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In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 17 Money and Finance System Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 Money and Finance System

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 16 Text book Exercises

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (i)
The primary function of money is –
(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Storage of value
(c) Standard of deferred payments
(d) All of above
Answer:
(a) Medium of exchange

Question (ii)
The Sahukars have an important role in –
(a) Industrial finance
(b) Finance for development
(c) Agricultural finance
(d) None of above
Answer:
(c) Agricultural finance

Question (iii)
The main function of Foreign Exchange Banks is –
(a) To accept deposits
(b) To lend money
(c) Exchange of money
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. To satisfy the wants by exchanging one commodity with another commodity is called ………….. system.
2. In a financial system the financial institutions provide ………….. to other needy persons by taking money on credit.
3. The maximum number of members in a self help group is …………..
4. The industrial banks provide short term and long term ………….. to industries.
5. The saving banks collect the ………….. of public.

Answer:

1. Barter
2. Money
3. Twenty
4. Loan
5. Money

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the main problem of Barter System?
Answer:
The main problem of barter system is:

1. Fact of double coincidence
2. Lack of divisibility
3. Unnecessary wastage of time energy

Question 2.
In which part of India is the ‘Chit Fund’ very popular?
Answer:
It is much popular in the villages of Southern India. There it runs in both the forms organised and unorganised. It is a sort of saving plan found in India. The members of these chit funds are made in a fixed number.

Question 3.
What are the major difference between banks and non-banking institutions?
Answer:
Banks means Commercial banks which are scheduled under the provision of Reserve Bank of India while non-banking institutions work under private sector.

Question 4.
What is the term of loan given by Land Development Banks to farmers?
Answer:
Land Development Banks provide loan to the farmers as long term basis for the period of 15-20 years.

Question 5.
What is the short name of the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development.
Answer:
NABARD.

Question 6.
Which bank does the function of issuing notes in country?
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India.

Question 7.
In which state of the country the first mobile bank was established?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh district Khargone.

Question 8.
Is ICICI bank a public sector bank or private sector bank?
Answer:
ICICI is a bank of a private sector.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 Short Answers Type Questions

Question 1.
Which goods were used as money in ancient times?
Answer:
Metals, animals, foodgrains and cloths etc. were used as money is ancient times. These important goods are valuable to the business point of view either domestic or regional level.

Question 2.
State the demerits of Sahukar system?
Answer:
The Sahukars play an important role in agricultural financing today. The Sahukars fulfil about 25 per cent requirements of agro financing. They also have a bad name apart from being popular. The main reason for this is their defective system of functioning in which

1. High rate of interest.
2. Advance interest.
3. Manipulation in calerlation facts are included. Therefore the government has kept control over the Sahukars even then they have got an important role in rural areas.

Question 3.
Define money?
Answer:
According to Prof. Marshall, “Money includes all those commodities which in particular time or place undoubtedly can be accepted as consideration for goods and services as means of deferred payments.” According to Prof. Ely: “Money is that commodity which as a means of exchange can be freely transferred and ordinarily acceptable as a means of final payment of debts.”

Question 4.
What are commercial banks?
Answer:
The banks which arrange short – term loan for commercial purpose are called commercial banks. State Bank of India and its subsidiary banks are such types of banks.

Question 5.
What is meant by the finance system?
Answer:
People in their daily life need money to fulfil their daily requirements. Similarly, money is required for implementing different types of work related to industries, business and agriculture. To fulfil these requirements people, business man and farmers everyone has to take loan.

In the same way when we have income more than our need we need financing institutions to save that money safely and to earn profit from that Thus the financing institutions keeps our surplus income or saving as deposits and lend it, known as financing system. Thus the process of keeping balance between demand and supply of wealth or capital in the economy is called financing system.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write an article on the development of money?
Answer:
In ancient time the man too could not produce all the commodities of his requirement. Therefore, he started to exchange the goods produced by him with goods produced by other person. It is known as Barter System of exchange. This system of Barter prevailed for a long time. Several difficulties of Barter System arose with time. The major problem of this system was availability of such a person who could accept the commodity produced by a person and could make available the commodity required by him. So such goods were discovered which could be accepted by all.

In the beginning cow, goat, fish bones, skin of animals, ivory etc. were accepted as a unit of money. But this system also brought many difficulties with it. So this system inspired the use of metals. As a result the use of metal started in the form of coins, which solved many problems. The kings and emperors fixed the weight, size, colour and shape of the coin to keep check on forgery. These coins were certified by the government through stamping. Gold, silver, copper, etc. metals were extensively used as coins.

The difficulties of metallic currency arose with the time. As a result along with the development of banking system, paper, currency was also developed.Expansion of paper currency took place in various ways, such as written certificates, representative paper currency, convertible paper currency, inconvertible paper currency, etc. The development of credit money, in the form of cheque, hundi, drafts etc. took place with development of Central Bank and Commercial Bank. At present credit cards and A.T.M cards are prevailing in the form of plastic currency.

Question 2.
What are Self – Help Groups? What may be the objectives of its formation? (MP Board 2009)
Or
Write any four aims of Self – Help Groups. (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Self – Help Group is a voluntary organisation of poor people. These groups are formed for the solutions of their problems by mutual co – operation. This group motivates it members for small savings. These savings are deposited in banks. The account of bank in which the amount is deposited is on name of the group. Generally the maximum number of members of a group is 20.

Generally the members of a group are those people who do not have any approach to the financial institutions such as bank etc. Therefore the group teaches its members that method of saving which is an appropriate method for satisfying their needs. The group makes small loans easily available to its members on lower rate of interest. These groups have played an important role in the field of empow¬ering women.

Objectives of the Formation of Self – Help Group:
Following may be the objective of formation of any Self – Help Groups:

1. To develop the feeling of working together unitedly.
2. To develop the habit of saving for better future among the members.
3. To create the opportunity of self-employment by lending money to members.
4. To develop the feeling of self-reliance in its members.
5. To develop awareness towards the subjects like health, nutrition, education, domestic violence.
6. To conduct welfare activities with the help of government, loans and other self – service institutions.

Question 3.
Which financial institutions are found in India? Explain.
Answer:
The following financial institutions are found in India:
Banks:
Under the financial institutions banks have special importance in the modern age. Generally banks are known as the institutions which deposit the money of people and lend money to the needy people. Today all the major economic activities are done by the means of banks. Along with the exchange of money, construction of credit is also a function of bank.

Bank such as State Bank of India, The Allahabad Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of India etc. are functioning under public sector in India.Several banks were established under private sector after the year 1991. For example, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, UTI Bank, Indus Bank etc. are the banks of private sector.

Insurance Companies:
Insurance is a system to provide security against the consequences of risks. Commodities, services and business activities are also insured along with human lives. Insurance companies invest the obtained amount of money in different productive works which leads to economic growth.

Sahukar (Indigeneous Banks):
Sahukar or Mahajan is that fellow who provides loan to his customers from time to time. Sahukars are two types:

1. Farmers Sahukars or Zamindars.
2. Commercial Sahukars:

Farmer Sahukars are those persons who mainly do farming but being rich they do the job of lending money as a secondary business. Commercial Sahukars are those whose chief business is only lending money.

Zamindars:
In the year 1793, Lord Cornwallis started this system in Bengal Zamindars were the big landlords. Their work was the collection of revenue from the farmers. They collected the revenue from the peasents and gave it to the government. Zamindars provided loan to the farmers whenever required to fulfil their needs. The rate of interest on loans provided by them to the farmers used tot .be very high. The conditions of loans provided by them were alfeo very strict.

Question 4.
What are the main types of banks? Write.
Answer:
Types of Banks are as follows:
Commercial Banks:
Commercial Banks are those type of banks which imafeke arrangements for short term loans for commercial purposes. These banks do some other banking functions also other than accepting the deposits of people and providing loans to them.

Industrial Banks:
The institutions which make arrangements of medium and long term loans for industries are called industrial banks. Apart from providing loans to the industries from themselves these banks also help them to seek capital from other resources.

Foreign Exchange Banks:
Institutions which exchange foreign currencies and make arrangements of foreign exchange for foreign trade are called Foreign Exchange Banks. These banks set up their branches in foreign countries, which make the exchange of foreign currencies simple and easy.

Agricultural Banks:
Agricultural system is different from trade and industries. Therefore its loan-related needs are different from trade and industries. This is the reason due to which agricultural banks have been established to fulfil the needs of farmers. Following L banks are fulfilling the requirement of agricultural finances:

1. Agricultural Cooperative Banks.
2. Land Development Banks.
3. Regional Rural Banks.

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development was established on 12th July, 1982 for the purpose of making the loans available for development of agriculture. Briefly is called NABARD. It functions as the apex bank in the structure of credit in the rural areas.

Central Bank:
The central bank is the supreme institution of the banking system of any country. It has no direct relation with the people. The minting of the currency of the country is done by this bank only. It is the banker of the government. It maintains the record of all types of accounts of the government and whenever needed provides loan to the government also. It is ‘Bank of the Banks’.

International Bank:
Those banks are included in international banks, which have been established to solve the international economic problems and to provide economic help to their member countries. In this direction two institutions namely World Bank and International Monetary Fund were set up in 1945.

Question 5.
Describe the main functions of money?
Or
Write the main functions of Money (MP Board 2009)
Or
What is Money? Write its main functions? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
The money performs several functions in the economy. The main functions of money are as follows:

1. Medium of Exchange:
The goods and services are brought and sold through money. The producer gets money by selling his commodity and then he
purchases his required goods through this obtained money.

2. Measure of Value:
At present value of every commodity and service is measured by money. Prices of all commodities and services in the market are expressed in terms of money only. It is an important function of money.

3. Transfer of Purchasing Power:
Money can be transported from one place to another. In the state of purchasing commodities from another place, the payment of its price can be done through money or bank draft, cheque, money order etc. Rupees can be transferred easily from one place to another through banks.

4. Store of Purchasing Power:
According to his nature, man saves money to deal with major crisis. Now saving for future through medium of money has become, very easy. Storing of purchase power by depositing money in banks or post offices has become very common now.

Along with this the process of lending and taking loans has become very easy now. A consumer obtains maximum satisfaction and a producer increase the quantity of his product through money only. In brief, money does several important functions in human life.

Question 6.
Discuss about the institutions which provide loan to agriculture?
Answer:
The institutions which provide loan facility to agriculture are as follows:

1. Agricultural Cooperative Banks:
This bank provides the facility of short-term loans to farmers at low rate of interest. In India the cooperative banks have three-tier structure. At the lowest village level are the Primary cooperative societies. Above these societies are district Central Cooperative banks which provide loans to these societies on demand.

Above these Central Banks are State Cooperative Banks. The State Cooperative Bank meet the loan requirements of District Central Cooperative Banks. Whenever State Cooperative Banks, need loans then National Agricultural Rural Development Bank which is also called NABARD helps them.

2. Land Development Bank:
Land Development Banks provide long term loans to farmers. These banks provide loans for a period of 15 – 20 years at a low rate of interest for land reform, for digging wells and tube wells, to purchase agricultural equipments, tractors etc. As these banks provide loans on the security of land so these banks are advantageous for the big farmers.

3. Regional Rural Banks:
The Regional rural banks were set up in 1975. These banks were set up with the main objective of providing banking facilities to the people of distant rural areas. These banks provide loans to small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, rural artisans, small entrepreneurs. On 30th June, 2005, 14,484 branches of regional rural banks were running in the country.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 16 Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions:
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (i)
In latin Language money was known of – (MP board, 2012)
(a) Moneta
(b) Goddess Juno
(c) Pecunia
(d) Pecus
Answer:
(a) Moneta

Question (ii)
ATM means
(a) All Time Money
(b) Any Time Money
(c) Altogether Time of Money
(d) Automatic Teller Machohe
Answer:
(b) Any Time Money

Question (iii)
Which of the following institutions is the open body at various finance institution.
(a) SBI
(b) RBI
(c) NABARD
(d) CBI
Answer:
(c) NABARD

Question (iv)
Which of the following bank is called the Bank of Banks?
(a) Central Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Bank of Baroda
Answer:
(c) Reserve Bank of India

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. There are ……………. banks were nationalised in 1969.
2. The head of Rural Bank of Bangladesh is …………….
3. ……………. are the backbone of Bangladesh’s Rural Bank.
4. ATM has made the banking function very …………….

Answer:

1. 14
2. Mohammad Yunus
3. Self Help Groups
4. Convenient

Question 3.
True and False type questions:

1. Mahajans were the indigenous source of rural areas in ancient India.
2. Thfe Central Bank of India is Reserve Bank of India.
3. The second time nationalisation of banks in India was completed in the year of 1991.
4. The mobile bank running in M.P. is called Laxmi Vahini.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

Question 4.
Match the Column:

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (a)

Answer in One – Two Words or One Sentence

Question 1.
Name the four important functions of money?
Answer:
Money is a matter of function for a medium, a measure, a standard and a store.

Question 2.
Mention the kinds of metallic money?
Answer:
Metallic money is classified as:

1. Standard money
2. Token money

Question 3.
Which system is adopted in the Indian economy?
Answer:
Barter System

Question 4.
Write the full form of ATM?
Answer:
Any Time Money

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17  Very Short Answers Type Questions

Question 1.
What is ATM?
Answer:
A.T.M. (Any Time Money):
As it is clear by its name, A.T.M. is a system in which money can be withdrawn at any time. The A.T.M. is made of plastic and consists of a metal chip, on which all the details related to bank accounts are entered. A.T.M. has made the banking function very easy and convenient.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Laxmi Vahini?
Answer:
A mobile bank has been set up in the district of Khargone of Madhya Pradesh. This institution named ’Laxmi Vahini’ functions mobiling in a van. The capital of this institution is Rs. One crore and it provides various types of banking facilities available to villages by going from village – to – village.

Question 3.
Name the metallic money?
Answer:
Consumption goods, such as grocery, salts, fish, animals, capital goods and jwellery and gems such as shells, valuable metal are known as metallic money.

Question 4.
What do you mean by NABARD?
Answer:
The full name of NABARD is National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development. This institution fulfils the loans given by the Land Development Banks, Cooperative Banks and Commercial Banks, etc. for tire development of agriculture and rural areas. It is supreme institution related to rural and agricultural credits.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 Short Answers Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss briefly the Rural Bank of Bangladesh.
Answer:
A solid process of rural bank have been developed in Bangladesh through Self-help Groups. There are 60 lakh people under debt in these banks who are spread in 40,000 villages of Bangladesh. This programme was started by Mohammad Yunus in 1970. These rural banks have significantly contributed for the fulfilment of loan related needs of poors. Mohammed Yunus was honoured Nobel Prize in 2006 for the same work.

Question 2.
What are the secondary functions of money?
Answer:
The secondary functions of money are as under:

1. Basis for deferred payment:
Money has made it possible and convinent that the payment of dues can be made of a later date in future.

2. Store of exchange value:
After the introduction of money it has been very convinent to accumulate income and wealth to meet future requirements.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is paper money? Give its kinds.
Answer:
Paper money or currency notes, printed on paper are issued by the government and legally acceptable within the country. It has the face value only and accepted at the printed face value

1. Representative Paper Money:
This paper money represents cent percent gold, silver and standard coins kept in reserve against their issue.

2. Convertible Paper Money:
Under this issue of notes the government promises to pay on demand the face value of notes in terms of real value i.e. gold silver and standard coins. Generally proportionate reserve is maintained on issue of convertible paper money in the form of gold silver and government documents. In India notes worth Rs. 2, 5, 10, 20, 50, 100 and Rs. 500 are convertible paper money. It is issued by Reserve Bank of India.

3. Inconvertible Paper Money:
The government does not promise to repay back the face value in metallic terms of real/value. In our country one rupee note is non – convertible paper money. It is issued by Secretary, Ministry of Finance.

4. Fiat Money:
It is also known as emergency money issued by the government to meet the emergency requirement of funds. Behind this issue metallic reserve is not kept.

Question 2.
Explain various methods of extending loan by banks?
Answer:
The bank adopts the following methods for advancing loans:
1. Granting Loans:
The main function of the bank is to lend money at rates higher titan the rate of deposit. The excess interest earned by the bank is its profit. These loans are granted on the security and surety.

2. By Allowing an Overdraft:
Customers having current account in the bank are provided the facility to draw from the bank more than their deposit as per arrangement with the bank only reputed and trustworthy customers are granted this facility. The bank charges interest on overdraft.

3. Cash Credit:
Under this method the borrower opens on account with the bank. The bank sanctions the loan and credits the amount in borrower’s name. He withdraws money as and when required. After the period of loan in over the borrower returns the money with interest. This is the method of granting loans.

4. Discounting Bills:
The bank advances loans on the security of bills and hundies, the practice is known as discounting of the bill. The bank charge interest for the period between the discounting of the bill to the due date of the bill. This is the safest method of advancing loan because the bill bears the security of both the drawee and drawer.

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 19 Consumer Awareness Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 19 Consumer Awareness

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 19 Text book Exercises

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (i)
When was the Consumer Protection Act enforced –
(a) 1986
(b) 1996
(c) 1968
(d) None of above
Answer:
(a) 1986

Question (ii)
The meaning of consumer awareness is –
(a) Alertness towards self – rights
(b) Alertness towards self – duties
(c) Alertness towards both, self – right and duties
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(c) Alertness towards both, self – right and duties

Question (iii)
Consumer awareness is necessary for –
(a) Protection from exploitation
(b) High standard of living
(c) To check harmful consumption
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (iv)
Producer can be arbitrary regarding quality and price of commodity in –
(a) Competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Agro products
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above.

Question (v)
Agmark is a mark of safety for –
(a) Jewellery
(b) Agriculture Products
(c) Woollen clothes
(d) Electronic equipments.
Answer:
(d) Electronic equipments.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Electronic equipments are labelled with ………….. mark.
2. Consumers have right to ………….. against adulterated food.
3. The World Consumers Day is celebrated on ……………
4. To show scarcity of goods despite of its sufficient supply is known as ……………
5. Agmark is labelled on …………… related products.

Answer:

1. Hallmarks
2. Safety
3. 24 December
4. Black marketing
5. Agriculture.

Question 2.
Macth the coloumn:

Answer:

1. (a)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 19 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is buyer of commodity or service called?
Answer:
A consumer or purchaser of the commodity is called buyer.

Question 2.
What is meant by consumer’s exploitation?
Answer:
The process by which a consumer is misleaded and adulterated with Someone is called consumer’s exploitation.

Question 3.
State any two kinds of consumer exploitation?
Answer:
Adulteration, overcharging, under weighing and misleading.

Question 4.
What does the selling of a ticket of cinema in an increased price than its fixed price called?
Answer:
Misleading the consumer creating artificial crisis of tickets.

Question 5.
What is the consequence of having limited information about a commodity?
Answer:
Due to limited information about a commodity a consumer is trapped and exploited.

Question 6.
What is monopoly?
Answer:
The prodution or sale of a commodity is done by only a single person or institution, the process is called monopoly.

Question 7.
When is the National Consumers Day celebrated?
Answer:
To bring awareness towards the right of cosumers through awareness camps on the occassion of National Consumer Day celebrated on 24 December every year.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 19 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Illustrate with examples the meaning of consumer awareness?
Answer:
Consumer awareness is needed to protect the consumer from the exploitation. It safe guards their interest and removes their ignorance, unawareness and literacy about the goods. Following are the main facts classify the need of making consumers ware:

1. To achieve maximum satisfaction
2. Protection against exploitation of producers
3. Control over consumption of harmful goods
4. Motivation for saving
5. Construction of healthy society.

Question 2.
How is a consumer awareness helpful in keeping a check on anarchy and harmful consumption? (MP Board 2013)
Answer:
Having full of the knowledge regarding commodity, e.g., quality, advertisement and expiry date a consumer can keep aware himself.

Question 3.
What is ISI?
Answer:
It is a mark which standardise the quality of industrial and consumer goods.

Question 4.
What is Consumer Protection Act?
Answer:
After that in 1986, the Consumer Protection Act has been passed by the Government of India. This act is famous as ‘Copra’. The main objective of this act is to decide the complaints of the consumers immediately and to make legal proceeding easy. A three tier judiciary system has been established under Copra at district, state and national levels to resolve the disputes of consumers. The court at district level hears the cases related to the claims up to Rs. 20 lakh. The claims from Rs. 20 Lakh to Rs. 1 crore are heard in the state level courts. The courts at national level hears the cases with the claims of more than. Rs. 1 crore.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 19 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the necessity and importance of consumer awamess? (MP Board 2009, 2012)
Answer:
The following needs of consumer awareness are:

1. To achieve maximum satisfaction:
The income of every individual is limited. He wants to buy maximum goods and services with his income. He gets full satisfaction only by this behaviour. Therefore it is necessary that he should get tire goods which are measured appropriately and he should not be cheated in any way. For this he should be made aWare.

2. Protection against exploitation of producers:
Producers and sellers exploit the consumers in many ways as underweighing, taking more price than the market price, selling duplicate goods etc. Big companies through their advertisment also mislead the consumers.

3. Control over consumption of harmful goods:
There are several such goods available in market which cause harm to some consumers. For example, we can take goods like cigarette, tobacco, liquor etc. The consumer education and awareness motivate people not to purchase such goods, which is very beneficial for them.

4. Motivation for saving:
The awareness controls people from wastage of money and extravagancy and inspire them to take right decision Such consumers are not by attraction of sale, concession, free gifts, attractive paking etc., due to which people can use their income in a right way and can save more.

5. Knowledge regarding solution to problems:
The consumer class is cheated due to illiteracy, innocence and lack of information. Therefore it becomes necessary that the information about their rights should be provided to them so that they cannot be cheated by producers and sellers. Through consumer awareness they are also made known to the proceedings of laws so that they can solve their problems.

6. Construction of healthy society:
Every member of the society is a consumer. So, if the consumer is aware and rationale, then complete society becomes healthy and alert towards their rights. In such a situation it is not possible for producers and sellers to cheat or deceive them.

Question 2.
How do the producer and traders exploit consumers?
Or
Describe the main types of consumer exploitation? (MP Board 2009, 2013)
Answer:
In this age of capitalism and globalisation the main objective of each producer is to maximise his profit. In each and every possible way the producer are trying to increase the sale of their products. Therefore in fulfilment of their aim they forget the side of consumers and start exploiting them. For example, overcharging, under weighing, selling of adulterated and poor quality goods, misleading the consumers by giving false advertisement etc.

Today a consumer faces difficulty in selecting the right commodity, due to expansion of commercial activities and availability of varieties of goods and services in the economy. The companies give attractive advertisement and information also to attract consumers but many times it is not proper and complete. Therefore the consumers are cheated and exploited.

The following factors are more responsible to exploit consumers:

1. Inferior quality
2. High Prices
3. Adulteration and Implirity
4. False or incomplete information
5. Artificial scarcify, black marketing and hoarding
6. Wrong measurement.

Inferior quality:
Sometimes the purchased goods are of lower quality, for example medicine sold after its expiry date, some times electronic devices either burn itself or burn the consumers through electric current. In this way the consumer is cheated and exploited.

Adulteration and impurity:
Adulteration means mixing of some cheaper material in a quality commodity. This causes harm to health of consumers. White stone chips mixed with rice, colour in spices, Khesari in tuar pulse, mixing of harmful substance in other costly items as ghee, oil etc. So as to earn more profit. Sometimes people develop disability of hands and legs due to consumption of adulterated food.

False or Incomplete Information:
Many times producers and sellers provide wrong and incomplete information to the customers. Due to this, the customers are trapped by purchasing wrong items and their money gets wasted. The correct and complete information about the goods is not given to the consumers regarding the price, quality, expiry date, impact on environment, conditions of purchasing the goods. Therefore after purchasing the goods the consumer becomes harassed.

Artificial scarcity, black marketing and hoarding:
Some times at the time of festivals etc., the traders in order to earn undue profit create an artificial scarcity of goods through hoarding and then by black marketing, they charge higher prices. Sometimes the traders say that a particular commodity is not available. But afterwards on repeated request of the customers they provide goods on double price. Kerosene oil, sugar etc. are such goods for which the sellers show scarcity and take high prices.

Question 3.
Why are the consumers exploited? Discuss any four reasons?
Or
Why are the consumers exploited? Explain the causes. (MP Board 2009, 2011)
Answer:
The following four reasons are as follows:

1. Lack of knowledge:
The main reason for exploitation of consumers is lack of knowledge. Several consumers do not have the knowledge about the price, quality, services related to commodities. Therefore, they simply trust the facts told to them by the sellers and purchase goods, thus become trapped and are exploited.

2. Limited information:
In this age of globalisation the market is full of avariety of products. Producers are free to produce. There are no fixed laws for quality and fixation of prices. There is lack of proper and correct information regarding different aspects of goods j such as price, quality, structure, terms of their use, laws of purchasing etc. Therefore the consumers selection becomes wrong and they have to bear economic loss.

3. Monopoly:
Monopoly means the right on the production and distribution of a commodity of a producer or a group of producers. In the state of monopoly producers have arbitrary behaviour regarding the prices and the quality and availability of the goods. As a result, they succeed in exploiting consumers.

4. Consumers indifference towards the market:
There is a large group of such consumers who behave indifferently regarding purchasing. There are some consumers who think as what to do, everything is alright, leave it, why to take cash memo, whatever good the shopkeeper gives is good, things should be cheap, good and durable, what is the need of the standardisation marks like ISI and AGMARK etc. The producers take full advantage of this indifferent behaviour of consumers and succeed in exploiting them.

Question 4.
What is meaning of standardistation? State standardisation of different products. (MP Board 2009, 2010)
Answer:
Maintaining quality, grades, size and constituents of the product is called standardisation. Standarsation of products is an important measures taken by the government to protect the consumer from lack of quality and varying standards of goods. In India, these, standards have been achieved through Bureau of Indian standard (BIS), which is earlier known as the Indian Standard Institution (ISI), has the responsibility of laying down the standards for industrial and consumer goods on a scientific basis and certifying the goods that met the prescribed quality and standards.

Government try to maintain the standard of things in a number of ways:

1. Every producer is liable to be prosecuted.
2. For certain articles, an ISI mark is a must to ensure its high quality and genuinity.
3. As far as food items are concerned, it is essential to indicate, its weight on each and every packet.
4. The producers of medicines have to print the date of manufacture as well as the date of expiry on the medicine.

Question 5.
What measures will you take so that you are not cheated in the market as a consumer? Discuss also the legal measures of protection.
Answer:
Following are the main measures to protect oneself from exploitation as consumer:
1. Consumer’s education:
Consumer’s education and awareness is the most important measure for the solution of exploitation. The government has made several laws for the protection of consumers. But it is observed that they are not known to general public. Therefore proper education of consumers right should be provided to them.

2. Purchase of standardised goods:
Several types of goods are available in the market. But for the safety against exploitation consumers should always buy standardised goods. Goods which are marketed as ISI, AGMARK and HALLMARK are considered standardised goods.

3. Taking of cash memo or receipt:
To take cash memo along with purchase of a good is very important. Due to this the legal proceeding can be done in case of the quality of good is inferior or does not work properly before the given period of time.

4. Not to be lured by advertisements:
Big companies publicise their products by attractive advertisements through television or other media. The advertisements are shown in such a manner that it has a psychological effect on consumers and so they become desperate to purchase the goods. But the reality is this that the consumer should be alert and aware of advertisements. Before the purchasing of goods the consumer should completely verify its quality, price and quantity etc.

5. To complain collectively:
A consumer alone cannot do anything against the producers and seller, but if complaint is lodged collectively then it has more effect.

6. To verify the expiry date:
Whenever we purchase a medicine, we should always check the expiry date. After this date the medicine has no effect and there is also a possibility of its bad effect. The similar is the case with tinned food. Therefore, it is essential to check the expiry date before purchase.

Question 6.
What are the rights of consumers? Why are these rights provided to them?
Or
Write is brief the rights of consumers. (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Consumers have the right to buy good commodities and services from the market. The protection of law has been provided to him so that a producer or seller cannot cheat him in anyway. Generally a consumer has got the following rights:

1. Right to safety:
This is essential for producers that they should obey the rules related to the safety of consumers. The reason is if the producers do not obey these rules, then the consumer may have to bear a big risk. For example, in pressure cooker there is a safety valve which if faulty can lead to a fatal accident. The manufacturers of the safety valves should fix a high quality for it. If manufacturers do not do this, then the consumers can take help of consumers’ law.

2. Right to be informed:
When we purchase any product we see that some special informations are written on the packet. Such as Batch number of the commodity, manufacturing date, expiry date, address of manufacturing company of the good etc., when we purchase any medicine, then we get the direction regarding its side effect and dangers. When we purchase clothes, then we should have the wasting directions.

3. Right to be choose:
Consumer also have the right to choose goods and services possible at competitive prices. The seller can not force the consumer to buy a certain product.

4. Right to be heard:
The consumer interestes should receive due consideration at appropriate forms. They must be assumed that their complaints and grievances about the goods and services will be heard.

5. Right to seek redressal:
Consumers have the right to seek redressal in case of being cheated and exploited by the producer. The government has set up many consumer courts for the specific purpose.

6. Right to consumer education:
The consumer must be educated about their rights which have been granted by the law to protect their interest.

Question 7.
Describe about consumer’s movement in India?
Answer:
The consumer’s movement was started due to the dissatisfaction of the consumer’s. There were many reasons of consumers dissatisfaction like lack of food stuff, hoarding, black marketing, adulteration etc. In order to deal with such problems for the first time in 1955, Essential goods Act was passed. Through this the efforts were made to control production, distribution, price and supply of essential goods.

After this, in 1976 Weight and Standard Measure Act was passed to systematise the measurement and weight. After that in 1986, the Consumer Protection Act has been passed by the Government of India. This act is famous as ‘Copra’. The Consumer Protection Act has contributed a lot in making the consumer movement extensive in India. These courts along with deciding the disputes of consumers also guide them.

The Department of Consumer Affairs of the Government of India has launched several schemes to make the consumers aware, such as establishment of consumer organisations in every district, and consumer clubs in schools etc. To bring awareness towards the right of consumers, Awareness camps are organised at different levels. In India, 24th December, is celebrated as the ‘National Consumers Day’. As a result of consumer movement in India awareness has increased among consumers sufficiently. Today, there are more than 700 consumer organisations working. But due to the indifferen behaviour of consumers the number of effective and recognised organisations are very less.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 19 Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (i)
National Consumer Day is celebrated on
(a) 20 December
(b) 22 Decemeber
(c) 24 December
(d) 26 Decemeber.
Answer:
(c) 24 December

Question (ii)
The mark of Agmark and ISI is given to
(a) Industrial goods
(b) Agricultural goods
(c) Consumer goods
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c).

Question (iii)
Essential Goods Act was passed in the year of –
(a) 1953
(b) 1954
(c) 1955
(d) 1956.
Answer:
(c) 1955

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Golden jewellery are marked by ………………
2. Weights and Standard Measures Act was passed in the year of ………………
3. Consumer ……………… is necessery.
4. The Consumer Protection Act inforced in ……………… (MP Board 2009)

Answer:

1. Hallmark
2. 1976
3. Awareness
4. 1986.

Question 3.
True and False:

1. ISI is related to the right of Consumer Act.
2. Government passed the Right to Information Act in 2005.
3. Producer of a goods is itself the seller of the goods.
4. The mark which standardises the quality of agriculture products is called Agmark. (MP Board 2009, Set D)

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True.

Answer in One – Two Words or One Sentence:

Question 1.
What do you mean by consumer awareness?
Answer:
Consumer awareness means creating awareness of a consumer towards his rights and duties.

Question 2.
Who is consumer?
Answer:
Consumer is a person who buy commodity from the market. We all are consumers.

Question 3.
What is inflation?
Answer:
The sharp and persistent rise in the price level is known as inflation.

Question 4.
Mention two beneficiaries of price rise?
Answer:

1. Debtors
2. Farmers

Question 5.
Mention three sufferers of price rise?
Answer:

1. Salaried people
2. Creditors
3. Middle class.

Question 6.
What do you mean by standardisation of product?
Answer:
Maintaining quality, grade, size and elements of the product uniform is known as standardisation of product.

Question 7.
What is public distribution system?
Answer:
Distribution of essential commodities through government controlled points of distribution is termed as public distribution system.

Question 8.
Mention two acts concerned with the standardisation of product?
Answer:

1. The Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marketing) Act, 1937.
2. The Bureau of Indian Standard Act, 1986.

Question 9.
Name the beneficiaries of price rise.
Answer:

1. Debtors
2. Agriculture
3. Exporters
4. Job seekers
5. Manufactures, wholesalers and retailers

Question 10.
Name the sufferers from price rise?
Answer:

1. Wage earners
2. Salaried people
3. Middle class,
4. Tax payers
5. Creditors and
6. Importers.

Question 11.
Name the father of Consumer Movement?
Answer:
Ralph Nadar a consumer activist is known as the father of consumer movement.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 19 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is high prices?
Answer:
Generally the shopkeepers take more price than the fixed retail price according to their own wish. You might also have experienced that we buy a costly commodity from a shop and the same good is in less price in another shop. If we show him the printed price then he gives us some excuse such as local tax etc.

Question 2.
Why the consumer protection organisations are less effective?
Answer:
As a result of consumer movement in India awareness has increased among consumers sufficiently. Today, there are more than 700 consumer organisations working. But due to the indifferent behaviour of consumers the number of effective and recognised organisations are very less.

Question 3.
Name the consumer courts at the district, state and national levels?
Answer:

1. District Forum.
2. State Consumer Commission
3. National Consumer Commission.

Question 4.
Establish relationship of price rise or fall of goods with their demand?
Answer:
When the price of goods supply tends to fall and their supply tends to increase. When the price of goods falls the demand for goods tends to rise and their supply tends to fall.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 19 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How inflation is stimulant to growth?
Answer:
According to Therwal and Brown A slow and steady rate of inflation provides the most powerful aid to the attainment of a steady rate of economic progress. According to this school of thought deliberate deficit financing through forced savings and channelising them to capital formation will increase output and result in all-round progress. Inflationary financing is justified theoretically on the ground of low rate of voluntary savings in under developed countries, in elastic tax structure and structural rigidities.

Question 2.
Mention factors leading to, consumer exploitation?
Answer:

1. Illiteracy and ignorance of consumers
2. Fatalism of consumers
3. Compromising attitude
4. Unrecorded sales
5. Non – standard product
6. Dishonest manufactures and sellers.

Question 3.
Write any five duties of consumer? (MP Board 2009)
Or
Write the duties of consumer? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
The duties of consumers are:

1. Consumers should look at the quality of goods
2. Consumers should look at the guarantee of the products and services.
3. Consumers should ask for cash memo, wherever possible.
4. Consumers should purchase goods marked with ISI, AGMARK, etc.
5. Consumers should form consumer awareness organisation.
6. Consumers must make complaints for their genuine grievances.

Question 4.
How can a consumer protect himself against exploitation?
Or
Write any five measures to save the consumer from exploitation. (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
A consumer protects himself against exploitation through the following rules of carefulness:

1. To take bill, receipt, guarantee cards etc., and to preserve them carefully.
2. To increase or decrease the consumption according to the supply of commodity.
3. To have die knowledge of consumer protection laws.
4. To discourage the black marketing and smuggling.
5. One must complaint about the actual problems whether the price of product may be too less. Due to this the cheating tendency of the sellers is reduced.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 19 Long  Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain briefly sufferers of price rise?
Answer:
Adverse Consequences of Price rise (Sufferers from Price rise):

1. Wage earners:
As wages do not increase in proportion to the rise in price level, wage earners are the most hard hit.

2. Salaried people:
The real purchasing power of money has fallen in India due to inflation. The salaries do not increase in the proportion to a rise in price level. Therefore, the salaried people are loser in inflation.

3. Middle class:
The middle class is the worst sufferer in inflation. Owing to an abnormal rise in the cost of living, they are most exposed to the evil consequences of inflation.

4. Creditors:
Creditors are also losers, because they had lent out, when money was dearer; and is being paid back, when it has become cheaper.

5. Tax payers:
Tax payers are also hard hit during the inflation period. They have to bear the increasing tax burden, which government imposes to meet out its increasing expenditure.

6. Importers:
As importers have to pay more in terms of rupees, so they are losers. Inflation generates widespread unrest. It has threatened political and social stability. This is why, we plan to achieve ‘growth with stability’. Price stability is undoubtedly a basic requirement for overall stability.

Question 2.
Explain briefly factors leading to consumer exploitation?
Answer:
Factors Leading to Consumer Exploitation:
Inspite of a lot of cry about consumer awareness, it is felt that the consumer is being exploited even now. The following factors are responsible for the exploitation of consumers.

1. lliteracy and ignorance of the consumers:
The majority of our population is illiterate and ignorant. They cannot differentiate between right quality and sub – standard quality of goods. They cannot read the names and constituents of the product. Due to these weaknesses they are befooled.

2. Fatalism of consumers:
Many consumers think that whatever is supplied to them at whatever price is the gift of God. The substandard quality of goods was fated to them. No one else is responsible for their misery.

3. Compromising attitude:
Indian consumers are by nature compromising. They are not habituated of making complaints and fight with the sellers. There is no one to safeguard their interest, if they^are not going even to complain about the cheating. In law also tire aggrieved party has to move the court.

4. Unrecorded sales:
Most of the sales remain unrecorded, so no suit can be filed against such sales. In practice, we do not insist on receipts and cash memos. Consequently we are cheated and no one can help us.

5. Non – standard product:
Generally products being used by the majority of people is non – standard. There is no guarantee for non – standard product and the poor consumers are cheated.

6. Dishonest manufacturers and sellers:
The manufacturers and sellers are dishonest both in the manufacturing and supplying product. They manipulate the deal in their favour and cheat the consumers.

7. Lengthy legal process:
The educated and literate consumers also avoid filing suit in the consumer courts, because the suit lasts long. It takes long time and the consumer has to remain in tension about decision of the case.

Question 3.
Make a list of different legislations enacted to protect consumers interest?
Answer:
Legislations Ensuring Consumer Rights: In order to protect consumer’s interest the government has enacted the following legislations:

1. The Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marketing) Act, 1937.
2. Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
3. Prevention and Control of Pollution Act, 1974.
4. Environment Protection Act.
5. The Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976.
6. The Prevention of Goods Adulteration Act, 1976.
7. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1946.
8. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969.
9. The Prevention of Black Marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980.
10. The Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986.
11. Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

Question 4.
Explain briefly, what remedies are available to consumers?
Answer:
Remedies Available to the Consumer:

1. To remove the defect pointed out by the appropriate laboratory from the goods supplied.
2. To replace the defective goods with new goods of similar description which are free from any defect.
3. To return the complainant the price paid for the goods or the charges paid for the services.
4. To pay the aggrieved consumer such amount as may be fixed by the Forum as compensation for any loss or injury suffered by the consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party.
5. To remove the defects or deficiencies in the services supplied.
6. To discontinue the unfair trade practice or the restrictive trade practice or not to repeat them.
7. Not to offer the hazardous goods for sale.
8. To withdraw the hazardous goods from being offered for sale.
9. To provide for adequate costs to parties.

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 North America-Geographical Features Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 13 North America-Geographical Features

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 13 Text Book Exercise

Choose the correct option of the following

Question 1.
Due to the meeting of which current near New Found-land thick fog develops?
(a) Gulf stream and Alaska current.
(b) Gulf stream and California.
(c) Gulf stream and Labrador current.
(d) Labrador and Alaska current.
Answer:
(c) Gulf stream and Labrador current.

Question 2.
Which of the following climate is known for winter rain?
(a) Desert climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Tundra climate
(d) Equatorial climate
Answer:
(c) Tundra climate

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 13 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the latitude and longitude expense of North America?
Answer:
North America is situated in Northern Hemisphere. North America lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere. It lies between 10° N and 70°N latitudes and 50° W and 170° W longitudes.

Question 2.
Which is the highest mountain peak of North America?
Answer:
Mt. McKinley is the highest mountain peak of North America. It is 6194 meters above sea level.

Question 3.
Write the names of great lakes of Northern America?
Answer:

1. Superior
2. Michigan
3. Hurin
4. Eris
5. Ontario are famous great lakes of Northern America.

Question 4.
Name the four ocean currents which influence the climate of North America?
Answer:
Gulf Stream, Labrador Current, California Current and the Alaska Current are the four currents which influence the climate of’ North America.

Question 5.
Write two qualities of Coniferous forests?
Answer:

•  In this area mostly the land is covered with snow so big trees can not grow.
• The top of the trees which are in one shape cannot hold the snow and it falls down on the earth and so the branches are stooped. Spruce, pine, larch, oak and redwood tree are main trees.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 13 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write names of three plateaus of North America with their locations.
Answer:

• In the east lies Rocky mountain range, Sierra Nevada in central and coastal range in western area. Among these mountains ranges there is inter-mountain Plateau Great Basin. The Plateau of Colorado lies in South of Great Britain.
• Eastern Highlands include the Appalachian Mountains and their extensions. In the east there is Labrador plateau.
• To the South east of the Eastern Highlands lies the plateau of Appalachian. These ancient plateaus are deposits of minerals.

Question 2.
Write the reasons of diversities in the vegetation of North America.
Answer:
Climate and physical features have great influence on natural vegetation, as the origin and growth both depends on the climate. North America is a continent where barring Mediterranean vegetation, all types of vegetation of world are found. Due to diversity in climate and uneven distribution in rainfall, diversity is seen in vegetation also. North America is rich in forest wealth.

Question 3.
Write the three characteristics of Mediterranean vegetation?
Answer:
The Western Central areas have Mediterranean vegetation. Here trees of Oaks, Cheer, Olive, Redwood, Cork and juicy fruits grow in larger number. The valley of California is famous for fruits production. The bark of trees and leaves are thick, soft and wide fine trees are thorny which protects trees from dying

Question 4.
What is the difference be Cordilleras and Canyon?
Answer:

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 13 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the names of North America’s physical features and define in brief?
Answer:
Major Physical Divisions of North America:
North America may be divided into three major physical divisions. They are Western Cordilleras the Eastern Highlands and the Central Lowlands.

1. The Western Cordilleras:

• The vast mountainous area in the western part of the continent is known as Western Cordillera.
• They extend from north to south along the entire length of the continent.
• The highest peak of the Western Cordillera is Mt. Mckinley.
• Most of the rivers of North America rise in Western Cordilleras.
• These mountains consist of several parallel ranges. The Rocky Mountain is the most prominent among them.
• The coastal range and the Sierra Nevada are the two other ranges.
• The plateaus between these range are called inter montane plateau. Colorado plateau is an important  inter montane plateau of North America.
• There are many active volcanoes in Alaska and Mexico.

2. The Eastern Highlands:

• These highlands consist of Appalachian Mountains and their extensions in Labrador and New Found land.
• They are much older. These old mountains have been worn down by agents of gradation for the long period of time. They are now very low in height.

3. The Great Central Plains:

1. They lie between the Western Cordillera and the Eastern Highlands.
2. They have two distinct parts:
   • In the north it is occupied by the Canadian Shield and the basin of the river Mackenzie,
   • The Central and Southern part is very low and flat basin of the river Missouri-Mississippi.
3. The Great Central Plain has a very fertile river basin.
4. There is Hudson Bay surrounding by the Canadian Shield.
5. To the south of the Canadian Shield are five great lakes of fresh water. They are Lake Superior, Lake Huron,
6. Lake Erie, Lake Michigan and Lake Ontario.
7. The famous Niagara falls lie between Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
8. River St. Lawrence is an important river of this region.

Question 2.
Mention about the Coniferous forest and wildlife?
Answer:
In the south of Tundra, the wide stretch of last to west experiences very cold winter and the summer is normal. In this entire area the coniferous forest belts are found these forests contain trees of Chir, Larche, Spruce and Fir. The woods of these forests are very soft and they are used as pulp for paper and furniture. These forests have wild life like bear, polar bear, fox, wolfs, rabbits and stags.

Question 3.
Elaborate the factors that affect climate of North America?
Answer:
1. These are four factors which affect the climate of North America:
The latitudinal expansion of continents. North America extends from the Tropics in the South to the Sub-tropical in the Central and South to the Arctic in the North. Therefore, the southern part is comparatively hot, the central part alternatively hot and cold and the northern part very cold. Most of the North America is in Temperate Zone.

2. Surface diversities:
In the West cordillera holds the Western winds and brings excess rain while the east slope gets very less rain due to rain shadow area. That is why the plains of Prahie receive very less rain but as we move from the plains of Praries to east, southeast plateaus and mountains, the rains increase gradually. In the north of the continent it rains in the form of snowfall and it is less because this area is low-lying area. .

3. Permanent winds:
In the west Cordilleras and high lands in the east, both extending from North to South have very vast plain. The polar winds from north in winter and the hot summer winds from south affects the vast plains. Therefore, it is cold in winter and hot in the summer. The southern and the southeastern coasts of the continent come in the region of the trade winds and the north-western coast falls in the region of the westerlies.

These parts therefore receive heavy rains. The westerlies start blowing over Western California. This brings winter rains to California. The Monsoon winds affect the Mexican region. Therefore, it receives rains in the summer. Due to trade winds the Gulf of Mexico and south-eastern Coastal area receive the rains throughout the year.

4. Effect of Currents:
The hot and cold currents flowing near coasts affect the climate mostly. The Gulf Stream flows along the south-eastern coast of the continent and the Alaska current flows along the north western coast. The cold Labrador current passes by the northeastern part and the California current flows along the south-western part. So the climate is very cold. Near New Found land the cold and hot currents meet and this causes dense fig. So it is very helpful for fishing. This area is known as fishing banks.

Project Work
Show the following in the map of North America.

1. All pachian Mountain, Rocky Mountain.
2. Mississippi, St Lawrence, Colorado rivers.
3. Great Lakes and Winnipeg.
4. Mexico, Hudson and California.
5. Prairie plains.
6. Arizona Desert.
7. Plataea of Labrador.
8. Gulf-stream, Labrador Currents.
9. Tropic of Cancer.
10. Western island, Greenland, New Found land.

Answer:

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 11 Intext Questions

Class 10th Science Chapter 11 Intext Questions Page No. 190

Question 1.
What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye?
Answer:
The ability of the eye to focus the distant objects as well as the nearby objects on the retina by changing focal length or converging power of its lens is called accommodation. The normal eye has a power of accommodation which enables the object as close as 25cm & as far as infinity to be focused on its retina.

Question 2.
A person with a myopic eye can not see objects beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should be the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision?
Answer:
The person is able to see nearby objects clearly, but he is unable to see objects beyond 1.2m. This happens because the image of an object beyond 1.2 m is formed in front of the retina and not at the retina, as shown in the figure.

To correct this defect of vision, he must use a concave lens. The concave lens will bring the image back to the retina is shown in the given figure.

Fig. 11.1 Myopic eyes and their correction.

Question 3.
What is the far point and near point of the human eye with normal vision?
Answer:
Far point of the human eye with normal vision is near than infinity and near point is 1.2 m.

Question 4.
A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could be the defect the child is suffering from? How can it be corrected?
Answer:
A student has difficulty reading the black board while sitting in the last row means he is suffering from myopia. This defect can be corrected using concave lens of suitable power.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 11 NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
The human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens. This is due to:
(a) presbyopia
(b) accommodation
(c) near-sightednes
(d) far-sightedness
Answer:
(b) Human eye can change the focal length of the eye lens to see the objects situated at various distances from the eye. This is possible due to the power of accommodation of the eye lens.

Question 2.
The human eye forms the image of an object at its:
(a) cornea
(b) iris
(c) pupil
(d) retina
Answer:
(d) The human eye forms the image of an object at its retina.

Question 3.
The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about
(a) 25 m.
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 25 cm
(d) 2.5 m
Answer:
(c) 25 cm

Question 4.
The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the
(a) pupil.
(b) retina
(c) ciliary muscles
(d) iris
Answer:
(c) ciliary muscles

Question 5.
A person needs a lens of power – 5.5 dioptres for correcting his distant vision. For correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near vision he needs a lens of power + 1.5 dioptre. What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting (i) distinct vision, and (ii) near vision?
Answer:
i) Lens required for correcting
distant vision = – 5.5
Focal length of lens F \(=\frac{1}{P}\)
\(\mathrm{F}=\frac{1}{-5.5}=0.181 \mathrm{m}\)
Lens required for correcting this defect =-0.181 M
ii) Lens required for correcting near vision = + 1.5 D
Focal length of lens F \(=\frac{1}{P}\)
\(F=\frac{1}{1.5}=0.667 \mathrm{m}\)

Question 6.
The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and power of the lens required to correct the problem?
Answer:
The person is suffering from an eye defect called myopia. In this defect, the image is formed in front of the retina. Hence, a concave lens is used to correct this defect of vision.
Object-distance, u = infinity
Image-distance, v = -80 cm
Focal length = f
According to the lens formula,

A concave lens of Power – 1.25 D is required by the person to correct his defect.

Question 7.
Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 m. What is the power of the lens required to correct this defect? Assume that the near point of the normal eye is 25 cm.
Answer:
A person suffering from hypermetropia can see distinct objects clearly but faces difficulty in seeing nearby objects clearly. It happens because . the eye lens focuses the incoming divergent rays beyond the retina. This defect of vision is corrected by using a convex lens. A convex lens of suitable power converges the incoming light in such a way that the image is formed on the retina, as shown in the following figure.

Fig. 11.2: Correction for hypermetropic eye.

The convex lens actually creates a virtual image of a nearby object (N’ in the figure) at the near point of vision (N) of the person suffering from hypermetropia. The given person will be able to clearly see the object kept at 25 cm (Near point of the normal eye), if the image of the object is formed at his near point, which is given as 1 m.

Object-distance, u = -25 cm
Image-distance, v = -1m = -100m
Focal length, f = ?

Using the lens formula,
\(\frac { 1 }{ v } \) – \(\frac { 1 }{ u } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ f } \)
\(\frac { 1 }{ -100 } \) – \(\frac { 1 }{ -25 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ f } \)
\(\frac { 1 }{ f } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 25 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ f } \)
\(\frac { 1 }{ f } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 25 } \) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
\(\frac { 1 }{ f } \) = \(\frac { 4-1 }{ 100 } \)
f = \(\frac { 100 }{ 3 } \) = 33.3 cm = 0.33cm

A convex lens of power + 3.0 D is required to correct the defect.

Question 8.
Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Answer:
The maximum accommodation of a normal eye is reached when the object is at a distance of 25 cm from the eye. The focal length of the eye lens cannot be decreased below this minimum limit. Thus an object placed closer than 25cm [or very close to eye] cannot be seen clearly by a normal eye.

Question 9.
What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object from the eye?
Answer:
The distance eye lens and retina is the image distance inside the eye. The image distance is fixed. It cannot be changed at all. Therefore, when we increase the distance of an object from the eye, there is no change in the image distance inside the eye.

Question 10.
Why do stars twinkle?
Answer:
Stars emit their own light and they twinkle due to the atmospheric refraction of light. Stars are very far away from the earth. Hence, they are considered as point sources of light. When the light coming from stars enters the earth’s atmosphere, it gets refracted at different levels because of the variation in the air density at different levels of the atmosphere. When the star’s light refracted by the atmosphere comes more towards us, it appears brighter than when it comes less towards us. Therefore, it appears as if the stars are twinkling at night.

Question 11.
Explain why the planets do not twinkle.
Answer:
Planets do not twinkle because they appear larger in size than the stars as they are relatively closer to earth. Planets can be considered as a collection of a large number of point-size sources of light. The different parts of these planets produce either brighter or dimmer effect in such a way that the average of brighter and dimmer effect is zero. Hence, the twinkling effects of the planets are nullified and they do not twinkle.

Question 12.
Why does the Sun appear reddish early in the morning?
Answer:
Light from the Sun near the horizon passes through thicker layers of air and larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere before reaching our eyes. However, light from the Sun overhead would travel relatively shorter distance. At noon, the Sun appears white as only a little of the blue and violet colours are scattered. Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the Sun.

Question 13.
Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?
Answer:
When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter the blue colour (shorter wavelength more strongly than red. The scattered blue light enters our eyes. If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not have been any scattering. Then the sky would have looked dark. The sky appears dark to astronaut flying at very high attitude, as scattering is not prominent at such heights.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 11 Additional Important Questions

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 11 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When our eye see a near object, its lens?
(a) Expand
(b) Remain same
(c) Contract
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Expand

Question 2.
What transfer information from eyes to brain?
(a) Neuro trans
(b) Iris
(c) Optical nerve
(d) Retina
Answer:
(c) Optical nerve

Question 3.
What controls the size of pupil?
(a) Iris
(b) Cornea
(c) Lens
(d) Aqueous humour
Answer:
(a) Iris

Question 4.
Near point of human eye is approximately:
(a) 50 cm
(b) 1 m
(c) 25 cm
(d) 25 m
Answer:
(c) 25 cm

Question 5.
Far point of human eye is approximately:
(a) 10 km
(b) infinity
(c) 5 km
(d) 25 cm
Answer:
(a) 10 km

Question 6.
Cataract is caused mostly to
(a) Farm workers
(b) Factory workers
(c) Kids watching TV and Mobiles
(d) Old age people
Answer:
(d) Old age people

Question 7.
In which kind of defect, image of a distant object is formed in front of retina?
(a) Myopia
(b) Cataract
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) Presbyopia
Answer:
(a) Myopia

Question 8.
A concave lens with correct power can help a person with
(a) Hypermetropia
(b) Myopia
(c) Presbyopia
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Myopia

Question 9.
Adjusting “cording to object’s distance from eye is called
(a) Vision power
(b) Motivation
(c) Accommodation power
(d) Presbyopia
Answer:
(c) Accommodation power

Question 10.
For an eye donation, eyes must be removed within ……… after death.
(a) 8 hours
(b) 25 hours
(c) 4-6 hours
(d) None.
Answer:
(c) 4-6 hours

Question 11.
What type of lens are required to correct a vision of hypermetropic eyes?
(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) both
(d) Plane mirror is required ;
Answer:
(b) Convex

Question 12.
When we pass a light through a prism, it is
(a) Refracted
(b) Scattered
(c) Reflected
(d) Inverted
Answer:
(a) Refracted

Question 13.
Which colour lies in centre of a rainbow?
(a) Red
(b) Violet
(c) Yellow
(d) Green
Answer:
(d) Green

Question 14.
If two prism are placed inverted to each other and white light is passed from one prism, what will we get refracted by other prism?
(a) VIBGYO
(b) white light
(c) All light will be absorbed
(d) Black spot
Answer:
(b) white light

Question 15.
We see twinkling of stars due to:
(a) Reflection of light.
(b) Refraction of light
(c) Scattering of light
(d) Polarization of light
Answer:
(b) Refraction of light

Question 16.
Particle looks moving in smoke filled place, when a light beam coming from a whole passes through it, because:
(a) Tyndall effect
(b) atmospheric refraction
(c) White light spectrum
(d) reflection
Answer:
(a) Tyndall effect

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 11 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where image is formed in our eyes?
Answer:
Retina.

Question 2.
Which part of eye helps in adjustment of lens according to distance?
Answer:
Lens.

Question 3.
Which nerve transfer information regarding image to brain?
Answer:
Optic nerve.

Question 4.
What is power of accommodation?
Answer:
The ability of the eye to focus both near and distant objects, by adjusting its focal length is called power of accommodation of eyes.

Question 5.
How many points of accommodation are set to observe clarity of a person’s vision?
Answer:
Two-far point and near point.

Question 6.
What is the maximum distance till which a person with normal eye can see?
Answer:
No limit, infinite distance.

Question 7.
Name common refractive defects of eyes.
Answer:
Myopia, Hypermetropia and Presbyopia.

Question 8.
What kind of lens is used to correct a myopic defect in a person?
Answer:
Concave.

Question 9.
What kind of treatment is available to correct a cataract?
Answer:
Surgery.

Question 10.
What is bifocal lens?
Answer:
Lens made by both concave and convex lens is called bifocal lens.

Question 11.
What happens to the light ray entering a prism?
Answer:
The light ray get refracted.

Question 12.
What happens if white light is passed through a prism?
Answer:
It Scatters to seven colours spectral pattern.

Question 13.
What is an emergent ray?
Answer:
Ray which comes out after being refracted from a prism is called emergent ray.

Question 14.
Why sky looks red at sunrise and sunset?
Answer:
Scattering of white light.

Question 15.
Which colour light bend most after coming out of a triangular prism?
Answer:
Violet.

Question 16.
Why we never see a shadow without light?
Answer:
When light passes through an object, it get partially deviated or absorbed so, disappear from that very way which forms a shadow.

Question 17.
Why light ray in a dusty room look sparkling and moving?
Answer:
Due to tyndall effect.

Question 18.
Why we can observe a star twinkling?
Answer:
Due to atmospheric refraction.

Question 19.
What is the time difference between actual and observed sunrise and sunset?
Answer:
2 minutes.

Question 20.
Why sky looks blue to all of us?
Answer:
Due to scattering of light.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 11 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why does the Sun appear reddish early in the morning?
Answer:
Early in the morning, the sun is near the horzion. Sunlight reaches us after covering a large thickness of the atmosphere. So, shorter waves of blue region are almost completely scattered away by the air molecules. Red waves of longer wavelength are least scattered and reach our eyes. The sun appears red.

Question 2.
Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?
Answer:
The atmosphere is quite thin at very high altitudes. There is almost no scattering of sunlight. So, the sky appears dark to an astronaut.

Question 3.
Why is a concave lens used to correct myopia or short-sightedness?
Answer:
A concave lens of suitable focal length diverges the parallel rays from the distant object as if they are coming from the far point F of the myopic eye. This helps the eye lens to form a clear image at the retina.

Question 4.
Dispersion is caused by refraction not by reflection. Why?
Answer:
The reason is that for a given angle of incidence, the angle of reflection is same for all the wavelengths of white light while the angle of refraction is different for different wavelengths.

Question 5.
A hypermetropic person prefers to remove his spectacles, while driving. Give reason.
Answer:
When a hypermetropic person wearing the spectacles looks at a distant object, the parallel rays from the distant object get converged in front of the retina. The image appears blurred. In order to avoid this, the person prefers to remove his spectacles.

Question 6.
Give reasons for the following:

1. The stars appear to twinkie.
2. The planets do not twinkle.

Answer:

1. Stars appear to twinkle due to atmospheric refraction of starlight and physical conditions of the earth’s atmosphere are not being stationary.
2. Planets are much closer to the earth and are seen as extended sources. The fluctuations caused in the amount of light due to atmospheric refraction are negligible. Hence, planets do not twinkle.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 11 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why does the Sun seem to rise two minutes before the actual sunrise and set two minutes after the actual sunset? Explain with the help of labelled diagram.
Answer:
Advance sunrise and delayed sunset. Apparent shift in the position of sun at sunrise and sunset:
The sun is visible before actual sunrise and after actual sunset, because of atmospheric refraction. With altitude, the density and hence, refractive index of air-layer decreases. As shown in Fig. given the light rays starting from the sun travel from rarer to denser layers. They bend more and more towards the normal. To an observer on the earth, light rays appear to come from position S. The sun which is actually in position S below the horizon appears in position S above the horizon.

Fig. 11.6: Atmospheric refraction effect at sun rise.

Thus, the sun appears to rise early by about two minutes and for the same reason, it appears to set late by about two minutes. This increases the length of the day by about four minutes.

Question 2.
“Stars appear higher than they actually are.” Give reason.
Or
Is the position of a star as seen by us its true position? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Since, the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. The stars appear slightly higher (above) than their actual position when viewed near the horizon.

Question 3.
Why do we observe the apparent random wavering or flickering of objects when seen through a turbulent stream of hot air rising above fire, a stove or radiator?
Answer:
This is due to atmospheric refraction i.e., refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere. The air just above the fire becomes hotter than air further up. Hotter air is lighter (less denser) than the cooler air (denser) above it. This causes refraction of light due to decrease of refractive index with decreasing density or increasing temperature. Since, the physical conditions of the refracting medium (air) are not stationary, the apparent positions of the objects, as seen through the hot air, fluctuate. Consequently, the objects seen through such air show a wavering effect.

Question 4.
Why do we see stars appear twinkling whereas planets do not twinkle?
Or
A star sometimes appear brighter and some other times fainter. What is this defect called, state reason for this effect.
Answer:
Twinkling of stars: Differential the apparent position of a star is slightly different from the actual position due to refraction of starlight by the atmosphere. Further, this apparent position is not stationary but keeps on changing due to the change in atmospheric conditions like density, temperature etc. The path of the rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly. The amount of light entering our eyes from a particular star increases or decreases randomly with time.

Fig. 11.7: Apparent star position due to atmospheric refraction.

Sometimes, the star appears bright and other times, it appears fainter. This gives rise to the twinkling effect of the star.

The planets do not show twinkling effect. As the planets are much closer to the earth, the amount of light received from them is much greater and the fluctuations caused in the amount of light due to atmospheric refraction are negligible as compared to the amount of light received from them.

Question 5.
What is tyndall effect? What is its cause? Name two phenomena observed in daily life which are based on Tyndall effect.
Or
A beam of light is allowed to pass through two beakers A and B containing a true solution and colloidal solution respectively. What do you observe? Name the phenomenon responsible for your observation.
Answer:
Tyndall effect: When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution, placed in a dark room, the path of beam becomes illuminated (or visible), when observed through a microscope placed perpendicular to the path of light. This effect is called Tyndall effect.

On the other hand, the path of a beam of light is not visible through a true solution, as shown in figure 11.8.

Fig. 11.8: Tyndall effect.

Cause of Tyndall effect: The size of the colloidal particle is relatively larger than the solute particle of a true solution. The colloidal particles first absorb energy from the incident light and then scatter a part of this energy from their surfaces. Thus, Tyndall effect is due to scattering of light by the colloidal particles and the colloidal particles are seen as points of light moving against a dark background.

Some daily life phenomena based on Tyndall effect are as follows:

1. When a fine beam of sunlight enters a smoke filled room through a small hole, the smoke particles become visible due to the scattering of light.
2. When sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense forest, the tiny water droplets in the mist scatter light and become visible.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 11 NCERT Textbook Activities

Class 10 Science Activity 11.1 Page No. 192

• Fix a sheet cf white paper on a drawing board using drawing pins.
• Fife a glass prism on it in such a way that it rests on its triangular fee. Trace the outline of the prism using a pencil.
• Draw a straight line PE inclined to one of the refracting surfaces, say AB, of the prism.
• Fix two pins, say at points P and Q, on the line PE as shown in Fig. 11.3.
• Look for the images of the pins, fixed at P and Q, through the other face AC.
• Fix two more pins, at points R and S, such that the pins at R and S and the images of the pins at P and Q lie on the same straight line.
• Remove the pins and the glass prism.
• The line PE meets the boundary of the prism at point E (see Fig. 11.3). Similarly, join and produce the points R and S. Let these lines meet the boundary of the prism at E and F, respectively. Join E and F.
• Draw perpendiculars to the refracting surfaces AB and AC of the prism at points E and F, respectively.
• Mark the angle of incidence (∠i), the angle of refraction (∠r) and the angle of emergence (∠e) as shown in Fig. 11.3.

PE – Incident ray – ∠i – Angle of incidence
EF – Refracted ray ∠r – Angle of refraction
FS – Emergent ray ∠e – Angle of emergence
∠A – Angle of the prism – ∠D – Angle of deviation

Fig. 11.3 : Refraction of tight through a triangular glass prism

Observations:

• The light rays enter the prism and emerge out as the emergent ray. The light ray bent towards the normal upon refraction. At the second surface, the light ray enters from glass to air. The emergent ray appears to be coming along the rays FRS, the angle between the incident ray produced forward and the emergent ray produced backward, is called the angle of deviation.

Class 10 Science Activity 11.2 Page No. 193

• Take a thick sheet of cardboard and make a small hole or narrow slit in its middle.
• Allow sunlight to fall on the narrow slit. This gives a narrow beam of white light.
• Now, take a glass prism and allow the light from the slit to fall on one of its faces as shown in Fig. 11.4.
  
  Fig. 11.4: Dispersion of white light by the glass prism.
• Turn the prism slowly until the light that comes out of it appears on a nearby screen.
• What do you observe? You will find a beautiful band of colours. Why does this happen?

Observations:

• The white light gets dispersed into seven colour components by a prism. The band of the coloured components of a light beam is called spectrum. The splitting of light into its component colours is called dispersion. The colours bends at different angles as they pass through prism and are observed separately as VIBGYOR.

Class 10 Science Activity 11.3 Page No. 196

• Place a strong source (S) of white light at the focus of a converging lens (L). This lens provides a parallel beam of light.
• Allow the light beam to pass through a transparent glass tank containing clear water.
• Allow the beam of light to pass through a circular hole (e) made in a cardboard. Obtain a shaip image of the circulai hole on a screen (MN) using a second converging lens (L₂), as shown in Fig. 11.5
  
  Fig. 11.5: An arrangement for observing scattering of light in colloidal solution.
• Dissolve about 200 g of sodium thiosulphate (hypo) in about 2 L of clean water taken in the tank. Add about 1 to 2 mL of concentrated sulphuric acid to the water. What do you observe?

Observations:

• The microscopic particles of sulphur precipitate, in about 2 to 3 minutes. As they precipitate, the blue light from the three sides of the glass tank is seen. This happens due to scattering of short wavelengths by minute colloidal sulphur particles.

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 12th Hindi Solutions Chapter 3 गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 12th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 3 गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी (संस्मरण, भगवतीचरण वर्मा)

गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी अभ्यास प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
भगवतीचरण वर्मा का प्रथम परिचय गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी से कब और कैसे हुआ?
उत्तर:
गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी कानपुर नगर से प्रकाशित होने वाले साप्ताहिक पत्र प्रताप के सम्पादक-संचालक थे। लगभग 13-14 वर्ष की आयु में लेखक को कविता लिखने का शौक प्रारम्भ हुआ। सन् 1917 में अपनी पहली कविता के प्रकाशनार्थ लेखक महोदय फीलखाना स्थित ‘प्रताप’ के कार्यालय में पहुँचे। कार्यालय में प्रवेश करते ही एक बड़े-से हॉल में चार-छह आदमी बैठे हुए काम करते दिखाई दिये। एक व्यक्ति अपने विचारों में खोया हुआ इधर-उधर टहल रहा था। दुबला-सा युवक,धोती और कमीज पहने हुए,मुख पर अधिकार की भावना,वही गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी थे। विद्यार्थीजी के पूछने पर “क्या काम है?”,लेखक ने अपनी कविता आगे बढ़ाते हुए उसे ‘प्रताप’ में स्थान देने का आग्रह किया। विद्यार्थीजी ने लेखक को कविता एक अन्य कमरे में बैठे दूसरे व्यक्ति को देने के लिए कहा और पुनः अपने विचारों में मग्न हो गये। श्री गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थीजी से लेखक का यह प्रथम परिचय था, निहायत उखड़ा हुआ और रूखा-सा।

प्रश्न 2.
कानपुर में किन-किन साहित्यकारों से भगवतीचरण वर्मा की मित्रता हुई? (2015, 16)
उत्तर:
अपनी प्रारम्भिक कविताओं के ‘प्रताप’ में छपने के दो-तीन साल के अन्दर ही लेखक की मित्रता कानपुर के सुप्रसिद्ध साहित्यकार श्री विश्वम्भरनाथ शर्मा ‘कौशिक’,बालकृष्ण शर्मा ‘नवीन’ एवं श्री रमाशंकर अवस्थी जैसे उच्चकोटि के साहित्यकारों से हो गई थी।

प्रश्न 3.
गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी के व्यक्तित्व की विशेषताओं पर प्रकाश डालिए। (2010, 14)
उत्तर:
गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी का व्यक्तित्व अत्यन्त विशाल एवं गहरा था। उनके व्यक्तित्व की अन्य विशेषताओं को निम्नलिखित बिन्दुओं के माध्यम से स्पष्ट किया जा सकता है-
(1) साधारण कद :
काठी एवं पहनावा-गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी की कद-काठी साधारण थी। वे साधारण कद के दुबले-पतले से युवा थे। उनका पहनावा भी अत्यन्त साधारण होता था। वे अक्सर धोती-कमीज पहना करते थे।

(2) गम्भीर व्यक्तित्व :
साधारण कद-काठी के स्वामी गणेश शंकरजी का व्यक्तित्व बेहद गम्भीर था। उनकी सोच उच्च दर्जे की थी। वे अक्सर किसी भी समस्या के समाधान को ढूँढ़ने के क्रम में गम्भीरतापूर्वक विचार किया करते थे।

(3) निर्भीक सम्पादक एवं संचालक :
अंग्रेजों के शासन काल में कानपुर नगर से न सिर्फ उन्होंने ‘प्रताप’ का सफल प्रकाशन एवं संचालन किया, बल्कि निर्भीकता के साथ उन्होंने सरकार की गलत नीतियों, पूँजीपतियां द्वारा मजदूरों के होने वाले शोषण पर अपनी बात कही। वास्तव में,उनका समाचार-पत्र प्रताप’ भारतवर्ष का एक अति शक्तिशाली साप्ताहिक पत्र बन गया था। उनकी लेखनी, वाणी और व्यक्तित्व में बला का ओज था।

(4) महान् देशभक्त एवं समाज परिवर्तक :
गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी महान् देशभक्त थे। अंग्रेजों के चंगुल से माँ भारती को स्वतन्त्र कराने की प्रबल महत्वाकांक्षा उनके मन-मस्तिष्क में सदैव विद्यमान रहती थी। वे अपने पत्र के माध्यम से देशभक्ति से सम्बन्धित लेख, कविताएँ प्रकाशित कर जनमानस को आन्दोलित करने में मुख्य भूमिका निभाते। क्रान्तिकारियों को आर्थिक अथवा नैतिक सहायता प्रदान करने की बात हो या फिर भूखे-उपेक्षित मजदूरों की समस्या, वे सदैव सहायता को तत्पर दिखते थे। समाजवाद की भावना से प्रेरित-प्रभावित हो उन्होंने मजदूरों के संगठन का काम भी अपने हाथ में ले लिया था।

(5) कुशल राजनीतिज्ञ एवं साहित्यकार :
गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी कानपुर शहर के राजनीतिक जीवन के प्राण थे। वे अत्यन्त सरल और त्यागी तथा धन और वैभव से बहुत दूर रहने वाले व्यक्ति थे। वे कानपुर शहर के प्रमुख नेता थे। एक चुनाव में उन्होंने एक अत्यन्त सम्पन्न और प्रभावशाली पूँजीपति को करारी शिकस्त दी थी। एक राजनीतिज्ञ होने के साथ-साथ वे उच्च कोटि के साहित्यकार भी थे। देशभर के सुप्रसिद्ध साहित्यकारों के मध्य उनका नाम सम्मान से लिया जाता था।

(6) बला के प्राणशक्तिवान :
गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी में बला की प्राण शक्ति थी। ‘प्रताप’ का सम्पादन एवं संचालन करना, मजदूरों के संगठन में स्वयं को पूरी तरह झोंक देना, क्रान्तिकारियों की जी-तोड़ सहायता करना और उनके आन्दोलनों में भाग लेकर जेल जाना आदि कार्य उनकी अद्भुत प्राणशक्ति के प्रमाण ही तो थे।

प्रश्न 4.
भगवतीचरण वर्मा ने गणेश शंकरजी से प्रभावित होकर किस प्रकार का साहित्य पढ़ा और लेख लिखे?
उत्तर:
गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थीजी अन्दर से उच्चकोटि के साहित्यकार थे। उनसे प्रेरित होकर ही भगवतीचरण वर्मा ने विक्टर ह्यगो के उपन्यास कच्ची उम्र में ही पढ़ डाले थे । क्रान्तियों से सम्बद्ध साहित्य के वह विशेषज्ञ थे। विश्व की नवीन उभरती हुई धाराओं को वह स्वाभाविक रूप से आत्मसात् कर लेते थे। उनके प्रभाव से ही भगवतीचरण वर्मा ने सन् 1921-22 में कार्ल मार्क्स,मैक्स्वीनी एवं फ्रान्स की राज्य क्रान्ति के प्रमुख व्यक्तियों पर लेख लिख डाले थे और जो उन्हीं दिनों प्रताप प्रेस से प्रकाशित होने वाली मासिक पत्रिका ‘प्रभा’ में छपे थे। भगवतीचरण वर्मा के कविता के क्षेत्र से निकलकर गद्य साहित्य के क्षेत्र को अपनाने का श्रेय भी गणेश शंकरजी को ही जाता है।

प्रश्न 5.
विद्यार्थीजी पत्रकारिता के अतिरिक्त किन-किन गतिविधियों में सक्रिय थे?
उत्तर:
गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थीजी कानपुर नगर से ‘प्रताप’ नामक साप्ताहिक पत्र का सम्पादन एवं प्रकाशन करते थे। पत्रकारिता के साथ-साथ वे अन्य अनेक गतिविधियों में भी बढ़-चढ़कर भाग लेते थे। वे कानपुर शहर के राजनीतिक जीवन के प्राण थे। वे एक कुशल राजनीतिज्ञ थे। उन दिनों कानपुर की प्रमुख समस्या मजदूरों की समस्या थी। समाजवाद की भावना से प्रेरित होकर गणेश जी ने मजदूरों के संगठन का काम भी अपने हाथों में ले लिया था। मजदूर आन्दोलनों में उन्होंने अपनी पूरी ताकत झोंक दी थी। इसके लिए उन्हें कई बार जेल भी जाना पड़ा। इसके अतिरिक्त वे एक महान् देशभक्त थे। वे भारत की स्वतन्त्रता के लिए संघर्ष कर रहे क्रान्तिकारियों को आर्थिक एवं नैतिक सहायता प्रदान करते थे।

इस प्रकार, यह कहा जा सकता है कि गणेश शंकरजी न सिर्फ निर्भीक पत्रकार थे, अपितु मजदूरों के संगठन के प्रणेता, क्रान्तिकारियों के सहायक एवं उच्च कोटि के साहित्यकार भी थे और जीवन-पर्यन्त वे इन गतिविधियों से जुड़े रहे।

गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
‘प्रताप’ में क्या-क्या छपता था?
उत्तर:
‘प्रताप’ नामक हिन्दी साप्ताहिक पत्र में देशभक्ति के लेख छपते थे तथा देशभक्ति से परिपूर्ण कविताएँ छपती थीं।

प्रश्न 2.
गणेशशंकर विद्यार्थी का ‘प्रताप’ से क्या सम्बन्ध था?
उत्तर:
स्वतन्त्रता आंदोलन के समय ‘प्रताप’ भारतवर्ष का एक शक्तिशाली साप्ताहिक बन गया था। गणेशशंकर विद्यार्थी उस पत्र के सम्पादक एवं संचालक दोनों थे।

गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी पाठ का सारांश

भगवतीचरण वर्मा द्वारा लिखित प्रस्तुत संस्मरण ‘गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी’ में, लेखक ने महान् देशभक्त एवं पत्रकार गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी के जीवन, व्यक्तित्व एवं संघर्षों का प्रभावी चित्रण किया है।

मध्य भारत के एक बहुत साधारण मध्यवर्गीय परिवार में जन्मे श्री गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी कानपुर नगर से प्रकाशित होने वाले ‘प्रताप’ नामक हिन्दी साप्ताहिक पत्र के सम्पादक-संचालक थे। उन दिनों संयुक्त प्रान्त (वर्तमान में उत्तर प्रदेश) में ‘प्रताप’ की धूम थी। लेखक को उन दिनों कविताएँ लिखने का नया-नया शौक लगा था। 1917 में लेखक स्वरचित प्रथम कविता के प्रकाशनार्थ प्रताप’ के कार्यालय में पहुँचे। उनका सामना एक दुबले-पतले, धोती-कमीज पहने हुए एक धीर-गम्भीर व्यक्ति से हुआ। वही गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी थे। लेखक की प्रथम कविता जल्द ही ‘प्रताप’ में मामूली से भाषा-परिवर्तन के साथ प्रकाशित हो गई। उसके बाद तो लेखक की रचनाएँ अक्सर ‘प्रताप’ में छपने लगीं। कुछ ही वर्षों में कानपुर में लेखक, सुप्रसिद्ध साहित्यकार श्री विश्वम्भरनाथ शर्मा ‘कौशिक’, बालकृष्ण शर्मा ‘नवीन’ एवं श्री रमाशंकर अवस्थी का एक गुट बन गया इन सबके मानस-गुरु थे गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी।

गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी कानपुर शहर के राजनीतिक प्राण थे। अत्यन्त सरल और त्यागी, धन और वैभव से बहुत दूर रहने वाले व्यक्ति। अत्यन्त प्रतिकूल परिस्थितियों और अभावों के बावजूद उनकी लेखनी,वाणी और समस्त व्यक्तित्व में ओज था। वे एक सच्चे साहित्यकार थे। उन्हीं की प्रेरणा से लेखक ने छोटी उम्र में ही विश्व के कई साहित्यकारों के साहित्य को पढ़ लिया था। लेखक के अनुसार वह आज जो भी कुछ है, गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी का उसमें अहम् योगदान है। गणेश शंकर विद्यार्थी की प्रेरणा, परोपकार और त्याग के चलते ही लेखक आज साहित्याकाश में कुछ नाम कमा पाये हैं।

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 National Movement 1885-1918 Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 National Movement 1885-1918

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 17 Text Book Exercise

Choose the correct option of the following.

Question 1.
Prominent leader of Extremist group was –
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhle
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Pt. Moti Lal Nehru
(d) Feroze Shah Mehta
Answer:
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question 2.
‘Swaraj is my birth right and I must have it,’ who said?
(a) Biomesh Chandra Banerjee
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji .
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Sardar Bhagat Singh
Answer:
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Question 3.
Bengal was divided –
(a) By Lord Cornwallis
(b) By Lord Curzon
(c) By Lord Hastings
(d) By Lord William Bentick
Answer:
(b) By Lord Curzon

Question 4.
Where Tilak was exiled in 1908 –
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) China
(c) Burma
(d) Rangoon
Answer:
(c) Burma

Fill in the blanks :

1.  In Calcutta Surrender Nath Banerjee …………. founded
2.  …………. played important role in the formation of Congress.
3.  …………. led a Muslim delegation to meet Viceroy Minto.
4.  Mahatma Gandhi was born at in ………… Gujarat State.
5.  Gandhiji developed a new method to fight against the oppression. It is called …………

Answer:

1. Indian Association
2. A.O.Hume
3. Aga Khan
4. Porbander
5. Satyagraha

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 17 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where first session of Congress was held?
Answer:
The first session of Congress was held at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay

Question 2.
Who was Viceroy during the partition of Bengal?
Answer:
Lord Curzon was the Viceroy during the partition of Bengal.

Question 3.
Who led the Champaran Movement?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi led the Champaran Movement.

Question 4.
Write names of two leaders who played important role in the formation of Muslim League?
Answer:
Aga Khan and Nawab Sali Mullah from Dhaka played an important role in the formation of Muslim League.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 17 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What festivals were used to arrows the people by Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak utilized the popular festivals like Ganpati and Shivaji to spread and to arrows political awakening among the people.

Question 2.
Write the reasons of Bengal partition?
Answer:
1. The partition of Bengal was done in 1905 during the regime of Lord Curzon. It came into effect on October, 16,1905.

2. The Governor- General did it to provide efficient administration. But his underneath motive was to divide the Hindus and the Muslims and weaken the nationalist movement.

Question 3.
Describe the objectives of Muslim League formation?
Answer:
The Muslim League was formed in 1906 at Dhaka. Its aims included the following:

1. To promote loyalty towards the government.
2. To protect and advance the interests the Muslims; and
3. To ensure that the Muslims did not develop feelings of hostility towards other communities in India.

As the Muslim League was formed on the basis of religion, it only encouraged communal politics.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 17 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the early major demands of Congress? Explain?
Answer:
The main demands of the Indian National Congress during in first 20 years were as under:

More powers for the Legislative Councils.

• Election system to the membership of Councils be introduced.
• Creation of the Legislative Councils in the provinces where they did not exist.
• Recruiting of the Indians to higher posts in government offices.
• Holding of the Civil Services examinations in India also.
• education in land revenue.
• hang in the Government policies to help. grow the Indian industries.
• Reduction in heavy expenditure of government on administration and the army.
• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Expansion of welfare programmers.
• Promotion of education.

Question 2.
Write about the organisation pro to the formation of Congress.
Answer:
Keeping in view the regional and provincial needs in India many political an social organisations were founded before tilt Indian Congress was formed.

1. 1851 – British Indian Association in Calcutta
2. 1852 – Bombay Association in Bomba
3. 1852 – Madras Native Association in Madras

Most of the members of these bodies belonged to higher class in India. These Associations worked in their regions. Latest many organisations came into existence which gave more representation to the masses.

1. 1870 – Pune Public Meeting
2. 1876 – Indian Association
3. 1884 – Madras Mahajan Sabha
4. 1885- Bombay Presidency Association

The need to represent the view of people through an All India Organisation was being felt for years. Surendernath Banerjee took up effective steps towards it. He formed India Association in Calcutta.

He was the first India leader who organised the people from different parts of India in the month of Dec. 1883 in All India Seminar. He again invited a National Conference in 1885 in Calcutta.

Question 3.
Write about the rise of extremism in Congress?
Answer:
Towards the beginning of the 20th century, there had begun a new trend in the Indian Nationalist Congress. It was known as the extremist trend. The extremists believed that the Indians could not win their rights by merely doing appeals.

They had no faith in the good intentions of the British government. They taught the people to rely on their own strength and be prepared for any sacrifice. They instilled among the people love and pride for their country. Among the extremists, the names of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai, Aurobindo Ghosh, Bankim Chandra are worth mentioning.

The rise and emergence of the extremist movement was a phenomenon of great importance. It arose as a result of numerous factors some of them can be stated as under:

1. Most of the young Congressmen did not believe in appeals, prayers and petitions as a policy of getting the demands of the Congress fulfilled. Hence, a new trend began which asked for the satisfaction of the demands as a master of right.

2. The influence of the world events in the rise of extremists was no less important. The defeat of Italy by Ethiopia and of Russia by Japan proved that the Europeans could not claim to be invincible. This created sense of pride among the Indians and inspired them to fight for Swaraj.

3. The partition of Bengal in 1905 and the Swadeshi and boycott movements which followed it were other factors which gave rise to extremism in India.

Question 4.
When Home Rule Moment was founded and how it left impact on Indian Politics?
Answer:
The ‘Home Rule’ movement was a movement which demanded introduction of ‘self-government’ in India’s Mrs. Annie Besant started this movement in Madras in 1916 while Tilak, in Bombay in the same year.

This movement left a great impact on Indian politics. Indian aimed at achieving the self- goveranance speaking on the significance of this movement Bipin Chandrapal wrote “The major achievement of the Home Rule Movement was the making of fierce fighters for the nationalist movement. This movement aroused the feelings of Indians to get self Govt, all over India.

Question 5.
Write about the role of Gandhiji in the movements of Champaran, Ahmedabad and Kheda.
Answer:
The main development in the nationalist movement during the First World War was the emergence of Mahatma Gandhi as a leader with his new method of struggle, that is Satyagraha. It was a non-violent method of fighting against oppression.

He launched his first satyagraha in Champaran in Bihar where excesses were being committed on the Indigo workers. In 1917, he went to Champaran and defied the Government order asking the officials, to leave the area.

Gandhiji’s satyagraha forced the Government to enquire into the excesses and to put an end to them. In 1918, Gandhiji led the textile workers of Ahmedabad who were demanding a wage rise. Gandhiji also led the peasants movement in Kaira in Gujarat where the peasants wanted suspension of land revenue collection.

These developments in the nationalist movement brought the peasants and workers in the mainstream of national movements and thus the movement became truly a mass movement.

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Revolutionary Movement in India Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Solutions Chapter 18 Revolutionary Movement in India

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 18 Text Book Exercise

Choose the correct option of the following.

Question 1.
Who was not among the revolutionary activity in foreign country?
(a) Shamji Verma
(b) Sardar Ajeet Singh
(c) Madan Lal Dhingra
(d) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
Answer:
(b) Sardar Ajeet Singh

Question 2.
Who hoisted Indian Flag in 1907 in Germany?
(a) Bhikaji Camma
(b) Lala Hardayal
(c) Mrs Annie Besant
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer:
(a)Bhikaji Camma

Question 3.
In which district of Madhya Pradesh Chandra Shekhar Azad was born?
(a) Jhabua
(b) Mandla
(c) Raisen
(d) Panna
Answer:
(a) Jhabua

Question 4.
Azad Hind Fauz was founded by
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Capt. Mohan Singh
(c) Capt. Prem Kumar Sehgal
(d) Shahnawaz Khan
Answer:
(b)Capt. Mohan Singh

Fill in the blanks :

1. Shyamji Verma founded in ……….. 1905 in London.
2. In 1908 Khudi Ram Bose threw bomb on ………….
3. Dev Narain Tiwari was hanged to death in …………

Answer:

1. Indian house in London
2. The carriage of the defamed judge Kingsford
3. 1931.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 18 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the names of prominent revolutionaries of Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Chandra Shekhar Azad, Thakur Yashwant Singh, Dev Narain Tiwari, Dalpat Rao were the prominent revolutionaries of Madhya Pradesh.

Question 2.
Which villages were occupied by Basudev Balwant Phadke?
Answer:
Basudev Phadke was the leader of the revolutionary movement with the help of few people he occupied Dhamri, Balte Palspe villages in 1879.

Question 3.
Who was assassinated by Chapekar Brothers?
Answer:
In 1897 Damodar and Balkrishan Chapekar brothers murdered Rand, head of the Plague Committee and Lieutenant Amherst in Pune.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 18 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe about the revolutionary activities in abroad?
Answer:
Indian revolutionaries were active in other parts of the world also Shyamji Verma established ‘India House’ in London in 1905. He started sociolongistic magazine and scholarships.Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, Birendranath Chattopadhyay, Tirumal Acharya, Bhikaji Camma, Bhai Permanand, Madan Lal Dhingra and Lala Hardayal were the active members of this society.

Madan Lal Dhingra in 1909 killed Curzon Vailer the Secretary of India. He was hanged and Sarvarkar was sent to cellular jail at Andaman Island. In US the Ghadar party was formed in 1913. Lala Hardayal was the key activist of this party. The Ghadar magazine was published.

As the world was begun Lala Hardayal and his comrades went to Germany, Birendranath Chattopadhyay, Bhupender Dutt and Lala Hardayal founded Independence Committee in
Germany. The revolutionaries with their patriotism and self-sacrifice became the source of inspiration for the Indians.

Question 2.
What was Kakori Conspiracy? Describe it?
Answer:
Money was required to run the revolutionaries movements. A group of revolutionaries were successful in robbing the govt, cash at the Kakori Railway station on August 2. 1925 on Saharanpur-Lucknow line. Many of them were arrested after this incident and they were tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.

Four of them Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqullah Khan, Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri were sentenced to death and 17 others were sentenced to long-term imprisonment.

Question 3.
Write the names of key organisation of the second phase revolutionary movement?
Answer:
The following were the main revolutionary organisations of the second phase:

1. Youth sabha founded by the Bhagat Singh, Yeshpal and Chhabildas.
2. Hindustan Democratic Republic
3. Hindustan Socialist Republic Association. In 1928 Chandra Shekhar Azad, Sachidra Nath Sanyal, Ram
4. Prasad Bismil together changed the name of Hindustan. Republic Association as Hindustan Socialist
5. Republic Association.
6. Azad Hind Fauz. It was founded by Captain Mohan Singh.

MP Board Class 8th Social Science Chapter 18 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the reasons of the rise of revolutionary movement?
Answer:
The aim of this movement was to change the system based on injustice and to end the oppression of Indians by the British govt, in India. To free the Indian people and to tolerate hardships to get the freedom from ‘English Rule’.

The main factors of the rise of the revolutionary movements were:

1. Economic Disparity:
At the end of the 19th century and early years of 20th century was the period of famines and epidemics. The apathy by the British govt, on such time added fuel to fire the resentment among Indians.

2. Lord Curzon’s Policy:
The senate system followed after Indian University Act. 1904 was the cause of resentment in educated Indians. The govt, confidential ordinance and Calcutta Corporation ordinance contributed more resentment in the Indian people.

3. Partition of Bengal (1905):
The division of Bengal in two parts under the policy of divide and rule by Lord Curzon angered the whole nation and it created sense of devotion and sacrifice among the young Indians.

4. International events:
The independence movements of America, France, Italy, Germany and Ireland inspired Indian revolutionaries too In 1905 the Japanese won over Russia instilled sense of new awakening among the Indians.

Question 2.
What methods were adopted by the revolutionaries against the British rule?
Answer:
Revolutionaries thought that we can not achieve freedom merely through peaceful movements. They Want freedom from British Rule as early as possible therefore they showed self sacrifice to create the feelings of bravery and patriotism among the Indian youths to embrace struggle for Swaraj.

Initially the revolutionaries could not chalk out their plans and programmes but later on the outlay of programmes came into existence.

They adopted the following methods:

Methods used by Revolutionaries:
The revolutionaries used violent methods. They used to organize themselves into small secret societies and give training to their members in making bombs and firearms. They tried to get anus from other countries and also planned their activities from there.

The revolutionaries were brave and fearless and worked with full determination and mad9 sacrifices. Instead of uniting the common people for the national cause, they made individuals their targets. By their daring activities, they were a great source of inspiration to the Indian people.

Question 3.
Write notes on:

1. Azad Hind Fuaz
2. Chandra Shekher Azad

Answer:
1.Azad Hind Fuaz:
At the initiative of Rashbehari Bose, Captain Mohan Singh (one of the Indian soldiers taken prisoner by Japanese) formed the Azad Hind Fuaz. Subhash Chandra Bose instilled new energy into Azad Hind Fuaz and became famous by the name of Netaji.

In the capacity of leader of Azad Hind Fuaz he formed temporary India Govt, in Singapore on October 23 and took vow to shed last drop of blood for the freedom of the country. In 1944 Azad Hind Fauz was successful in moving up to the eastern border of India.

In 1944 he hoisted Indian flag in Kohima. And then seized Imphal but due to paucity of ration and excess rains he had to retreat from there. Netaji gave the slogan “Give me blood and I will give you freedom”.

In 1944 the position of Japan in world politics had become very weak. So the Azad Hind Fauz began to disintegrate.

2. Chandra Shekher Azad:
Chandra Shekhar Azad was born at Bhavra village in Jhabua district in Madhya Pradesh. He embraced non-cooperation movement at the tender age of 14. When he was arrested he told his name was Azad.

His role in Kakori conspiracy, Saunder’s killing and bombing at the assembly was notable. Finally surrounded by British police at the Alfred park in Allahabad, he shot himself dead. He paid his life for the freedom of India. He will be remembered for his great sacrifice for his motherland.

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights and Duties Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights and Duties

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 5 Text Book Questions

Choose the correct alternative from the following

Question 1.
The constitution confers upon the people of India.
(a) 3 fundamental rights
(b) 4 fundamental rights
(c) 5 fundamental rights
(d) 6 fundamental rights
Answer:
(d) 6 fundamental rights

Question 2.
Which of the following is not right?
(a) All the citizens of India are equal before law
(b) Everybody has equal opportunity for public posts
(c) The state shall not discriminate on the basis of caste, color, creed or sex
(d) Untouchability has recognition on caste basis
Answer:
(d) Untouchability has recognition on caste basis

Question 3.
To employ children below 14 years of age in match industry in the encroachment of which right.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) cultural and educational right
Answer:
(c) Right against exploitation

Question 4.
Which among the following is our fundamental duty?
(a) To protect and improve natural environment, including lakes, forests, rivers and wildlife
(b) To raise voice for reservation in panchayat and municipalities
(c) To demand for equal employment opportunities
(d) To get admission in the educational institutions of the minorities.
Answer:
(b) To raise voice for reservation in panchayat and municipalities

Fill in the blanks with the words given in brackets:
(Property, Rights, exploitation, thoughts, expression, duty)

1. Not to give equal wages for equal work is ………….
2. To print newspapers is the right to …………..
3. To respect our national flag is our ………….
4. We should protect public …………
5. It is our duty not to encroach upon others ………….

Answer:

1. exploitation
2. expression
3. duty
4. property
5. rights.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which Fundamental rights are enjoyed by we the Indians?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights:

1. Right to Equality.
2. Right to Freedom.
3. Right against Exploitation.
4. Right against Freedom of Religion.
5. Cultural and Educational Rights.
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 2.
Write four sentences on right to equality.
Answer:
All the citizens of our country are equal before law. They enjoy equal opportunities in all fields of public life. The government does not discriminate anybody on the basis of caste, religion, sex, language or state. Nobody can be denied entry to public places like loads, shops, education institutions, rivers, lakes, hotels and restaurants.

Question 3.
Right against exploitation protects us from exploitation. How?
Answer:
The right against exploitation prevents any exploitation in society. It is now an offence to buy or sell any child, woman or man. The Constitution prohibits beggary or forced labor, i.e., any work without adequate payment No child under the age of 14 years can be employed to work in any factory or mine. It is an offence if anybody employs a child of 14 years or less in a mine. The social evils are beggary, child labor in factories, selling of women or children or men.

Question 4.
Write three main provisions for women.
Answer:
The Indian constitution provides some guarantees to the women. Among these provisions, three are given below:

• Equal employment opportunity.
• Equal wages for equal work.
• To stop activities which hinders the honor of women.

Question 5.
Write three fundamental duties.
Answer:
Three fundamental duties are:

• Every individual should respect the constitution, the national goals, institutions, National flag and the National Anthem.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national service.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write notes on any two fundamental rights.
Answer:
(a) Right to Equality:
Right to equality implies the following:

• Equality before law; equal protection of laws.
• Equal opportunities; i.e., equality of opportunities.
• Prohibition of all types of discrimination.
• Abolition of untouchability.

(b) The cultural and Educational Rights.
Answer:
The people in India speak many languages and have diverse cultures. The Constitution has given the right to citizens and die minorities to preserve their languages and cultures. It also recognizes the right of each group to establish and maintain educational institution of its own.

Question 2.
Describe any two freedoms enjoyed by the citizens under right to freedom.
Answer:
Right to freedom guarantees six basic freedoms. Two freedoms are given here:

• Freedom to express thoughts – All die citizens of India has the freedom to express his / her thoughts, to give speech and to know about the thought of others and to propagate it The citizens have the freedom to write articles etc. in newspapers.
• Freedom to live and settle in any part of India – All the citizens of India have die freedom to settle in any part of the country permanently or temporarily as per their wish.

Question 3.
Write any ten fundamental duties.
Answer:
Ten fundamental duties are given below:

1. To show respect to the Indian Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To have faith in the ideals of national freedom movement
3. To protect die integrity and unity of the country.
4. To defend and serve the country.
5. To develop the spirit of goodwill and brotherhood.
6. To inculcate scientific attitude away people.
7. To preserve the ancient culture.
8. To protect forest lakes and wild-life.
9. To protect the property of the Nation.
10. To strive individually and collectively for achievement of national goals.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 5 मानचित्र पठन एवं अंकन Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 मानचित्र पठन एवं अंकन

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 पाठान्त अभ्यास

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

प्रश्न 1.
भारत में मौसम मानचित्रों का प्रकाशन प्रारम्भ हुआ
(i) 1853 में
(ii) 1947 में
(iii) 1950 में
(iv) 1875 में।
उत्तर:
(iv) 1875 में।

प्रश्न 2.
भारत में मौसम मानचित्रों का प्रकाशन होता है
(i) कोलकाता से
(ii) दिल्ली से
(iii) पुणे से
(iv) हैदराबाद से।
उत्तर:
(iii) पुणे से

प्रश्न 3.
भारतवर्ष में मौसम विभाग विभाजित है
(i) 6 क्षेत्रों में
(ii) 4 क्षेत्रों में
(iii) 5 क्षेत्रों में
(iv) 8 क्षेत्रों में।
उत्तर:
(iii) 5 क्षेत्रों में

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए –

1. अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मौसम संकेतों को 1935 में मौसम विज्ञान संघ द्वारा ………….. में मान्यता दी गयी।
2. ब्यूफोर्ट ………….. की जल सेना से सम्बन्धित थे।
3. वायुवेग मापने का नियोजन सर्वप्रथम ………….. किया गया था।

उत्तर:

1. वारसा (इटली)
2. ब्रिटिश
3. 1805

सही जोड़ी मिलाइए

उत्तर:

1. → (ख)
2. → (क)
3. → (घ)
4. → (ग)

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
नॉट क्या है ?
उत्तर:
नॉट वायु वेग नापने की इकाई, एक नॉट 1.85 किमी. के बराबर होता है। इसका अर्थ है कि वायु की गति 1.85 किमी. प्रति घण्टा है या 1 नॉट = एक समुद्री मील के बराबर होता है।

प्रश्न 2.
भारत में भूकम्पमापी केन्द्र कितने हैं ?
उत्तर:
भारत में 22 भूकम्पमापी केन्द्र हैं।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
मौसम संकेतों से क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर:
मौसम संकेतों का आशय-प्रेक्षण शालाओं से प्राप्त मौसम तत्वों को मानचित्र पर अंकों, चिह्नों या प्रतीकों द्वारा प्रदर्शित किया जाता है। ये अंक, चिह्न या प्रतीक अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मान्यता प्राप्त होते हैं। इन्हें अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मौसम संकेत कहा जाता है। इन संकेतों को 1935 में वारसा (इटली) में आयोजित अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मौसम विज्ञान संघ द्वारा मान्यता प्रदान की गयी थी। प्रमुख मौसम संकेत निम्न प्रकार हैं

1. वायुमापन संकेत
2. वर्षा मापनी संकेत
3. मेघाच्छादन संकेत
4. समुद्री तरंग संकेत।

प्रश्न 2.
मौसम मानचित्र तैयार करने हेतु मौसम सूचनाएँ कैसे एकत्रित की जाती हैं ?
उत्तर:
मौसम मानचित्र तैयार करने हेतु मौसम सूचनाएँ निम्न प्रकार एकत्रित की जाती हैं –

1. मौसम मानचित्रों को तैयार करने हेतु वेधशालाओं, वायुयानों के पायलटों, गुब्बारों तथा जलयानों से मौसम सूचनाएँ प्राप्त की जाती हैं।
2. वेधशालाओं में निम्न मौसमी तत्वों की जानकारी एकत्रित की जाती है-तापमान, वर्षा, वायु की गति एवं दिशा आपेक्षिक आर्द्रता, सूर्य प्रकाश की अवधि, समुद्र की दशा, वर्तमान एवं पूर्व मौसम।
3. मौसम मानचित्रों में मौसम के तत्वों का चिह्नों द्वारा अंकन किया जाता है।
4. मौसम मानचित्र में सूचनाओं को प्रेषित करने हेतु कूट संख्याओं का प्रयोग किया जाता है, जिनका विशिष्ट अभिप्राय होता है।
5. मौसम मानचित्र तैयार करने हेतु मौसमी दशाओं/तत्वों का निरीक्षण एवं अभिलेखन वेधशालाओं में प्रातः 8:30 व सायंकाल 5.30 बजे होता है।

प्रश्न 3.
मौसम मानचित्र में मौसमी दशाओं को कैसे व्यक्त किया जाता है ?
उत्तर:
प्रेक्षण शालाओं से प्राप्त मौसम तत्वों को मानचित्र पर अंकों, चिह्नों या प्रतीकों द्वारा प्रदर्शित किया जाता है। ये अंक, चिह्न या प्रतीक अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मान्यता प्राप्त होते हैं। इन्हें अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मौसम संकेत कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
दिए गए वायु मापन में संकेत चिह्नों को पहचानिए व उनका नाम व वेग लिखिए –

उत्तर:

1. शान्त
2. धीर समीर
3. प्रबल समीर
4. झंझा
5. झंझावात।

प्रश्न 5.
दिए गए मेघाच्छादन संकेत चिह्नों को पहचानिए व उनकी मात्रा व स्तर को लिखिए –

उत्तर:

1. मात्रा 1/8; निम्नस्तर
2. 1/8; उच्च स्तर
3. मात्रा 3/8; निम्न स्तर
4. मात्रा 1/4; निम्न स्तर
5. मात्रा 7/8; निम्न स्तर
6. मात्रा 8/8; निम्न स्तर
7. मात्रा 1/2; उच्च स्तर
8. मात्रा 5/8; उच्च स्तर
9. सूर्य प्रकाश; उच्च स्तर

प्रश्न 6.
दिए गए समताप रेखाओं द्वारा निर्मित वायुमण्डलीय दशाओं को पहचानकर लिखिए –

उत्तर:

1. चक्रवात, एवं
2. प्रतिचक्रवात।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
मौसम मानचित्र से प्राप्त पूर्वानुमान कहाँ अत्यधिक उपयोगी है ? मौसम मानचित्रों का महत्त्व लिखिए।
अथवा
मौसम मानचित्र की विशेषताएँ लिखिए। (2012)
उत्तर:
मौसम मानचित्रों से प्राप्त पूर्वानुमानों की उपयोगिता-मौसम मानचित्र से प्राप्त पूर्वानुमान नौ संचालन, वायुयान की सुरक्षित उड़ान, प्राकृतिक आपदाओं के दुष्प्रभावों का निरीक्षण करने में, कृषि की उचित देखभाल तथा समुद्रतट पर रहने वाले मछुआरों को समुद्र की दिशा चक्रवात (समुद्री तूफान) से सावधान करने में यह अत्यन्त उपयोगी हैं।

मौसम मानचित्रों का महत्त्व-मौसम मानचित्रों के प्रमुख महत्त्व निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. मौसम मानचित्रों की सहायता से प्राकृतिक आपदाओं; जैसे–बाढ़, भूकम्प, सूखा आदि के जनजीवन पर पड़ने वाले प्रभावों का पूर्वानुमान लगता है।
2. ये मानचित्र नाविकों तथा वैज्ञानिकों के लिए बहुत महत्त्वपूर्ण होते हैं।
3. वायुयान चालकों के लिए यह मानचित्र महत्त्वपूर्ण होते हैं।
4. इन मानचित्रों की सहायता से मौसम का पूर्वानुमान लगाया जाता है। इसे समाचार-पत्रों एवं दूरदर्शन के माध्यम से प्रसारित कर अतिवृष्टि, भूकम्प, ओलावृष्टि, तूफान एवं हिमपात जैसी प्राकृतिक आपदाओं से जन-सामान्य को सुरक्षा प्रदान करने का प्रयास किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्न मौसमी दशाओं को स्पष्ट करने हेतु संकेत बनाइए

1. कुहरा (2009, 10, 11, 14)
2. ओला (2009, 11, 13, 14, 16, 17)
3. सम्पूर्ण मेघाच्छादन (2018)
4. हिम (2009, 10, 11, 14, 15)
5. वर्षा (2009, 10, 14, 15, 17)
6. कुहासा (2013, 16)
7. धुन्ध (2013, 14, 18)
8. तड़ित झंझा (2015, 17)
9. फुहार (2016, 18)

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
दिए गए मौसम मानचित्र की व्याख्या निम्नलिखित बिन्दुओं पर कीजिए –

1. चक्रवात व गौण चक्रवात का क्षेत्र
2. वायुफान का क्षेत्र
3. प्रतिचक्रवात का क्षेत्र।

उत्तर:
(1) चक्रवात व गौण चक्रवात का क्षेत्र-चक्रवात की समदाब रेखाएँ मन्द होती हैं और इसके भीतर अल्पतम दाब होता है। इसीलिए इसको अल्पदाब अवस्था भी कहते हैं। अल्पतम दाब केन्द्र गर्त रेखाओं का प्रतिच्छेदन बिन्दु होता है, इसीलिए बाहर से हवाएँ भीतर की ओर जाती हैं। उत्तरी गोलार्द्ध चक्रवात की वायु वामावर्त दिशा में और दक्षिणी गोलार्द्ध में दक्षिणावर्त दिशा में चलती हैं। ये चक्रवात स्थायी वायुदाब के प्रवाह की निश्चित दिशा में आगे बढ़ते हैं। उपर्युक्त मानचित्र में चक्रवात व गौण चक्रवात की स्थिति को 990 मिलीबार व 992 मिलीबार की समदाब रेखाओं द्वारा प्रदर्शित किया गया है जिससे स्पष्ट होता है कि गहरे अवदाब में केन्द्र का वायुदाब बहुत कम होता है और छिछले अवदाब में केन्द्र का वायुदाब थोड़ा ही कम होता है। गहरा अवदाब एक से अधिक समदाब रेखाओं से घिरा होता है और छिछला अवदाब केवल एक समदाब रेखा से घिरा होता है और अन्य समदाब रेखाओं से अंशतः घिरा होता है। छिछले अवदाब में समदाब रेखाएँ दूर-दूर और गहरे अवदाब में निकट-निकट अंकित रहती हैं। इसमें वायुराशि एकत्रित होती है, ऊपर उठती है और ठण्डी होकर बादल तथा वर्षा का रूप ग्रहण करती है।

(2) वायुफान का क्षेत्र-यह एक त्रिभुजाकार उच्चदाब का क्षेत्र होता है। मानचित्र (5.5) में यह 994 मिलीबार की समदाब की रेखा द्वारा प्रदर्शित किया गया है जिससे स्पष्ट होता है इसकी समदाब रेखाएँ वी-आकार की होती हैं, जिनका शीर्ष गोल होता है और अल्पदाब के क्षेत्र की ओर इंगित करता है। इसके मध्य में सबसे अधिक वायुदाब रहता है और शीर्ष तथा किनारे की दाब क्रमशः कम होती जाती है। प्रधान चक्रवात के साथ इसका बढ़ाव आगे होता है। सर्वोच्च दाब बिन्दु और शीर्ष बिन्दु को मिलाने वाली रेखा शिखर रेखा कहलाती है।

(3) प्रतिचक्रवात का क्षेत्र-चक्रवात के विपरीत प्रतिचक्रवात होते हैं। इनके केन्द्र में उच्च दाब का स्थान होता है। इसको उच्चदाब अवस्था भी कहते हैं। मानचित्र (5.5) में इसे 1000 मिलीबार की समदाब रेखा द्वारा प्रदर्शित किया गया है जिससे स्पष्ट होता है कि इसकी समदाब रेखाएँ प्रायः वृत्ताकार होती हैं और हवाओं की दिशा उत्तरी गोलार्द्ध में दक्षिणावर्त तथा दक्षिणी गोलार्द्ध में वामावर्त होती हैं। इसमें केन्द्र से बाहर की ओर वायु चलती है। इसमें दाब प्रवणता कम होती है। प्रतिचक्रवात शक्तिहीन होते हैं और एक ही स्थान पर देर तक रुके रहते हैं।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 अन्य परीक्षोपयोगी प्रश्न

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

बहु-विकल्पीय

प्रश्न 1.
अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मौसम संकेत को कब और कहाँ मान्यता प्रदान की गई ?
(i) 1945 में दिल्ली में
(ii) 1948 में फ्रांस में
(iii) 1935 में वारसा (इटली) में
(iv) 1955 में जेनेवा में।
उत्तर:
(iii) 1935 में वारसा (इटली) में

प्रश्न 2.
पश्चिमी तट पर वायु वेग है
(i) 5 नॉट के लगभग
(ii) 7 नॉट के लगभग
(iii) 15 नॉट के लगभग
(iv) 10 नॉट के लगभग।
उत्तर:
(iv) 10 नॉट के लगभग।

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

1. मौसम मानचित्र में वायुदाब ………….. में दर्शायी जाती है।
2. मौसम मानचित्र तैयार करने हेतु मौसम दशाओं एवं तत्वों के निरीक्षण एवं अभिलेखन का केन्द्र ………….. कहलाता है।

उत्तर:

1. मिलीबार
2. वेधशाला।

सत्य/असत्य

प्रश्न 1.
भारत में मौसम विभाग की स्थापना 1880 ई. में हुई थी।
उत्तर:
असत्य

प्रश्न 2.
मेघ की छाया वृत्तों द्वारा प्रदर्शित की जाती है।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 3.
मौसम मानचित्र में वायुदाब मिलीबार में दर्शाया जाता है।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 4.
वायु वेग नापने की इकाई, एक नॉट 1.85 किमी. के बराबर होता है।
उत्तर:
सत्य।

जोड़ी मिलाइए

उत्तर:

1. → (ख)
2. → (ग)
3. → (क)

एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
भारत में मौसम विभाग की स्थापना किस सोसाइटी के सुझाव पर हुई ?
उत्तर:
एशियाटिक सोसायटी

प्रश्न 2.
मौसम विभाग का.प्रधान कार्यालय कहाँ है ?
उत्तर:
दिल्ली

प्रश्न 3.
भारतीय मानचित्रों में किस ऊँचाई के मेघ दिखाये जाते हैं ?
उत्तर:
निम्न व मध्यम

प्रश्न 4.
वायु वेग नापने की इकाई क्या है ?
उत्तर:
नॉट

प्रश्न 5.
वायु के आकस्मिक प्रचण्ड झोंके जो स्वत: कुछ समय बाद समाप्त हो जाते हैं, को क्या कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
झंझा।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
प्रमुख वर्षा संकेत स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2009)
उत्तर:
प्रमुख वर्षा संकेत –

प्रश्न 2.
झंझा का क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है ?
उत्तर:
पेड़ की टहनियाँ टूटने लगती हैं और चलना-फिरना कठिन हो जाता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
मौसम मानचित्र से क्या तात्पर्य है ?
उत्तर:
मौसम मानचित्र-इस प्रकार के मानचित्र जिसमें पृथ्वी के किसी भाग में घटित मौसम सम्बन्धी दशाओं (जैसे-तापमान की स्थिति, वायुदाब, वर्षा, पवन की दिशा एवं वेग, मेघाच्छादन) को अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर निर्धारित संकेतों के माध्यम से व्यक्त किया जाता है, मौसम मानचित्र कहलाते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
मौसम मानचित्र की व्याख्या के प्रमुख बिन्दु कौन-कौनसे हैं ?
उत्तर:
मौसम मानचित्र की व्याख्या के प्रमुख बिन्दु

1. प्रस्तावना – दिन, तिथि तथा समय।
2. तापमान का विचलन – शीत लहर और उष्ण लहर ज्ञात करने में सहायक।
3. वायुदाब का विचलन –
   • वायुदाब का सामान्य वितरण उच्च व न्यूनदाब क्षेत्र।
   • समदाब रेखाओं की उपनति, वायुदाब की प्रवणता, चक्रवातों की गति।
   • सामान्य वायु दाब से प्रमाण।
4. वायु दिशा एवं वायु वेग।
5. वृष्टि-सामान्य से अधिक या कम वर्षा के क्षेत्र, वर्षा की मात्रा।
6. मेघ-बादल के प्रकार (उच्च व निम्न) तथा मेघाच्छादन या मेघ की प्रकृति तथा मात्रा।
7. वायुमण्डलीय घटनाएँ-धुन्ध, कोहरा, विद्युत, धूल-आँधी, वज्रघोष, शिलावृष्टि।
8. समुद्र की दिशा।
9. भविष्यवाणी-मानचित्रों के आधार पर मौसम की भविष्यवाणी की जाती है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 5 दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
प्रमुख समुद्री तरंग-संकेतक स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
समुद्री तरंग-संकेतक समुद्री तरंग की दिशा अक्षरों के रूप में प्रदर्शित की जाती है। प्रमुख समुद्री तरंग संकेतक निम्न प्रकार दर्शाये गये हैं –

प्रश्न 2.
प्रमुख वायु मापन संकेतों को स्पष्ट करते हुए उनके प्रभावों को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
वायु मापन संकेत

प्रश्न 3.
भारत के मानचित्र में निम्नलिखित को दर्शाइए
1.

1. कराकोरम पवर्तमाला
2. सतपुड़ा
3. अरावली
4. नीलगिरि।

2. भारत में हिमालय का सर्वोच्च शिखर (माउण्ट एवरेस्ट)।
3. छोटा नागपुर का पठार। (2009, 10, 16, 18)

4.

1. गंगा (2013, 16)
2. ब्रह्मपुत्र
3. कृष्णा
4. कावेरी
5. नर्मदा। (2010, 14, 16, 17)

5. सर्वाधिक वर्षा का क्षेत्र (चेरापूँजी/मौसिनराम)। (2018)
6. बंगाल की खाड़ी। (2009, 13)
7. कन्याकुमारी। (2009)
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 4.
भारत के मानचित्र पर निम्नलिखित को दर्शाइए –

1. जूट उत्पादक क्षेत्र
2. गन्ना उत्पादक क्षेत्र
3. काली मिट्टी का क्षेत्र या कपास उत्पादक क्षेत्र
4. चाय उत्पादक क्षेत्र (2009)
5. रबर उत्पादक क्षेत्र (2012)
6. चावल उत्पादक क्षेत्र।

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 5.
भारत के दिए गये मानचित्र में निम्नलिखित को दर्शाइए
1. कोयला उत्पादक क्षेत्र

2.

• प्रमुख खनिज तेल उत्पादक क्षेत्र (2009)
• डिग्बोई (असम) (2012)

3. यूरेनियम उत्पादक क्षेत्र

• राजस्थान में यूरेनियम (2009)

4. प्राकृतिक गैस उत्पादक क्षेत्र
5. लक्षद्वीप (2010)
6.

• नाभिकीय ऊर्जा केन्द्र (2013)
• तारापुर अणु विद्युत गृह। (2016)

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 6.
भारत के मानचित्र में निम्नलिखित को दर्शाइए
(1)

1. दिल्ली (2010, 15)
2. विशाखापट्टनम (2018)
3. भिलाई
4. भोपाल
5. मुम्बई (2009, 11, 15)
6. चेन्नई (2009, 12, 15)
7. कोलकाता (2010)

(2) दिल्ली-कोलकाता रेलवे लाइन (2014)

(3)

1. सान्ताक्रुज
2. पालम व
3. दमदम हवाई अड्डा (2009)

(4) अरब सागर (2011, 12, 15)
(5) आगरा से मुम्बई राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग (2012)
(6) थार का मरुस्थल (2015)
(7) चिल्का झील (2011, 16)
(8) कोई दो प्रमख आंतरिक जल परिवहन मार्ग
(9) सीमा सड़क विकास बोर्ड का क्षेत्र।
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 7.
भारत के मानचित्र में निम्नांकित को दर्शाइए –

1. शीतकालीन वर्षा का क्षेत्र
2. काजीरंगा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान (2017)
3. भाखड़ा-नंगल बाँध
4. कच्छ का रन (2013, 18)
5. कर्क रेखा (2009, 14, 17)
6. हजीरा-जगदीशपुर गैस पाइप लाइन (2009, 14, 18)
7. आनन्द-अहमदाबाद दुग्ध पाइप लाइन। (2009)

उत्तर:

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Delhi Sultanate Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions Chapter 11 The Delhi Sultanate

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 11 Text Book Questions

Choose the correct alternatives from the following

Question 1.
Agra was made the capital by:
(a) Qutab – uddin Aibak
(b) Sikandar Lodi
(c) Balban
(d) Firoz Shah
Answer:
(b) Sikandar Lodi

Question 2.
Ib Battuah visited India during the » region of:
(a) Muhammad-bin-Tuglaq
(b) Razia Sultan
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Ibrahim Lodi
Answer:
(a) Muhammad-bin-Tuglaq

Question 3.
Mohammad Tuglaq odered the circulation of new currency of:
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Tin
(d) Copper
Answer:
(d) Copper

Question 4.
Balban served as Vazir for a period of:
(a) l0 yers
(b) 20 yers
(c) 30 yers
(d) 40 yers
Answer:
(d) 40 yers

Fill in the blanks:

1. The founder of slave dynasty was ………………
2. The city of Jaunpur was founded by …………..
3. Taimur Lang attacked Delhi in …………….. AD
4. Ala-uddin Send ……………. to conquer Deccan.

Answer:

1. Qutab – ud – din – Aibak
2. Firoz Shah Tuglaq
3. 1398
4. Malik Kapur

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Chapter 11 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the reforms made by Alauddin Khilji?
Answer:
Alauddin Khilji made a number of reforms:

• Military reforms – Alauddin organized his army. He appointed die soldiers as per their ability. He started the practice of paying the soldiers in cash and also numbering and counting the horses. He repaired the old forts and got new ones built.
• Market reforms – Alauddin started market control system. He controlled prices. He organized a vigilance group to keep a check, on the market rates.
• Revenue Policy – Land revenue for all the lands was refixed on die measurement of land. Half of die produce was fixed as revenue.

Question 2.
What were the ambitious projects of Muhammud bin – Tuglaq? Why did he fail?
Answer:
The ambitious projects of Muhammad bin Tuglaq were:

• Transfers of Capital.
• Introduction of token currency.
• Taxation in Doab.

Tuglaq was hasty and impatient That is why so many of his experiments failed and he has been called an ill-fated idealist

Question 3.
Describe the causes of the decline of the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
The causes of the decline of the Delhi Sultanate:

• Weak administration – The Delhi Sultante had a dearth of able rulers. They did not try to establish a strong administration. The central government did not have control over the local rulers.
• No definite law of succession – After die death of a Sultan, war of succession ensued, only sword could decide the succession.
• Internal differences – There were differences and conflict among the Muslims on the basis of race, religion, caste and elan.
• 111 treatment of the Hindus and revolt by local rulers – Most of the Delhi Sultans followed die policy of religious intolerance. The local rulers did not tolerate it and revolted against the Sultans.
• Thepolicies of Muhammad bin Tuglaq – The policies and projects executed by Muhammad bin-Tuglaq made the empire very weak.

Invasion of Taimur – The invasion Of Taimur proved to be fatal blow to Delhi. He ordered mass Killing and looted Delhi.

Project Work:
Make a list of the Sultans of Delhi and also write down their periods.
Answer:

MP Board Class 7th Social Science Solutions