reduction in Income inequality:
Education enhances the income earning capacity of people from economically backward sections of the country and thus reduces the inequalities in the distribution of income.

Question 12.
Discuss the following as a source of human capital formation:

1. Health infrastructure
2. Expenditure on migration.

Answer:

1. Health infrastructure:
Investment in health facilities to build a physically as well as mentally strong human capital, is essential for increasing productivity. Preventive medicine (vaccination), curative medicine (medical intervention during illness), social medicine (spread of health literacy) and provision of clean drinking water and good sanitation are the various forms of expenditures done on building health infrastructure which is considered as an important factor for human capital formation as it directly increases the supply of healthy labour force.

2. Expenditure on Migration:
People migrate in search of jobs with higher salaries than what they may get in their native places. People froms rural areas migrate to urban areas in search of employment. Technically qualified persons, like engineers and doctors, migrate to other countries because of higher earnings in such countries. Migration in both these cases involves cost of transport, higher cost of living in the migrated places and psychological costs of adapting to a new socio – cultural set – up.

Question 13.
Establish the need for acquiring information relating to health and education expenditure for the effective utilization of human resources?
Answer:
The availability of courses and admissions related information helps the students to opt for the best course according to their interest areas and capabilities. This helps in efficient utilization of resources invested in education and results in productive human resources. The availability of information regarding health creates awareness about health in the people.

This increases the acceptability of various healthy habits and family welfare programmes which ensure the supply of a healthy workforce and a healthy society at large. Various health measures are not adopted due to lack of complete knowledge and information.

For example:
Few years back, people considered AIDS as a disease which could spread by shaking hands or sharing food and even people suffering from this disease were not aware of the medicines available but through awareness campaigns people are now informed about it and suffering of patients has reduced not only physically but also socially.

Question 14.
How does investment in human capital contribute to growth?
Answer:
Investment in human capital is believed to be positively related to economic growth. The contribution of human capital formation to economic growth can be explained as follows:

1. Increase in Labour productivity:
Investment in human capital through expenditure on education, health, etc. enhances the productivity of labour as they become physically fit and skilled in their jobs. It leads to efficient utilization of the material inputs and capital.

2. Innovations:
Research and development is necessary for innovations in an economy, which lead to advancement in technology and creation of new products. Human capital formation helps in preparing learned scientists and researchers in various subjects who bring out innovative products, technologies and processes and thus add to the economic growth.

3. Absorptive capacity:
Advanced technology can be adopted only if the skills and knowledge required for using that technology is present in the country. Investment in education and on the job training helps to create these skills and knowledge base and thus helps in absorption of new technologies which lead to higher production and thus economic growth.

Question 15.
‘There is a downward trend in inequality world – wide with a rise in the average education levels’? Comments?
Answer:
It is believed that education level reduces the inequality at the global level. Education imparts the knowledge and technical skills which enhance the productivity of people. An educated person possesses higher productivity and efficiency and hence a relatively higher income earning capacity.

Distribution of income has become less skewed and income disparity between the rich and the poor is reducing across the world with better earning opportunities available due to rise in education.

Governments of different countries have been investing heavily in the education sector as rise in average education levels not only reduce inequality but also other problems like poverty, unemployment and underutilization of resources.

Question 16.
Explain the importance of Education?
Answer:
Importance/Objectives of Education:

1. Imparting an adequate knowledge of the subject – matter.
2. Equipping the prospective teachers with necessary pedagogic skills.
3. Enabling the teacher to acquire understanding of child psychology.
4. Developing proper attitudes towards teaching.
5. Developing self – confidence in the teachers.
6. Enabling teachers to make proper use of instructional facilities.
7. Enabling teachers to understand the significance of individual differences of child and to take appropriate steps for their optimum development.
8. Development of the ability to give direct satisfaction of parents from the achievement of children.

Question 17.
Explain how investment in education stimulates economic growth?
Answer:
Investment in education stimulates economics growth in the following manner:

1. Investment in education stimulates economic growth as education is provided to all.
2. As per the government policies. They want to increase the literacy rate for both adults and youth.
3. It improves the difference in literacy rates between males and females.
4. Women are also taking higher educations.
5. This all lead to form a well educated nation and investment in education by all individuals give them in return a good standard of living a good labour productive force and high participation rate of both males and females. Which automatically stimulates the growth of economy.

Question 18.
Bring out the need for on – the – job – training for a person?
Answer:
Firms provide on – the – job training to their workers to enhance their skill which helps in human capital formation. The workers may be trained in the firm itself under the supervision of a skilled worker or the workers may be sent for off – campus training.

On – the – job training is an important factor of human capital formation as it results in enhanced labour productivity. On – the – job training allows trainees and employees to get acquainted with their co – workers.

Needs of On – the – job training:
Training allows the supervisors or managers to assess progress of a person over a short period of time enabling them to determine any flaws or problems and rectifying the problem on the spot. This leads to higher efficiency of not only the person under training but also the organization as a whole.

Question 19.
Trace the relationship between human capital and economic growth?
Answer:
Human capital is believed to be positively related to economic growth though it is difficult to establish a relation of cause and effect from the growth of human capital to economic growth. Human capital formation is related to economic growth in the following manner:

1. Increase in Labour Productivity:
Investment in human capital through expenditure on education, health, etc. Enhances the productivity of labour as they become physically fit and skilled in their jobs. It leads to efficient utilization of the material inputs and capital. With increase in productivity, output increases at an increasing rate and hence economic growth accelerates.

2. Innovations:
Research and development is necessary for innovations in an economy which lead to advancement in technology and creation of new products. Human capital formation helps in preparing learned scientists and researchers in various subjects who bring out innovative products, technologies and processes and thus add to the economic growth.

3. Absorptive capacity:
Advanced technology can be adopted only if the skills and knowledge required for using that technology is present in the country. Investment in education and on – the – job training helps to create these skills and knowledge base and thus helps in absorption of new technologies which lead to higher production and thus economic growth.

4. Participation rate:
Human capital formation makes a greater proportion of population capable of par acipating in the economic, social and political activities of a nation thus raising the participation of people in the process of economic growth.

Question 20.
Discuss the need for promoting women’s education in India?
Answer:
Women have always been neglected when it comes to education in India. The access to education has always been biased towards male population due to our social system which is patriarchal. The lack of education has caused exploitation of women and has resulted in a lower social status of women in India.

There is an imminent need for promoting female education in India because of the following reasons:

1. Women education is essential for providing them economic independence and empowering them to save them from exploitation and domestic violence.
2. Women education is essential in order to raise the social status of women so that the quality of life of women can be improved.
3. Education women help in promoting family welfare programmes and thus in population control.
4. Educated women are aware of the importance of health care and thus take proper care of their family members contributing in human capital formation.
5. Educating a woman means educating a family. An educated woman can inculcate moral values in her children and can facilitate their education.

Question 21.
In your view, is it essential for the government to regulate the fee structure in education and health care institutions? If so, why?
Answer:
Education and health are two basic requirements of human beings so that they may be able to live a life of dignity. It is the responsibility of government to ensure education and health facilities to even the poorest of the poor.

For this purpose either the government should itself provide these services through government schools, colleges and hospitals or encourage private sector participation in these sectors. Private sector is allowed to operate in these sectors.

But private sector works with profit as the primary motive and so if government does not regulate the fee structure in education and health care institutions, the fee may become too high to be in affordable limits of common people. This will defeat the purpose of these facilities altogether and hence government must intervene and regulate the fee structure of even the private institutes in education and health care sectors.

Question 22.
Discuss the importance of credit in rural development?
Answer:
Following points highlight the importance of credit in rural development:

1. Credit is required by the farmers to meet their personal needs because the gestation period between crop sowing and realisation of income after production is quite long.
2. Credit is required by the farmers to make investment on seeds, fertilizers, implements, etc. Since majority of the farmers are poor, they do not have sufficient personal resources to make investment.
3. Credit is required by the non – farm sectors also such as cottage and small – scale industries.
4. Credit is required by the rural people for self – employment.

Question 23.
Why is agricultural diversification essential for sustainable livelihoods?
Answer:
Agricultural diversification includes two aspects:

1. Diversification of crop production.
2. Shifting of workforce from agriculture to other allied activities and non – agriculture sector?

Agricultural diversification is essential because there is greater risk in depending exclusively on agriculture for livelihood. The diversification reduces the risk from agriculture sector and provides productive sustainable livelihood options to the people living in rural areas. It provides alternate employment opportunities in non – farm sectors which will reduce overcrowding of agriculture.

Question 24.
Briefly discuss the problems related to agricultural finance in India?
Answer:
Various factors that led to the related growth in economic development in China are as given below:

1. There is overall inadequacy of agricultural finance, particularly of the institutional credit. Agricultural finance is not available in sufficient quantity.
2. Loans are not available at the right time.
3. Loans are not available at reasonable rate of interest.
4. Despite the recent expansion of credit from commercial banks, its contribution to agricultural finance continues to be a small proportion of its total lending.
5. There has been neglect of small farmers who cannot offer any security for loans.
6. A serious problem is that of mounting overdues.

Question 25.
What is agricultural trading?
Answer:
Agricultural trading:
It means to exchange of agricultural commodities between farmer and traders. Agricultural trading includes gradation, standardization, collection and conservation. In India the undermentioned system is prevailed for the trading of agricultural commodities Trading in villages, Trading in mandies, Trading through co – operative societies, with government, the trading through retailers.

Question 26.
Mention some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing?
Answer:
Some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing are:

1. Faulty weighing and manipulation of accounts by traders results in exploitation of farmers when they sell their products to traders.
2. Farmers do not have proper storage facilities to keep back their produce for selling later at a better price. Hence, they are forced to sell even at lower price to save the products from decaying.
3. Fanners cannot avail agricultural credit, leading to their exploitation by the moneylenders.

Question 27.
Write the problems of agricultural diversification?
Answer:
The major problems of agricultural diversification are as follows:

1. Farmers particularly small farmers are not able to invest in Agro and non – agro based industries. If requires more capital and labours. They are not having enough time to learn new economic agricultural policy and are unable to take risk.
2. Technological changes are the key of agricultural diversification. Available technological is not suitable for many agricultural related situations.
3. Infrastructure established by govt, is centralized in developed areas. In backward areas infrastructure like roads, transport, irrigation, cold storage are required but they are not available.

Question 28.
Explain Golden Revolution?
Answer:
Golden Revolution:
The rapid growth in the production of diverse horticultural crops such as fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and plantation crops is known as Golden Revolution. It led to increase in production of fruits, vegetables, flowers, aromatic plants, spices, etc.

Golden Revolution made India a world leader in the production of mangoes, bananas, coconut and spices. Golden Revolution provided nutrition and sustainable livelihood options.

Question 29.
Explain the role of non – farm employment in promoting rural diversification?
Answer:
A major proportion of the increasing labour force needs to find alternate employment opportunities in other non – farm sectors. The dynamic sub – sectors in non – farm sector include agro – processing industries, food processing industries, leather industry, tourism, etc. There are other sectors which have the potential but lack infrastructure and other support. These include traditional home – based industries like pottery, crafts, handlooms etc.

Majority of rural women find employment in agriculture while men generally look for non – farm employment. Nowadays women have also begun to work in non – farm jobs e.g., in Tamil Nadu, many Farm Women’s Groups are creating savings in their group through a micro – credit system and promoting small – scale household activities like mushroom cultivation, soap manufacture.

Question 30.
Information technology plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security? Comment?
Answer:
Information Technology (IT) is playing a significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security in present time. Governments can predict areas of food insecurity and vulnerability using appropriate information and software tools so that action can be taken to prevent or reduce the chances of an emergency like monsoon failure and resultant drought or low crop yield.

Role of Information Technology (IT):
1. IT can help in disseminating information regarding advanced technology and its applications, prices, weather and soil conditions for growing different crops etc. Which facilitates farmers in taking effective decisions regarding their crops and other activities. It also enhances productivity in farm and non-farm sectors of rural economy.

2. IT can act as a means of releasing the creative potential and knowledge in the society and has the potential of employment generation in rural areas as kisan call centres and various websites providing valuable information regarding measures to sustainable development.

Question 31.
What is organic farming and how does it promote sustainable development?
Answer:
Organic farming is an eco – friendly technique of growing crops which promotes sustainable development. In other words, organic agriculture is a whole system of farming that restores maintains and enhances the ecological balance and enhances the food safety. Thus, encouraging the practices towards sustainable development.

Question 32.
Compared to urban women, more rural women are found working. Why?
Answer:
The difference in participation rates is very large in urban areas:
For every 100 urban females, only about 14 are engaged in some economic activities. In rural areas, for every 100 rural women about 26 participate in the employment market. It is common to find that where men are able to earn high incomes, families discourage female members from taking up jobs. Earnings of urban male workers are generally higher than rural males and so the urban families do not want females to work.

Question 33.
Why are regular salaried employees more in urban areas than in rural areas?
Answer:
Regular salaried employees are more in urban areas than in rural areas due to following reasons:

1. Education and Training:
Regular salaried employment requires certain educational qualifications and professional skills. Education and training facilities are not as good in rural areas as in urban areas. Therefore, chances of regular employment are higher for urban People.

2. Infrastructure:
Large companies including MNCs are concentrated in the urban areas due to the presence of economic infrastructure and availability of modem facilities like banks, transport and communication, etc.

3. Agriculture:
Rural population is primarily engaged in agricultural sector and are not willing to take the risk of leaving their farms for regular salaried employment. This is also a reason for regular salaried employment to be less prevalent in rural areas.

Question 34.
Why are less women found in regular salaried employment?
Answer:
Less women are found in regular salaried employment due to the following reasons:

1. Lack of Education facilities:
Female education is not given due importance in India and hence majority of the women in India do not have the educational qualification and professional skills required for regular salaried employment.

2. Discouragement from Family:
In India, families still do not want the female members to step out from the house for work especially if it is for long hours as in regular salaried employment.

3. Family responsibilities:
Household work and responsibility of children and other family members do not allow the women to devote time and energy in regular employment.

Question 35.
Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? Why?
Answer:
Yes, it is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector because labour is exploited in the informal sector. In the formal sector, labour laws, enable the workers to protect their rights in various ways. The workers in the formal sector form trade unions, bargains with employers for better wages and other social security measures. They earn more than those in the informal sector.

Workers and enterprises in the informal sector do not get regular income; they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Workers are dismissed without any compensation.

Question 36.
Victor is able to get work only for two hours in a day. Rest of the day, he is looking for work. Is he unemployed? Why? What kind of jobs could persons like Victor be doing?
Answer:
Victor is a casual worker and is under – employed, though not completely unemployed. He is not being able to find a job according to his capabilities and willingness and therefore even after two hours of work in a day he remains jobless for the rest of the day. He can do other part – time jobs like those of delivery man, waiter in a restaurant, etc. Till he finds a regular wage employment suiting his education and skills.

Question 37.
You are residing in a village. If you are asked to advice the village panchayat, what kinds of activities would you suggest for the improvement of your village which would also generate employment?
Answer:
Following activities can be undertaken for the improvement of the village which would also generate employment:

1. Poverty alleviation programmes providing employment generation opportunities such as construction of roads, schools, etc.
2. Provision of services in areas such as primary health and primary education, which can employ educated youth of the village after training them.
3. Provision for safe drinking water and sanitation facilities by employing village population in construction of these facilities.
4. Providing assistance for people to buy income and employment generating assets.
5. Development of community assets by generating wage employment through construction of houses, financial assistance for constructing houses, laying of rural roads, etc.
6. Development of wastelands/degraded lands to improve agricultural production and farm incomes.

Question 38.
Who is a casual wage labourer?
Answer:
Casual workers refer to those workers, who do not earn regular wages and do not have regular employment throughout the year. They work for few months or days and earn wages for the work done. Casual workers are not hired by employers on a regular basis.

Question 39.
How will you know whether a worker is working in the informal sector?
Answer:
Thus, informal sector includes millions of farmers, agricultural labourers, owners of small enterprises and people working in those enterprises as also the self – employed who do not have any hired workers. All non – farm casual wage labourers who work for more than one employer such as construction workers and headdload workers are also working in informal sector.

Those who are working in the informal sector do not enjoy social security benefits. They earn less than those in the formal sector. Workers and enterprises in the informal sector do not get regular income; they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Workers in the informal sector are dismissed without any compensation. Workers of this sector are even found living in slums.

Question 40.
Explain the term ‘Infrastructure’?
Answer:
Infrastructure refers to the supporting services in the main areas of industrial and agricultural production, domestic and foreign trade and commerce. These services include roads, railways, ports, airports, dams, power stations, oil and gas pipelines, telecommunication, schools and colleges, hospitals, sanitary system and also the monetarily system including banks, insurance and other financial institutions.

Question 41.
Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country. Do you agree? Explain?
Answer:
Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country in the following ways:

1. Increasing Productivity:
Social infrastructure such as housing, health and education makes living conditions better for the population. Healthy and educated population is a source of human capital formation which results in greater productivity.

2. Boosting Production:
Infrastructure boosts production both by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and by providing supportive facilities. Agricultural production depends largely on the adequate expansion and development of irrigation facilities and power-supply needed for the same.

3. Inducing Investment:
Economic infrastructure facilitates production and increases income in the economy. Business environment in the economy becomes conducive and this induces more investment which leads to employment generation leading to higher income and better standard of living.

4. Quality of Life:
Infrastructure facilities such as transport, communication and power-supply make life easier for people and increase their access to other related facilities such as education and health. This makes people more productive.

Question 42.
What is the state of rural infrastructure in India?
Answer:
The state of rural infrastructure in India is very critical. India’s more than billion plus population resides in rural areas. There is a lack of access to safe, reliable power, water telecommunication, sanitation and transportation services. The government had announced several schemes but still there is not a very remarkable growth in it as per the data of census 2001 in rural India only 56% households have an electricity connection and 43% still use kerosene.

About 90% of the rural households use bio – fuels such as crop residues, dung and fuel wood to meet their energy requirement for cooking. Tap water availability is limited to only 24% rural households. About 76% of the population drinks water from open sources such as wells, tanks, ponds, lakes, rivers, canals, etc. Access to improved sanitation in rural areas was only 20%.

Question 43.
Justify that energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy?
Answer:
The energy crisis in India is the result of excessive use of non – renewable sources of energy for present consumption which has created a threat for sustainable development of the country. The conventional sources of energy, especially the commercial sources are generally exhaustible (except hydro – power).

There are three sources of energy which are commonly termed as non – conventional sources-solar energy, wind energy and tidal power. India has almost unlimited potential for producing all three types of energy being a tropical country. Some appropriate cost effective technologies are already available which can be use to produce energy from these sources.

Question 44.
What problems are being faced by the power sector in India?
Answer:
Some of the problems being faced by India’s power sector are:

1. At present, India is able to add only 20000 MW a year India’s installed capacity to generate electricity is not sufficient to feed an annual economic growth of 9% and even, this capacity remains under – utilised due to inefficient operation of plants.

2. State Electricity Boards (SEBs), which distribute electricity, incur losses which exceed 500 billion due to transmission and distribution losses, wrong pricing of electricity and other inefficiencies.

3. Electricity is stolen in different areas and tariffs are not paid which also adds to the losses of SEBs.

Question 45.
What is a ‘Global Burden of Disease’?
Answer:
Global Burden of Disease (GBD) is an indicator used by experts to know the number of people dying prematurely due to a particular disease as well as the number of years spent by them in a state of ‘Disability’ owing to the disease.

Question 46.
What is the difference between sustainable development and economic development?
Answer:

1. Sustainable development easy stress on environment protection and pollution control while in economic development does not give importance to environmental protection and pollution control.
2. Natural capital is properly used in sustainable development while natural resources are exploited in economic development.

Question 47.
What are the functions of the environment?
Answer:
Following are the functions of environment:

1. Offer resources for production: All the resources which are like as a free gift to us e.g., wind, water, sunlight, land are available because of environment.
2. Sustains life: All essential ingredients which we are receiving from environment are necessary for the sustenance of human life.
3. Assimilates waste: Environment absorbs the waste automatically which is produced by the production and consumption activities.
4. Quality of life: Water, mountains, deserts are enjoying by the human and adding quality to his life.

Question 48.
India has abundant natural resources substantiate the statement?
Answer:
India has abundant natural resources including rich quality soil, various rivers and tributaries, green forests, mineral deposits, vast stretch of the Indian Ocean, mountain ranges, etc.

1. Soil:
The black soil of the Deccan Plateau is ‘particularly suitable for cultivation of cotton, leading to concentration of textile industries in this region. The Indo – Gangetic plains spread from the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal are highly fertile, intensively cultivated and densely populated regions in the world.

2. Forests:
India’s forests, though unevenly distributed, provide green cover for a majority of its population and natural cover for its wildlife.

3. Minerals:
Large deposits of iron – ore, coal and natural gas are found in the country. India alone accounts for nearly 20% of the world’s total iron-ore reserves. Bauxite, copper, chromate, diamonds, gold, lead, lignite, manganese, zinc, uranium, etc. are also available in different parts of the country.

Question 49.
Is environmental crisis a recent phenomenon? If so, why?
Answer:
Yes, environmental crisis is a recent phenomenon. The environment has been able to perform its functions without any interruption till the resource extraction was not above the rate of regeneration of the resource and the wastes generated were within the assimilating capacity of the environment.

But today, environment fails to perform its third and vital function of life sustenance resulting in an environmental crisis. The rising population of the developing countries and the affluent consumption and production standards of the developed world have placed a huge stress on the environment in terms of its first two functions.

Question 50.
Give two instances of:

1. Overuse of environmental resources.
2. Misuse of environmental resources.

Answer:

1. Overuse of environmental resources:

• Soil degradation due to improper crop rotation and crop shifting.
• Drying up of rivers due to overuse of water from them through dams and reservoirs.

2. Misuse of environmental resources:

• Excess use of electricity leads to depletion of resources like coal and water from which electricity is generated.
• Excess use of petrol and diesel in vehicles.

Question 51.
State any four pressing environmental concerns of India. Correction for environmental damages involves opportunity costs. Explain?
Answer:
Four pressing environmental concerns of India are:

1. Land degradation.
2. Biodiversity loss.
3. Air pollution with special reference to vehicular pollution in urban cities.
4. Management of fresh water and solid waste management.

Correction for environment damages involves opportunity costs as explained below:

• The industrial development in past has polluted and dried up rivers and other aquifers making water an economic good.

Question 52.
Mention the strategies for sustainable development?
Answer:
The strategies are:

1. Use of non – conventional sources of energy.
2. Encouraging use of cleaner fuel.
3. Setting mini hydel plants.
4. Using traditional practices.
5. Biocomposting.
6. Biopest control.

Question 53.
Explain the relevance of intergenerational equity in the definition of sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development in itself makes it obligatory for the development process to be such that the basic needs of not only the present generation but also of the future generations are taken care of. It becomes the moral duty of this generation to hand over the earth to the future generation in good form.

Sustainable development aims at maximizing the welfare of both present and future generations. It does not mean hindering the existing pace of economic growth, but refers to a judicious or optimum utilization of resources in such a manner that pace of economic growth sustains with inter generational equity.

Question 54.
Write a short note on National Rural Employment Guarantee Plan?
Answer:
This Act was passed in 2005 and the scheme i.e. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (Scheme) or NREGA scheme was launched in 2nd February, 2006. The aim of the act is to provide guaranteed wage employment to every household whose adult volunteer is to do unskilled manual work for a minimum of 100 days in a year.

Question 55.
Distinguish between Human capital and Physical capital?
Answer:
Role of human capital formation in economic development:
The human capital formation plays crucial role in the economic development. Firstly, formation of human capital would tend to change the traditional society to modem society, which has higher scope for economic development.

Secondly, human capital increases the productivity of the physical capital (For example, they can handle the tools and machines in better way). Enhanced productivity would accelerate the growth.

Thirdly, higher standard of the life is possible only via development of human capital. Fourthly, human capital formation facilitates the use and growth of innovation. Innovation is the principle determinant of growth. Fifthly, human capital formation increases the rate of participation.

Higher the rate of participation, greater is the degree of economic equality in the society. Finally, investment in human capital yields larger returns and the returns on this type of investment far outweigh its input costs. For example, training of the workers increases their productivity which ultimately leads to overall increase in production.

Question 56.
What are the problems of education sector?
Answer:
Problem/Challenges of Education sector:

1. Lack of infrastructure.
2. Poor global ranking of institutes.
3. System of education.
4. Gap between education provided and industry required education.
5. Gender issues.
6. Costly higher education.

Question 57.
What are the causes of migration in India?
Answer:
The causes of migration in India are as follows:

1. Lack of education facilities in rural area.
2. Poor condition of agriculture and good opportunities of employment due to industrialization.
3. Lack of medical facilities in rural area.
4. Lack of security.
5. Lack of facilities in rural area.
6. Social cause.

Question 58.
What are the sources of rural credit?
Answer:
The sources for providing agricultural credit are divided into two parts:

(A) Institutional sources:

1. Co – operative Credit Societies
2. Bhoomi Vikas Bank,
3. Rural Bank (26 Sep., 1975)
4. Commercial Bank (July, 1969)
5. Government
6. State Bank of India
7. Reserve Bank of India (1 April, 1935), (h) National Agricultural and Rural Development Bank.

(B) Non – institutional sources:

1. Sahookar or Private money lenders.
2. Friends and relatives.
3. Trader and commission agent.

Question 59.
What are the problems of rural development?
Answer:
The rural areas are facing following problems today:

1. Inadequate employment opportunities
2. Low level of income.
3. Increasing pressure on agriculture.
4. Low standard of living.
5. Lack of means of transport and communication.
6. Lack of education facilities.
7. Lack of medical facilities.
8. Lack of civil amenities in urban areas like drinking water, electricity, gutters, library recreation, etc.
9. Lack of housing facilities.
10. Lack of fair price shops.
11. Lack of banking facilities.

Question 60.
Explain the importance of agriculture in Indian economy?
Answer:
Agriculture and allied sectors, including agribusiness, domesticated animals, and ranger service and fishery sub segments as for as rate of GDP is 13 – 9 percent during 2013 – 2014 at 2004 – 2005 prices. Agricultural exports constitute a fifth of the total exports of the country. In perspective of the overwhelming position of the Agricultural sector, gathering and support of Agricultural Statistics expect incredible significance.

The 6% of agricultural production is converted in to processed food, which is focused to achieve 20% in coming future. The business is work escalated and contributes around 50% for industrial production. Multi – National Food Companies have assumed a part of making business sector draw and rivalry. Selection of inventive and experimental bundling strategies by food industry has empowered the assembling of sheltered and quality sustenance.

Conclusion:
India has the capacity to produce the food grains which can make vast difference in Indian economy. To achieve targeted mark by the government it needs to provide support in case of land, bank loans and other machineries to the small farmers along with the big farmers with this we can expect some improvement in Indian economy.

Agriculture is the most important sector of Indian economy. Indian agriculture sector accounts for 18 percent of India’s gross domestic product (GDP) and provides employment to 50 % of the countries workforce. India is the world’s largest producer of pulses, rice, wheat, spices and spice products. India has many areas to choose for business such as dairy, meat, poultry, fisheries and food grains etc.

India has emerged as the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world. According to the data provided by Department of Economics and Statics (DES) the production of food grains for the year 2013 – 2014 is 264 million tons which is increased when compared to (2012 – 2013) 257 million tons. This is a good symptom for the Indian economy from the agriculture sector.

The commitment of agribusiness in the national income in India is all the more, subsequently, it is said that agriculture in India is a backbone for Indian economy. The contribution of agriculture in the initial two decades towards the total national output is between 48% and 60% In the year 2001 – 2002, this contribution declined to just around 26%.

Question 61.
Briefly explain in role of Minimum Support Price (MSP) in the context of agricultural marketing in India?
Answer:
The Government of India has adopted the policy of minimum support price to safeguard fanners from undue fluctuations in market prices of agricultural commodities. Under this policy, the government well in advance of the sowing season declares the minimum prices at which the government will purchase various commodities.

It means that the farmers have an option to sell their output to the government if the market prices fall below these minimum support prices. However, if the market prices are higher, the fears are free to sell in the market.

Question 62.
By giving examples differentiate between self – employed workers and hired workers?
Answer:
Self – employed workers use self – employed resources to earn their living while hired workers are employed by others on salary. Example of self – employed workers are doctor running his own clinic, a cement shop owners /example of hired workers are a civil engineer in the construction company, a doctor working in a govt, hospital, etc.

Question 63.
Write the types of unemployment found in Indian economy?
Answer:
Types of Unemployment:

1. Open Unemployment:
Open unemployment is a situation wherein a large section of the labour force does not get a job that may yield them regular income. This type of unemployment can be seen and counted in terms of the number of unemployed persons. The labour force expands at a faster rate than the growth rate of economy. Therefore all people do not get jobs.

2. Disguised Unemployment:
It is a situation in which more people are doing work than actually required. Even if some are withdrawn, production does not suffer. In other words it refers to a situation of employment with surplus manpower in which some workers have zero marginal productivity.

So, their removal will not affect the volume of total production. Overcrowding in agriculture due to rapid growth of population and lack of alternative job opportunities may be cited as the main reasons for disguised unemployment in India.

3. Seasonal Unemployment:
It is unemployment that occurs during certain seasons of the year. In some industries and occupations like agriculture, holiday resorts, ice factories, etc., production activities take place only in some seasons. So, they offer employment for only a certain period of time in a year. People engaged in such type of activities may remain unemployed during the off – season.

4. Cyclical Unemployment:
It is caused by trade cycles at regular intervals. Generally capitalist economics are subject to trade cycles. The down swing in business activities results in unemployment. Cyclical unemployment is normally a shot – run phenomenon.

Question 64.
Explain disguised unemployment with example?
Answer:
Disguised Unemployment:
It is a situation in which more people are doing work than actually required. Even if some are withdrawn, production does not suffer. In other words it refers to a situation of employment with surplus manpower in which some workers have zero marginal productivity.

So, their removal will not affect the volume of total production. Overcrowding in agriculture due to rapid growth of population and lack of alternative job opportunities may be cited as the main reasons for disguised unemployment in India.

Question 65.
Distinguish between regular workers and casual workers?
Answer:
Regular workers are hired on permanent basis, e.g., a doctor employed in a govt, hospital while casual workers are not hired on permanent basis e.g., a daily wage earn working in a construction site. Regular workers are entitled to social security benefits (pension, etc.) from their employers. Causal workers are not entitled to social security benefits from their employers.

Question 66.
Write the factors of economic infrastructure?
Answer:
The factors of economic infrastructure are:

1. Energy:
Energy is that power without which no human economic activity can be performed. Industrial development is not possible without energy. For running machines in agriculture energy is required.

2. Transport:
Transportation is the life blood of an economy. For lending raw materials to production place and for sending finished product to consumers transportation is essential.

3. Communication:
It means to send message or information from one place to another place or from one person to another person. Communication increases productivity and encourages investment.

Question 67.
Distinguish between Conventional sources and Non – conventional sources?
Answer:
Differences between Conventional sources and Non – conventional sources of energy:

Question 68.
Distinguish between economic infrastructure and social infrastructure?
Answer:

1. Economic Infrastructure:
Economic infrastructure means those basic facilities and services which directly benefit the process of production and distribution of an economy. Irrigation, power, transport and communication are the examples of economic infrastructure.

2. Social Infrastructure:
Social infrastructure means those basic activities and services which, in addition to achieving certain social objectives, indirectly help various economic activities. For example, education does not directly affect economic activities like production and distribution but indirectly helps in the economic development of the country by producing scientists and engineers.

Question 69.
Write three factors of social Infrastructure?
Answer:
The three factors of social Infrastructure are:

1. Education: Education helps in improving working ability and productivity. It changes the outlook of people and they adopt modem technology.
2. Health: Good health is a means of development. If people of a nation are unhealthy then no one will complete the work with interest.
3. Housing: Ideal housing facility improves the ability and productivity of people.

Question 70.
Differentiate between Commercial sources and Non – commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
Differentiate between Commercial sources and Non – commercial sources of energy:

Question 71.
Write a short note on Global warming?
Answer:
Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result of increase in greenhouse gases since industrial revolution. The causes of global warming are :

1. Destruction of forests.
2. Use of fossil fuels.

Some of the effects of global warming are:

1. Melting of polar ice resulting in rise of sea level and floods.
2. Extinction of species.
3. Frequent tropical storms, etc.

Question 72.
What is ozone depletion?
Answer:
One of the problems created by the air pollution is ozone depletion. The presence of pollutants like, fluorocarbons and chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) in the depleted ozone in the atmosphere. This has created a hole in the ozone layer of the atmosphere. CFC chemicals are used in refrigerators and air conditioners as cooling agents.

The ozone layer protects life on earth by preventing harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun from entering the atmosphere. This layer has become too thin and has developed a hole exposing human life to the dangerous ultaviolet rays of sun. It is known that long exposure to ultraviolet rays of sun cause cancer and other genetic disorders in human beings.

Question 73.
Explain poverty line?
Answer:
Poverty line:
It is that line which expresses per capita average monthly expenditure by which people can satisfy their minimum needs. Relative poverty and absolute poverty are the two variants of poverty.

Poverty line is fixed in India:

1. In the estimation of consumption cut off.
2. In private consumption expenditure.
3. Frequencies are recorded against each class – interval. Each frequency counts the number of heads belonging to a particular consumption class.

Question 74.
What is meant by sustainable development? State its features?
Answer:
Sustainable development may be defined as a development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising with the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.

1. Sustainable development does not limit development. There should be a sustained rise in per capita income.

2. No increase in pollution should be the objective of all economic activities. Sustainable development does not approve of those activities, which in order to maintain existing high standard of living, are detrimental to environment.

3. Sustainable development ensures no reduction in the quality of life of future generations. It means that there is no reduction in the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

4. Sustainable development does not prevent the use of natural resources. Sustainable development simply requires that natural resources should be efficiently used.

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The three dimensional attack on poverty adopted by the government has not succeeded in poverty alleviation in India? Comment?
Answer:
Poverty alleviation has always been accepted as one of the major objectives of planned development process in India but even after vast spending on poverty alleviation programmes, the government has not succeeded in poverty alleviation in India.

Despite various strategies to alleviate poverty, problems like hunger, malnourishment, illiteracy and lack of basic amenities are prevalent in India. None of the poverty alleviation strategies resulted in any radical change in the ownership of assets, process of production and improvement of basic amenities to the needy.

Due to unequal distribution of assets, the benefits from poverty alleviation programmes have not actually reached the poor. The amount of resources allocated for the poverty alleviation programmes is not sufficient when we take the magnitude of poverty into consideration.

The implementation of the poverty alleviation programmes is the responsibility of government and bank officials who are ill motivated, inadequately trained, corruption prone and vulnerable to pressure from local elites. The resources are thus used inefficiently.

Government policies have also failed to address the various issues related to poverty due to non -participation of local level institutions in programme implementation. It is evident that high growth. Alone is not sufficient to reduce poverty without the active participation of the people.

Further, it is necessary to identify poverty stricken areas and provide infrastructure such as schools, roads, power, telecom, IT services, training institutions, etc. Institutional weaknesses abound and implementation failure are the biggest reasons that these programmes not succeeded.

Question 2.
Explain the problems of Human capital formation in India?
Answer:
Problems Facing Human Capital Formation in India:
There are several problems of formation of human capital in India. Firstly, rapid growth of population adversely affects the quality of human capital. It reduces per head availability of the natural resources. Secondly, migration of skilled persons to developed countries is a serious brain drain threat to the process of human capital formation in the country.

Thirdly, there is insufficient manpower planning by raising the standard of education at different stages. There is a need to maintain a balance between the demand and supply of technical labour force. Last but not the least, the insufficient supply of qualified and trained technologists is a pointer to a serious neglect of human capital formation in India. On – the – job training should be provided to working population to create a productive human capital formation.

1. Check the high rate of population growth.
2. Proper Manpower Planning:
   A proper manpower planning is a critical requirement to combat the problem of human resources wastage.
3. The planning needs to focus on both the quantitative and qualitative aspects of human capital.
4. Proper educational planning:
   An effective educational planning that promotes human capital formation must be developed.
5. It should provide for adequate health services and nutritive food to the existing population of the country.

Question 3.
What are the measures to remove poverty in India?
Answer:
The measures to remove poverty in India are:

1. Population Control:
The high growth rate of population has depressed the increase in per capital income in India. As a result of it, in spite of increase in total output, the consumption level of common man has not increased and the number of poor people has been increasing. Hence, to eradicate poverty population control is essential in India. For this family planning programme has to be effectively implemented.

2. Redistribution of Income:
Inequality in the distribution of income and wealth makes the poverty perpetuate and permanent and also reduces the efficiency of the people in general. All efforts for development become futile if the already well – off sections are allowed to comer the additional income largely. In this situation, instead of coming down, the level of poverty may go up.

It is, therefore, essential to redistribute income in such a way that the income and consumption level of the poor class may increase. For this, we have to redirect the flow of income, wealth and resources from the rich people to the poor people. In this regard following measures may be adopted:

1. Creation of employment opportunities for the poor and fair wages to the workers.
2. To make available goods to the people of the poor class at reasonable prices through public distribution system.
3. Implementation of land reform measures.
4. Imposing taxes at higher rates on the rich and giving concessions in taxes on the goods used by the poor people.
5. Improving the conditions of the landless labourers and small farmers.
6. Raising the standard of living of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes, etc.

• Government has identified seven basic minimum services, which are to be provided to improve the living conditions of the poor.

3. High Rate of Growth:
Economic growth is the most important measure for poverty eradication. Economic growth creates more resources and has the potential of creating more space for the involvement of the poor. But the involvement of the poor depends on the sources of growth and the nature of the growth.

Therefore, it is important to source a large part of economic growth in agriculture, in rural non – agricultural activities and in production expansion of the informal sector which all have high employment elasticities. Besides this, an export strategy based on labour intensive exports may also be useful.

Here, we must note one more thing that a high growth rate is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for removal of poverty. It is possible that in spite of increase in production the consumption standard of the poor may not improve.

It may happen because of rapid rise in population or cornering the additional income by the well – off section of the society. Hence, along with the high rate of economic growth, we have also to adopt measures for population control and redistribution of income. In fact all these three measures are complementary to each – other.

4. Development of Agriculture and Cottage and Small – scale Industries:
A large chunk of poor people in India are in the agricultural sector. Therefore, we have to pay more attention on the development of agriculture. In this regard, measures should be adopted to improve the conditions of landless labourers and marginal farmers. Redistribution of land is also very important measure for the eradication of poverty in the rural sector.

• Development of cottage and small – scale industries can play a very crucial role in providing employment to the poor sections of the society.

5. Social Participation:
Poverty can effectively be eradicated only when the poor start contributing to the growth by their active involvement in the growth process. Implementation of the programmes should be increasingly based on the approaches and methods which involve the poor themselves in the process of poverty eradication and economic growth.

This is, possible through the process of social mobilization, encouraging participatory approaches and institutions and empowerment of the poor. In this Panchayati Raj institutions, the voluntary organisations and community based self – help groups should be more closely involved.

Question 4.
What do you mean by rural development? Bring out the key issues in rural development?
Answer:
Rural development means a comprehensive plan of action for the overall development of the rural areas.
Following are the key issues in rural development:

1. Development of human resources by providing more educational and health facilities and services in rural areas.
2. Land reforms.
3. Development of the local productive resources.
4. Development of infrastructure i. e development of irrigation, transport, electricity, credit facilites, etc.
5. More employment opportunities in the rural areas.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of credit in rural development?
Answer:
Following points highlight the importance of credit in rural development:

1. Credit is required by the farmers to meet their personal needs because the gestation period between crop sowing and realisation of income after production is quite long.
2. Credit is required by the farmers to make investment on seeds, fertilizers, implements etc. Since majority of the farmers are poor, they do not have sufficient personal resources to make investment.
3. Credit is required by the non – farm sectors also such as cottage and smallscale industries.
4. Credit is required by the rural people for self – employment.

Question 6.
Explain the steps taken by the government in developing rural markets?
Answer:
Four major steps initiated by government to develop rural markets are as follows:

1. Regulation of markets:
The first step taken by the government was regulation of markets to create orderly and transparent marketing conditions. This policy benefited farmers as well as consumers. Under this market committee consists of farmer, government agents and traders regu-lated and monitored the sale and purchase of the market.

2. Infrastructure facilities:
Government is trying to ensure the provision of physical infrastructure facilities like roads, railways, warehouses, godowns, cold storages and processing units in the rural areas. This enables the farmers to bring their product to urban areas where they can earn huge profits. The existing infrastructure facilities are quite inadequate to meet the growing demand.

3. Co – operative marketing:
Government has initiated ‘co – operative marketing in an effort for relishing fair prices for farmers’ products. The milk co – operatives of Gujarat and some other states have been successful in transforming the social economic landscape of these states.

4. Policy instruments:
Government has initiated policy instruments like:

1. Assurance of Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for agricultural products
2. Maintenance of buffer stocks of wheat and rice by food corporation of India and
3. distribution of foodgrains and sugar through PDS. These instruments are aimed at protecting the income of the farmers and providing foodgrains at a subsidized rate to the poor.

Question 7.
Explain four measures taken by the government to improve agricultural marketing?
Answer:
Following are the measures taken by the government to improve agricultural marketing:

1. Regulation of Market:
The government has regulated the agricultural markets to create orderly and transparent transactions.

2. Provision of Physical infrastructure:
The government has provided physical infrastructure facilities like roads, railways, warehouses, godowns, cold storages and processing units.

3. Co – operatine Societies:
The government has promoted co – operative marketing societies. The co – operative marketing has ensured fair prices to farmer for their products.

4. Pricing Policy:
The government has been following the policy of minimum support price for 24 agricultural products.

Question 8.
Bring out the importance of animal husbandry, fisheries and horticulture as a source of diversification?
Answer:

(I) Importance of animal Husbandry:
In India, the mixed crop – livestock farming system with mainly cattle, goats and fowl is prevalent. Livestock production provides increased stability in income, food security transport, fuel and nutrition for the family.

1. Today, livestock sector alone provides alternate livelihood options to a significant number of women and over 70 million small and marginal farmers including landless laboures.

2. Milk production of the Indian dairy sector has increased by more than five times between 1960 – 2009 with the successful implementation of ‘Operation flood’. It is a system whereby all the farmers can pool their milk produced according to different grading (based on quality) and the same is processed and marketed to urban centres through co – operatives.

(II) Importance of Fisheries:
The water bodies consisting of sea, oceans, rivers, lakes, etc. are a source of living for the fishing community. Presently, fish production from inland sources contributes about 61% to the total fish production and the balance 39% comes from the marine sector (sea and oceans). Today, total fish production accounts for 0 – 7% of the total GDP.

This has become possible with progressive increase in budgetary allocations and introduction of new technologies in fisheries and aquaculture. Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are the major producers of marine products. Fishing has become a source of women empowerment.

(III) Importance of Horticulture:
Diverse horticultural corps such as:
Fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and plantation crops are grown in India. These crops play a vital role in providing food and nutrition, along with sustainable employment opportunities. India has emerged as a world leader in producing a variety of fruits like mangoes, bananas, coconuts, cashew nuts and a number of spices and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables.

Economic condition of farmers engaged in horticulture has improved. Flower harvesting, nursery maintenance, hybrid seed production and tissue culture, propagation of fruits and flowers and food processing are highly remunerative employment options for women in rural areas.

Question 9.
Identify the benefits and limitations of organic farming?
Answer:
Benefits of Organic Farming:

1. Organic farming substitutes costlier agricultural inputs such as:
HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. with locally produced organic inputs which are cheaper and thereby generate better returns on investment for farmers.

2. Organic farming generates income through exports as the global demand for organically grown crops is increasing.

3. Organically grown food has more nutritional value than food grown through chemical farming thus creating a positive effect on health.

4. Organic farming is appropriate for india as organic farming is more labour intensive than conventional farming.

5. Organic farming promotes soil that are teaming with life and rich in micronutrients which can be used for decades to grow crops virtually year round in many parts of the world.

Limitations of Organic farming:

1. Organic farming is labour intensive. Thus, it is beneficial for small farmers who has abundant labour in his/her family.
2. Organic farming is very expensive, the farmer has to carry out the transition, modify the soil structure.
3. Organic produce is not traded in many markets, marketing is difficult.
4. Organic food prices are not stable and keep fluctuating time to time.
5. Organic farming requires a lot of time as it requires greater interaction between a farmer and his crop for observation.

Question 10.
What is organic farming and how does it promote sustainable development?
Answer:
Organic farming is a system of farming which uses locally produced organic inputs rather than the chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. Organic farming leads to sustainable development. Conventional agricultural farming relies heavily on chemical fertilisers and toxic pesticides which enter the food supply, penetrate the water sources, harm the livestock, deplete the soil and disturbs the natural ecosystems. Organic farming is eco – friendly and enhances the ecological balance. Thus, organic promotes sustainable development.

Question 11.
How do infrastructure facilities boost production?
Answer:
Infrastructure facilities boost the production in the following ways:

1. Output of infrastructure sector such as power, water, etc. are used as inputs for production.
2. Transport moves men and materials from place to place for production and investment.
3. Power meet the requirements of economic activities such as lighting of factories and offices, driving of machines, etc.
4. Infrastructure is a component of the capital stock of a society. Cement, steel, etc. stimulates production activities.
5. Larger the infra – structure facilities the bigger the opportunities for producers to produce more and invest more.

Question 12.
State the significance of energy?
Answer:
The singnficance of energy may be listed as under:

1. Energy is the base of the high living levels. There is a remarkable correlation between the per capita consumption of energy and the level of income.

2. Energy is an essential prerequiste for improving the physical quality of life as life as also for the socio – economic development of the rural people of the country. Energy makes life easy and comfortable. It is useful for the spread of illteracy and also for the provision of health facilities, paricularly in rural areas.

3. Energy plays an important role in the development of the country. Energy is an important input for industries and agriculture.

Question 13.
What do you mean by transmission and distribution losses? How can they reduced?
Answer:
Transmission and Distribution (T and D) losses refer to losses which occur at the time of transmission distribution of power to its consumers. Nation’s average loss is around 25% on this account.

Transmission and Distribution losses can be reduced by:

1. Having appropriate size of conductors.
2. Using proper load management.
3. Privatization of distribution work.
4. Introducing energy audits.
5. Checking theft of power.

Question 14.
Discuss the reforms which have been initiated recently to meet energy crisis in India?
Answer:
The following reforms have been initiated by the government to meet he the energy crises:

1. Privatization in Power generation:
Power generation sector has been opened up for private sector and the government monopoly in the generation and distribution of electricity has been eliminated to gain competitive efficiency.

2. Privatization in Power Transmission and Distribution:
The Indian Government has approved private companies like Tata power and Reliance Energy along with Power- grid Corporation of India for constructing transmission networks and look after distribution of power supply in certain states.

3. Regulatory mechanism:
The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) along with State Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs) has been established in 19 states under the Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, 1998 to regulate tariff, promote efficiency and competition.

4. Rationalization of Tariff:
Tariff rates have been revised upwards to discourage wasteful consumption of power and bring down the losses of SEBs.

5. Encouraging FDI in Power sector:
In order to meet the growing demand for electricity, India’s commercial energy supply needs to grow at about 7%. In order to achieve this target, the Ministry of Power aimed at attracting US s 250 billion of investment into the power sector. As domestic investment in power sector is not sufficient. FDI is being encouraged to supplement it.

6. Accelerated Power Development and Reform Programme:
(APDRP) APDRP was initiated in the year 2000 – 2001 with the objective of improving financial viability, reducing transmission and distribute losses and promoting transparency through computerization.

Question 15.
What are the main characteristics of health of the people of our country?
Answer:
The health status of a country can be assessed through indicators such as infant mortality and maternal mortality rates, life expectancy and nutrition levels, along with the incidence of communicable and non – communicable diseases. Some of the health indicators in india are given in the table below:

Sources:
World Health Report 2005 and Economic Survey 2007 – 2008.
The following characteristics of health of the people of our country emerge from the above table:

1. Life expectancy at birth is only 67 years which is low in comparison to global standards.
2. Infant mortality as well as child mortality rates are still high in India though they have shown a declining trend in the past few years.
3. Around 50% of births in India still take place without the help of skilled attendants.

Question 16.
How can we increase the effectiveness of health care programmes?
Answer:
We can increase the effectiveness of health care programmes by following measures:

1. The government should increase its share of expenditure on health. Health requires huge investment.
2. Private sector should be assigned a role but it should be effectively regulated by the government.
3. More medical facilities should be mode available in rural areas.
4. There should be proper upkeep and maintenance of the government health care centres.
5. Sanitation level should be improved.
6. People must be educated to create awareness on health and hygiene.
7. Indian systems of medicine should be used to support public health.

Question 17.
How has women’s health become a matter of great concern?
Answer:
Women’s health has become a matter of great concern in India due to the following:

1. There are increasing cases of female foeticide.
2. The incidence of mortality is still high in case of women in India.
3. About 3 lakh girls under the age of fifteen become mothers every year.
4. Frequently bearing a child has caused anemia which contributes to 19% material deaths.
5. Abortions are a major cause of mortality in India.

Question 18.
Describe the meaning of public health. Discuss the major public measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases?
Answer:
Public health refers to the health status of all the people of the country. Some measures undertaken by state in recent years to control diseases are:

1. Success in the long – term battle against diseases depends on education and efficient health infrastructure. It is, therefore, critical to create awareness on health and hygiene systems.
2. The role of telecom and IT sectors should be extended.
3. The effectiveness of health care programmes also rests on primary health care.
4. In order to provide basic health care to all, accessibility and affordability need to be intergrated in our basic health infrastructure.

Question 19.
Give suggestions to improve Health level in India?
Answer:
The Suggestions to improving Health level in India are:

1. Develop and implement national standards for examination by which doctors, nurses and pharmacists are able to practice and get employment.

2. Rapidly develop and implement national accreditation of hospitals; those that do not comply would not get paid by insurance companies.

3. Obtain proposals from private insurance companies and the government on ways to provide medical insurance coverage to the population at large and execute the strategy.

4. Encourage business schools to develop executive training programmes in healthcare, which will effectively reduce the talent gap for leadership in this area.

5. Revise the curriculum in medical, nursing, pharmacy and other schools that train healthcare professionals, so that they too are trained in the new paradigm.

6. Develop partnerships between the public and private sectors that design newer ways to deliver healthcare. An example of this would include outpatient radiology and diagnostic testing centres.

7. The government should appoint a commission which makes recommendations for the healthcare system and monitors its performance.

Question 20.
Throw light on causes of environmental crisis?
Answer:
The causes of environment crisis are:

1. Pollution:
Pollution of air, water and soil require millions of years to recoup. Industry and motor vehicle exhaust are the number one pollutants. Heavy metals, nitrates and plastic are toxins responsible for pollution.

While water pollution is caused by oil spill, acid rain, urban runoff; air pollution is caused by various gases and toxins released by industries and factories and combustion of fossil fuels; soil pollution is majorly caused by industrial waste that deprives soil from essential nutrients.

2. Global Warming:
Climate changes like global wanning is the result of human practices like emission of Greenhouse gases. Global wafming leads to rising temperatures of the oceans and the earth’s surface causing melting of polar ice caps, rise in sea levels and also unnatural patterns of precipitation such as flash floods, excessive snow or desertification.

3. Overpopulation:
The population of the planet is reaching unsustainable levels as it faces shortage of resources like water, fuel and food. Population explosion in less developed and developing countries is straining the already scarce resources.

Intensive agriculture practiced to produce food damages the environment through use of chemical fertilizer, pesticides and insecticides. Overpopulation is one of the crucial current environmental problem.

4. Natural Resource Depletion:
Natural resource depletion is another crucial current environmental problem. Fossil fuel consumption results in emission of Greenhouse gases, which is responsible for global warming and climate change. Globally, people are taking efforts to shift to renewable sources of energy like solar, wind, biogas and geothermal energy. The cost of installing the infrastructure and maintaining these sources has plummeted in the recent years.

5. Waste Disposal:
The over consumption of resources and creation of plastics are creating a global crisis of waste disposal. Developed countries are notorious for producing an excessive amount of waste or garbage and dumping their waste in the oceans and less developed countries.

Nuclear waste disposal has tremendous health hazards associated with it. Plastic, fast food, packaging and cheap electronic wastes threaten the well – being of humans. Waste disposal is one of urgent current environmental problem.

Question 21.
Identify six factors contributing to land degradation in India?
Answer:
Land degradation means loss of fertility of land. Six of the factors responsible for land degradation are:

1. Loss of vegetation occurring due to deforestation
2. Unsustainable fuel wood and fodder extraction
3. Extraction of groundwater in excess of the recharge capacity,
4. Non – adoption of adequate soil conservation measures
5. Improper crop rotation,
6. Indiscriminate use of agro – chemicals such as fertilizers and pesticides.

Question 22.
Explain how the opportunity costs of negative environmental impact are high?
Answer:
Opportunity cost is the cost in terms of foregone opportunities of doing things. There has been a reversal of supply – demand relationship for environmental quality. We are no faced with increased demand for environmental resources and services but their supply is limited due to overuse resulting from rise in population, affluent consumption patterns and industrialization. Many resources have become extinct and the wastes generated are beyond the absorptive capacity of the environment.

This negative environmental impact has high opportunity costs as explained below:

1. The industrial development is past has polluted and dried up rivers and other aquifers making water an economic good. Cleaning up of polluted rivers and replenishing water resources require huge investments.

2. The intensive and extensive extraction of both renewable and non – renewable re – sources are exhausted.

3. The health costs of degraded environmental quality are also present as decline in air and water quality have resulted in increases incidence of respiratory and water – borne diseases.

4. Global environmental issues such as global warming and ozone depletion also contribute to increased financial commitments for the government.

Thus, it is clear that the opportunity costs of negative environmental impacts are high.

Question 23.
Explain the steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India?
Answer:
Steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India are outlined below:

1. Population Control:
Limiting the human population to a level within the carrying capacity of the environment is the first step to be followed for attaining sustainable development as population is exerting tremendous pressure in terms of demand for resources which is more than the absorptive capacity of the environment leading to environmental crisis.

2. Efficient utilization Of Resources:
Technological progress and industrialization should be input efficient and wastage of resources should be minimized by proper utilization. This will help to produce more with lesser amount of resources and thus, depletion of resources will be slower.

3. Control of Over extraction:
Rate of extraction of renewable resources should not be exceed the rate of regeneration so that they are extracted on a sustainable basis.

4. Control of Depletion:
Rate of depletion of non-renewable resource should not exceed the rate of creation of renewable substitutes so that environmental crisis does not emerge and resources, are available for the future generations.

5. Pollution control:
Pollution in all forms has a negative environmental impact which has high opportunity cost. Hence, control of pollution is a must to maintain the quality of natural resources such as air and water for sustainable development.

6. Use of Non – conventional energy:
India is hugely dependent on thermal and hydropower plants to meet its power needs which have adverse environmental impacts. Wind power and solar rays are cleaner and greener energy sources which should be explored on a large scale by developing technological devices along with non – conventional sources like, nuclear energy.

Question 24.
Explain the supply – demand reversal of environmental resources?
Answer:
Before the advent of industrial revolution, the rate of resource extraction was less than the rate of regeneration of these resources. But with expanding population and its growing needs, the demand for resources for both production and consumption went beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources.

This has resulted in reversal of supply – demand relationship for environmental resources as now there in very high demand for environmental resources and services, but their supply is limited dure to oversue and misure.

Question 25.
Highlight any two serious adverse environmental consequences of development in India. India’s environmental problems pose a dichotomy: they are poverty induced and at the same time due to affluence in living standard: Is this true?
Answer:
Two serious adverse environmental consequences of development in India are as follows:

(I) Land Degradation:
Land in India has suffered degradation stemming mainly from unstable use and inappropriate management practices during the development process.

The factors responsible for land degradation are:

1. Loss of vegetation occurring due to deforestation.
2. Unsustainable fuel, wood and fodder extraction.
3. Extraction of groundwater in excess of the recharge capacity.
4. Non – adoption of adequate soil conservation measures.
5. Improper crop rotation.
6. Indiscriminate use of agro – chemical such as fertilizers and pesticides.

(II) Air and water pollution:
In India, air pollution is widespread in urban areas where vehicles are the major contributors and in a few other areas which have a high concentration of industries and thermal power plants. Water bodies are contaminated when pollutants are discharged from industries directly or indirectly into water bodies without adequate treatment to remove harmful compounds. Water contamination affects plants and organisms living in these bodies of water.

On one hand, population explosion and widespread poverty has lead to deforestation in India as the poor people in the rural areas are compelled to fell trees for earning their livelihood and for use as fuel, on the other hand, the growing demand for natural resources due to affluence in living standards in the urban areas is also equally responsible for the present environment degradation.

Question 26.
What are the causes of poverty?
Answer:
Following are the causes of poverty:

1. Slow growth in agriculture sector:
During the planning period, agriculture was not adequately strengthened due to inadequacy of irrigation, shortage of fertilizers, lack of infrastructural facilities such as transport power, etc. It could not generate enough employment opportunities.

2. Population explosion:
Rapid decline in death rate and slow decrease in birth rate caused rapid growth in population.

3. Inappropriate educational system:
Educational system is not employment oriented. Educational system is not vocational. Present educational system produces clerks and not the entrepreneurs who possess initiative, imagination and risk taking ability.

4. Inequalities of income and asset ownership:
Inequalities of income and asset ownership have contributed to the poverty. Rich persons have taken advantage of new opportunities. Most of the gains of development have accrued only to rich classes. Poor sections of the society could not take benefit of new opportunities and remained poor.

Question 27.
List some of the poverty alleviation programmes in rural areas and explain them?
Answer:
Following are some of the poverty alleviation programmes in rural areas:

1. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana:
Swamajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana is centrally sponsored scheme but executed by the district administration with the involvement of Panchayati Raj representatives. It aims at promoting micro – enterprises and helping the rural poor into self – help groups so that poor families may generate additional income on sustained basis.

Assistance is provided in the form of subsidy and bankcredit. More than five crore families have been given assistance. Total assistance amounted to around Rs. 40,000 crore. Average assistance comes out to be Rs. 7,500 – 8,000 per family.

2. Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY):
It seeks to provide wage employment and food security to rural poof. The earlier schemes viz, Employment Assurance Scheme and Jawahar Gram Samriddhi Yojana have been fully integrated within this scheme from April, 2002.

3. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY):
PMGY focuses on village level development in health, primary education, drinking water, housing and rural roads. The objective of this scheme is to uplift the living standards of the rural poor. It comprises following schemes :

1. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana.
2. Pradhan Mantri Gram Awas Yojana.
3. Pradhan Mantri Rural Drinking Water Projects.
4. National Employment Guarantee Scheme (NEGS):
   It seeks to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed employment to rural unskilled workers.
5. Antyodaya Anna Yoj ana (AAY): It was launched in December, 2000. This scheme provides highly subsidised foodgrains to the people living below the poverty line.

Question 28.
What factors contribute to human capital formation?
Answer:
There are various factors which contribute to human capital formation as discussed below:

1. Education:
An educated individual has more knowledge and skills than an uneducated person. Hence, education imparts the necessary attitude and aptitude, for adopting new technologies and efficient management practices which help in raising productivity, Education is an important factor in human capital formation which leads to higher efficiency and productivity in human beings and thus, higher income and standard of living which again facilitates further investment in education and health.

2. Health:
A sound mind in a sound body like education, investment in health is also considered as an important factor for human capital formation as it directly increases the supply of healthy labour force. A healthy person is an asset for the nation as he is more productive than a sick person who is unable to work efficiently due to bad health.

Therefore, investment in health facilities to build a physically as well as mentally strong human capital, is essential for increasing productivity.

3. On the Job Training:
Firms provide on – the – job training to their workers to enhance their skills which helps in human capital formation. The workers may be trained in the firm itself under the supervision of a skilled worker or the workers may be sent for off – campus training.

Expenditure regarding on the job training is an important factor of human capital formation as the return of such expenditure in the form of enhanced labour productivity is more than the cost involved.

4. Migration:
It contributes to human capital formation as it facilitates utilization of inactive skills of the people. People from rural areas migrate to urban areas in search of employment. Technically qualified persons, like engineers and doctors, migrate to other countries because of higher earnings in such countries.

Migration in both these cases involves cost of transport, higher cost of living in the migrated places and psychological costs of adapting to a new socio – cultural set – up.

5. Information:
Information relating to the labour market and other markets is also a factor which contributes to human capital formation. Information regarding the level of salaries in various types of jobs, whether the educational institutions provide the required skills and at what is the associated cost is necessary to make decisions regarding investments in human capital as well as for efficient utilization of the acquired human capital stock. Information is necessary to make decisions regarding investments in human capital.

Question 29.
Explain benefits of Organic farming?
Answer:
Benefits of Organic Farming:

1. Organic farming substitutes costlier agricultural inputs such as:
HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. with locally produced organic inputs which are cheaper and thereby generate better returns on investment for farmers.

2. Organic farming generates income through exports as the global demand for organically grown crops is increasing.

3. Organically grown food has more nutritional value than food grown through chemical farming thus creating a positive effect on health.

4. Organic farming is appropriate for india as organic farming is more labour intensive than conventional farming.

5. Organic farming promotes soil that are teaming with life and rich in micronutrients which can be used for decades to grow crops virtually year round in many parts of the world.

Limitations of Organic farming:

1. Organic farming is labour intensive. Thus, it is beneficial for small farmers who has abundant labour in his/her family.
2. Organic farming is very expensive, the farmer has to carry out the transition, modify the soil structure.
3. Organic produce is not traded in many markets, marketing is difficult.
4. Organic food prices are not stable and keep fluctuating time to time.
5. Organic farming requires a lot of time as it requires greater interaction between a farmer and his crop for observation.

Question 30.
Explain the role of co – operatives?
Answer:
Role of Co – operatives:
Cooperative is a voluntarily formed trading association which aims to provide mutual benefits to their members. Therefore, co – operatives voluntarily form association, where farmers sell their commodities mutually and earn the money.

Objectives of Co – operative:

Following are the objectives of the co – operatives:

1. To ensure timely and rapid flow of credit to the farmers.
2. To gradually eliminate the money lenders from the profile of credit agencies.
3. To spread credit facilities across all regions of the country.
4. To provide adequate credit support to areas covered by special programme of development.

Role of Trading Co – operatives:

1. The trading co – operatives play an important role in elimination of middlemen.
2. To get rid from the evils prevailed in the market.
3. Facilitate classification.
4. Provided standard scale measurement.
5. Storage facility.
6. Financial assistance, etc.

Question 31.
Explain the problems of agricultural trading?
Answer:
It means to exchange of agricultural commodities between farmer and traders. Agricultural trading includes gradation, standardization, collection and conservation. In India the undermentioned system is prevailed for the trading of agricultural commodities: Trading in villages, Trading in mandies, Trading through co – operative societies, with government, the trading through retailers.

Problems of Agricultural Trading:

1. Large number of mediators
2. Malpractices in mandies
3. Increasing market expenditure
4. Lack of grading and standardization,
5. Lack of storing facility
6. Lack of transportation facility
7. No proper communication of price list.

Question 32.
What are the causes of unemployment in India?
Answer:
The following are the main causes of unemployment:

1. Caste System:
In India caste system is prevalent. The work is prohibited for specific castes in some areas. In many cases, the work is not given to the deserving candidates but given to the person belonging to a particular community. So, this gives rise to unemployment.

2. Slow Economic Growth:
Indian economy is underdeveloped and role of economic growth is very slow. This slow growth fails to provide enough unemployment opportunities to the increasing population.

3. Increase in Population:
Constant increase in population has been a big problem in India. It is one of the main causes of unemployment. The rate of unemployment is
11 – 1% in 10th Plan.

4. Agriculture is a Seasonal occupation:
Agriculture is underdeveloped in India. It provides seasonal employment. Large part of population is dependent on agriculture. But agriculture being seasonal provides work for a few months. So, this gives rise to unemployment.

5. Joint Family System:
In big families having big business, many such persons will be available who do not do any work and depend on the joint income of the family. Many of them seem to be working but they do not add anything to production. So, they encourage disguised unemployment.

Question 33.
Unemployment is a major economic and social problem? Explain?
Answer:
Unemployment is a major economic and social problem due to the following reasons:

1. Loss of Human Resources:
The problem of unemployment causes loss of human resources, labourers waste their maximum time in search of employment.

2. Increase in Poverty:
Unemployment deprives a man of all sources of income. As a result he grows poor. Therefore, unemployment generates poverty.

3. Social Problems:
Unemployment breeds many social problems comprising of dishonesty, gambling, bribery, theft, etc. As a result of unemployment social security is jeopardized.

4. Political Instability:
Unemployment gives birth to political instability in country. Unemployed persons can easily be enticed by antisocial elements. They lose all faith in democratic values and peaceful means. They consider that government is worthless which fails to provide them work.

5. Exploitation of Labour:
In the state of unemployment, labourers are exploited to the maximum possible extent. Those labourers who get work have to work under adverse condition of low wages. All this tells upon the efficiency of labourers greatly influence the pattern of employment opportunities in the country. Being poor, a person does not make any gainful use of existing resources.

6. More Emphasis on Capital Intensive Techniques:
In India, capital is scarce and labour is available in surplus quantity. Under these circumstances, the country should adopt labour intensive techniques of production. But it has been observed that not in industrial sector, also in agriculture sector; there is substantial increase of capital than labour.

In the case of Western countries, where capital is in abundant supply, use of automatic machines and other sophisticated equipments are justified while in our country’ abundant labour, results in large number of unemployment.

7. Defective Education System:
The education system in our country too has failed to respond to the existing intergeneration gap. It simply imparts general and literary education devoid of any practical content. India’s education policy merely produces clerks and lower cadre executives for the government and private concerns. The open door policy at the secondary and university level has increased manifold unemployment among the educated that are fit only for white collar jobs.

Question 34.
Explain measures for removing unemployment.
Answer:
Following are the suggestions to solve unemployment problems:

1. Change in industrial technique:
Production technique should suit the needs and means of the country. It is essential that labour intensive technology should be encouraged in place of capital intensive technology.

2. Policy regarding seasonal unemployment:
Seasonal unemployment is found in agriculture sector and agro – based industries. To remove it:

1. Agriculture should have multiple cropping,
2. Plantations, horticulture, dairying and animal husbandry should be encouraged,
3. Cottage industries should be encouraged.

3. Change in education system:
Educational pattern should be completely changed. Students who have liking for higher studies should be admitted in colleges and universities. Emphasis should be given on vocational education. Qualified engineers should start their own small units.

4. Expansion of employment exchanges:
More employment exchanges should be opened. Information regarding employment opportunities should be given to people.

5. More assistance to self – employed people:
Most people in India are self – em – ployed. They are engaged in agriculture, trade, cottage and small-scale industries, etc. These persons should be helped financially, providing raw materials and technical training.

6. Full and more productive employment:
The main objective of country’s employment policy should be to increase employment opportunities and productivity of labour. Government should adopt a policy that provides employment to all people.

Question 35.
Explain the health facilities available in rural areas of India?
Answer:
1. There is a lack of doctors to help those who need it. India has lack of doctors, there being only one doctor for every 2000 people within the country. This means that many people who require professional help are often unable to As a result, a lot of illnesses go unchecked and untreated and overtime worsen.

In a lot of cases, especially in villages and other remote areas, the lack of doctors results in citizens consulting unqualified practitioners who are unable to provide the help and aid their sick patient needs. At times, their advice can worsen the affected person’s condition and overall can be detrimental towards their health.

2. Another cause of poor health includes poor sanitation. Lack of toilets and bath rooms in over 122 million households in the country lead to improper disposal of stools, which are often left in the open. This open air defecation leads to the spread of disease through parasitic and bacterial infections. These diseases are also quite harmful and will continue to spread without the addressing of poor sanitation. Need of good hygiene is quite urgent, as not only is it simple to implement, but can stop the spread and cause of numerous diseases.

3. Lack of safe drinking water in India also accounts for their poor levels of health. Sources of water in India are often unsafe to drink, especially in areas of slums, with only 26% of the slum population having access to clean water. The problem is worsened by falling levels of ground water, insufficient maintenance of environment around water sources, excessive fluoride and arsenic in drinking water and groundwater pollution.

Having dangerous drinking water is a very large problem as every single living thing is dependent on it for survival. Fixing this issue, all over India would result in a very steep raise of health in India, as it would mean no one would be affected by unsafe drinking water.

4. Another key contributor of poor health in India includes increased drug resistance of many diseases. Diseases such as dengue fever, hepatitis, tuberculosis, malaria and pneumonia continue to greatly affect the Indian population due to the diseases increased resistance to drugs. These diseases are both highly dangerous and very common in India and the fact that their resistance to medicine is increasing means they will only cause more devastation in the country.

Question 36.
Give measures to protect environment?
Answer:
Suggestions for Environmental protection:
We all want to protect our planet, but we’re mostly too busy or too lazy to put up big change that would improve our lifestyle and save the environment. These are 7 simple habits to implement in your everyday life which will make a difference. There is nothing new here but if you follow atleast some of these tips, you can be proud of yourself participating in the protection of the environment.

1. Use compact fluorescent light bulbs:
It is true that these bulbs are more expensive, but they last much longer and they can save energy and in the long term your electricity bill would be reduced.

2. Donate:
You have tons of clothes or things you want to get rid of. If they are still usable, give them to someone who needs them. You may also choose to give them to associations. These associations may sell them and collect a little money. Not only will you protect the environment, but you will also contribute to a good cause.

3. Turn off your devices:
When you do not use a house device, turn it off. For example, if you don’t watch TV, turn it off. Turn off the light when you leave a room (even if you intend to return.) It’s an easy habit to take up which will help you save a lot of money.

4. Walk or cycle:
Driving is one of the biggest causes of pollution. If you want to use your car, ask yourself the following question: do I really need my car? Walk or use your bike if the journey is a short one.

5. Detergent:
Follow the recommended dose of detergent to wash your clothes or dishes.

6. Leaky faucets:
Watch leaky faucets, which can cause a significant increase in the water bill. An average of 120 litres of water can be wasted due to a dripping faucet.

Question 37.
Describe the strategies for sustainable development?
Answer:
Strategies for Sustainable Development:
The conceptual meaning of sustainable development is not to create an obstacle in development process but this concept belongs to how we utilize our resources so that an inter – relationship can be established among present and future generation. To attained sustainable development, many probable strategies can be useful.

1. Input Efficient Technology can be reducing the exploitation of resources. So, this technology may good for sustainable development. Via Using of Environmental friendly Sources of Energy, such as LPG and CNG which are eco – friendly fuel, we can reduce the greenhouse gases from the earth.

Delhi Transport Corporation’s initiative to CNG Buses in Delhi is the one of the best effort to reduce C02 and other harmful gases. Government should pay attention on Integrated Rural Development Programmes.

2. Through this the burden and interdependency on cities for employment can be decreased to focus on.

3. Renewable sources of energy like solar and wind for energy needs. It will be beneficial for the country like India, where is enough sun light, to convert Sunlight into solar Energy and Solar Energy in Electricity.

4. It will create an atmosphere for green development. For attaining the sustainable development it is necessary for the government and society to control on the Tragedy of Commons.

Question 38.
Explain the major issues related with environment?
Answer:

1. The intensive and extensive extraction of both renewable and non – renewable resources has exhausted some of these vital resources and huge amount of funds need to be spent on technology and research to explore new resources.

2. The health costs of degraded environmental quality are also present as decline in air and water quality have resulted in increased incidence of respiratory and water – borne diseases.

3. Global environmental issues such as global warming and ozone depletion also contribute to increases financial commitments for the government.

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 15 Adjustments

Adjustments Important Questions

Adjustments Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Outstanding Expenses are related to –
(a) Current year
(b) Next year
(c) Last year
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Current year

Question 2.
Prepaid expenses are shown in –
(a) Liability side
(b) Asset side
(c) Assets or Liability side
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Asset side

Question 3.
Charity of goods is –
(a) Expenses
(b) Loss
(c) Profit
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Loss

Question 4.
If a person fails to pay his debt, such amount is considered as –
(a) Bad debts
(b) Bad debts recovered
(c) Provision for Bad debt
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Bad debts

Question 5.
The object of non – trading concerns –
(a) Social service
(b) Profit earning
(c) Both of these
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Social service

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Goods given in charity is credited in …………… Account.
2. Such Expenses which are paid in current year but are related to next year are called ……………. expenses.
3. Accrued income is ……………. Account.
4. There is ……………. fall in the value of Asset due to depreciation.
5. Interest on capital is always shown in …………….. side of profit & loss A/c.
6. Unearned income is shown on the ……………….. side of balance sheet.

Answer:

1. Purchase
2. Prepaid expenses
3. Personal account
4. Constant/ gradual
5. Debit
6. Liability.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (a).

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. Such Expenses for which services have been received but amount is yet to be paid are called.
2. Recording of relevant transactions and eliminating non – related transactions is called.
3. Such income which is earned but not yet received is called.
4. Unearned income is recorded in which side of the balance sheet?

Answer:

1. Outstanding Expenses
2. Adjustment
3. Accrued or Earned Income
4. Liability side.

Question 5.
State True or False:

1. Depreciation is charged only in case of profits.
2. Unearned Income is recorded in Asset side.
3. Interest on Capital is income for the business.
4. Drawing of goods is deducted from purchases.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True.

Adjustments Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by adjustments? What are its object?
Answer:
Sometimes certain transactions may be partially or fully omitted by mistake or wrongly entered. Besides this, there are some incomes or expenses which are related to the next year or of the last year, which are received or paid during the current year, if they are including in the current years. Final accounts, it will not show a correct net profit or net loss. So, they must be adjusted. It is called adjustments.

1. To record the related expenses and Income, of the year – It is essential to record all expenses and incomes of the related year while preparing the Final Accounts. Otherwise, it will not produce a true picture of net profit or net loss and financial position of the business.

2. To separate unrelated expenses and incomes of the business – Sometimes there are chances of unpaid amount or incomes received in advance. These items must be excluded. For this purpose, adjustments are necessary.

3. To make provision for future loss – Possibility of loss in future is always exist in the business. In order to overcome these loss like bad debt etc. a provision is required to be maintained in the business.

4. To provide depreciation – Various assets are continuously used in the business. Due to its constant use, their value decreases which is termed as depreciation. Thus, it is essential to make record of it as a business expense.

5. To rectify errors – To make rectification of errors made while recording, posting or balancing of accounts, adjustment entries are needed.

6. To make complete record – To make record of one individual items of the trading year related with interest on capital, interest on drawings, interest on loan etc. in the final accounts, adjustments are necessary.

Question 2.
Write adjustment entries of depreciation.
Answer:
1. Depreciation    A/c      Dr.
To Assets             A/c
(Being depreciation charged on asset)

2. Profit & Loss    A/c      Dr.
To Depreciation   A/c
(Being depreciation transferred)
To P&L      A/c

Question 3.
Differentiate between outstanding expenses and prepaid expenses.
Answer:
The following are some of the differences between outstanding expenses and prepaid expenses:

Question 4.
Differentiate between accrued income and unaccrued income.
Answer:
The ahead are some of the differences between accrued and unaccrued income:

Question 5.
How the debtors can be classified? Explain.
Answer:
Debtors are those persons who debted to the business or liable to pay the amount to the business. On the basis of recoverability of amount, debtors can be classified into three ways. They are:

1. Good debtors – Good debtors are those debtors who are expected to make their payment in time, i.e., Full amount is expected to recover from them.
2. Doubtful debtors – Doubtful debtors are those debtors from whom doubt is arising regarding their payment, i.e., Their payment is in doubtful condition.
3. Irrecoverable or bad debt – From these debtors no amount is expected to receive. It arises when debtor dies, becomes lunatic, mad or the court declares insolvent. It is a business loss.

Question 6.
Why a provision for discount on debtors and creditors are maintained in the business?
Answer:
Discount provision on sundry debtors:
When the sundry debtors make their payment before the prescribed time, they are allowed some concession. This concession is called cash discount. It is a loss to the business. In certain condition, the trader keeps a reserve to allow discount on debtors for future, in anticipation. This reserve or provision is known as discount provision on sundry debtors. It is calculated after the deduction of further bad debt and new reserve from debtors at a percentage. This amount is shown in the debit side of profit and loss account and is also deducted from debtors in the balance sheet.

Discount provision on sundry creditors:
When the trader makes the payment before the stipulated time, he is allowed some discount. It is an income of the business. In certain condition, the trader keeps a reserve in anticipation that some discount may receive in future. This reserve on provision is called, ‘Discount provision on sundry creditors’. It is shown in the credit side of P&L A/c and is deducted from the sundry creditors in the balance sheet.

Question 7.
Show adjustment entry for adjustment of interest on capital and interest on drawings.
Answer:
Interest on Capital
Interest on Capital    A/c   Dr. –
To Capital     A/c   –
(Being interest on capital adjusted)

Interest on Drawings
Drawing      A/c   Dr. –
To Interest on Drawings      A/c
(Being adjustment of intertest on drawing)

Question 8.
Explain Accrued income and unaccrued income.
Answer:
Accrued income:
Accrued income is such type of an income which is due but not received. It is an outstanding amount to receive. Here, the journal entry is:

Accrued Income A/c     Dr.
To Income A/c (Being income accrued)

Unaccrued Income:
Unearned income is such type of an income, where an income received in advance, but the service is not offered or the income received is applicable to the coming period. Here, the journal entry is:
Income     A/c                  Dr.
To Unearned Income     A/c  –
(Being income unearned)

Question 9.
Explain how the following adjustments are done in final accounts.

1. Outstanding wages
2. Outstanding salary
3. Accrued rent
4. Unearned commission.

Answer:

1. Outstanding wages – In trading accounts the amount of outstanding wages is added to the respective item and such outstanding amount is shown in the liability side of balance sheet.
2. Outstanding salary – The amount of outstanding salary is added to the respective item in profit and loss account and such outstanding amount is shown in the liability side of balance sheet.
3. Accrued rent – The amount of accrued rent is added to the respective item in profit and loss account and the accrued amount is shown in the asset side of balance sheet.
4. Unearned commission – The amount of unearned commission is deducted from the respective item in profit and loss account and is shown in the liability side of balance sheet.

Question 10.
How is manager’s commission calculated on net profit? Where and how is the adjustment done?

Mannager’s commission on net profit:
Shown in the debit side of profit and loss account and shown separately in the liability side of the balance sheet after the calculation.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Management and Business Environment

Management and Business Environment Important Questions

Management and Business Environment Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Out of the following which is not a part of business environment:
(a) Urbanization
(b) Employee
(c) Comparative
(d) Mandatory.
Answer:
(b) Employee

Question 2.
Out of the following which is a component of business environment:
(a) Identification
(b) Improvement in performance
(c) Coping with rapid changes
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 3.
Which is an example of social environment:
(a) Supply of money in the economy
(b) Consumer protection ACT
(c) Structure of country
(d) Formation of family.
Answer:
(d) Formation of family.

Question 4.
Liberalization means:
(a) Integration among economies
(b) Reduced government control and restriction
(c) Policy of planned disinvestment
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Reduced government control and restriction

Question 5.
Shape and distribution of population is taken as :
(a) Part of technological environment
(b) Part of legal environment
(c) Part of political environment
(d) Part of social environment.
Answer:
(d) Part of social environment.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. The …………….. components of business are controllable.
2. The internal components of business …………….. affects the business.
3. Legal regulatory is the …………….. component of business.
4. The objectives and outlook of business is included …………….. in components or factor.
5. India formulated the policy of new economic reforms in ……………..

Answer:

1. Internal
2. Directly
3. External
4. Internal
5. 1991.

Question 3.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

1. What do you mean by Globalization ?
2. What is the policy made for providing employment to people known as ?
3. Foreign policy is the component of which business environment ?
4. What does EPCG stands for ?
5. Name the business zone established to encourage exports.

Answer:

1. Integration of world trade economies
2. Employment policy
3. Political
4. Export promotion goods plans
5. Export promotion policy.

Question 4.
Write true or false :

1. Liberalization in India is failure in affecting industry and business.
2. Economic, Social and political situations creates business environment.
3. Globalization has affected industries and business in India.
4. External factors do not affect the business environment.
5. Changes in government policies do not affect industries and business.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. False.

Question 5.
Match the columns :

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

Management and Business Environment Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Advanced techniques lay emphasis on what factors ?
Answer:
Advanced techniques lay emphasis on the following :

1. Scientific research
2. Innovation
3. Invention
4. Improvement
5. Spreading innovation.

Question 2.
Name the change in economic surrounding of India after 1991.
Answer:
The changes in economic surroundings of India after 1991 :

1. Modernization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization,
4. Liberalization.

Question 3.
what are the reasons behind adoption of new economic policy in India ?
Answer:
The following are the reasons behind adoption of new economic policy in India:

1. Decrease in foreign exchange
2. Heavy government loss
3. Increase in cost
4. Increase in internal loan
5. Decrease in foreign business.

Question 4.
Under 1956 industrial policy how are the industries classified ?
Answer:

1. First category: Those industries whose development is completely based on its state.
2. Second category: Those industries which are run by the state and new industries in future will also be stated by them.
3. Third category: Rest all industries belong to this. Industries in this category are mainly consumer products based.

Question 5.
Write names of four economic policies :
Answer:
Four economic policies :

1. Export import policy
2. Employment policy
3. Agricultural policy
4. Industrial policy
5. Foreign investment policy
6. Tax policy.

Question 6.
Which industries according to the new economic policy compulsorily need to take licence.
Answer :
The six industries according to the new economic policy compulsorily need to take licence are :

1. Harmful/Dangerous chemical
2. Drugs and pharmaceuticals
3. Alcohol peva
4. Defense equipment
5. Industrial explosive.

Question 7.
After 1991, what were the changes in the Indian economic environment ?
Answer :
These were the important parts of new economic policy which has been modified so that objectives of liberalization, globalization and privatization can be achieved.

1. Declaration of new industrial policy : At the time, 1991 industrial policy was announced, 18 items were subject to industrial licensing but gradually their number has been reduced to 5 namely.

1. Cigars and cigarettes
2. Electronic aerospace and defence equipment
3. Indus-trial explosives
4. Hazardous chemicals
5. Certified specified drugs.

2. New trade policy :

1. Minimum restriction on trade. To increase foreign trade, import duty and tariff were slowly reduced.
2. To bring expansion in economy foreign investment and new technology was encouraged.
3. Liberal financial facilities to exporters were given.

3. Reform in capital market: SEBI was established.

4. Reforms in fiscal policy : Control on public expenditure and introduction of VAT in states.

Question 8.
Throw light on new monetary policy.
Answer:
To encourage liberalization and to enhance foreign business government decided to amend monetary policy for which Narshimham Committee was formed. The recommendations are as follows:

1. Bank should independently control the interest rates and RBI should not interfere in it.
2. To redesign the banking system.
3. To give more independence to banks.
4. To improve the accounting system of banks.
5. National banks should be given freedom to accumulate money from the market.
6. Private sector should be permitted to establish bank.
7. There should be reorientation of banks. Two or three banks should have international orientation which means that they alone should operate overseas.
8. Necessary changes should be made in accounting systems of banks.
9. There should be 8 to 10 national banks who should operate throughout the country.

Question 9.
What do you understand by business environment ?
Answer:
business environment is made of two words ‘Business’ and ‘Environment’. Business simply mean busy with an aim of profit earning. Environment means the surrounding extend agents influences or circumstances under which someone or something exits. Business environment consists of all external and internal factors that influence the complex interaction in the market production and finance.

Question 10.
Write the various components of internal environment.
Answer:
Various components of internal environment are as follows :

1. Policies, rules and plans of business.
2. Aims and objectives of business.
3. Production pattern of business. .
4. Organization of business.
5. Sources and resources of business.
6. Labour policy of business.

Question 11.
Explain India vision 2020.
Answer:
On 23rd January, 2003, the planning commission for the evaluation of economic development of next two decades issued a document or deed called “lndia Vision 2020” Through this document, planning commission has made an effort to improve the business environment.
The main features of India Vision 2020 are as follows :

1. To pay attention towards the multiplying of employment opportunities.
2. Per capital income to be increased by 4 times.
3. To lay stress on balanced environment protection.
4. To increase economic development at the rate of 9% p.a.
5. To increase the share of direct foreign investment in the total capital formation.
6. To increase the gross domestic product etc.

Management and Business Environment Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What does LPG stands for in business environment ?
Answer:

• L : Liberalization
• P : Privatization
• G : Globalization.

Question 2.
Write full forms of FERA and FEMA under the new policy of India which rule has been eliminated to implement FEMA ?
Answer:
FERA: Foreign exchange regulation Act
FEMA: Foreign exchange management Act.
In India at the time of new economic policy FEMA was implemented in place FERA.

Question 3.
What do you understand by Micro and Macro environment ?
Answer:
Micro environment: It means that environment in which the included components have close relationship with business.

Question 5.
What were reasons which compelled Indian government to adopt new economic policy ?
Answer:
Following are the reasons which compelled Indian government to adopt new economic policy:

1. Fiscal threat
2. Increased international loan
3. Appreciation of currency index
4. Fall in foreign exchange accumulation
5. Depreciation in Indian rupee
6. Imbalance and negligence of payments
7. RBI and SBI Mortgaged Gold.

Question 6.
Give three examples of Indian legal environment which has affected the business.
Answer:

1. Restriction on advisement of toxic production.
2. Industries were made free from licencing.
3. Statutory warning was made compulsory on tobacco products.

Question 7.
What do you mean by liberalization ? Under liberalization what measures were taken and what was the impact of it on business and industry ?
Answer
Meaning : Liberalization refuse to removal of entry and growth restrictions on the private companies. It is an economic reform with main objective to minimize licencing requirements, remove restrictions related to scale of operations, give freedom for fixing prices and movement of goods, encourage.import and export.Measures and impact of liberalization on business and industries are as follows :

1. Ending of licensing and registration : The main objective under new economic policy is to have controlled economy. The new economic policy has benefited the private industries by providing free licensing.

2. Relief from proprietorship restrictions: The restrictions of more than 100 crores investment in proprietorship was removed.

3. Increase in investments in small scale industries : Investment limits in small scale industries have been increased to 1 crore and adopted the latest advance in technology.

4. Discount on technological imports: To promote the new economic policy emphasis was laid to promote latest technologies and discounts were given. This policy promoted industries based on computers and electronics.

Question 8.
In today’s scenario of business environment how can a businessman prove his existence ?
Answer:
The ahead points lay emphasis on what a businessman can do in today’s scenario to exist:

1. To produce goods as per customer’s need
2. To keep the employees happy with sufficient remuneration
3. To recruit trained and experienced employees
4. To produce good in such a manner which lays good impression on consumers
5. To make plans and techniques keeping in view the competitors.

Question 9.
Explain the following in short:

1. Liberalization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization.

Answer:
1. Liberalization: Means removing unnecessary trade restriction. Liberalization allows private sectors to run even those industries which are reserved for the public sectors, relaxing the restriction and regulations imposed on it.
Measures of liberalization adopted by India are :

1. Exemption from licensing
2. Concession from MRTP Act (Monopolistic and Restrictive Trade practice)
3. Increase in production capacity
4. Freedom of production,
5. Buying foreign exchange from open market.

2.Privatization: Privatization refers to transfer of ownership management and control of public sector enterprise to the entrepreneurs of private sector. It is a set of economic reforms with the main objective to allow private sector to invest in sectors earlier restricted to public sector to develop healthy competition between public and private sector and dilute government ownership in public sector enterprises. Process by which the participation of state and public sector in economic activities are reduced. The main aim of privatization to allow private sector to run and manage the industries and to minimize the reservation made for public sector.

3.Globalization : Globalization refers to integration of national economy with the world economy by removing with the objective to strengthen relationships between countries and increase imports and exports.

Question 10.
Write any two objectives of globalization.
Answer:
Two objectives of globalization are as follows :

1. Removal of inefficiency: Globalization is intended to remove inefficiency of firms and Industries.

2. Improvement in banking and financial sectors : As result of globalization, entry of foreign banks will be easy. It will improve the efficiency of banking and financial sector.

Question 11.
What do you mean by internal components of business ?
Answer:
Business environment can be classified in two categories. Internal environment and external environment. Internal environment includes those factors of business which can be controlled by business. In internal environment changes take place speedily.
Components of Internal Environment:

1. Policies,rules and plans of business.
2. Aims and objectives of business.
3. Production pattern of business.
4. Sources and resources of business.
5. Organization of business
6. Labour policy of business etc.

These are the internal factors of business which affects the business directly while it is under the control of the owners of business. Hence changes can be made according to our own will but external environment is not under the control of the owner of business.

Question 12.
Explain the social environment of business.
Answer:
Social environment: Social environment is shaped by social factors such as attitudes of people, cultural heritage, beliefs and customs of people, education system, consumers organizations, trade unions and other non-government organizations. In society, there are activities related with caste, religion, sex, family etc. which affects the business.

Question 13.
Throw light on legal regulatory of business.
Answer:
Legal Regulatory: Legal regulatory environment of business is determined by constitutional provisions, economic laws, commercial laws, industrial and labour laws, government regulations under various laws and court decisions. These help the government in the regulation of economic activities of the business enterprises. Since Indian economy is centrally planned and controlled the business enterprises are required to operate within the framework of legal regulatory environment. The important components of the legal regulatory environment include the following:

1. The constitutional framework: Directive principle fundamental rights and division of legislative powers between central and state government.
2. Commercial and economic laws and government policies under the laws relating to licensing, monopolies, foreign investment etc.
3. Government policies related to imports and exports. .
4. Government policies related to small scale industries, sick industries, consumer protection etc.
5. Government policies related to pricing and distribution of essential commodities.
6. decisions for the protection of consumers, environment and ecological balance.

Question 14.
What is meant by External Environment ? What are its dimentions ?
Answer:
External Environment which is an index of opportunities and anticipations Internal
environment inclueds. External environment indued micro environment and macro environment it is called up External Environment.

Dimention:

1. Political environment
2. Social environment
3. Legal environment
4. Demographic environment
5. Technological environment
6. Physical environment
7. International environment

Management and Business Environment Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the main characteristics of economic environment.
Answer:
The main characteristics of economic environment are as follows :

1.Related with economic activities: All those activities of human beings are included in the economic environment which is related with the purchase sale, consumption, income- expenditure etc. of man.

2. Related with environment : Economic environment is affected by other environments. Ecological environment like land, air, forest, soil, water, mineral resources etc. also affects the economic environment. Political environment also affects the economic environment.

3. Administration by government : Economic environment is administered and directed by government. The government uses economic policies to effectively influence the economic environment of the business.

4. Related with common people : Economic environment is directly related with common people. Each person is having the will to earn money therefore he is affected by the economic environment. He cannot remain distant from economic environment.

5. Availability of capital: If capital is available in sufficient quantity then the natural and human resources are utilized properly. This leads increase in national income due to this rate Of national development also increases.

Question 2.
What are the elements components of micro environment ?
Answer:
Elements of micro environment:

1. Supplier : A person, firm, agency or organization which supplies raw materials, labour or other required things is known as supplier. More number of suppliers must be there to avoid problems of supply to firms.

2. Consumer market: A businessman can have many areas of consumer market. Consumer market can be National/International which uses the material for self or uses it to produce any other goods.

3. Competitor : The competitive business environment increases the level of productivity.

4. Public: Public has various categories, local public, press, media, etc. The behaviour of these categories effect the business unit.

5. Marketing middlemen: Marketing middlemen are those people who decrease and work as connectors between producers and consumers. The success of an industry also depends upon these marketing middlemen.

Question 3.
Name the characteristics of business environment and explain them.
Answer:
Main features/characteristics of business environment are as below :

1. Sum total of external forces.
2. Inter relatedness.
3. Dynamic Nature.
4. Uncertainly.
5. Complexity.
6. Relativity.

1. Dynamic Nature : Business environment is dynamic in nature in the sense that it keeps on changing whether in terms of technological improvement, shifts in consumer preferences of entry of new competition in the market.

2. Complexity : Environment is a complex phenomenon that is relatively easier to understand in parts but difficult to grasp in it totality.

3. Relativity: It is a relative concept since it differs from country to country and even
region to region. For e.g.,  South India may have fairly high in demand than in North India. .

4. Long-term process: business environment has a long-term effect long-term changes in affect the profitability, productivity and development.

5. Business environment influences the firms differently: It is not compulsory that all firms will be equally affected by change in business environment. Each firm is affected according to its nature.

6. Inter dependency of components of business environment: All the components of business environment are related to each other. So effect of business cannot be found out separately.

Question 4.
Explain the components of business environment.
Answer:
Different components of business environment are.

1. Economic components : It includes economic activities, Economic policies, Demand, supply, Investment, Industrial tendency/behaviour and monetary pressure, Investment flow and level, Import-Export, Fiscal and Taxation policies, Monetary policies, etc.

2.Geographical and ecological components : It includes Resources, Environment, Climate locomotion. Marine, Celestical, Geologic resource, Magnetic and solar energy.

3.Political components : It includes government monetary system and government system, Political point of view, administrative arrangements, constitutional arrangements security, etc.

4.Social and cultural components : It includes cost, beliefs, assumptions, social arrangement, materialism, religion, culture, traditions, etc.

5.Science and technological components : It includes scientific research and level, competitive development, Mechanization thermal power, Satellite transmission system, Celestical research labs, etc.

6.Legal and judical components : It includes justice system, various business, Industrial and labour control forum, administrative system, etc.

7.Others components: Population, educational level, consumer behavior, security, crisis, danger, international powers, industrial power and struggle, etc.

Question 5.
Describe the importance of business environment.
Or
What is the need of business Environment today ? Explain.
Answer:
The importance of business environment is as follows : .

1. Market conditions and situations : A business must know the structure of market and changes taking place in the market. Creation of demand, monopoly, boom periods etc. should be in the knowledge of business. These information, conditions are provided by business environment.

2. Better performance : Proper understanding of the various elements of external environment is necessary to take timely action to deal with the threats and avail opportunities for the purpose of improvement in performance of the firm.

3. Technological up gradation : Development of business also depends upon the new technology and inventions, so if a business has to grow it should be aware of new techniques of production, new products, new designs, scientific development etc., No business will survive if technology is ignored.

4. Optimum utilization of resources : Natural environment divides the nature of business, localization, stability, progress etc. Human resource decide the knowledge, techniques, production, Industrial relations, managerial efficiency etc. Management of these resources play an important role in success of business.

5. Survival and growth : A detailed study of business environment is essential for the survival and growth of business enterprise. Business has limited capacity to influence the environment. Therefore adjustment of business, policies and strategies to be changed environment is essential for business survival.

6. Reputation of the company: The management of a company is interested not only in building up its business but also to build an image and reputation of the company in the public mind. Therefore study of environment will help the company to be friendly and avoid such policies which will affect the public.

Question 6.
Explain the political factors affecting business environment.
Answer:
The political conditions and situations of any country affects the business environment. The main factors of political environment are as follows :

1. Ideology of government: The three forms of government are capitalism, socialism and mixed economy. These governments have different ideologies and thinking. These political ideologies and thinking affects the economic and business environment.

2. Policies of government: The policies of government are related with their ideology and thinking. Their policies directly affects the business, trade and industries.

3. Political stability : Stability of government is also an important factor whenever there is political instability in the country, business is affected adversely. The stable government and peaceful atmosphere of the society encourages economic growth.

4. Foreign policy: The foreign policy of any country affects its business environment. The foreign policies helps in maintaining peaceful atmosphere which develops the international business.

5. National security : The business of any country is also affected due to its national
security. Terrorist activities, civil wars disrupt. The business activities while in peaceful atmosphere of the country economic growth takes place.

6. Constitution : The laws and provisions made in constitution is not changeable for a long-term if political situation is stable and changes are not made in constitution then it is not getting to affect the business.

Question 7.
Explain the impact of government policy changes on business and industry.
Answer:
Following are the impacts on business and Industry due to changes in government policies:

1. Increase in competition: Due to government polices of liberalization, privatization and globalization has increase the competition in day to day world. Increasing competition has adver self affected many industries.

2. Increase in demands: Due to economic reforms.speedy industrialization has taken place and various high quality products are available for customers. The customers are demanding these products for improvement in standard of living.

3. Technological environment: Due to rapid changes in technological environment competition is increasing. Only those companies will survive who are going to follow the changes in technology. For smaller firms it is becoming difficult to face the competition.

4. Need of efficient human resource : To achieve success it is necessary to have efficient human resource and it should be properly utilized. That’s why in all industries the demand for efficient human resources and their salary have also increased.

5. Decline of Public Sector : Due to government policies and economic reforms importance of public sector has declined. Financial assistance is also not provided to the public sectors property.

6. Decline of small-scale and cottage industries : Economic reforms and policies had played a major role decline of small-scale and cottage industries. It is becoming difficult for small-scale and cottage industries to face the competition with big companies with limited resources.

7. Open economy : The policies of the government has made our economy as open economy. Due to minimisation of restrictions our country is now developing into as international market.

Question 8.
Explain the managerial response of changing pattern in business environment.
Answer:

1. Large-scale production : Big companies are increasing their production to reduce the cost of production and large-scale production makes it possible to get subsidies.

2. New technology: Various companies are using the new technology with the help of foreign countries to increase their share in market.

3. Direct distribution : By eliminating the middle men companies are trying to sell their products directly to the the consumers. For e.g.Amway is distributing its products directly to consumers.

4. Variety of line of goods and services : Various types of products and services are provided to the consumers at reasonable prices. For e.g., Tata’s are dealing in Iron products, Tea, cars etc.

5. Capital Formation : To expand the business to increase production, to open new branches in national and international market big companies are changing capital structure and forming huge capital.

Question 9.
Explain the economic policy of 2007.
Or
Explain new Exim policy 2002-07.
Answer:
The export-import policy for the period 2002-07 was announced on 31st March, 2002 with the objective to consolidate. The gains of the previous export-import policies and to set for itself a challenging target to achieve one per cent share in global trade by 2007 but this policy was replaced by Foreign Trade Policy by UPA Govt, for the period of2004-2009. This policy aimed to have exports of US 80-48 billion $ per year. The salient features of this policy are: ‘

1. Increase in export: The target of 11 -9% per annum average growth by increase annual exports up to 80 Billion $.

2. Abolishing Quantitative restrictions : Exim policy removed all quantitative re-strictions on all agricultural products except a few sensitive items like jute and onions.

3. Export promotion schemes: Value cap exemption granted on 429 items to continue.

4. More facilities to SEZs : A scheme for setting up special economic zones (SEZs) in the country to promote exports was announced by the Govt, in the export and import policy on 31st March, 2000. The SEZs are to provide an internationally competitive and hassle free environment for exports and exported to give a further boost to the country’s exports. 13 new SEZs were given the permission to start their work by Govt. Units set up in SEZ would be eligible for income tax concessions, exemptions from customs and excise duties.

5. Transport subsidies : Processed fruits and vegetables, poultry, dairy products, wheat and rice etc., Their cost of transportation is more than 80S per ton. This leads to increase in prices of products. To increase exports in the international market Govt, provided a transport subsidy of Rs. 100 crores in the year 2002-03.

6. Overseas banking : Permission have been given by the Govt, to start overseas banking branches in SEZs. In these branches the rules like CRR and SLR of Reserve Bank of India will not be followed.

7. Export to Russia: To increase the export of butter, wheat, groundnut, oil, cashewnuts and products of wheat to Russia, packaging and registration have been stopped.

8. Expansion of market: The countries separated from Africa and Russia and some Latin American countries are the new markets of India. Hence, the exports have been in-creased by 40%. The policy has also made provision for expansion of export market. In first phase Nigeria,.South Africa, Mauritius, Kenya, Ethiopia, Tanzania and Ghana were selected which helped in expansion of market.

By increasing the exports in international market it helped India in increasing foreign trade. This happened due to the efforts and policy of 1991. India’s current share in global merchandise trade is about 0-8 percent ($ 55 billion out of $ 7274 billion in 2003).

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Coordination Compounds NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Write the formulas for the following coordination compounds:

1. Tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride
2. Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II)
3. tris (ethane-1,2-diamine) chromium (III) chloride
4. Amminebromidochloridonitrito-N- platinate(II)
5. Dichlorido 6/s(ethane-1,2-diamine) platinum (IV)nitrate
6. Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II).

Answer:

1. [CO(NH₃)₄(H₂O)2]Cl₃
2. K₂[Ni(CN)₄]
3. [Cr(en)₃]Cl₃
4. [Pt(NH₃)BrCl NO₂]^–
5. [PtCl₂(en)₂](NO₃)₂
6. Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃.

Question 2.
Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds:

1. [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
2. [CO(NH₃)5Cl]Cl₂
3. K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
4. K₃[Fe(C₂O₄)₃]
5. K₂|PdCl₄]
6. [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl(NH₂CH₃)]Cl.

Answer:

1. Hexa ammine cobalt(III) chloride
2. Pentaamminechloridocobalt(IlI) chloride
3. Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
4. Potassium trioxalatoferrate(III)
5. Potassium tetrachloridopalladate(II)
6. Diamminechlorido(methanamine)platinum(II) chloride.

Question 3.
Indicate the types of isomerism exhibited by the following complexes and draw the structures for these isomers :
(i) K[Cr(H₂O)₂(C₂O₄)₂]
(ii) [Co(en)₃]Cl₃
(iii) CO(NH₃)5(NO₂)](NO₃)₂]
(iv) [Pt(NH₃)(H₂O)Cl₂].
Answer:
(i) K[Cr(H₂O)₂(C₂O₄)₂] shows geometrical isomers :

cls-isomers exhibits optical isomerism :

(ii) [Co(en)₃Cl₃] exhibits optical isomerism :

(iii) [CO(NH₃)₅NO₂](NO₃)₂ shows ionisation isomerism [Co(NH₃)₅NO₂](NO₃)₂ and [Co(NH₃)_5-NO₃](NO₂)(NO₃). This also shows linkage isomerism.
[CO(NH₃)₅NO₂](NO₃)₂ and [Co(NH₃)₅(ONO)] NO₃.

(iv) [Pt(NH₃)(H₂O)Cl₂] shows geometrical isomerism.

Question 4.
Give evidence that [CO(NH₃)5Cl]SO₄ and [CO(NH₃)₅SO₄]Cl are ionization isomers.
Answer:
The ionisation isomers dissolve in water to yield different ions and thus react differently to various reagents:
[CO(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ + Ba²⁺ → BaSO_4(s) (White precipitate)
[CO(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br + Ba²⁺ → No reaction
[CO(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ + Ag⁺ → No reaction
[CO(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br + Ag⁺ → AgBr_(s) (Pale yellow precipitate)

Question 5.
Explain on the basis of valence bond theory that [Ni(CN)₄]^2- ion with square planar structure is diamagnetic and the [NiCl₄]^2- ion with tetrahedral geometry is paramagnetic.
Answer:
[Ni(CN)₄]^2-: The oxidation state of Ni is +2 in the complex. Its electronic configuration is [Ar]3d⁸. It undergoes dsp² hybridization. Because CN^– being a strong ligand causes the pairing of electrons.

[NiCl₄]^2-: The oxidation state of Ni is +2 in the complex. Its electronic configuration is (Ar)3d⁸. It undergoes sp³ hybridization. Because Cl being a weak field ligand does not cause pairing of the electron.

Two unpaired electrons are present in the complexion, hence it is paramagnetic in nature.

Question 6.
[NiCl₄]^2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)₄] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why?
Answer:
In Ni(CO)₄, Ni is in zero oxidation state whereas in NiCl^2-₄, it is in +2 oxidation state. In the presence of CO ligand, the unpaired d electrons of Ni pair up but Cl^– being a weak ligand is unable to pair up the unpaired electrons.

Question 7.
[Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)₆]^3- is weakly para-magnetic. Explain.
Answer:
In both the complexes, Fe is in a +3 oxidation state with the configuration 3d⁵. CN^– is a strong ligand. In its presence, 3d-electrons pair up leaving only one unpaired electron. The hybridization is d²sp³ forming an inner orbital complex. H₂O is a weak ligand. In its presence, 3d-electrons do not pair up. The hybridization is sp³d² forming an outer orbital complex containing five unpaired electrons. Hence, it is strongly paramagnetic.

Question 8.
Explain [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is an inner orbital complex whereas [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺ is an outer orbital complex.
Answer:
In the presence of NH₃, the 3d electrons pair up leaving two d orbitals empty to be involved in d²sp³ hybridisation forming inner orbital complex in case of [CO(NH₃)₆)²⁺. In Ni(NH₃)₆²⁺, Ni is in a +2 oxidation state and has a ds configuration, the hybridisation involved is sp³d² forming an outer orbital complex.

Question 9.
Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar [Pt(CN)₄]^2- ion.
Answer:
The platinum atom has the ground state electronic configuration 5d⁴ 6s¹. In the complex, Ft is in a +2 oxidation state and has the electronic configuration 5d⁸. To have square planar geometry, one of the 5d-orbitals is vacated and all the other four orbitals get a pair of electrons. Therefore, it involves dsp² hybridization and is diamagnetic.

Question 10.
The hexaaquomanganese(II) ion contains five unpaired electrons, while the hexacyano ion contains only one unpaired electron. Explain using Crystal Field Theory.
Answer:
Mn in +2 oxidation state has the electronic configuration 3d⁵. H₂O is a weak ligand. In presence of H₂O molecules, the distribution of electrons is \(t^{3}_{2 g} e_{g 2}\), all the electrons are unpaired.

CN^– is a strong ligand. In its presence, the distribution of electrons is \(t_{2 g}^{5}\) i e one unpaired electron is present.

Question 11.
Calculate the overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant for the Cu(NH₃)²⁺₄ ion, given that β₄ for this complex is 2.1 × 10¹³.
Solution:
Overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant is the reciprocal of the overall stability constant.

Coordination Compounds NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Explain the bonding in coordination compounds in terms of Werner’s postulates.
Answer:
Werner’s postulates explain the bonding in coordination compounds as follows:
(i) A metal exhibits two types of valencies namely, primary and secondary valencies.
Primary valencies are satisfied by negative ions while secondary valences are satisfied by both negative and neutral ions.
(In modem terminology the primary valency corresponds to the oxidation number of the metal ion, whereas the secondary valency refers to the coordination number of the metal ion)

(ii) A metal ion has a definite number of secondary valences around the central atom. Also, these valences project in a specific direction in the space assigned to the definite geometry of the coordination compound.

(iii) Primary valences are usually ionisable, while secondary valences are non ionisable.

Question 2.
FeSO₄ solution mixed with (NH₄)₂SO₄ solution in 1:1 molar ratio gives the test of Fe²⁺ ion but CuSO₄ solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1:4 molar ratio does not give the test of Cu²⁺ ion. Explain, why?
Answer:
FeSO₄ solution mixed with (NH₄)₂SO₄ solution in 1 : 1 molar ratio given double salt, FeSO₄(NH₄)₂.SO₄.6H₂O (Mohr’s salt). Being double salt, it ionizes in the solution to give Fe²⁺ ions. Hence, it gives the test of Fe²⁺ ions. CuSO₄ solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1 : 4 molar ratio gives a complex compound.
CuSO₄ + 4NH₃ → [CU(NH₃)₄]SO₄.
The complexion [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺ does not ionise to give Cu²⁺ ions. Hence, it doesn’t give the test of Cu²⁺ ions.

Question 3.
Explain with two examples each of the following: co-ordination entity, ligand, coordination number, coordination polyhedron, homoleptic and heteroleptic.
Answer:
Co-ordination entity: This entity usually constitutes a central metal atom or ion, to which are attached a fixed number of other atoms or ions or groups by co-ordinate bonds.
e.g. [Ni(CO₄)], [CoCl₃(NH₃)₃], etc.
Ligand: It is an ion having at least one lone pair of electrons and capable of forming a coordinate bond with the central atom/ion in the coordination entity.
e.g. Cl^–, (OH)^–, (CN)^–, etc.
Co-ordination number: The total number of co-ordination bonds with which the central atom/ion is linked to ligands in the co-ordination entity is called the co-ordination number of central atom/ion.
Co-ordination polyhedron: The spatial arrangement of the ligands which are directly attached to the central atom/ion defines a co-ordination polyhedron about the central atom.
e.g. [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is octahedral, [Ni(CO)₄] is tetrahedral.
Homoleptic and heteroleptic: Complexes in which a metal is bound to only one kind of donor groups are known as homoleptic.
eg. [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺.
Complex in which a metal is bound to more than one kind of donor groups are called heteroleptic. e.g. [CO(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺

Question 4.
What is meant by unidentate, bidentate and ambidentate ligands? Give two examples for each.
Answer:
Unidentate ligand: When a ligand is bound to a metal ion through a single donor atom as with Cl^–, H₂O. The ligand is said to be unidentate.
Didentate ligand : When a ligand is bind through two donor atoms the ligand is said to be didentate.
Example: C₂O^2-₄ (Oxalate)
H₂NCH₂ – CH₂NH₂ (ethane 2 diammine)
Ambidentate ligand : Ligand which can ligate through two different atoms is called ambidentate ligand.
Example : -NO₂– and SCN^–.

Question 5.
Specify the oxidation numbers of the metals in the following co-ordination entities:
(i) [Co(H₂O)(CN)(en)₂]²⁺
(ii) [CoBr₂(en)₂]⁺
(iii) [PtCl₄]^2-
(iv) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
(v) [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃].
Answer:
(a) x + (-1) = +2, x = +3
(b) x + 4(-1) = -2,x = +2
(c) x + 3 (-1) = 0, x = +3
(d) x + 2 (-1) = +1, x = +3
(e) x + 6 (-1) = -3, x = +3.

Question 6.
Using IUPAC norms write the formulas for the following :

1. Tetrahydroxozincate(II)
2. Potassium tetrachloridopalladate(II)
3. Diamminedichloridoplatinum(II)
4. Potassium tetracyanonickelate(II)
5. Pentaamminenitrito-o-cobalt(III)
6. Hexaamminecobalt(III) sulphate
7. Potassium tri-(oxalato)chromate(III)
8. Hexaammineplatinum(IV)
9. Tetrabromidocuprate(II)
10. Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(III).

Answer:

1. [Zn(OH]^2-
2. K₂[PdCl₄]
3. [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
4. K₂[Ni(CN)₄]
5. [CO(NH₃)₅(ONO)]²⁺
6. [CO(NH₃)₆]₂ (SO₄)₃
7. K₃[Cr(C₂O₄)₃]
8. [Pt(NH₃)₆]⁴⁺
9. [Cu(Br)₄]^2-
10. [CO(NH₃)₅(NO₂)]²⁺.

Question 7.
Using IUPAC norms write the systematic names of the following :

1. [CO(NH₃)₆]CI₃
2. [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl(NH₂CH₃)]Cl
3. [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺
4. [CO(NH₃)₄Cl(NO₂)]Cl
5. [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺
6. [NiCl₄]^2-
7. [Ni(NH₃)₆]Cl₂
8. [Co(en)₃]³⁺
9. [Ni(CO)₄].

Answer:

1. Hexaamminecobalt(III) chloride
2. Diammine chlorido (methylamine) platinum (II) chloride
3. Hexaquatitanium(III) ion
4. Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-Cobalt(III) chloride
5. Hexaquamanganese(II) ion
6. Tetrachloridonickelate(II) ion
7. Hexaamminenickel(II) chloride
8. tris (ethane-1, 2-diammine) cobalt(III) ion
9. Tetracarbonylnickel (0).

Question 8.
List various types of isomerism possible for co-ordination compounds, giving an example of each.
Answer:
Isomerism in Coordination Compounds: Two or more compounds having the same molecular formula but a different arrangement of atoms are-called isomers.
Isomerism in Coordination Compounds is given below:

1. Structural Isomerism:
This type of isomerism arises due to the difference in structures of coordination compounds. It is further subdivided into four different types as explained below :

(a) Ionization isomerism: This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which have the same composition but liberate different ions in solution.
Example : [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ (dark violet). It liberates SO^2-₄ ions in solution, whereas [Co(NH₃)₅ SO₄] (red) liberates Br- ions in solution. Both of these are ionization isomers.

(b) Co-ordination isomerism: This type of isomerism is shown by such a compound which contains both cationic and anionic species and it arises from the interchange of ligands between cationic and anionic entities of different metal ions present in a complex.
For example, [Co(NH₃)₆][Cr(CN)₆] and [Cr(NH₃)₆][Co(CN)₆]
hexaamminecobalt (III) hexacyano chromate (III) and hexaamminechromium (III) hexacyano- cobalt (III).

(C) Linkage isomerism: Linkage isomerism occurs when different atoms of the ligand are attached to the central metal ion. The structure obtained are called linkage isomers. Such type of ligands are called ambidentate ligands.

In structure, I Ni²⁺ is linked by thiocyanate sulphur and in structure II it is linked by a nitrogen atom.
Ionisation Isomerism: This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which have the same composition but liberate different ions in solution.
[Co (NH₃)₅ Br]SO₄ – It liberates SO^2-₄ ions.
[Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br – It liberates Br^– ions.

(d) Hydrate isomerism: This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which differ in the number of molecules of water inside the coordination sphere.

Example: The three hydrate isomers are as follows:

1. [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ (violet)
2. [Cr(H₂O)5Cl]Cl₂.H₂O (green)
3. [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]Cl.2H₂O (darkgreen).

2. Stereoisomerism
Two compounds are called stereoisomers when they contain the same ligand in their co-ordination sphere but differ in their spatial arrangement. Stereoisomerism is further classified as geometrical and optical isomerism.

(a) Geometrical isomerism: When the ligands are situated at a different position around the metal it gives rise to geometrical isomerism. The isomer in which similar groups are in adjacent position (making an angle 90° with metal ion) is called c/s-isomer. The isomer in which the similar group occupies the opposite position (making an angle of 180° with metal ion) is called trans-isomer.

This type of isomerism is observed in square planar (CN = 4) and octahedral (CN = 6) types of complexes.

(b) Optical Isomerism: Optical isomers are sensitive to plane polarised light. When light passed through the solution of optically active substances these rotate the light-plane in a clockwise or anticlockwise direction.

This type of isomerism is exhibited by the substances which are a mirror images of each other but cannot be superimposed. Optical isomerism is shown by the substances which have a minimum one asymmetric carbon atom.

The compound which rotates plane-polarized light in left side are called l-isomers and which rotates in right side called d-isomers. These types of isomerism are generally found in the tetrahedral complex [-CN = 4] and octahedral complex [-CN = 6].

(i) Tetrahedral complex : [As (CH₃) (C₂H₅) (S) (C₆H₄COO)]²⁺

(ii) Octahedral complex : [CO(en)₂]³⁺

Question 9.
How many geometrical isomers are possible in the following co-ordination entities :

1. [Cr(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
2. [CO(NH₃)₃Cl₃].

Answer:

1. Nil
2. Two (fac and mer).

Question 10.
Draw the structures of optical isomers of:
(i) [Cr(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
(ii) [PtCl₂(en)₂]²⁺
(iii) [Cr(NH₃)₂Cl₂(en)]⁺.
Answer:

Question 11.
Draw all the isomers (geometrical and optical) of:
(i) [CoCl₂(en)₂]⁺
(ii) [Co(NH₃)Cl(en)₂]²⁺
(iii) [Co(NH₃)₂Cl₂(en)]⁺.
Answer:

cis-isomer will show optical isomer [see question (ii)]



cis isomer shows optical isomers

Question 12.
Write all the geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)(Br) (Cl)(py)] and how many of these will exhibit optical isomers?
Answer:
Three isomers:

These type of isomer do not show optical isomerism. Optical isomerism in square planar complexes occurs only with unsymmetrical chelating ligand.

Question 13.
Aqueous copper sulphate solution (blue in colour) gives:
(i) A green precipitate with aqueous potassium fluoride, and
(ii) A bright green solution with aqueous potassium chloride. Explain these experimental results.
Answer:
Aqueous copper sulphate exists as [Cu(H₂O)₄]SO₄ which has blue colour due to [CU(H₂O)₄]²⁺ ions.

• When KF is added, the weak water ligand are replaced by F^– ligand and forms [CUF₄]²⁺ ions which is green precipitate.
  [CU(H₂O)₄]SO₄ + 4F^– → [CUF₄]^2- + 4H₂O.
• When KCl is added, the weak water ligand are replaced by CT ion forming [CuCl₄]^2- which has bright green colour.
  [CU(H₂O)₄C1] SO₄ + 4C1^– → [CUC1₄]^2- + 4H₂O.

Question 14.
What is the coordination entity formed when an excess of aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? Why is it that no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained when H₂S_(g) is passed through this solution?
Answer:
CuSO_4(aq) + 4KCN _(aq) → K₂Cu (CN)₄]_(aq) + K₂SO₄
i.e. [Cu (H₂O)₄]²⁺ + 4CN^– → [Cu (CN)₄]^2- + 4H₂O
Thus, the coordination entity formed in the process is K₂ [Cu (CN)₄]. K₂ [Cu (CN)₄] is a very stable complex which does not ionize to give Cu²⁺ ions when added to water. Hence Cu²⁺ ions are not precipitated when H₂S_(g) is passed through the solution.

Question 15.
Discuss the nature of bonding in the following coordination entities on the basis of valence bond theory :

1. [Fe(CN)₆]^4-
2. [FeF₆]^3-
3. [Co(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
4. [CoF₆]^3-

Answer:

1. [Fe(CN)₆]^4- : d₂sp³, octahedral, diamagnetic (Refer NCERT Text-book).
2. [FeF₆]^3- : sp³d², octahedral, paramagnetic (Refer NCERT Text-book) Similar to [CoF₆],
3. [Co(C₂O)₄]^3- : d²sp³, octahedral, paramagnetic (similar to [Fe(CN)₆]^4-).
4. [CoF₆]^3- : sp³ d², octahedral, paramagnetic (Refer NCERT Text-book).

Question 16.
Draw a figure to show the splitting of 4-orbitals in an octahedral crystal field.
Answer:
CFSE can be calculated as :
CFSE = [-0.4x + 0.6y]∆₀
Where, ∆₀ = CFSE in octahedral complex
x = Number of electrons in t_2g orbitals
y = Number of unpaired electrons in e_g orbitals.

Question 17.
What is spectrochemical series? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand and a strong field ligand.
Answer:
A spectrochemical series is the arrangement of common ligands in the increasing order of their crystal field splitting energy (CSFE) values the ligands present on the RHS of the series are strong fields ligands while those on the LHS are weak field ligands. Also, strong-field ligands cause higher splitting in the d orbitals than weak field ligands.
I^– < Br^– < S^2- < SCN^–< Cl^– < N₃ < F^– < OH^– < C₂O₄^2- ~ H₂O < NCS^– ~ H^– < CN^– < NH₃, < en ~ SO₃^2-2- < NO₂^– < phen < CO

Question 18.
What is crystal field splitting energy (CFSE)? How does the magnitude of ∆0 decide the actual configuration of d-orbitals in a co-ordination entity?
Answer:
When ligands approach a transition metal ion, the 4-orbital split into two sets, with lower energy and higher energy. The difference of energy between two sets of orbitals is called crystal field splitting energy (CFSE) i.e. ∆₀ for the octahedral field.
For example, the d⁴ system has the following configuration depending upon ∆₀.

• If ∆₀ < P (pairing energy), the 4^th e^– entres one of the e_g orbital giving configuration. \(t_{2 \mathrm{g}}^{4} e_{g 0}\)
• If ∆₀ > P, the 4^th e^– paired up in one of the e_g orbital giving \(t_{2 \mathrm{g}}^{3} e_{g 1}\) configuration.

Question 19.
[Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is paramagnetic while |Ni(CN)₄]^2- is diamagnetic. Explain, why?
Answer:
[Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ ion is paramagnetic whereas [Ni(CN₄)]²⁺ is diamagnetic.

Six NH₃ ligands donate electrons and form d² sp³ hybrid orbitals. Since there are three unpaired electrons in 3d subshell. Thus, [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ ion is paramagnetic.

CN^– ion is a strong ligand.
Therefore, it forces the electrons to pair up in 3d subshell and vacant them which participate in hybridization. One 4.9, two 4p, and one 4d subshell form dsp² hybrid orbital.

Question 20.
A solution of [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is green but a solution of [Ni(CN)₄]^2- is colourless. Explain.
Answer:
H₂O is a weak ligand [Ni(H₂O)₆]^2- is an outer orbital complex. The complex has two unpaired electrons. The d-d transition is possible. It absorbs red light and complementary green light is emitted.

CN^– is a strong ligand. The unpaired electrons are paired up. The central atoms undergo dsp² hybridization. The square planar complex is formed. No unpaired electrons are present i. e. d-d transition is not possible, hence the complex is colourless.

Question 21.
[Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ are of different colours in dilute solutions, why?
Answer:
The colour of a particular coordination compound depends on the magnitude of crystal field splitting energy ∆. This CFSE in turn depends on the nature of the ligand. In case of [Fe (CN)₆)^4- and [Fe (H₂O)₆]^2- the colour differs because there is a difference in the CFSE. Now, CN^– is a strong field ligand having a higher CFSE value as compared to the CFSE value of water. This means that the absorption of energy for the extra d- d transition also differed. Hence, the transmitted colour also different.

Question 22.
Discuss the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls.
Answer:
The metal-carbon bonds in metal carbonyls have both s and p characters. M-C σ-bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl carbon into a vacant orbital of the metal. M-C π-bond is formed by the donation of a pair of electrons from the filled metal d orbital into the vacant anti-bonding π^* orbital of carbon monoxide. This is also known as back bonding of the carbonyl group. The metal to ligand bonding creates a synergic effect which strengthens the bond between CO and the metal. This synergic effect strengthens the bond between CO and the metal.

Question 23.
Give the oxidation state, rf-orbital occupation and co-ordination number of the central metal ion in the following complexes :
(i) K₃[CO(C₂O₄)₃]
(ii) cis-[Cr(en)₂Cl₂]Cl
(iii) (NH₄)₂[CoF₄]
(iv) [Mn(H₂O)₆]SO₄.
Answer:

Question 24.
Write down the IUPAC name for each of the following complexes and indicate the oxidation state, electronic configuration, and coordination number. Also, give stereochemistry and magnetic moment of the complex:

1. K[Cr(H₂O)₂(C₂O₄)₂].3H₂O
2. [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂
3. CrCl₃(py)₃
4. Cs[FeCl₄]
5. K₄[Mn(CN)₆].

Answer:

1. Potassium diaquadioxalatochromate (III) hydrate.
2. Pentaamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride
3. Trichloridotripyridinechromium (III)
4. Caesium tetrachloroferrate (III)
5. Potassium hexacyanomanganate(II).

Question 25.
What is meant by the stability of a coordination compound in solution? State the factors which govern the stability of complexes.
Answer:
The stability of a complex in a solution refers to the degree of association between the two species involved in a state of equilibrium. Stability can be expressed quantitatively in terms of stability constant or formation constant.

For this reaction, the greater the value of the stability’ constant, the greater is the proportion of ML₃ in the solution. Stability can be of two types:

(a) Thermodynamic stability : The extent to which the complex will be formed or will be transformed into another species at the point of equilibrium is determined by thermodynamic stability.

(b) Kinetic stability: This helps in determining the speed with which the transformation will occur to attain the state of equilibrium.

Factors affect complex compounds :

1. Nature of metal ion: The term nature means change density on the central metal ion, the greater the charge density more will be the stability of the complex.
2. Size of metal ion:
   
3. Nature of ligand (a): If the ligand is small in size and its charge is more, the complex will be more stable.
4. Greater the basicity of ligand, greater the stability of the complex.
5. Chelate ligand: Complex formed by chelate ligand is ten times more stable than ordinary ligand.
6. Nature of solvent: If metal and ligand are made to react in a solvent of low dielectric constant and low dipole moment, the stability of the complex increases.

Question 26.
What is meant by the chelate effect? Give an example.
Answer:
When a ligand attaches to the metal ion in a manner that forms a ring, then the metal-ligand association is found to be more stable. In other words, we can say that com-plexes containing chelate rings are more stable than complexes without rings. This is known as the chelate effect for example :

Question 27.
Discuss briefly giving an example in each case the role of coordination compounds in:
1. Biological system
2. Medicinal chemistry
3. Analytical chemistry
4. Extraction/metallurgy of metals.
Answer:
1. Biological system: Zinc and iron deficiency of plants is very common. Plants require iron and zinc for healthy growth. When applied to the soil in the form of their soluble salts, these increase metals get precipitated in the form of their hydroxides at pH 7-8 the soil.

To prevent it and their rapid and absorption by the plants, their soluble complexes like iron-EDTA and zinc-EDTA are used.

2. Medicinal chemistry: Many coordination complexes are used in medicines:
(i) Vitamin B₁₂ which is used to prevent anemia is a complex compound of cobalt (I), an unusual oxidation state of cobalt.
(ii) The platinum complex cis-[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] known as cisplatin is used in the treatment of cancer. It also inhibits the growth of fiimours. This is known as Chemotherapy.
(iii) The excess of copper and iron are removed by the chelating ligands D-penicillamine and desferrioxamine-B via the formation of coordination compounds.
(iv) The chelate complex of calcium and EDTA is used in the treatment of lead poi¬soning. Inside the body calcium in the complex is replaced by lead. The more soluble lead- EDTA complex is eliminated in urine.

3. Analytical chemistry: Co-ordination compounds find their applications in both qualitative and quantitative methods of analysis.
(a) In qualitative analysis: The formation of a complex substance by using suitable reagents is very effectively used in the separation and detection of cations in qualitative analysis. For example :

(i) The separation of Ag⁺ from \(\mathrm{Hg}_{2}^{+2}\) in the first group of analysis is based on the fact that, while silver chloride is soluble in aqueous ammonia and Hg₂Cl₂ forms back. The insoluble complexes can be separated by filtration.

(ii) Similarly, separation of Cd⁺² from Cu⁺² could also be achieved by treating the solution of Cu⁺² and Cd⁺² with excess of CN^– reaction takes place.

Now, when H₂S is passed in the solution, ionic product does not exceed the K_sp of Cl₂S due to the formation of a highly stable complex of copper and hence only CdS gets precipitated.

(b) In quantitive analysis : (i) Gravimetric estimation of Ni⁺² is carried out by precipitating Ni+2 as red nickel-dimethyl oxime complex in thr presence of ammonia.

(ii) EDTA is a versatile complexing agent. It is used in the complexometric determina¬tion of several metal ions such as Ca⁺², Mg⁺², Zn⁺², Mn⁺², Fe⁺², Co⁺², Ni⁺² etc.

4. Extraction/metallurgy of metals: The extraction of silver and gold is done by the formation of cyanide complexes. The crushed ore is treated with an aqueous cyanide solution in the presence of air to dissolve gold by forming the soluble complex ion [Au(CN)₂]^–.

The complex is separated and then treated with an electropositive metal, such as zinc to recover gold.

The extraction of nickel by means of Mond’s process is based on the preparation of volatile nickel carbonyl. Carbon monoxide gas is passed over impure nickel metal at about 70 °C to form the volatile nickel carbonyl. Distillation of this at 200°C yields nickel.

Question 28.
How many ions are produced from the complex [Co(NH₃)₆CI₂] in solution :
(i) 6
(ii) 4
(iii) 3
(iv) 2.
Answer:

Question 29.
Amongst the following ions which one has the highest magnetic moment value:
(i) [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺
(ii) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺
(iii) [Zn(H₂O)₆]²⁺
Answer:
(ii) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ has the highest magnetic moment because the Fe²⁺ ion has maximum Cl unpaired electrons.

Question 30.
The oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)₄] is :
(i) +1
(ii) +3
(iii) -1
(iv) -3.
Answer:
(c) K[Co(CO)₄]
1 + x + 0 = 0
x = -1.

Question 31.
Amongst the following, the most stable complex is :
(i) [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺
(ii) [Fe(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(iii) [Fe(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
(iv) [FeCl₆]^3-.
Answer:
(iii) [Fe(C₂O₄)₃]^3- is most stable because it is chelate ligand complex.

Question 32.
What will be the correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the following:
[Ni(NO₂)₆]^4-, [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺, [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺.
Answer:
In all the three complexes, the central metal ion is the same hence, the increasing field strengths of the ligand from the spectrochemical series are in the order :
H₂O < NH₃ < NO^–₂
Thus, the energies absorbed for excitation will be in the order :
[Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ < [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺ < [Ni(NO₂)₆]^4-.
As E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) , the wavelength absorbed will be in opposite order.

Coordination Compounds Other important Questions and Answers

Coordination Compounds Objective Type Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The correct structural formula of Zeise’s salt is :
(a) K⁺ [PtCl₃(C₂H₄)]^–
(b) K⁺ [PtCl₂(n² – C₂H₄]Cl^–
(c) K₂ [PtCl₃(n – C₂H₄)]
(d) K⁺ [PtCl₃(n² – C₂H₄)]^–
Answer:
(d) K⁺ [PtCl₃(n² – C₂H₄)]^–

Question 2.
Which of the following is not an olefinic organometallic :
(a) C₄H₄Fe(CO)₃
(b) (C₂H₄PtCl₃)₂
(c) Be(CH₂)₂
(d) K[C₂H₄PtCl₃].3H₂O.
Answer:
(c) Be(CH₂)₂

Question 3.
IUPAC name of K₃[Al(C₂O₄)₃] is :
(a) Potassium alumino oxalate
(b) Potassium trioxalato aluminate (III)
(c) Potassium aluminium (III) oxalate
(d) Potassium trioxalato aluminate (IV).
Answer:
(b) Potassium trioxalato aluminate (III)

Question 4.
AgCl is soluble in aqueous ammonia due to formation of:
(a) [Ag(NH₃)²⁺
(b) [Ag(NH₄)₂]⁺
(c) [Ag(NH₃ )₄ ]⁺
(d) [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺.
Answer:
(d) [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺.

Question 5.
Which of the following gives a white precipitate in aqueous solution with silver nitrate :
(a) [Cr(NH₃)₅Cl](NO₂)₂
(b) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(c) [Pt(CN)₂Cl₂]
(d) [Pt(NH₃)₂]Cl₂.
Answer:
(d) [Pt(NH₃)₂]Cl₂.

Question 6.
Correct nomenclature of Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃ is :
(a) Ferroso ferric cyanide
(b) Ferric ferrous hexacyanate
(c) Iron (III) hexacyanoferrate (III)
(d) Hexa cyano ferrate (III-II).
Answer:
(c) Iron (III) hexacyanoferrate (III)

Question 7.
Number of geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] will be :
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Four.
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 8.
In co-ordination compounds, coordination number of metal is :
(a) Equal to primary valency
(b) Sum of primary and secondary valency
(c) Equal to secondary valency
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Equal to secondary valency

Question 9.
In which of the following complex, oxidation state of metal is zero :
(a) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(b) [Cr(CO)₆]
(c) [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃]
(d) [Cr(CN)₂Cl₂].
Answer:
(b) [Cr(CO)₆]

Question 10.
Which of the following is not an organometallic compound :
(a) Ethyl magnesium bromide
(b) Tetra-ethyl lead
(c) Sodium ethoxide
(d) Tetra methyl aluminium.
Answer:
(c) Sodium ethoxide

Question 11.
Co-ordination number of Fe in [Fe(CN)₆]^4-, (Fe(CN)₆]^3- and [Fe(Cl)₄]^– is:
(a) 2, 2, 3
(b) 6, 6, 4
(c) 6, 3, 3
(d) 6, 4, 6.
Answer:
(b) 6, 6, 4

Question 12.
Example of dsp² hybridization is:
(a) [Fe(CN)₆]^3-
(b) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-
(c) [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺
(d) [FeF₆]^3-
Answer:
(b) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-

Question 13.
Which of the following complex is used as an anti-cancer agent:
(a) trans[Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃]
(b) cis[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(c) cis-K₂[PtCl₂Br₂]
(d) Na₂CO₃.
Answer:
(b) cis[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]

Question 14.
Correct order of hybridization of central atoms in NH₃.[PtCl₄]^2- PCl₅ and BCl₃ is:
(a) dsp², dsp³, sp² and sp³
(b) sp³, sp³, sp² and sp²
(c) dsp², sp², sp³ and dsp³
(d) dsp², sp³, sp² and dsp³
Answer:
(b) sp³, sp³, sp² and sp²

Question 15.
Oxidation state of Fe in Fe(CO)₅ complex is:
(a) -1
(b) +2
(c) +4
(d) Zero.
Answer:
(d) Zero.

Question 16.
Grignard reagent is:
(a) Organometallic compound
(b) Complex compound
(c) Double salt
(d) Neutral compound.
Answer:
(a) Organometallic compound

Question 17.
Structure of complex salts was proposed by:
(a) Berzelius
(b) Werner
(c) Raoult
(d) Faraday.
Answer:
(b) Werner

Question 18.
Mohrs salt is :
(a) Double salt
(b) Complex salt
(c) Neutral salt
(d) Reagent.
Answer:
(a) Double salt

Question 19.
The formula of sodium nitro prusside is :
(a) Na₄ [Fe (CN)₅ NO₅]
(b) Na₂ [Fe (CN)₅ NO]
(c) NaFe [Fe (CN)₆]
(d) Na₂ [Fe (CN)₆ NO₂].
Answer:
(b) Na₂ [Fe (CN)₅ NO]

Question 20.
Which of the following compound is different:
(a) Potassium ferrocyanide
(b) Ferrous ammonium sulphate
(c) Potassium ferricyanide
(d) Tetrammine copper (II) sulphate.
Answer:
(b) Ferrous ammonium sulphate

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. cis [Pt(NH₃)2Cl₂] complex is used as an …………………… agent.
2. Haemoglobin is a …………………… compound of iron.
3. Geometrical isomerism is found in both …………………… and …………………… complexes.
4. Oxidation state of Ni in Ni(CO)₄ is ……………………
5. Diethyl zinc is a …………………… compound.
6. The correct I.U.P.A.C. name of K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is ……………………
7. Oxidation state of Co in [Co (E.D.T.A)] is ……………………
8. The formula of dibromo chlorotriaquo chromium (III) is ……………………
9. [COF₆]^-3 is a spin …………………… complex.
10. The formula of antiknock organo-metallic substance is ……………………
11. E. D. T. A is …………………… ligand.

Answers:

1. Anti-cancer
2. Complex
3. Tetrahedral, Octahedral
4. Zero
5. Organo-metallic compound
6. Pottassium hexacyano ferrate (II)
7. +3
8. [Cr(H₂O)₃Cl Br₂]
9. High
10. Tetra ethyl lead (C₂H₅)₄Pb
11. Hexadentate.

Question 3.
Match the following :

Answer:

1. (h)
2. (g)
3. (f)
4. (e)
5. (b)
6. (d)
7. (a)
8. (c)
9. (i).

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence :

1. Which type of isomerism is found in [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ and [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br ?
2. Name the organo-metallic compound which is used as an antiknock compound in petrol.
3. Complexes of E.D.T.A. formed with calcium is used to remove the poisoning caused due to which metal ?
4. How is the structure of dibenzene ?
5. What type of hybridization is found in [Ni(CO)₄] ?
6. Which type of isomerism is represented by [Cr(H₂O)₅SCN]²⁺ and [Cr(H₂O)₅NCS]²⁺ ?

Answers:

1. Ionization isomerism
2. Tetra ethyl lead
3. Lead
4. Sandwich
5. sp³
6. Linkage isomerism.

Coordination Compounds Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain double salt and complex salt. Give one-one example of each.
Answer:
Double salt: Double salts are additive compounds which are stable in the crys-tal lattice but when dissolved in water break into different compounds.
Example : Ferrous ammonium sulphate is a double salt which ionise in water as

Complex salt : The compounds in which ligand with lone-pair electron are linked with any metal atom or metal ion by coordinate bonds, are called coordination compounds. In these compounds metal ion and ligand in combined state act as complex ion and thus these compounds are also known as complex compounds.
Example : K₄[Fe(CN)₆].

Question 2.
Explain Ambidentate ligand.
Answer:
Ligands which contain more than one atom to donate electron pair to central metal atom but it donates through one atom at a time are known as ambidentate ligand.
Example : NO₂^– ion ligand can co-ordinate to central metal atom either through N or by O.

Question 3.
What do you understand by ligand ? Explain giving example.
Answer:
Ligand : Any atom, ion or molecule which can donate electron pair to central ion and forms co-ordinate bond are called ligand. Example : In K₄[Fe(CN)₆], CN is ligand.

In ligand the specific atom which donates the electron pair is known as donor atom. On the basis of number of donor atoms in a ligand, they are classified as monodentate, bidentate, tridentate, polydentate ligands. Some such ligands are given below :

Question 4.
What is complex ion ?
Answer:
Complex Ion : A complex ion is an electrically charged redical or a species, carrying either positive or negative charge, in which the central metal ion is surrounded through co-ordinate bond by a suitable number of ligands (neutral molecules or negative ions).

Example : Complex ferrocyanide ion[Fe(CN)₆]^4- is formed by the union of six CN^– ions with one Fe²⁺ ion. While writing the formula of a complex ion, the co-ordinating groups are written inside the bracket ( ), and the whole of the complex ion in a square bracket [ ]. The net charges is written on right hand top comer of the square bracket.

The square bracket is known as co-ordination sphere.

Question 5.
Give example of bidentate and hexadentate ligand.
Answer:
Bidentate ligand :

Hexadentate ligand:

Question 6.
The following are two coordination complexes.

1. [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
2. Na₃ [Cr(CN)₆]

Read the following statements and identify the wrong one/s, then correct them.
(a) The IUPAC names of both end in ‘ate’.
(b) Secondary valency of both is equal to three.
(c) Both can show ionization isomerism.
(d) Oxidation number of central metal in both is +3.
(e) Both can exhibit optical isomerism.
Answer:
(a) Wrong. IUPAC name of (ii) only ends in ‘ate’.
(b) Wrong. The secondary valency of both is 6.
(c) Wrong. Both cannot exhibit optical isomerism.

Question 7.
What are organometallic compounds ? Write its two applications.
Answer:
Those compounds in which the carbon atom of organic groups are directly bonded to metal atoms are called organometallic compound. The compound of element such as boron, phosphorus, silicon, germanium and antimony with organic groups are also included in the organometallics.

Applications of organometallic compounds :

1. Tetra ethyl lead (C₂H₅)₄ Pb is used as on antiknock compound.
2. Ziegler-Natta catalysis is used in the polymerization of ethylene or other alkenes.
3. Ethyl mercuric chloride (C₂H₅HgCl) is used in agriculture as an insecticide.
4. Willkinson catalyst is used in the hydrogenation of some alkenes.

Question 8.
Explain geometrical isomerism with an example.
Answer:
Geometrical isomerism : When the ligands are situated at different position around the metal it gives rise to geometrical isomerism. The isomer in which similar groups are in adjacent position (making an angle 90° with metal ion) is called c/s-isomer. The iso-mer in which the similar group occupy the opposite position (making an angle of 180° with metal ion) is called trans-isomer.

This type of isomerism is observed in square planar (CN = 4) and octahedral (CN = 6) type of complexes.

Question 9.
Explain the principle of Werner with the example of K₄[Fe(CN)₆] complex.
Answer:
The various terms used for a co-ordination compound are shown in the following example:

(i) When it is dissolved in water it does not break into its constitutent ions K⁺, Fe²⁺, CN^– but it forms K⁺ and complex ion [Fe(CN)₆]^4-.
(ii) IUPAC name of the compound is Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II).
(iii) Ionisation of K₄Fe(CN)₆ in aqueous solution.

According to Werner’s theory : Central metal atom in the compound is Fe whose oxidation number (Primary valency) is 4 and co-ordination number (Secondary valency) is 6.

Question 10.
Explain structure of [Ni(CN)₄]^2- on the basis of valence bond theory.
Answer:
In [Ni(CN)₄]^2- ion, Nickel is present as Ni²⁺ ion and its valency shell configuration is

Co-ordination number of Ni²⁺ in this complex ion is 4 and experimentally it is found to be diamagnetic. This is possible if it does not have unpaired electron i.e., \(3 d_{z^{2}}\) gives its electron to 3d_x²-y² Now \(3 d_{z^{2}}\), 4s, 4p_x and 4p_y orbital hybridizes forming four dsp² hybrid orbital oriented along the comer of a planar square.

These hybrids accept lone pair of electron from four CN^– ion forming σ – bonds. Now there is no unpaired electron in it. Therefore, [Ni(CN)₄]^2- is diamagnetic.

Question 11.
What is effective atomic number (EAN)?
Answer:
In co-ordination compounds, sum of electrons present in central metal ion and electrons received in bond formation is called effective atomic number.
EAN = Atomic number – Electrons lost in ion formation + Electrons obtained in bond formation
In K₄[Fe(CN)₆]EAN for Fe = 26 – 2 + 12 = 36.

Question 12.
Write the I.U.P.A.C. names of the following compounds:
(i) (a) [Hgl₄]^2-
(b) [Ag (CN)₂]^–
(c) [Fe (C₅H₅)2l
(d) K [Ag (CN)₂
(ii) What is Zeise’s Salt and Ferrocene ? Explain with structure.
Answer:
(i) (a) Tetraiodomercurate (II) ion.
(b) Dicyanoargentate (I) ion.
(c) Bis (cyclopentadienyl) iron (II).
(d) Potassium dicyano argentate (I).
(ii) (a) Zeise’s salt K [PtCl₃ – n² (C₂H₄):

This salt was prepared by Danish pharmacist Zeise in 1830. it is one of the compound of transition metals which was prepared earlier. The plane of ethylene molecule and the C = C axis are perpendicular to the expected bond direction of the central atom.

(b) Ferrocene Fe (n⁵ – C₅H₅)₂: It is an orange-yellow coloured compound. Kealy and Pauson reported it in 1951. It has sandwich structure in which iron atom is in between two cyclopentadienyl rings. The planes of the rings are parallel so that all the carbon atoms are equidistant from iron atom.

Question 13.
What are chelates? Give example. Write importance of Chelate.
Answer:
Chelates is a multidentate ligand which co-ordinates with central metal atom to form ring compound, the process is called chelation.

Importance of chelate ligands :

1. In qualitative analysis, for the detection of some elements.
2. They are used in the separation of lanthanides and actinides.
3. In softening of hard water.

Question 14.
What is the difference between primary and secondary valency? Give example also.
Answer:
Primary valency is ionisable while secondary valency does not ionise. Primary valency is represented in figure by solid lines and secondary valency by broken or dotted lines.
Example : [Co (NH₃)₆] Cl₃, primary valency is 3 and secondary valency is 6.

Question 15.
What is the importance of coordination compound in extraction of metals?
Answer:
In metallurgy, extraction of metals like gold and silver is down by forming complexes. Metals are converted into soluble cyanide complexes by treating with dilute cyanide solution. These soluble complexes liberate metals when treated with electropositive metals like zinc.

Question 16.
Write I.U.P.A.C. name of the following :
(a) [CU(NH₃)₄]SO₄
(b) [Cr(H₂O)₆ ]Cl₃
(c) [Pt(NH₃)₆]Cl₄
(d) K₂[HgI₄].
Answer:
(a) Tetraammine copper (II) sulphate
(b) Hexaaquo chromium (III) chloride
(c) Hexaammine platinum (IV) chloride
(d) Potassium tetraiodomercurate (II).

Question 17.
Explain differences between Double salt and Complex compound.
Answer:
Differences between Double salt and Complex compound:

Double salt

1. Addition compound in solid-state but ionize in components when dissolved in the water.
2. These dissociate into constituent ions in an aqueous solution.
3. The physical and chemical properties are similar to the properties of constituents.
4. The nature of bond is ionic or electro-valent.

Complex compound

1. Stable in solid or in solution may be partialy ionize in to complex ion.
2. When dissolved in water form a complex ion.
3. Physical and chemical properties of complex compounds are quite different from constituents.
4. In complex compound, the bond present between the central metal ion and ligand is always co-ordinate.

Question 18.
Write the chemical formulae of the following :
(a) Trinitritotriamminecobalt (III)
(b) Tris (ethylenediamine) Chromium (III) chloride.
(c) Pentacarbonyliron (0)
(d) Tetrachloroplatinate (II) ion.
Answer:
(a) [Co(NH₃)₃(ONO)₃]
(b) [Cr (en)₃]Cl₃
(c) [Fe (CO)₅]
(d) [Pt Cl₄]^2-

Question 19.
Write IUPAC name of the following :

1. K₄[Ni(CN)₄]
2. H₂[CUCl₄]
3. [Ag(NH₃)₂]Cl
4. [Ni(CO)₄].

Answer:

1. Potassium tetracyanonickelate (0)
2. Hydrogen tetrachloro cuprate (II)
3. Diammine silver (I) chloride.
4. Tetra carbonyl nickel (0).

Question 20.
Explain Linkage and Ionisation isomerism with example.
Answer:
Linkage isomerism : Linkage isomerism occurs when different atoms of the ligand are attached to the central metal ion. The structure obtained are called linkage isomers. Such type of ligands are called ambidentate ligand.

In structure I Ni²⁺ is linked by thiocyanate sulphur and in structure II it is linked by nitrogen atom.
Ionisation Isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which have same composition but liberate different ions in solution.
[Co (NH₃)₅ Br]SO₄ – It liberates SO^2-₄ ions.
[Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br – It liberates Br^– ions.

Question 21.
(i) Write I.U.P.A.C. name of

(ii) Write the ligands and co-ordination number of the complex [Cr (NH₃)₄(ONO) Cl]NO₃.
(iii) Write chemical formula of carbonate pentaammine cobalt (III) chloride.
Answer:
(i) µ -amido- µ -hydroxobis-(tetraammine cobalt) (III) ion.
(ii) Ligands (a) NH₃, (b) ONO, (c) Cl. Thus, number of ligands are 3 and co-ordination number is 6.
(iii) [CO(NH₃)₅CO₃]Cl.

Question 22.
Write IUPAC names of the following complex compounds.

1. NH₄[Cr(NH₃)₂ (NCS)₄]
2. K₂[Pt Cl₆]
3. [CoCI(en)₂NH₃]⁺⁺,
4. K[Pt(NH₃)Cl₅]
5. [Fe(CO)₅].

Answer:

1. Ammonium tetraisothiocyanatodiamminechromate (III)
2. Potassium hexachloroplatinate (IV)
3. Chlorobis-(ethylenediamine) amminecobalt (III).
4. Potassium pentachioroammineplatinate (IV).
5. Pentacarbonyl iron.

Question 23.
Write IUPAC name of the following :

1. Li(AlH₄)
2. [Cr(NH₃)₆](NO₃)₃
3. (Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃
4. K₄[Fe(CN)₆]

Answer:

1. Lithium tetrahydridoaluminate (III)
2. Hexaammine chromium (III) nitrate
3. Hexaaquoch’romium (III) chloride
4. Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II).

Question 24.
Explain optical isomerism in co-ordination compounds.
Answer:
Optical isomerism : This type of isomerism is observed in such similar compounds which are the mirror images of each other and are non-superimposable. They rotate the path of plane polarized light to the left (l) or to the right (d).

Question 25.
Describe important applications of organometallic compounds.
Answer:
Important applications of organometallic compounds are :

1. In medicine : Antiseptics like mercurochrome, mercury hydrix tincture are organometallic compounds of mercury.
2. In agriculture: Organometallic compounds of mercury like ethyl mercury chloride is used for treatment of seeds.
3. Antiknock compound : Tetraethyl lead (TEL) is an important antiknock compound.
4. In industries : Organolithium and organoaluminium compounds are used as catalyst for the manufacture of dyes and chemicals.
5. In chemical synthesis: Grignards reagent and organolithium compounds are useful in synthesis of organic compound.
6. Catalyst: Organometallic compounds of transition metals acts as heterogeneous catalyst, e.g., Wilkinson’s catalyst -(Ph₃P)₃ RhCl is used in hydrogenation of double bonds.

Question 26.
Write IUPAC names of the following :

1. [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃
2. [Ag (NH₃)₂]CI
3. H₂[CuCl₄]
4. [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
5. K₂[PtCl₆]
6. [Pt Cl₄(NH₃)₂]

Answer:

1. Hexaaquachromium (III) chloride.
2. Diammine silver (I) chloride.
3. Hydrogen tetrachlorocuprate (II).
4. Hexammine cobalt (III) chloride.
5. Potassium hexa cloroplatinum (IV).
6. Diammine tetrachloroplatinum (IV).

Question 27.
Write IUPAC name of the following co-ordination compounds :

1. K[Ag(CN)₂]
2. K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
3. [Ag(NH₃)₂]Cl
4. [Cr(NH₃)₆]Cl₃.

Answer:

1. Potassium dicyanoargentate (I).
2. Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II).
3. Diamminesilver (I) chloride.
4. Hexamminechromium (III) chloride.

Question 28.
Explain ionization isomerism and hydrate isomerism in coordination complexes giving suitable example.
Answer:
Ionization isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which have same composition but liberate different ions in solution.
Example : [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ (dark violet). It liberates SO^2-₄ ions in solution, whereas [Co(NH₃)₅ SO₄] (red) liberates Br^– ions in solution. Both of these are ionization isomers.
Hydrate isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which differ in the number of molecules of water inside the coordination sphere.

Example : The three hydrate isomers of are as follows :

1. [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ (violet)
2. [Cr(H₂O)5Cl]Cl₂.H₂O (green)
3. [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]Cl.2H₂O (darkgreen).

Question 29.
Write chemical formulae of the following co-ordination compounds :
(a) Hexammine cobalt (III) chloride
(b) Tetrammine copper (II) sulphate
(c) Tetrammine platinum (II) chloride
(d) Potassiumhexacyanoferrate (II).
Answer:
(a) [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
(b) [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄
(c) [Pt(NH₃)₄]Cl₂
(d) K₄[Fe^II(CN)₆].

Question 30.
Write chemical formulae of the following co-ordination compounds :
(a) Chloropentammine cobalt (II) chloride
(b) Potassiumdicyanoargentate (I)
(c) Hexaquachromium (III) chloride
(d) Tetracyano nickelate (I)
Answer:
(a) [CO(NH₃)5Cl]Cl₂
(b) K[Ag(CN)₂]
(c) [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃
(d) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-.

Question 31.
Write chemical formulae of co-ordination compounds :
(a) Hexammineplatinum (IV) chloride
(b) Potassiumhexacynoferrate (III)
(c) Dichlorodiammine platinum (II)
(d) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
Answer:
(a) [Pt(NH₃)₆]Cl₄
(b) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
(c) [Pt(NH₃)2Cl₂]
(d) Na₂[Fe(CN)₅NO]

Question 32.
Write IUPAC name of the following :
(a) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(b) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
(c) [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
(d) Pt[(NH₃)₆]Cl₄
(e) CuCl^2-₄.
Answer:
(a) Diachlorodiammine platinum (II)
(b) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
(c) Hexammine cobalt (III) chloride
(d) Hexammine platinum (IV) chloride
(e) Tetrachlorocuprate (II).

Question 33.
Write IUPAC name of the following :
(a) K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
(b) [Cr(NH₃)₆(NO₂)₃]
(c) [Ni(CN)₃]CI₃
(d) K₂[Pt(Cl)₆]
(e) Ni (CO)₄ U.
Answer:
(a) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
(b) Trinitrohexammine chromium (III)
(c) Tricyanonickel (III) chloride
(d) Potassiumhexachloro platinate (IV)
(e) Tetracarbonylnickel (0).

Question 34.
[NiCI₄]^-2 is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)₄] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why ?
Answer:
In [NiCl₄]^-2, Ni is +2 oxidation state with the configuration 4s⁰3d⁸. Cl^– is weak ligand. It cannot pair up electrons in 3d- orbitals. Hence, it is paramagnetic. In [Ni(CO)₄], Ni is in zero oxidation state with the configuration 4s² 3d⁸. In the presence of CO ligand the 45 electron shift to 3d to pair up 3d electrons. Thus, there is no unpaired electron present. Hence, it is diamagnetic.

Question 35.
How will you differentiate [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ between and [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br ?
Answer:
Both these complexes are ionisation isomers. First will give white precipitate (BaSO₄) with BaCl₂, second will give no precipitate with BaCl₂. Similarly, second complex [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br will give yellow precipitate with AgNO₃ whereas first will not give any precipitate.

Coordination Compounds Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Find the oxidation no. of central metal in the following :
(a) [Pt(NH₃)₃Cl₃]^–
(b) [Zn(H₂O)₃OH]⁺
(c) Na₄[Ni(CN)₄]
(d) K₂[Zn(OH)₄]
Answer:

Question 2.
Give methods of preparation of following (one method for each):
(i) Tetrabutyl tin
(ii) Tetraethyl lead
(iii) n-butyl lithium
(iv) Ferrocene
(v) Nickel tetracarbonyl
(vi) Zeise’s salt.
Answer:
(i) Tetra butyl Tin:

(ii) Tetraethyl lead:

(iii) n-butyl lithium:

(iv) Ferrocene:

(v) Nickel tetracarbonyl:

(vi) Zeise’s salt:

Question 3.
Explain the structure of [Ni(CO)₄] on the basis of valence bond theory.
Answer:
Structure of [Ni(CO)₄]: In nickel tetracarbonyl oxidation state of nickel atom is zero (0). Electronic configuration of Ni is 4s² 3d⁸ or 3d¹⁰. As a result of sp³ hybridization four sp³ orbitals are formed in tetrahedral form which are vacant. Four CO molecule join with them, as a result of which tetrahedral nickel tetracarbonyl molecule is formed.

Question 4.
Explain the structure of [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺ on the basis of valence bond theory.
Answer:
Structure of [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺ Tetraammine zinc (II) ion : Outer electronic configuration of zinc (Z = 30) in ground state is 3d¹⁰ 4s². In this complex zinc is in + 2 oxidation state with the outer electronic configuration of 3d¹⁰.
The 3d orbital being completely filled does not take part in hybridization. The vacant 4s and 4p orbitals hybridize and form four hybridized sp3 rorbitais directed

towards the four comers of a tetrahedron. The four lone pairs from four NH₃ overlap with these sp³ orbitals and forms four cr-bonds. The compound is diamagnetic as it does not contain unpaired electrons.

Question 5.
Explain optical isomerism with the example of tetrahedral and octahedral co-ordinate compounds.
Answer:
Optical Isomerism : Optical isomers are sensitive to plane polarised light. When light passed through the solution of optically active substances these rotates the light-plane in clockwise or anticlockwise direction.

This type of isomerism is exhibited by the substances which are mirror image of each other but cannot be superimposed. Optical isomerism is shown by the substances which have minimum one assymmetric carbon atom.

The compound which rotate plane polarized light in left side are called l-isomers and which rotate in right side called d-isomers. These types of isomerism are generally found in tetrahedral complex [-CN = 4] and octahedral complex [-CN = 6].

(i) Tetrahedral complex : [As (CH₃) (C₂H₅) (S) (C₆H₄COO)]²⁺

(ii) Octahedral complex : [CO(en)₂]³⁺

Question 6.
Write the application of complex compounds in the extraction of metals and detection of metal ions.
Answers:
(i) In extraction of metals: Silver and gold ores are treated with NaCN solution and form soluble complex.
(a) Silver glance (Ag₂S) dissolves in NaCN solution and forms soluble complex Na- [Ag(CN)₂] from which Ag is precipitated by adding Zn dust.
Ag₂S + 4NaCN → 2Na[Ag(CN)₂] + Na₂S
2Na [Ag(CN)₂ ] + Zn → Na₂ [Zn (CN)₄] + 2 Ag ↓

(b) Gold is found in native state. Its powdered ore is kept in NaCN or KCN solution for 12 to 24 hours. Au dissolves by forming soluble complex K[Au(CN)₂], Now zinc sharings are added to precipitate Au.
4AU + 8KCN + 2H₂O + O₂ (from air) → 4K[Au(CN)₂] + 4KOH
2K[AU(CN)₂] + Zn → K₂ [Zn(CN)₄] + 2Au ↓

(ii) In the detection of metal ion : In the qualitative analysis of Ni²⁺ a scarlet pink colour complex is obtained with (D.M.G.) dimethyl glyoxine

Question 7.
Explain crystal field theory.
Answer:
This theory was proposed by Bethe and Von Black. According to this theory bonding between central metal ion and ligand is due to pure electrostatic attraction. If ligand is anion then attraction towards cation is just like the attraction between two oppositely charged particles. If ligand is neutral molecule then the anionic end of this dipole is attracted to central positive ion. Thus, bonding between them is due to ion-ion attraction or ion dipole attraction.

In crystal field theory due to approaching ligands the d-orbitals split into different energy levels on the basis of extent of splitting (depend on metal ion and nature of ligand) structure and properties of complex can be discussed. Colour of transition metal complex is due to absorption of visible light which leads to excitation of electron from one d-orbital to the other d-orbital (d-d transition). This way this theory is easy and successfully explains maximum properties of the complexes.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 7 उड़ता चल कबूतर (यात्रा वृत्तांत, रामवृक्ष बेनीपुरी)

उड़ता चल कबूतर अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सोनभद्र नदी किस प्रदेश में बहती है?
उत्तर:
सोनभद्र नदी बिहार प्रदेश में बहती है।

प्रश्न 2.
यूरोप यात्रा पर जाने के लिए किसने पत्र लिखा?
उत्तर:
यूरोप यात्रा पर जाने के लिए सन् 1947 ई. में आचार्य नरेन्द्र देव ने पत्र लिखा।

प्रश्न 3.
जयप्रकाश जी को किस-किसकी चिन्ता थी?
उत्तर:
जयप्रकाश जी को दैनिक-पत्र ‘जनता’ की चिन्ता थी और आगामी आम चुनाव की भी चिन्ता थी।

प्रश्न 4.
बिहार से चलने के बाद लेखक का प्लेन कौन-से शहर में उतरा?
उत्तर:
बिहार से चलने के बाद लेखक का प्लेन बनारस शहर में उतरा।

प्रश्न 5.
शरीर की भंगिमा द्वारा भाव प्रकट करने वाले व्यक्ति का नाम क्या था?
उत्तर:
शरीर की भंगिमा द्वारा भाव प्रकट करने वाले व्यक्ति का नाम उदय शंकर था।

प्रश्न 6.
ननिहाल जाते समय लेखक की हाथी के साथ क्या घटना घटी?
उत्तर:
ननिहाल जाते समय लेखक एक हाथी पर चढ़कर ऊँचे आसन पर बैठकर आनन्द लेना चाहता था पर हाथी की वह सवारी भीतरी मन को जितना आनन्द नहीं दे पाई उससे ज्यादा मन में भय बैठा गई थी।

प्रश्न 7.
बर्नार्ड शा ने अंग्रेजों के बारे में क्या लिखा है?
उत्तर:
बर्नार्ड शा ने अंग्रेजों के बारे में लिखा है कि इस कौम के दिल में कोई इरादा जागता है तो वह इस तरह उसे छिपाकर रखती है कि एक दिन यह इरादा एक ज्वलन्त विश्वास में परिणत हो जाता है और इस विश्वास की अखण्ड ज्योति, इसमें इतनी शक्ति पैदा कर देती है कि वह जो चाहती है, उसे करके ही दम लेती है।

प्रश्न 8.
ब्रजनन्दन आजाद ने तार के द्वारा क्या सूचना दी?
उत्तर:
ब्रजनन्दन आजाद ने तार के द्वारा विलायत जाने की तैयारी करने की सूचना दी।

प्रश्न 9.
गोरे अंग्रेज ने हिन्दी के बारे में क्या कहा?
उत्तर:
गोरे अंग्रेज ने हिन्दी के बारे में कहा कि आजकल हिन्दी को लोग संस्कृत बना रहे हैं। प्रेमचन्द की हिन्दी कितनी अच्छी थी। पटना के हिन्दी अखबार तक ऐसी हिन्दी लिखते हैं कि उनका अर्थ समझने के लिए डिक्शनरी की जरूरत होती है।

प्रश्न 10.
दिल्ली के राजभवन में कौन-कौन से चित्र लगे थे?
उत्तर:
दिल्ली के राजभवन में वायसराय के चित्र, अंग्रेजों द्वारा बनाये गये भवनों के चित्र, उन युद्धों के चित्र जिनमें विजयी बनकर अंग्रेज भारत के शासक हुए। सुरक्षा की दृष्टि से ये चित्र राजभवन को म्यूजियम मानकर लगा दिये गये थे।

प्रश्न 11.
हवाई जहाज यात्रा के समय नीचे के दृश्यों का वर्णन लेखक ने किस प्रकार किया है?
उत्तर:
हवाई जहाज यात्रा के समय नीचे के दृश्यों का वर्णन करते हुए लेखक कहता है कि ऊपर उड़ने पर ताड़ के वृक्ष छोटे-छोटे लगते हैं। धरती की सीमाएँ जैसे सिमटी जा रही हैं। खेत ऐसे लग रहे हैं जैसे मुसल्लम धारीदार चादर हो। तेजधूप में गंगा का कछार हिमालय की सीढ़ी का पहला जीना जैसा लग रहा था। नीचे की सारी चीजें छोटी होती जा रही हैं। ताड़-खजूर आम-नीम सब छोटे-छोटे से पौधे लग रहे हैं। पृथ्वी शतरंज की एक लम्बी विसात सी लगती है। जैसे-जैसे हम ऊँचे चढ़ते जाते हैं भेदभाव मिटते जाते हैं, सीमाएँ नष्ट हो जाती हैं और एकरूपता बढ़ती जाती है।

प्रश्न 12.
अन्तर्मन और बहिर्मन का परस्पर क्या सम्बन्ध है? उदाहरण द्वारा स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
प्रत्येक वस्तु के दो पहलू होते हैं-आन्तरिक और बाह्य। इसी प्रकार मानव मन के भी दो पहलू होते हैं-अन्तर्मन और बहिर्मन। जब किसी वस्तु के प्रति हमारा आकर्षण अधिक होता है तो हमारा बहिर्मन उस वस्तु को प्राप्त करने का प्रयास करता है। अभिप्राय यह है कि अन्तर्मन किसी के भी बारे में सोचता रहता है, योजनाएँ बनाता रहता है पर उन योजनाओं को कार्य रूप में परिणत नहीं कर पाता है। उन योजनाओं को कार्य रूप में ‘परिणत करता है बहिर्मन। इस प्रकार हम कह सकते हैं कि अन्तर्मन का कार्य योजना बनाना है और उसे क्रिया रूप में परिणत करता है बहिर्मन। अत: इन दोनों का परस्पर अटूट सम्बन्ध है। एक के बिना दूसरे का काम नहीं चल सकता है।

प्रश्न 13.
बनारस में उदय शंकर जी से लेखक की क्या बातचीत हुई?
उत्तर:
जब लेखक बिहार से चलकर बनारस हवाई अड्डे पर उतरा तो उसने लॉन में किसी को बैठा देखा। उसे देखकर लेखक की जो बातचीत हुई, वह इस प्रकार है-“क्षमा करें, क्या आप उदय शंकर हैं?”

“जी हाँ, आप मुझे पहचानते हैं?” जी, मैं भी एक छोटा-मोटा कलाकार ही हूँ। जिसे आप शरीर की भंगिमा द्वारा प्रकट करते हैं, उसे मैं कलम द्वारा उतारने की कोशिश करता हूँ।”

“अपने कला-केन्द्र के बारे में कुछ बता ………”
हाँ, सोच रहा हूँ, 1952 में उसे अल्मोड़ा के बदले देहरादून में खोलूँ। देहरादून बड़ी अच्छी जगह है।” मैने बताया लेखनीधारी का बेटा राइफलधारी बनने जा रहा है। “देश को उसकी भी जरूरत है। अच्छा किया है।”

प्रश्न 14.
भावार्थ स्पष्ट कीजिए-“ज्यों-ज्यों ऊँचे चढ़िए भेदभाव मिटते जाते हैं। सीमाएँ नष्ट होती जाती हैं, एकरूपता बढ़ती जाती है।”
उत्तर:
भावार्थ-लेखक कहता है कि ज्यों-ज्यों हम हवाई जहाज के द्वारा ऊपर आकाश की ओर बढ़ते जाते हैं, नीचे की सब वस्तुएँ एकसी दिखाई देने लगती हैं। इस यात्रा में सीमाएँ नष्ट होती जाती हैं और ऐसा लगता है कि सारा संसार, सारी पृथ्वी एक ही है।

MP Board Class 9th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 4 Journal

Journal Important Questions

Journal Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The first book of original entry is –
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial Balance
(d)None of these.
Answer:
(b) Ledger

Question 2.
‘Drawings’ falls under which account –
(a) Personal account
(b) Real account
(c) Nominal account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Personal account

Question 3.
Income tax is treated as –
(a) Business Expense
(b) Direct Expense
(c) Personal Expense
(d) Indirect Expense.
Answer:
(d) Indirect Expense.

Question 4.
A cheque on which two parallel lines are drawn in the left top corner is called –
(a) Bearer cheque
(b) Traveller’s cheque
(c) Account payee cheque
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Account payee cheque

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The amount which cannot be recovered from debtors is called ……………..
2. The account in which amount can be deposited or withdrawn daily and which allows no interest on deposit is called ……………..
3. The discount allowed on cash transactions is called ……………..
4. Sales account always shows …………….. balance.

Answer:

1. Bad debts
2. Current account
3. Cash discount
4. Credit.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (c).

Question 4.
State True or False:

1. Weekly information is sought from the subsidiary books.
2. Drawings account is a personal account.
3. Purchase account is always debited.
4. Order for sending goods is not a business transaction.
5. Cash A/c is a real A/c.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True.

Question 5.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. Under how many heads, the accounts have been categorised for the purpose of recording transactions in Journal?
2. When a single journal entry is passed for two transactions of same nature on same date, such an entry is called?
3. Give an example of intangible asset?
4. The discount which is offered to increase sale and attract customers is called?

Answer:

1. Three
2. Compound entry
3. Goodwill
4. Trade discount.

Journal Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the rules of making Journal.
Answer:
For recording the transactions in the journal, the following points should be kept in mind:

1. Affects two accounts – Every transaction affects two accounts. Firstly, it should find out.
2. Effect on two accounts – Secondly, find out how the affected accounts are effected, i.e., which account is debited and credited.
3. Apply debit and credit – After finding the debit and credit aspect of accounts, apply the rules of debit and credit to it. The rules are as follows:

(i) Personal account:

• Debit: The receiver
• Credit: The giver.

(ii) Real account:

• Debit: What comes in
• Credit: What goes out.

(iii) Nominal account:

• Debit: All expenses and losses
• Credit: All incomes, gains and profits.

Question 2.
Give the classification of Account.
Or
Explain the types of Account.
Answer:
1. Personal Accounts:
Personal Accounts are those Accounts which are in the names of persons, firms or companies. Ex., Shubham Account, United Hospital Account, Oriental Insurance Co. Personal Account is again divided into three. It includes:

• Natural person Account
• Artificial person Account
• Representative personal Account.

2. Real Account:
Real Accounts are those accounts which relate to things or properties. Ex. Buildings, Furniture, Machinery etc. It is again divided into two. It includes:

• Tangible Real Accounts
• Intangible Real Account.

3. Nominal Account:
These are the accounts of expenses, incomes, profits or losses. Ex. Salary account, Interesi Account, Loss on Sale of goods, Profit on sale, etc:

• Rule : Debit – All Expenses or losses.
• Credit – All Incomes or gains.

Question 3.
Trade discount is not entered in the books of accounts. Explain.
Answer:
Trade discount is included in the invoice price of a commodity and that invoice price should also be included with cost price and profit of the commodity, i.e., without bearing the risk of loss, the trader can easily sell the goods. In this way the seller also sells the goods to the customers by showing invoice price without any loss and does his service. So, either the seller or the buyer doesn’t enter trade discount in his books of accounts.

Question 4.
Describe ledger of goods account.
Answer:
Classification of goods A/c are as follows:

1. Purchase A/c – Whatever goods are being purchased weather it is in cash or credit all the goods are entered in purchase A/c.
2. Sales – Whatever goods are being sold cash or credit entered in sales A/c.
3. Purchase return – Whatever goods are returned by trader to its supplier is entered in purchase return A/c.
4. Sales returns – Whatever sold goods are returned by customer to trader is entered in sales return A/c.
5. Stock – Whatever goods remains unsold during the current year is called stock and entered it in stock A/c.

Journal Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the need of preparing journal.
Or
Explain the importance of Journal, (any four)
Or
Explain some objectives of Journal.
Answer:
Due to the following reasons journal is made:

1. For complete knowledge – It is essential to record the transactions in the journal for complete knowledge. Journal facilitates this need.
2. Helps ledger accounts – Journal helps to prepare ledger accounts, i. e., The preparation of ledger accounts depends on journal.
3. A short description – At the end of each journal entry a short description about the transaction, called narration is written. It gives a complete idea of transaction.
4. Knowledge of daily transactions – In journal transactions are recorded daily. If it is needed to know, the transactions of a particular date, it can be obtained from the journal.
5. Proof of evidence – If any dispute arises, journal helps to produce it as an evidence in the court.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions