Prasanna

MP Board Class 8th Sanskrit निबन्ध-रचना

(1) उद्यानम्

1. उद्यानम् अत्यन्तं रमणीयम् भवति।
2. उद्याने वृक्षाः रोहन्ति।
3. वृक्षाः पर्णैः, पुष्प, फलैः च शोभन्ते।
4. बालकाः उद्याने क्रीडन्ति।
5. उद्याने तडागः अपि अस्ति।
6. जनाः उद्याने भ्रमणार्थं गच्छन्ति।
7. खगाः वृक्षेषुः निवसन्ति।
8. तत्र ते नीडान् रचयन्ति।
9. प्रभाते खगानां कूजनम् मनोहरम् भवति।
10. वर्तमानकाले वृक्षारोपणकार्य तीव्रगत्या प्रसरति।

(2) विद्यालयः

1. मम विद्यालयः ‘गुराडियामाता’ ग्रामे स्थितः अस्ति।
2. विद्यालयस्य भवनम् अतीवसुन्दरम् अस्ति।
3. अहम् प्रतिदिनं विद्यालयं गच्छामि।
4. अहं विद्यालयं गत्वा गुरुन् प्रणमामि
5. गुरवः स्नेहेन पठम् पाठयन्ति
6. विद्यालये एकम् उद्यानम् अपि अस्ति।
7. विद्यालये एकः पुस्तकालयः अस्ति।
8. विद्यालये एक विशालं क्रीडाक्षेत्रम् अस्ति।
9. तत्र छात्राः क्रीडन्ति।
10. विद्यालयः मह्यम् अतीव रोचते।

(3) धेनुः

1. धेनुः अस्माकम् माता अस्ति।
2. धेनोः चत्वारः पादाः, द्वे,शृङ्गे, एकं लाङ्गलं च भवति।
3. धेनूनां विविधाः वर्णाः भवन्ति।
4. धेनुः तृणानि भक्षयति।
5. धेनुः जनेभ्यः मधुरम्. पयः प्रयच्छति।
6. गोमूत्रेण विविधानां दोषाणां रोगाणां च नाशः भवति।
7. धेनोः दुग्धेन दधि, तक्रम, नवनीतम्, घृतम् च निर्मितम् भवति
8. भारतीयसंस्कृतौ धेनूनाम् महत्त्वम् अधिकम् अस्ति।
9. धेनोः दुग्धम् मधुरम्, पथ्यम् हितकारि च भवति।
10. वयं धेनुम् मातृरूपेण पूजयामः।

(4) मम कर्त्तव्यम्

1. लोकहितं मम कर्त्तव्यम्।
2. देशसेवां करणं मम कर्त्तव्यम्।
3. सर्वजनसम्मानं मम कर्त्तव्यम्
4. सर्वजनहितं मम कर्त्तव्यम्।
5. समयेन विद्यालयगमनं मम कर्त्तव्यम्।
6. सर्वैः सह मधुरभाषणं मम कर्त्तव्यम्।
7. राष्ट्रध्वजसम्मानं मम कर्त्तव्यम्।
8. राष्ट्रगानसम्मानं मम कर्त्तव्यम्।
9. ध्यानेन पठनम् मम कर्त्तव्यम्।
10. गुरुजनसम्मानं मम कर्त्तव्यम्।

(5) पुस्तकम्

1. पुस्तकानि मह्यम् अतीव रोचन्ते।
2. मम समीपे बहूनिपुस्तकानि सन्ति।
3. पुस्तकानि अतीव मनोहराणि सन्ति।
4. मम समीपे चित्रपुस्तकम् अपि अस्ति।
5. रमणीयं चित्रं चित्तम् आनन्दयति।
6. स्तकानि ज्ञानस्य भण्डारः भवन्ति।
7. पुस्तकानि अस्माकं मित्राणि सन्ति।
8. पुस्तकानां सङ्गतिः लाभप्रदा भवति।
9. अस्माभिः पुस्तकानि रक्षणीयानि।
10. स्वगृहे लघुः पुस्तकालयो निर्मातव्यः।
11. पुस्तकेषु यत्र कुत्रचित् न लेखनीयम्।

(6) विवेकानन्दः

1. स्वामी विवेकानन्दस्य बाल्यकालस्य नाम ‘नरेन्द्रनाथः’ आसीत्।
2. स्वामी विवेकानन्दस्य जन्म कोलकातानगरे अभवत्।
3. स्वामी विवेकानन्दस्य पिता ‘विश्वनाथदत्त’! आसीत्।
4. स्वामी विवेकानन्दस्य माता ‘भुवनेश्वरी देवी’ आसीत्।
5. स्वामी विवेकानन्दस्य गुरुः ‘रामकृष्णपरमहंसः’ आसीत्।
6. स्वामी विवेकानन्दस्य शिष्या ‘भगिनी निवेदिता’ आसीत्।
7. स्वामी विवेकानन्दः यूनां कृते पथप्रदर्शकः आसीत्।
8. स्वामी विवेकानन्दः संस्कृतानुरागी आसीत्।
9. नरेन्द्रनाथः ‘स्वामी विवेकानन्दः’ इति नाम्ना प्रसिद्धोऽभवत्।
10. स्वामी विवेकानन्दस्य बहवः शिष्याः अभवन्।

(7) अनुशासनम्

1. मानव जीवने अनुशासनस्य विशेष महत्त्वम् अस्ति।
2. अनुशासनम् विना जीवनं कष्टमयं भवति।
3. समाजे नियमानाम् पालनम् एष अनुशासनं भवति।
4. अनुशासनं विना कोऽपि कार्य सफलं न भवति।
5. सामाजिकम् परिवारिकम् च व्यवस्थायै अनुशासनम् परमावश्यकम् अस्ति।
6. राष्ट्रस्य प्रगतये अपि अनुशासनम् अत्यावश्यकम् अस्ति।
7. मानवतायाः विकासाया छात्रेषु अनुशासनम् अनिवार्यम् अस्ति।
8. प्रकृतिः अपि ईश्वरस्य अनुशासने परिलक्ष्यते।
9. अनुशासनस्य पालनस्य भावना बाल्यकालादेव प्रवर्तते।
10. अतः अस्माभिः जीवनस्य प्रत्येके क्षेत्रे अनुशासनस्य पालनम् करणीयम्।

(8) मध्यप्रदेशः

1. मध्यप्रदेशः भारतगणराज्यस्य विशालं राज्यम् अस्ति।
2. अस्मिन् प्रदेशे अनेकानि नगराणि सन्ति।
3. तत्र औद्योगिक विकासः तीव्र गत्या अभवत्।
4. अनेकानि रमणीकानि नगराणि सन्ति।
5. तानि विद्यायाः केन्द्राणि सन्ति।
6. तेषु नगरेषु अनेके विद्यालयाः महाविद्यालयाः विश्वविद्यालयाः सन्ति।
7. विविध विषयानाम् ज्ञानम् तेषु गुरुभिः प्रदीयते।
8. अस्य प्रदेशस्य राजधानी भोपालनगरम् अस्ति।
9. अस्य नगरस्य महत्वम् प्राचीनकालात् एव वर्तते।
10. इदम् नगरम् सरोवराणाम्। उद्यानाम् च अस्ति।
11. राष्ट्रस्य विकासे मध्यप्रदेशस्य अति महत्त्वम् वर्तते।

(9) महात्मा गाँधी

1. महात्मा गाँधी अस्माकं महापुरुषः अस्ति।
2. सः। अहिंसाम् परिपालयन् स्वदेशं वैदेशिकेभ्यः अयुञ्चयत्।
3. महात्मा गाँधिनः वास्तविक नाम मोहनदास गाँधी आसीत्।
4. तस्य पितुः नाम करमचन्द गाँधी तस्य मातु च नाम पुतलीबाई आसीत्।
5. तस्य माता अति धार्मिक प्रवृत्येः आसीत्।
6. तस्य पिता तस्मिन् अत्यन्तं अस्निह्यत्।
7. उच्च शिक्षा प्राप्तुं सः विदेशं अगच्छत्।
8. स्वतन्त्रतासंग्रामस्य सः प्रमुख नेता आसीत्।
9. तस्य प्रेरणया एवं जनाः स्वतन्त्रता आन्दोलने अक्षपिन् स्वदेशं स्वतन्त्रमकुर्वन।
10. महात्मा गाँधी सम्पूर्ण संसारस्य वन्दनीयः अस्ति।

(10) दीपावलिः

1. दीपावलिः एकः धार्मिकः उत्सवः अस्ति।
2. दीपावलिः उत्सवः शरत्कालस्य मध्ये भवति।
3. मनुष्या स्व-स्व गृहाणि गोमयेन, मृत्तिकया, सुधया वा निर्दोषाणि कुर्वन्ति।
4. श्रुयते यद् अयम् मुख्य-रूपेण वैश्यानाम् उत्सवः अस्ति।
5. अस्मिन् दिने सर्वे जनाः प्रसन्नाः भवन्ति।
6. गृहे-गृहे मिष्ठानानां निर्माणं। भवति।
7. सर्वे लक्ष्मीपूजनं कुर्वन्ति।
8. सर्वाणि भवनानि सुन्दराणि राजन्ते।
9. दीपावलिः प्रकाशस्य उत्सवः अस्ति।
10. रात्रौ दीपकानाम् आभा सर्वेषाम् मनांसि हरति।

(11) महापुरुषः-आजादचन्द्रशेखरः

1. महांश्चासौ पुरुषः इति महापुरुषः।
2. पुरुषः महत्कार्यं कृत्वा महापुरुषः भवति।
3. समाजहितार्थं राष्ट्रहितार्थं च यानि कार्याणि भवन्ति, तानि एव महत्कार्याणि भवन्ति।
4. चन्द्रशेखरः आजादः एवमेव राष्ट्रसेवी महापुरुषः अस्ति।
5. १९०६ख्रीस्ताब्दे आजादचन्द्रशेखरस्य जन्म अभवत्।
6. अस्य जन्मभूमिः अलीराजपुरमण्डलस्य ‘भाभरा’ नामकग्रामे अस्ति।
7. तस्य पिता सीतारामतिवारी, माता च जगरानीदेवी आसीत्।
8. चन्द्रशेखरस्य अध्ययनं वाराणस्यां संस्कृतविद्यालये अभवत्।
9. सः हिन्दुस्तान-सोसलिस्ट-रिपब्लिकन आर्मी नाम्ना सङ्घटनं कृतवान्।
10. आजादचन्द्रशेखरः १९३१ ख्रिस्ताब्दे इलाहाबादनगरे (प्रयागनगरे) वीरगति प्राप्नोत्।

MP Board Class 8th Sanskrit Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Chapter 33 Africa: Economic Development

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 33 Text Book Questions

Choose the correct alternatives:

Question 1.
The total % of cultivable land in Africa is:
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c.) 30%
(d) 40%
Answer:
(a) 10%

Question 2.
Agriculture has developed the most in the area of:
(a) Sahara desert
(b) Nile Valley
(c) Central Africa
(d) S. Africa
Answer:
(b) Nile Valley

Question 3.
Africa produces 90% of the world’s:
(a) Groundnuts
(b) Coco
(c) Cloves
(d) Tea
Answer:
(c) Cloves

Question 4.
The length of the cap e-Cairo Railways is:
(a) 5620 km
(b) 4530 km
(c) 6710 km
(d) 8800 km
Answer:
(d) 8800 km

Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………. per cent of the world’s diamonds are mined in Africa
2. …………… is the major producer of cotton in Africa.
3. The world’s famous sea route is the ………….. canal.
4. The ……………. is the capital of Zimbabwe.
5. The total population of Africa is approximately ……………. crores.

Answer:

1. 50%
2. Egypt
3. Suez
4. Harare
5. 54

Match the Columns:

Answer:
1. (c) Major food crop
2. (d) South Africa
3. (e) Desert
4. (a) Tribe
5. (b) Railway

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 33 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which type of cotton is produced in Africa?
Answer:
Fibrous cotton is produced in Africa.

Question 2.
Write the name of two important minerals of Africa?
Answer:
Diamond and Gold.

Question 3.
Name the important items of Africa’s import and export.
Answer:
Items of import:
Cotton, woolen and silk clothes, sugar, cement, medicines, chemicals, machines, railway goods, paper, etc. Items of export: Gold, diamond, machinery, food items, coffee, oil-seeds, natural gas, oil, pulses, i coco, petroleum, etc.

Question 4.
To which areas do the Bushman, Tureg and Pygmy tribe belong?
Answer:

1. Tribe            The area to which they belong
2. Bushman     The Kalahari desert
3. Tureg           The Sahara desert
4. Pygmy         Forest of Central Africa

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 33 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the areas of cultivation of the major crops of Africa.
Answer:
In Africa only 10% of the soil is suitable for agriculture. The major crops grown in Africa are:
1. Wheat and Barley:
Mainly cultivated in Egypt Algeria and Morocco.

2. Maize:
It is cultivated mainly in Belgium, Congo, Angola, Kenya and Morocco.

3. Cotton:
Five per cent of cotton in the world is produced by Africa. Egypt is the largest producer of cotton in Africa Kenya, Uganda and Nigeria are the other major cotton producer countries.

4. Groundnuts:
Africa produces 22% of the groundnuts in the world. Major producing countries are Niger, Sudan and Nigeria

5. Coco:
World’s total 50% of the coco is produced in Ghana, Nigeria and Uganda.

6. Rice:
Major producers of rice are Malagasy, Senegal and Nigeria

7. Cloves:
Zanzibar and Pemba islands produce 90% of cloves in the world.

Question 2.
Describe the industrial development of Africa.
Answer:
Africa is mostly covered by plateaus and deep forests due to which the means of transport is not well developed. It is the main cause which has hampered the industrial progress. The important agriculture-based industries are wine, sugar, cotton clothes, cigarettes and extractions of olive oil, etc.

The leather and woolen industries have also progressed due to cattle and sheep rearing. The large industries have flourished in mostly South Africa and Egypt where iron and steel, cement, garments and utensils are manufactured. Pretoria, Johanseburg, Durban, Cairo, Alexandria are the main centers of industries.

Question 3.
Write about the mineral resources of Africa.
Answer:
Africa is very rich in several valuable minerals. It is the leading diamond producer 50% of the diamonds in the world is mined here. Major producers are Zaire, Botswana and South Africa. Africa produces more than 50% of the gold in the world.

Major producing countries are South Africa, Central African Republic, Southern Rhodesia and Ghana. Copper is produced in Congo, Zambia and South Africa. Manganese is found in Ghana and South Africa. Iron is found in Morocco, Algeria and Tunisia Apart from these minerals, several other minerals like uranium, tin, lead, chromium etc. are also found in Africa.

Map work:
Make the following in the map of Africa.

1. Nile Valley
2. Zanzibar and Pemba Islands
3. Suez route
4. Diamond mining area
5. South Africa
6. Cape – Cairo Railway

Answer:

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 8th Maths Solutions Chapter 10 ठोस आकारों का चित्रण Intext Questions

पाठान्तर्गत प्रश्नोत्तर

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या में 163-164

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित का मिलान कीजिए (आपके लिए, पहला मिलान किया हुआ है) –

उत्तर:

(a) → (ii) द्वि-विमीय → (iii) वर्ग
(b) → (iii) त्रि-विमीय → (vii) शंकु
(c) → (i) त्रि-विमीय → (ii) बेलन
(d) → (iv) द्वि-विमीय → (viii) त्रिभुज
(e) → (v) त्रि-विमीय → (vi) घन
(f) → (vii) द्वि-विमीय → (iv) वृत्त
(g) → (vi) त्रि-विमीय → (v) घनाभ
(h) → (viii) त्रि-विमीय → (i) गोला।

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 164-165

इन्हें कीजिए (क्रमांक 10.1)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित चित्रों (वस्तुओं) का उनके आकारों से मिलान कीजिए –

उत्तर:

(i) → (c)
(ii) → (d)
(iii) → (e)
(iv) → (b)
(v) → (a).

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 165

3 – D आकारों के दृश्य

प्रश्न 1.
एक गिलास के निम्नलिखित दृश्य हो सकते हैं –

एक गिलास का ऊपर से दृश्य (top view) संकेन्द्रीय वृत्तों का एक युग्म क्यों है? यदि इसे भिन्न दिशा से देखा जाए, तो क्या पार्श्व दृश्य कुछ और प्रकार का प्रतीत होगा ? इसके बारे में सोचिए।
उत्तर:
एक गिलास का ऊपर से दृश्य संकेन्द्रीय वृत्तों का एक युग्म है क्योंकि इस स्थिति में हम गिलास के ऊपर और नीचे की स्थिति देखते हैं जो कि विभिन्न त्रिज्याओं के वृत्त हैं। ऊपर के वृत्त के केन्द्र नीचे वाले वृत्त के ठीक नीचे हैं। नहीं, इसको भिन्न दिशा से देखने पर इसका पार्श्व दृश्य कुछ और प्रकार का प्रतीत नहीं होगा।

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 166

इन्हें कीजिए (क्रमांक 10.2)

प्रश्न 1.
अपने आस-पास की विभिन्न वस्तुओं को विभिन्न स्थितियों से देखिए। अपने मित्रों के साथ उनके विभिन्न दृश्यों की चर्चा कीजिए।
उत्तर:
छात्र स्वयं करके देखें।

MP Board Class 8th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Miscellaneous Questions 3

Choose the correct alternatives:

Question 1.
The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between:
(a) The Marathas and Ahmedshah Abdali
(b) Aurangzeb and the Turks
(c) The Sikhs and Ahmedshah Abdali
(d) The Sikhs and the Marathas
Answer:
(a) The Marathas and Ahmedshah Abdali

Question 2.
During the reign of Akbar the Mughal Empire was divided into:
(a) 20 subas
(b) 22 subas
(c) 18 subas
(d) 11 subas
Answer:
(c) 18 subas

Question 3.
The major tribe of Andhra Pradesh is:
(a) Kahar
(b) Chenchus
(c) Bhil
(d) Saharia
Answer:
(b) Chenchus

Question 4.
The world Conference on Human Right was held in Vienna in the year:
(a) 1997
(b) 1991
(c) 1993
(d) 2001
Answer:
(c) 1993

Fill in the blanks:

1. Europe is the ……………… largest continent in the world.
2. The density of population is …………….. in Africa.
3. …………… was die founder of Sikhism
4. Jamia in Chhindwara district is a ……………. tourist place.
5. There is a Chief Justice and ……………. Justices in the Supreme Court of India.

Answer:

1. second
2. low
3. Guru-Nanak
4. tribal
5. 25.

Match the columns:

Answer:
1. (b) Sparse population
2. (a) Desert
3. (d) Sursagar
4. (e) Buland Darwaza
5. (c) Toda tribe

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Miscellaneous Questions 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the continent of Asia.
Answer:

• Latitudinal extent – 10’s and 80’N.
• Longitudinal extent – 25’E and 170’W.

Question 2.
Write the main features of the continent of Europe.
Answer:

• The continent of Europe is centrally situated between the continents of Africa, Asia, North America and South America and connected with sea route.
• Most part of Europe lies in the temperate zone. The climate here is favorable throughout the year.
• The sea coasts are very long and uneven which is favorable for the ships to reach the harbors.

Question 3.
Write about the climatic features of the continent of Africa.
Answer:
Africa is avast continent from North to South extending between 37° 14’N to 34°50’S latitude. The major part lies within die tropical zone. There are marked variations in the distribution of rainfall. For example near the equator, rainfalls all the year round, but in the Sahara desert it does not fall at all.

Near the Equator there is only one season, the hot wet summer but in the northern and the southern parts of Africa climate varies. There are regions in the South Africa where rain occurs in the winter. There are regions where rain occurs only in summers.

Question 4.
Between whom was the treaty of Purander signed?
Answer:
The treaty of Purander was signed between the Mughal and Shivaji.

Question 5.
Write any three rights of Child.
Answer:
Three rights of child

• Right to live.
• Right to education.
• Right to protect against exploitation.

Question 6.
Describe the main crops cultivated in Africa.
Answer:
The main crops cultivated in Africa are wheat, barley, maize, cotton, groundnuts, coco, rice, cloves, etc.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Miscellaneous Questions 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the physical division of the continent of Asia.
Answer:
physical divisions:
1. The North Lowlands:
It is a vast plain which extends between the Ural Mountains in die west, Lena river in the east and the Central Mountains in the south, known as the ‘Siberian Plain’, it is drained by rivers like Ob, Yenisei and Lena Lake Baikal, die deepest lake of die world is located in Siberia.

2. The Central Mountains:
The folded mountains and plateaus lie in the south of the northern lowlands. The Pamir plateau is a meeting place of several ranges, which form the Pamir knot This plateau is known as die ‘Roof of the World’, because it is the highest plateau in the world. The Tibetan plateau lies to the east of the Pamir plateau. Himalayas are the highest mountain ranges of the world. Mount Everest is situated in the Himalayas.

3. The Southern Plateaus:
To the south of the central mountain belt, there’ are some plateau which form the major part of the peninsula projecting southwards from the mainland of Asia. These plateaus are the plateau of Arabia, the Deccan plateau and the plateau of Yunnan.

4. The Great River Valleys:
To the east and south of Asia are found riverineplains. In the south are the Sindhu, Ganga, Brahmaputra plains, in the southeast are the plains formed by rivers Irrawady, Salvin, Yang-Tse-Kiang, Sikiang, Minang- Mekong and Amursar.

5. The Island Groups:
Some groups of islands are situated to the south-east and east of the continent of Asia. There are three major island groups-Indonesia, Philippines and Japan.

Question 2.
Write the important Human Rights.
Answer:
Human Rights are those rights which every human being must enjoy. These Rights make it possible for us to lead a good social life. The United Nations Organisation promoted worldwide respect to these Rights and basic freedom and its implementation without any discrimination of caste, sex, language orreligion. The Economic and Social Council of die UNO established the Human Rights Commission in its first session in Feb. 1946.

This Commission after long deliberations put up a draft for the world wide declaration of Human Rights in 1948 which was approved by die General Assembly of the UNO. In the world wide declaration of Human Rights, the civic and die political freedom have been mentioned.

It also includes the economic, social and cultural Rights, The Human Rights are considered to be the most important documents of the world. These rights form the foundation of the society. These Rights are also used to strengthen the feeling of brotherhood.

Question 3.
Describe the physical division of Europe.
Answer:
Europe has been divided into four physical divisions:

1. The North western Highlands
2. The Great European Plains
3. The Central Plateaus
4. The Southern Alpine Mountains

1. The North Western Highlands:
In the North western part of Europe there are mountains and plateaus. Their extent is more in the countries like Norway and Sweden. The coast line of Norway is indented, ragged, long and narrow and the deep arms of the sea between high cliffs penetrate into the land. Here the land is not fit for cultivation. Hence population is very thin.

2. The Great Europe Piains:
They are spread from France at the Atlantic coast to the European part of Russia at Ural Mountains. They are widest in Russia and go on narrowing towards the west It extends from the white sea in the north to the Southern plateaus and mountain in the south. There plains are very fertile. The important rivers are Volga, Danube, Seine, the Rhine, the Alvin, the Order etc.

3. The Central Plateau:
A series of mountains and plateaus are spread to the Southern part of the European plains. They are notoriety high. It is not fit for agriculture.

4. The Southern Alpine Mountains:
To die south of the old mountains live a chain of young and high mountain. These mountains extend from Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Caspian Sea in the east The most important among them is die Alps Mountain. Mount Blanca is the highest peak of the Alps.

Question 4.
Explain the important features of Shivaji’s administration.
Answer:
Shivaji was not only a great general but also a good administrator of top order. Shivaji’s administration was of high order which inspired by ideals of public welfare. Though Shivaji was all in all, in all matters, he kept a committee of 8 persons to advise him on the affairs of the state. This committee came to be known as Ashta Pradhan. This was file main feature of Shivaji’s administration.

The main source of income was the tax on the land which amounted to two – fifths of file land produce. Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were also levied on those living outside Maratha kingdom. Chauth was one fourth of the tax which farmers paid such kingdoms by their peasants. Sardeshmukhi was over and above this tax. It was one tenth of the total revenue, from which these taxes were collected, remained free from the Maratha looting’s and attacks.

For the smooth and efficient administration, Shivaji divided his kingdom into a number of provinces known as prants, and each prant into districts and parganas. In this way Shivaji proved himself as an able administrator.

Question 5.
How far is right to blame Aurangzeb for the decline of the Mughal Empire? Justify.
Answer:
Aurangzeb’s responsibility for the decline of the Mughal Empire can be stated as under:

• His fanatic religious policy sowed the seeds of the Mughal’s decline.
• His Deccan policy wanted not only his energy, but was responsible in emptying his treasury as well.
• Aurangzeb’s was responsible for annoying flie Rajputs who had become die Mughal friends during the reign of Akbar.
• Aurangzeb policy towards the Sikhs made the latter his enemies.
• He himself was man of suspicious nature. He would set his detectives after the officers appointed by Jahangir himself.

Question 6.
Describe the social situation during the Mughal Empire.
Answer:

The Mughal Emperors were great lovers of architecture. The buildings of this period reflect the fusion of Hindu – Muslim – style of architecture. The tomb of Humayun is an excellent piece of architecture. Akbar built the city of Fatehpur Sikri in which besides Buland Darwaza many beautiful buildings were also constructed. Noorjahan built the tomb of her father Itmad – ud – daulah that was decorated wife precious gems.

The Tajmahal built by Shahjahan in fee memory of his Begun Mumtaz is fee best example of architecture of Mughal period. It has been included in fee World Heritage Site. Shahjahan also built – Jama Masjid at Delhi and Agra, The Red Fort of Delhi, Shish Mahal etc. The Moti Masjid was built by Aurangzeb. Thus we can find magnificent buildings during fee Mughal period.

Question 7.
Write a short note on Public Interest Litigation.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is a mechanism devised by the Supreme Court of India in the early 1980s to increase access to justice. Under this mechanism any individual or organisation is allowed to file a PIL in the High Court or the Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights are being violated.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 6th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 अपनी संख्याओं की जानकारी Ex 1.2

प्रश्न 1.
किसी स्कूल में चार दिन के लिए एक पुस्तक प्रदर्शनी आयोजित की गई। पहले, दूसरे, तीसरे और अन्तिम दिन खिड़की पर क्रमशः 1094, 1812, 2050 और 2751 टिकट बेचे गए। इन चार दिनों में बेचे गए टिकटों की कुल संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
चार दिनों में बेचे गए टिकटों की संख्या
= 1094 + 1812 + 2050 + 2751
= 7707

प्रश्न 2.
शेखर एक प्रसिद्ध क्रिकेट खिलाड़ी है। वह टैस्ट मैचों में अब तक 6980 रन बना चुका है। वह 10,000 रन पूरे करना चाहता है। उसे कितने और रनों की आवश्यकता है ?
हल :
∵ शेखर द्वारा बनाए गए रन = 6,980
उसे रन पूरे करने हैं = 10,000
∴ और आवश्यक रनों की संख्या = 10,000 – 6,980
= 3020

प्रश्न 3.
एक चुनाव में सफल प्रत्याशी ने 5,77,500 मत प्राप्त किए, जबकि उसके निकटतम प्रतिद्वन्द्वी ने 3,48,700 मत प्राप्त किए। सफल प्रत्याशी ने चुनाव कितने मतों से जीता?
हल :
∵सफल प्रत्याशी द्वारा प्राप्त मतों की
संख्या = 5,77,500
प्रतिद्वन्द्वी द्वारा प्राप्त मतों की संख्या = 3,48,700
सफल प्रत्याशी की जीत हुई = 577500 – 348700
= 2,28,800 मतों से

प्रश्न 4.
कीर्ति बुक-स्टोर ने जून के प्रथम सप्ताह में Rs 2,85,891 मूल्य की पुस्तकें बेचीं। इसी माह के दूसरे सप्ताह में Rs 4,00,768 मूल्य की पुस्तकें बेची गईं ? किस सप्ताह में बिक्री अधिक हुई और कितनी अधिक ?
हल :
प्रथम सप्ताह में पुस्तकों की बिक्री = Rs 2,85,891
दूसरे सप्ताह में पुस्तकों की बिक्री = Rs 4,00,768
दोनों सप्ताहों में पुस्तकों की कुल बिक्री
= 2,85,891 + 4,00,768
= Rs 6,86,659
स्पष्ट है कि दूसरे सप्ताह में पुस्तकों की अधिक बिक्री हुई
= 4,00,768 – 2,85,891
= Rs 1,14,877

प्रश्न 5.
अंकों 6, 2, 7, 4 और 3 में से प्रत्येक का केवल एक बार प्रयोग करते हुए बनाई जा सकने वाली सबसे बड़ी और सबसे छोटी संख्याओं का अन्तर ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
दिए हुए अंक हैं- 6, 2, 7, 4 और 3
इन अंकों से बनी सबसे बड़ी संख्या = 76,432
इन अंकों से बनी सबसे छोटी संख्या = 23,467
इन संख्याओं का अन्तर = 76,432 – 23,467
= 52,965

प्रश्न 6.
एक मशीन औसतन एक दिन में 2,825 पेंच बनाती है। जनवरी 2006 में उस मशीन ने कितने पेंच बनाए ?
हल :
जनवरी 2006 में दिनों की संख्या = 31
∵1 दिन में बने पेंचों की संख्या = 2,825
∴31 दिनों में बने पेंचों की संख्या = 31 x 2825
= 87,575
∴जनवरी 2006 में दिनों की संख्या = 87,575

प्रश्न 7.
एक व्यापारी के पास Rs 78,592 थे। उसने 40 रेडियो खरीदने का ऑर्डर दिया तथा प्रत्येक रेडियो का मूल्य Rs 1200 था। इस खरीदारी के बाद उसके पास कितनी धनराशि शेष रह जाएगी ?
हल :
खरीदे गए रेडियो की संख्या = 40
1 रेडियो का मूल्य = Rs 1200
∴40 रेडियो का मूल्य = 40 x 1200
= Rs 48,000
∵व्यापारी के पास कुल रुपए = Rs 78,592
∴रेडियो खरीदने के बाद व्यापारी के पास शेष धनराशि
= 78,592 – 48,000
= Rs 30,592

प्रश्न 8.
एक विद्यार्थी ने 7236 को 56 के स्थान पर 65 से गुण कर दिया। उसका उत्तर सही उत्तर से कितना अधिक था ? (संकेतः दोनों गुणा करना आवश्यक नहीं।)
हल :
अभीष्ट गुणनफल = 7236 x 56
विद्यार्थी द्वारा किया गुणनफल = 7236 x 65
दोनों गुणनफलों का अंतर = 7236 x 65 – 7236 x 56
= 7236 x (65 – 56)
= 7236 x 9
= 65124
अतः उसका उत्तर सही उत्तर से 65124 अधिक है।

प्रश्न 9.
एक कमीज सीने के लिए 2 मी 15 सेमी कपड़े की आवश्यकता है। 40 मीटर कपड़े में से कितनी कमीजें सी जा सकती हैं और कितना कपड़ा शेष बच जाएगा?
हल :
1 कमीज में लगा कपड़ा = 2 मी 15 सेमी.
= 200 सेमी + 15 सेमी
= 215 सेमी
कुल कपड़ा = 40 मीटर = 40 x 100 सेमी
= 4000 सेमी
कुल कपड़े में से सिली गई कमीजों की संख्या = \(\frac { 4000 }{ 215 }\)

अतः 40 मी कपड़े में से 18 कमीजें सिल सकती हैं और 130 सेमी (1 मी 30 सेमी) कपड़ा बच जाएगा।

प्रश्न 10.
दवाइयों को बक्सों में भरा गया है और ऐसे प्रत्येक बक्स का भार 4 किग्रा 500 ग्रा है। एक वैन (van) में जो 800 किग्रा से अधिक का भार नहीं ले जा सकती ऐसे कितने बक्से लादे जा सकते हैं ?
हल :
1 बक्से का भार = 4 किलो 500 ग्रा
= 4500 ग्रा
अधिकतम भार जो वैन में रखा जा सकता है = 800 किग्रा
= 800 x 1000 ग्राम = 800000 ग्राम

अतः वैन में 177 बक्से रखे जा सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
एक स्कूल और किसी विद्यार्थी के घर के बीच की दूरी 1 किमी 875 मी है। प्रत्येक दिन यह दूरी दो बार तय की जाती है। 6 दिन में उस विद्यार्थी द्वारा तय की गई कुल दूरी ज्ञात कीजिए। हल :
स्कूल और घर के बीच की दूरी
= 1 किमी 875 मी
= 1000 मी + 875 मी
= 1875 मी
∵विद्यार्थी द्वारा एक दिन में तय की गई दूरी
= 2 x 1875 मी
= 3750 मी
अतः 6 दिन में विद्यार्थी द्वारा तय की गई दूरी
= 6 x 3750 मी
= 22500 मी
= 22 किमी 500 मी

प्रश्न 12.
एक बर्तन में 4 ली 500 मिली दही है। 25 मिली धारिता वाले कितने गिलासों में इसे भरा जा सकता है?
हल :
∵4 ली 500 मिली
= 4 x 1000 मिली + 500 मिली
= 4000 मिली + 500 मिली
= 4500 मिली
गिलास की धारिता = 25 मिली
∵भरे गए गिलासों की संख्या = \(\frac { 4500 }{ 25 }\) = 180

अतः 180 गिलास भरे जा सकते हैं।

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 19

प्रश्न 1.
(a) ज्ञात कीजिए कि कौन-से झण्डे 270 की तुलना में 260 के अधिक समीप हैं ?
(b) ज्ञात कीजिए कि कौन-से झण्डे 260 की तुलना में 270 के अधिक समीप हैं ?
हल :
(a) 261 और 263 झण्डे 260 के अधिक समीप हैं
(b) 267 और 269 झण्डे 270 के अधिक समीप हैं।

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 20

प्रयास कीजिए

प्रश्न a.
इन संख्याओं को निकटतम दहाई तक सन्निकटित कीजिए :
28 32 52 41 39 48
64 59 99 215 1453 2936
हल :

प्रश्न 1.
जाँच कीजिए कि निम्नलिखित सन्निकटन (सैकड़े तक) सही हैं या नहीं :
(i) 841 → 800
(ii) 9537 → 9500
(iii) 49730 → 49700
(iv) 2546 → 2500
(v) 286 → 300
(vi) 5750 → 5800
(vii) 168 → 200
(viii) 149 → 100
(ix) 9870 → 9800
उन्हें सही कीजिए जो गलत हैं।
उत्तर-
(i) सही,
(ii) सही,
(iii) सही,
(iv) सही,
(v) सही,
(vi) सही,
(vii) सही,
(viii) सही,
(ix) गलत है, सन्निकटन 9900 है।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित सन्निकटनों की जाँच कीजिए और उन्हें सही कीजिए जो गलत हैं :
(i) 2573 → 3000
(ii) 53552 → 53000
(iii) 6404 → 6000
(iv) 65437 → 65000
(v) 7805 → 7000
(vi) 3499 → 4000
उत्तर-
(i) सही,
(ii) गलत, सही 53552 → 54000,
(iv) सही.
(v) गलत, सही 7805 → 7800;
(vi) गलत, सही 3499 → 30001

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 21

प्रयास कीजिए

प्रश्न 1.
दी हुई संख्या को निकटतम दहाई, सौ, हजार और दस हजार तक सन्निकटित कीजिए :
हल :

पाठ्य-पुस्तक पृष्ठ संख्या # 23

प्रयास कीजिए

प्रश्न 1.
निम्न गुणनफलों का आकलन कीजिए :
(a) 87 x 313
(b) 9 x 795
(c) 898 x 785
(d) 958 x 387
ऐसे ही पाँच और प्रश्न बनाइए और उन्हें हल कीजिए।
हल :
(a) 87 x 313
∵ 87 → 90 (दहाई के सन्निकटित)
313 → 300 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
∴ गुणनफल का आकलन = 90 x 300 = 27000

(b) 9 x 795
∵9 → 10 (दहाई के सन्निकटित)
795 → 800 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
∴गुणनफल का आकलन = 10 x 800 = 8000

(c) 898 x 785
∵898 → 900 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
785 → 800 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
∴गुणनफल का आकलन = 900 x 800 = 720000

(d) 958 x 387
∵958 → 1000 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
387 → 400 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
∴गुणनफल का आकलन = 1000 x 400 = 400000

पाँच और प्रश्न
(i) 78 x 412
(ii) 8 x 989
(iii) 789 x 876
(iv) 65 x 193
(v) 868 x 486
हल :
(i) ∵78 → 80 (दस के सन्निकटित)
412 → 400 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
∴गुणनफल का आकलन = 80 x 400 = 32000

(ii) ∵8 → 10 (दहाई के सन्निकटित)
989 → 1000 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
∴गुणनफल का आकलन = 10 x 1000 = 10000

(iii) ∵789 → 800 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
876 → 900 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
∴गुणनफल का आकलन = 800 x 900 = 720000

(iv) ∵65 → 70 (दहाई के सन्निकटित)
193 → 200 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
∴गुणनफल का आकलन = 70 x 200 = 14000

(v) ∵868 → 900 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
486 → 500 (सौ के सन्निकटित)
∴गुणनफल का आकलन = 900 x 500 = 450000

MP Board Class 6th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 Globe and Map

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Chapter 6 Globe and Map Text Book Exercise

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Chapter 6 Globe and Map Short Answer Type Questions 

Question 1.
Question (a)
What is a globe?
Answer:
Globe is a three dimensional model of earth or sphere, which gives us the correct idea of the shape of the earth.

Question (b)
What information can we get from a globe? Write any five?
Answer:
The following information we can get from a globe:

1. The earth is a bit flat at the poles.
2. The shape of earth is spheroid.
3. The earth is not straight on its axis but a little tilted.
4. The globe shows the location of oceans, islands, continents, main mountains and countries, etc.
5. The characteristics of the horizontal and vertical lines drawn on the globe.

Question (c)
What is a scale?
Answer:
1. The scale of the map is a measuring line with the help of which correct distance between various points on a map can be measured. The scale of map is, a ratio between any two points on the maps and actual distance on the land.

2. It can be a millimetre, a centimetre or an inch to represent a kilometre, a hundred kilometre or a thousand kilometre or even still larger distances. On some maps the scale is not given as a line but is mentioned in words. For instance, it may be given as 1 centimetre = 100 kilometre

3. It means that one centimetre on the map is equal to one hundred kilometre on the ground.

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Chapter 6 Globe and Map Long Answer Type Questions

Question 2.
Question (a)
What should we know to read a map? Explain any two.
Answer:
A map can be read and understand as a book is read and information is gathered from it. A map can be made and read on four basic points. These are:

1. Symbol
2. Direction
3. Headings
4. Scale

1. Symbol:
It is the third important component of any map. When an area or locality is shown on a map, it is not possible to show various features, e.g., roads, building, trees, railway lines in their actual shape and size. To overcome this difficulty, the features are shown by different symbols. The use of symbols saves space and a lot of information can be given in a single map.

Various colours in maps are chosen for the same purpose. All over the world there has been some kind of agreement regarding the use of symbols and colours. The symbols used all over the world in various maps are called conventional symbols.

2.  Direction:
It is another very important component of any map. A map has four directions i.e., north, south, east and west. While knowing any one direction on map we fan find all the remaining directions.

3.  Headings:
Heading is the one of the component of read a map. “Structure” to their code that identifies main headings and subheadings. Headings Map creates a visual heading structure of the webpage by generating an index or ‘map’ of the headings created by the author.

4.  Scale:
The scale of the map is a measuring line with the help of which correct distance between various points on a map can be measured. The scale of map is, a ratio between any two points on the maps and actual distance on the land.

5. It can be a millimetre, a centimetre or an inch to represent a kilometre, a hundred kilometre or a thousand kilometre or even still larger distances. On some maps the scale is not given as a line but is mentioned in words. For instance, it may be given as 1 centimetre = 100 kilometre

6. It means that one centimetre on the map is equal to one hundred kilometre on the ground.

Question (b)
Why are maps made?
Answer:
Maps are made to study any part of earth, about our country, our” state, the district in which we live or the town or the village etc.
The importance of a Globe in Geography:

1. To understand the phenomena related to the shape, inclination and movement of the planet and earth.
2. To understand the distribution of land and water on the earth.
3. To understand the extent of oceans and continents and their position on earth.
4. The globe can be rotated as the earth rotates on its axis.

The Importance of a Map in Geography:

1. Map helps us to find the exact location of the countries, states of the world.
2. Maps shows the roads and boundries of any state; district, town, city and village.
3. Maps showing physical features of the earth such as land forms of different elevations.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option given:
(seven, four, globe, map, blue)

1. The drawing of any part of the earth on a plane surface is called …………….
2. The model of the earth is called …………….
3. There are ……………… continents and oceans on earth.
4. The colour ………………… is seen most on the globe.

Answer:

1. map
2. globe
3. seven, four
4. blue

Question 4.
Match the column.

Answer:

Question 5.
Choose the correct names of the symbols given in the bracket and write in the blanks given in front of the symbol:
(district border, state border, railway line, metal road, well)

Answer:

1. State border
2. Railway line
3. District border
4. Well

Question 6.
The scale in a map is 1 cm = 20 km. What will be the actual distance shown in the map by 4 cm?
Answer:

• Here, 1 cm = 20 km
• ∴ The actual distance of 4 cm = 4 x 20 km = 80 km
  Thus, the actual distance shown in the map by 4 cm is 80 km.

Question 7.
Draw the picture of a globe below and show, equator, tropic of cancer and tropic of capricorn.
Answer:

Project Work

Question 1.
Make a list of continents, ocean, seas and islands using a globe or the map of the world. With the help of a globe write down the names of the main latitudes between the north and the south pole.
Answer:
List of Continents:

1. North America
2. South America
3. Asia
4. Europe
5. Africa
6. Australia
7. Antarctica

List of Oceans:

1. Pacific Ocean
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Indian Ocean
4. Arctic Ocean

List of Seas:
1. Arabian sea

List of Islands:
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 The Solar System and Our Earth

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Chapter 5 Text Book Exercise

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Question (a)
How does the sun get energy?
Answer:
The sun is burning like a big atomic power plant. The studies of scientists have shown that the sun is a burning body of inflammable gases in which hydrogen, helium and other gases bum and react continuously, producing heat and life for millions of years.

Question (b)
What are the three realms of earth?
Answer:
The three realms of earth are lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere.

Question (c)
Explain the importance of the sun?
Answer:
Sun is the head of the solar system. It is situated in the centre of the solar system. All the planets, the satellites the asteroids, the meteorites and the comets revolve round the sun. All these members get light and energy from the sun. About 99% part of all the matter in the Solar System is constitute in the sun. The sun is so big that all the planets together would cover only 1% of it.

The sun has tremendous force of gravity due to its such a large sizes. It is due to the gravitational force that all the planets and the satellites regularly rotate round it. The sun is a big ball of fire. It is also a storehouse of light and energy. Our earth gets light and energy from the sun. Day occurs on earth due to the light from the sun.

Question (d)
Write the names of the planets in the solar system?
Answer:
The Sun and the nine planets which revolve around it make up the ‘Family of the Sun’ Solar System.

The Solar System consists of the Sun as the centre and Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Pluto as planets. In addition, there are in all 44 satellites in our Solar System.

Question (e)
Write the difference between planets and stars?
Answer:
Difference between star and planet:

Planet:

1. A planet is a celestial body that revolves round the sun.
2. There are nine planets in our Solar System. They do not have their own heat or light.
3. Planets draw their light and energy from sun.
4. They are nine in number, including our earth.
5. The earth is an example of a planet.

Star:

1. A star is also a celestial body and is a part of galaxy.
2. There are numerous stars in a galaxy. Each star may have a family of planets.
3. A star has its own light and heat.
4. They are guite large (in billions) in number.
5. The sun is an example of a star.

Question (f)
Which is the life saving gas?
Answer:
Ozone is the life saving gas.

Question (g)
Name three important gases found on earth, which is the life giving gas among them?
Answer:
The three important gases found on earth are Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbondioxide. Oxygen is the life giving gas.

Question (h)
What is the difference between planets and statellites?
Answer:
Difference between Planet and Satellite.

Planet:

1. Roughly a planet has a spherical body.
2. It revolves round the sun in an elliptical path known as its orbit.
3. There are nine major planets.
4. The word ‘planet’ means wanderer.
5. The Earth is its good example.

Satellite:

1. A satellite has a relatively small body.
2. It revolves round its planet.
3. There are in all thirty – two satellites.
4. The word (satellite) means’companion’ or ‘attendant.’
5. The Moon is its good example. It is a satellite of the Eart

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 2.
Question (a)
What is Solar System? Make a labelled diagram of the Solar System?
Answer:
The Sun and the nine planets which revolve around it make up the family of the Sun or the Solar System. In addition to the nine planets, there are 44 satellites in the Solar System.

Question (b)
How is the earth a unique and living planet? Explain.
Answer:
The earth is a small member of the Solar System. It is the fifth in size of the nine major planets and the third in distance. But it occupies a very unique position in the Solar System, for the following reasons:

1.  Around the Earth is a gaseous envelope known as the atmosphere. It saves us from the extreme heat of the Sun.

2. The Earth has land, water and air unlike the other planets which makes life possible. All this had made the Earth a sweet home for us.

Question (c)
What are natural and artificial satellites? Describe the natural satellite of the earth.
Answer:
1. The celestial bodies that rotate round a planet are called satellites or natural satellites. The satellites also get light and heat from the sun. Incept the Venus and the Mars, all planets have their own satellites.

2. There are other satellites than the natural satellite which are man made. They are called the artificial satellites. The Indian scientist have sent some artificial satellites into the space. The first such satellite was the Arybhatta.

3. The other artificial satellites are the Rohini, Bhaskar, Apple, etc. They provide us a information system giving weather forecast, telecast, radio broadcast, telecommunication, information to improve agriculture and in-formation regarding minerals, etc.

4. The Moon is the only natural satellite of our planet. The moon moves around the earth and also around the sun along with the earth.The moon has rugged and barren surface. There is no air or water on the moon. It is very, hot during the day and very cold during the night.

Question 3.
Give one term for the following sentences:

1. An infinite system of all matter, all galaxies, all energy and space.
2. The distance travelled by light in one year with a velocity of three lakh kilometres per second.
3. The milky band seen on a clear starlit night.
4. A band of innumerable tiny bodies between Mars and Jupiter in the solar system.

Answer:

1. The Universe
2. Light – year
3. Galaxy or Akash Ganga
4. Asteroids

Question 4.

Match the columns :

Answer:

Project Work

Question 1.
Draw a big diagram of the solar system. Label it?
Answer:
The Sun and the nine planets which revolve around it make up the family of the Sun or the Solar System. In addition to the nine planets, there are 44 satellites in the Solar System.

MP Board Class 6th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 8th Maths Solutions Chapter 9 बीजीय व्यंजक एवं सर्वसमिकाएँ Ex 9.5

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गुणनफलों में से प्रत्येक को प्राप्त करने के लिए उचित सर्वसमिका का उपयोग कीजिए –

1. (x + 3) (x + 3)
2. (2y + 5) (2y + 5)
3. (2a – y) (2a – y)
4. (3a – \(\frac{1}{2}\)) (3a – \(\frac{1}{2}\))
5. (11m – 0.4) (1.1m + 0.4)
6. (a² + b²)(- a² + b²)
7. (6x – 7) (6x + 7)
8. (- a + c) (- a + c)
9. (\(\frac{x}{2}\) + \(\frac{3y}{4}\)) (\(\frac{x}{2}\) + \(\frac{3y}{4}\))
10. (7a – 9b) (7a – 9b)

हल:
1. (x + 3) (x + 3)
सर्वसमिका (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² के उपयोग से,
(x + 3)² = x² + 2 x 3 × x + (3)²
= x² + 6x + 9

2. (2y + 5) (2y + 5) = (2y + 5)²
सर्वसमिका (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² का उपयोग करने पर,
∴ (2y + 5) = (2y)² + 2 x (2y) x 5 + (5)²
= 4y² + 20y + 25

3. (2a – 7) (2a – 7) = (2a – 7)²
सर्वसमिका (a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b² का उपयोग करने पर,
∴ (2a – 7)² = (2a)² – 2 x 2a x (7) + (- 7)²
= 4a² – 28a + 49

4. (3a – \(\frac{1}{2}\)) (3a – \(\frac{1}{2}\)) = (3a – \(\frac{1}{2}\))²
सर्वसमिका (a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b² का उपयोग करने पर,
∴ (3a – \(\frac{1}{2}\))² = (3a)² – 2 x (3a) x (\(\frac{1}{2}\)) + (- \(\frac{1}{2}\))²
= 9a² – 3a + \(\frac{1}{4}\)

5. (1.1m – 0.4) (1.1m + 0.4)
सर्वसमिका (a – b) (a + b) = a² – b² का उपयोग करने पर,
∴ (1.1m – 0.4) (11m + 0.4) = (1.1m)² – (0.4)²
= 1.21m – 0.16

6. (a² + b²) (- a² + b²) = (b² + a²) (b² – a²)
सर्वसमिका (a + b) (a – b) = a² – b² का उपयोग करने पर,
∴ (b² + a²) (b² – a²) = (b²)² – (a²)²
= b⁴ – a⁴

7. (6x – 7) (6x + 7)
सर्वसमिका (a – b)(a + b) = a² – b² का उपयोग करने पर
∴ (6x – 7) (6x + 7) = (6x)² – (7)²
= 36x² – 49

8. (- a + c) (- a + c) = (- a + c)²
सर्वसमिका (a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b² का उपयोग करने पर,
= (- a)² – 2(a)(c) + (c)²
= a² – 2ac + c²

9. (\(\frac{x}{2}\) + \(\frac{3y}{4}\)) (\(\frac{x}{2}\) + \(\frac{3y}{2}\)) = (\(\frac{x}{2}\) + \(\frac{3y}{4}\))²
सर्वसमिका (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² का उपयोग करने पर,
(\(\frac{x}{2}\) + \(\frac{3y}{4}\))² = (\(\frac{x}{2}\))² + \(\frac{x}{2}\) x \(\frac{3y}{4}\) + (\(\frac{3y}{4}\))²
= \(\frac { x^{ 2 } }{ 4 } \) + \(\frac{3xy}{4}\) + \(\frac { 9y^{ 2 } }{ 4 } \)

10. (7a – 9b) (7a – 9b) = (7a – 9b)²
सर्वसमिका (a – b) = a² – 2ab+ b² का उपयोग करने पर,
∴ (7a – 7b) = (7a)² – 2 x 7a x 9b + (9b)²
= 49a² – 126ab + 81b²

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित गुणनफलों को ज्ञात करने के लिए सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b) x + ab का
उपयोग कीजिए –

1. (x + 3) (x + 7)
2. (4x + 5) (4x + 1)
3. (4x – 5) (4x – 1)
4. (4x + 5) (4x – 1)
5. (2x + 5y) (2x + 3y)
6. (2a² + 9) (2a² + 5)
7. (xyz – 4) (xyz – 2).

हल:
1. (x + 3) (x + 7)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab में
a = 3 तथा b = 7 रखने पर,
(x + 3) (x + 7) = x² + (3 + 7)x + 3 x 7
= x² + 10x + 21

2. (4x + 5) (4x + 1)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b) x + ab में
x = 4x, a = 5 तथा b = -1 रखने पर,
(4x + 5) (4x + 1) = (4x)² + (5 + 1) 4x + 5 x 1
= 16x² + 4x + 5

3. (4x – 5) (4x – 1)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x2 + (a + b) x + ab में
x= 4x, a = -5 तथा b = 1 रखने पर,
(4x – 5) (4x – 1) = (4x)² + (- 5 – 1)4x + (-5)(-1)
= 16x² – 24x + 5

4. (4x + 5) (4x – 1)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab में
x = 4x, a = 5 तथा b = – 1 रखने पर,
(4x + 5) (4x – 1) = (4x)² + (5 – 1)4x + (5)(-1)
= 16x² + 16x – 5

5. (2x + 5y) (2x +3y)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab में
x = 2x, a = 5y तथा b = 3y रखने पर,
(2x + 5y) (2x + 3y)= (2x)² + (5y + 3y) (2x) +5y x 3y
= 4x² + 16xy + 15y²

6. (2a² + a) (2a² + 5)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab में
x = 2a², a = 9 तथा b = 5 रखने पर,
(2a² + 9) (2a² + 5) = (2a²)² + (9 + 5) 2a² + 9 x 5
= 4a⁴ + 28a² + 45

7. (xyz – 4) (xyz – 2)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab में
x = xyz, a =- 4 तथा b = – 2 रखने पर,
(xyz – 4) (xyz – 2) = (xyz) + (- 4 – 2)xyz + (- 4)(- 2)
= x²y²z² – 6xyz +8

प्रश्न 3.
सर्वसमिका का उपयोग करते हुए निम्नलिखित वर्गों को ज्ञात कीजिए –

1. (b – 7)²
2. (xy + 3z)²
3. (6x² – 5y
4. (\(\frac{2}{3}\)m + \(\frac{3}{2}\)n)²
5. (0.4p – 0.54)²
6. (2xy + 5y)²

हल:
1. (b – 7)² सर्वसमिका (a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b² से,
(b – 7)² = b² – 2 x b x 7 + (7)²
= b² – 14b + 49

2. (xy + 3z)
सर्वसमिका (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² से,
(xy + 3z)² = (xy) + 2 × xy x 3z + (3z)²
= xy² + 6xyz + 9z²

3. (6x² – 5y)²
सर्वसमिका (a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b² से,
(6x² – 5y)² = (6x²)² – 2 x 6x² × 5y + (5y)²
= 36x⁴ – 60xy + 25y²

4. (\(\frac{2}{m}\)m – \(\frac{3}{2}\)n)²
सर्वसमिका (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² से,
(\(\frac{2}{3}\)m + \(\frac{3}{2}\)n)² = (\(\frac{2}{3}\)m)² + 2 x \(\frac{2}{3}\)m x \(\frac{3}{2}\)n + (\(\frac{3}{2}\)n)²
= \(\frac{4}{9}\)m² + 2mn + \(\frac{9}{4}\)n

5. (0.4p – 0.5q)²
सर्वसमिका (a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b² से
(0.4p – 0.5q) = (0.4p)² – 2 x 0.4p x 0.5q + (0.5q)²
= 0.16p² – 0.4pq + 0.25q²

6. (2xy + 5y)²
सर्वसमिका (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² से,
(2xy + 5y)² = (2xy)² + 2 x 2xy x 5y + (5y)²
= 4x²y² + 20xy² + 25y²

प्रश्न 4.
सरल कीजिए –

1. (a² – b²)²
2. (2x + 5)² – (2x – 5)²
3. (7m – 8n)² + (7m + 8n)²
4. (4m +5n)² + (5m +4n)²
5. (2.5p – 1.5q)² – (1.5p – 2.5q)²
6. (ab + bc) – 2ab²c
7. (m² – n² – m)² + 2m³n²

हल:
1. (a² – b²)² = (a²)² – 2 x a² x b² + (b²)²
= a⁴ – 2a²b² + b⁴

2. (2x + 5)² – (2x – 5)²
= (4x² + 20x + 25) – (4x² – 20x + 25)
= 4x² + 20x + 25 – 4x² + 20x – 25
= 40x

3. (7m – 8n)² + (7m + 8n)²
= (49m² – 112mn + 64n²) + (49m² + 112mn + 64n²)
= 49m² – 112mn + 64n² + 49m² + 112mn + 64n²
= 98m² + 128n²

4. (4m + 5n)² + (5m + 4n)²
= (16m² + 40mn + 25n²) + (25m² + 40mn + 16m²)
= 16m² + 40mn + 25n² + 25m² + 40mn + 16n²
= 41m² + 80mn + 41n²

5. (2.5p – 1.5q)² – (1.5p – 2.5q)²
= (6.25p² – 7.5pq + 2.25q²) – (2.25p² – 7.5pq + 6.25q²)
= 6.25p² – 7.5pq + 2.25q² – 2.25p² + 7.5pq – 6.25q²
= 6.25p² – 2.25p² + 2.25q² – 6.25q²
= 4p² – 4q²

6. (ab + bc)² – 2ab²c
= ab² + 2 x ab x bc + b²c² – 2ab²c
= ab² + 2ab²c + b²c² – 2ab²c
= a²b² + b²c²

7. (m² – n²m²) + 2m³n²
= (m²)² – 2 x m² x n²m + (n²m)² + 2m³n²
= m⁴ – 2m³n² + n⁴m² + 2m³n²
= m⁴ + n⁴m²

प्रश्न 5.
दर्शाइए कि –

1. (3x + 7)² – 84x = (3x – 7)²
2. (9p – 5q)² + 180pq = (9p + 54)²
3. (\(\frac{4}{3}\)m – \(\frac{3}{4}\)n)² + 2mn = \(\frac{16}{9}\) m² + \(\frac{9}{16}\)n²
4. (4pq +3q)² – (4pq – 3q)² = 48pq²
5. (a – b) (a + b) + (b – c) (b + c) + (c – a) (c + a) = 0.

हल:
1. (3x + 7)² – 84x = (3x – 7)²
L.H.S. = (3x + 7)² – 84x
= (9x² + 42x + 49) – 84x
= 9x² – 42x + 49
= (3x)² – 2 x (3x) (7) + (7)²
= (3x – 7)² = R.H.S.

2. (9p – 5q)² + 180pq = (9p + 5q)²
L.H.S. = (9p – 5q)² + 180pq
= 81p² – 90pq + 25q² + 180pq
= 81p² + 90pq + 25q²
= (9p)² + 2(9p)(5q) + (5q)²
= (9p + 5q) = R.H.S.

3. (\(\frac{4}{3}\)m – \(\frac{3}{4}\)1)² + 2mn = \(\frac{16}{9}\) m² + \(\frac{9}{16}\)n²
L.H.S. = (\(\frac{4}{3}\)m – \(\frac{3}{4}\))² + 2mn
= \(\frac{16}{9}\) m² – 2mn + \(\frac{9}{16}\)n² + 2mm
= \(\frac{16}{9}\)m² + \(\frac{9}{16}\)n²
= R.H.S.

4. (4pq + 3q)² – (4pq – 3q)² = 48pq²
L.H.S. = (4pq + 3q)² – (4pq – 3q)²
= (16p²q² + 24pq² + 9q²) – (16p²q² – 24pq² + 9q²)
= 16p²q² + 24pq² + 9q² – 16p²q² + 24pq² – 9q²
= 48pq² = R.H.S.

5. (a – b)(a + b) + (b – c)(b + c) + (c – a)(c + a) = 0
L.H.S. = (a – b) (a + b) + (b – c) (b + c) + (c – a) (c + a)
= a² – b² + b² – c² + c² – a²
= 0 = R.H.S.

प्रश्न 6.
सर्वसमिकाओं के उपयोग से निम्नलिखित मान ज्ञात कीजिए –

1. 71²
2. 99²
3. 102²
4. 998²
5. 5.2²
6. 297 x 303
7. 78 x 82
8. 8.9²
9. 1.05 x 9.5

हल:
1. 71² = (70 + 1)²
= (70)² + 2 x 70 x 1 + (1)²
= 4900 + 140 + 1
= 5041

2. 99² = (100 – 1)²
= (100)² – 2 x 100 x 1 + (1)²
= 10000 – 200 + 1
= 9801

3. (102)² = (100 + 2)²
= (100)² + 2 x 100 x 2 + (2)²
= 10000 + 400 + 4 = 10404

4. (998)² = (1000 – 2)²
= (1000)² – 2 x 1000 x 2 + (2)²
= 1000000 – 4000 + 4
= 996004

5. (5.2)² = (5 + 0.2)²
= (5)² + 2 x 5 x 0.2 + (0.2)²
= 25 + 2 + 0.04
= 27.04

6. 297 x 303 = (300 – 3) (300 + 3)
= (300)² – (3)²
[∴ (a – b) (a + b) = a² – b²]
= 90000 – 9
= 89991

7. 78 x 82 = (80 – 2) (80 + 2)
= (80)² – (2)²
= 6400 – 4
= 6396

8. (8.9)² = (9 – 0.1)²
= (9)² – 2 x 9 x 0.1 + (0.1)²
=81 – 1.8 + 0.01
= 81.01 – 1.8
= 79.21

9. 1.05 x 9.5 = (1 + 0.05) 9.5
= 1 x 9.5 + 0.05 x 9.5
= 9.5 + 0.475
= 9.975

प्रश्न 7.
a² – b² = (a + b) (a – b) का उपयोग करते हुए निम्नलिखित का मान ज्ञात कीजिए –

1. 51² – 49²
2. (1.02)² – (0.98)²
3. 153² – 147²
4. 12.1² – 7.9²

हल:
1. 51² – 49²
a² – b² = (a + b) (a-b) का उपयोग करने पर,
51² – 4a² = (51 + 49) (51 – 49)
= 100 x 2 = 200

2. (1.02)² – (0.98)²
a² – b² = (a + b) (a – b) का उपयोग करने पर
(1.02)² – (0.98)² = (1.02 + 0.98) (1.02 – 0.98)
= 2.00 x 0.04 = 0.08

3. 153² – 147²
a² – b² = (a + b)(a – b) का उपयोग करने पर
153² – 147² = (153 + 147) (153 – 147)
= 300 x 6 = 1800

4. 12.1² – 7.9²
a² – b² = (a + b) (a – b) का उपयोग करने पर,
12.1² – 7.9² = (12.1 + 7.9) (12.1 – 7.9)
= 20 x 4.2 = 84

प्रश्न 8.
(x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab का उपयोग करते हुए निम्नलिखित मान ज्ञात कीजिए –

1. 103 x 104
2. 5.1 x 5.2
3. 103 x 98
4. 9.7 x 9.8.

हल:
1. 103 x 104 = (100 + 3) (100 + 4)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab में
x = 100, a = 3 तथा b = 4 रखने पर,
(100 + 3) (100 + 4) = (100)² + (3 + 4) 100 + 3 x 4
= 10000 + 700 + 24 = 10724

2. 5.1 x 5.2 = (5 + 0.1) (5 + 0.2)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab में,
x = 5, a = 0.1 तथा b = 0.2 रखने पर,
(5 + 0.1) (5.02) = (5)² + (0.1 + 0.2) 5 + 0.1 x 0.2
= 25 + 1.5 + 0.02 = 26.52

3. 103 x 98 = (100 + 3) (100 – 2)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b) x + ab में
x = 100, a = 3 तथा b = – 2 रखने पर,
(100 + 3) (100 – 2)= (100)² + (3 – 2) 100 – 3 x (-2)
= 10000 + 100 – 6 = 10094

4. 9.7 x 9.8 = (9 + 0.7) (9 + 0.8)
सर्वसमिका (x + a) (x + b) = x² + (a + b) x + ab में
x = 9, a = 0.7 तथा b = 0.8 रखने पर,
(9 + 0.7) (9 + 0.8) = (9)² + (0.7+ 0.8)9 + 0.7 x 0.8
= 81 + 13.5 + 0.56 = 95.06

MP Board Class 8th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Chapter 32 The Continent of Africa: Physical Features

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 32 Text Book Questions

Fill in the blanks:

1. There are about …………… countries in Africa.
2. …………….. Canal separates Africa from die Asian continent.
3. ……………… Straits separates Africa from Europe.
4. Africa is the …………… largest continent of die world.

Answer:

1. 53
2. Suez
3. Gibraltar
4. second

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 32 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the names of any three rivers of Africa.
Answer:
The Nile, the Congo and the Niger.

Question 2.
Write the name of the major desert of Africa.
Answer:
The Sahara desert.

Question 3.
Which type of climate is found in the equatorial region of Africa?
Answer:
Very hot climate is found in the equatorial region of Africa.

Question 4.
What do you understand by Savannas and Veld?
Answer:
Savanna:
The region of Africa is covered with tall and coarse grasses. They are known as Savanna. Veld – Temperate grasslands are found in South Africa. It is known as Veld.

Question 5.
Name the Continents and Oceans surroundings Africa.
Answer:
The continents surrounding Africa:

• Europe in the north
• Asia in the northeast

The Oceans surrounding Africa:

• The Indian Ocean in the east
• The Atlantic Ocean in the west

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 32 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the physical features of Africa.
Answer:
The continent of Africa consists of several plateaus which are relatively higher in the southeastern part. This continent is made up of the oldest hard rocks. Narrow plains are found in the coastal parts. A few volcanic mountain peaks rise above the plateau in the eastern part near the equator. The high est-peak Kilimanjaro is located in this highland region. It remains snow covered throughout the year. To its northwest lies the Atlas mountain range.

The Drakensberg range lies to the southeast of Africa. The Hogar Mountain and the Tibesti plateau lie in the Sahara desert. To the west of the continent lies the Adavama plateau which exists between the Congo and the Niger rivers. Its highest peak is Cameroon. Abyssinia plateau is situated in the northeast of the continent.

The major physical feature of the continent of Africa is its rift valleys and waterfalls. The main lakes of the rift valleys are Victoria, Tanganyika, Nyasa and Albert Among the major deserts of Africa are the Sahara desert and the Kalahari desert The major rivers are the Nile, the Congo, the Niger, the Zambezi and the Senegal.

Question 2.
Describe the climate and vegetation of Africa.
Answer:
Climate:
Africa is avast continent from north:
south extending between 37° 14’ N to 34°50’ S latitude. The major part lies within the tropical zone. In fact it is the most tropical of all the continents. There are marked variations in the distribution of rainfall. For example, near the equator, rain falls all the year round, but in die Sahara desert it does not fall at all. Near the Equator there is only one season,’ the hot wet summer but in the northern and the southern parts of Africa climate varies.

There are regions in the South Africa where rain occurs in the winter. There are regions where rain occurs only in summers. Vegetation of Africa – The rainfall is uneven in Africa. The belt lying along the equator on both has hot and wet climate. It rains almost daily and there is only one season – the hot wet summer season. Due to abundance of heat and moisture most of die region is covered with thick forest which is known as the tropical rain forest.

Question 3.
Describe the Savanna grasslands and the wild life of Africa.
Answer:
The Savanna grasslands Savanna is die tropical grass land in Africa having tall and coarse grasses. These are also known as the ‘elephant grass’.

The wild life:
Africa is a center of variety of birds and animals monkey, boons, snakes, chameleon, lizards and butterflies are the animals which live on trees. The animals living on land are elephant, rhinoceros, zebra, bison, wild boar etc. Ostriches are found in the Kalahari desert Crocodiles, hippopotamus, alligators are some of the important water animals. One can also find a variety of fishes there.

Map work:
Mark the following in the map of Africa.

1. Mt Kilimanjaro
2. Drakensberg
3. Sahara desert
4. Congo and Niger river
5. Lake Rudolf
6. The rift valley
7. Victoria waterfall
8. Kalahari desert
9. Savanna grasslands
10. Veld

Answer:

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 8th Sanskrit परिशिष्टम्

MP Board Class 8th Sanskrit पुस्तक में दिये गये पद्यांशों का हिन्दी अनुवाद

1. संस्कृतस्य सेवनम् (संस्कृत की सेवा हो)

संस्कृतस्य सेवन………… संस्कृतं विराजताम्॥

भावार्थ :
संस्कृत की सेवा हो अर्थात् संस्कृत भाषा का व्यवहार हो एवं संस्कृत के लिए मानव जीवन हो तथा संसार के कल्याण की वृद्धि के लिए मानव शरीर समर्पित हो।-
(क) अपने कार्य की गरिमा का स्मरण करते हुए तथा विघ्न रूपी सागर को पार करते हुए अपने लक्ष्य की सफलता को दृष्टिगत (समक्ष) रखते हुए मैं स्वयं परिश्रम करता हूँ। जिससे प्रत्येक व्यक्ति तथा प्रत्येक घर में संस्कृत पहुँच सके तथा इसकी निरन्तर गतिशीलता हो सके तब लगाकर संस्कृत के प्रचार-प्रसार के लिए कदम बढ़ता रहे।

(ख) मैं सम्पत्ति की कामना नहीं करता हूँ और न भोगैश्वर्य साधन जन्य सुख की भी कामना करता हूँ अपितु संस्कृत की उन्नति के अतिरिक्त मैं किसी अन्य विषय को उसके समान आदर नहीं देता हूँ। अस्तु संस्कृत को अपने गौरवपूर्ण स्थान तक पहुँचाने के लिए अपने जीवन को दाँव पर लगातार प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को कमर कसनी होगी।

(ग) मेरे द्वारा यह जो वाणी कही गयी है, वह निश्चय ही कथित वाणी सुदृढ़तया अटल सत्य हो और साथ ही कहे जाते हुए भाव को प्राप्त कर पुनः-पुनः चिरकाल तक यही वाणी विराजमान हो। यह संस्कृत भाषा भारतभूमि का आभूषण है तथा सभी वाणियों का विशेषतः आभूषण है और साथ ही भारतीय संस्कृति का प्रचार-प्रसार करने वाली होने से संस्कृत सर्वथा विराजमान होती रहे।

2. चिरवीना संस्कृता एषा (जो कभी पुरानी न हो ऐसी यह संस्कृत भाषा है।)

चिरनवीना संस्कृता ……….”अनुपमा सरसा॥चिरनवीना॥

भावार्थ :
जो कभी पुरानी न हो ऐसी यह संस्कृत भाषा है। यह देवताओं की भाषा है। जो कभी पुरानी न हो ऐसी यह संस्कृत भाषा है।

बहुत बड़ा जनसमुदाय इसमें श्वांस लेता है अर्थात् इसे बोलता है। इसमें अति प्राचीन वेद और साहित्य है अर्थात् हमारे बहुत प्राचीन वेद और साहित्य इसी संस्कृत भाषा में लिखे हुए हैं।

शास्त्रों से भरी, स्मृतियों के विचारों से युक्त और सर्वश्रेष्ठ कवियों के काव्यों के सार से रंग-बिरंगी सुन्दर पेटी वाली सुन्दर संस्कृत भाषा है।

वाल्मीकि और वेदव्यास मुनियों के द्वारा रचित रामायण और महाभारत महाकाव्य इसी भाषा में है।

कायरता के दोष से युद्ध से रुके हुए पार्थ (अर्जुन) को उसके युद्ध रूपी कार्य में लगाने वाली श्रीमद्भगवद् गीता को भगवान श्रीकृष्ण के द्वारा कही गयी है, इसी संस्कृत भाषा में है।

यह संस्कृत भाषा भारत में बोली जाने वाली मातृभाषाओं की भी मातृभाषा है। यह भारतीयों की राष्ट्रभाषा होने के योग्य है जिससे भाषा का विरोध समाप्त हो जायेगा। यह बात हमेशा पूरे जोर-शोर से हम कहते हैं। यह भारतीयों की भाषा है, और अत्यन्त मधुर है।

MP Board Class 8th Sanskrit Solutions