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MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Important Questions

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Objective Type Questions 

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which is used in DNA cultivation :
(a) Allesa
(b) Bloting technique
(c) PCR
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) PCR

Question 2.
Which is stained by Ethidium bromide :
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) Protein
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) DNA

Question 3.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Yeast
(d) Plant cell.
Answer:
(a) Bacteria

Question 4.
Plasmids are:
(a) Circular
(b) Extra – nuclear
(c) Vector
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 5.
Resistant gene found in pBR 322 :
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
Eco RI is :
(a) A virus
(b) A bacteria
(c) A restriction enzyme
(d) A cyanobacteria.
Answer:
(c) A restriction enzyme

Question 7.
Plasmid and cosmid are :
(a) DNA vector
(b) RNA vector
(c) A bacteria
(d) A virus.
Answer:
(c) A bacteria

Question 8.
When stablised, bio technical department by Indian government :
(a) 1948
(b) 1985
(c) 1986
(d) 1987.
Answer:
(c) 1986

Question 9.
Who gave the name plasmid :
(a) Jacob and Monod
(b) Laderberg
(c) Ruth senger
(d) Khurana.
Answer:
(b) Laderberg

Question 10.
What is vector DNA :
(a) Breaker of DNA
(b) Cutter of DNA
(c) Transfer in DNA in one
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Transfer in DNA in one

Question 11.
RI plasmid is obtained from :
(a) E. coli
(b) Yeast
(c) Agrobacterium
(d) Rhizobium.
Answer:
(c) Agrobacterium

Question 12.
pBR 322 is :
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Plasmid
(d) Recombinant protein.
Answer:
(c) Plasmid

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. …………….. is used for DNA staining.
2. …………….. joins DNA segments.
3. …………….. are small sized cloning vectors.
4. In …………….. disturbed genes can be replaced by proper genes.
5. Small segments of DNA are moved to …………….. pole through power steering.
6. PCR is first discoverd by ……………..
7. …………….. bacteria is responsible for tumor formation.
8. …………….. enzyme is used in PCR.
9. …………….. is used for gene transfer in dicot.
10. …………….. is done by electrophorasis.
11. …………….. DNA polymerase is also activeted in high temperature.
12. Sticky ends of helpfull in the function of …………….. enzyme.

Answer:

1. Ethidium bromide
2. DNA ligase
3. Cosmid
4. Gene therapy
5. Distant
6. Kary muilis
7. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
8. Taq polymerase
9. Ti plasmid
10. Isolation of DNA segment
11. Taq DNA polymerase
12. DNA Ligase.

Question 3.
Match the followings:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (d)

Question 4.
Write the answer in one word/sentances:

1. Biomolecule that destroy viruses and produce immunity in human being.
2. Name of the first cloned animal.
3. Where does CCMB situated?
4. What kind of charge found in DNA segment?
5. Name the technique in which seperate DNA segments.
6. Name the molecular scissors.
7. Write the full name of PCR.
8. Which metal is used in gene gun method?
9. Who discover the enzyme restriction?
10. What is meant by GM organism?
11. Write the full name of FEB.

Answer:

1. Interferon
2. Dolly
3. Hyderabad
4. Negative
5. Bio power steering
6. Re – striction, enzyme
7. Polymerase chain reaction
8. Tungstun or Gold
9. Werner Arber
10. Genetically Modified organism
11. European Federation of Biotechnology.

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which enzyme is used for isolation of target gene?
Answer:
Restriction endonuclease is used for isolation of target gene.

Question 2.
Which DNA polymerase is active in high tempereature?
Answer:
Taq DNA polymerase is active in high temperature.

Question 3.
Name three restriction endonuclease enzyme.
Answer:

1. EcoRI
2. Hind II
3. Hind III.

Question 4.
Write full form of PCR. Which enzyme is used in?
Answer:

1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).
2. Taq DNA is used in PCR.

Question 5.
What is bacteriophage?
Answer:
Viruses, they are infected to bacteria are called Bacteriophage.

Question 6.
First recombinant DNA was formed in.
Answer:
In bacteria Salmonella typhimurium.

Question 7.
What is molecular scissors?
Answer:
Restriction enzyme is called molecular scissors.

Question 8.
Where does Hind II cuts the DNA molecule?
Answer:
It cuts the DNA molecule at a specific 6 base pair sequence.

Question 9.
What is the funtions of sticky ends?
Answer:
It helps enzyme DNA ligase.

Question 10.
Which type of charge found in DNA?
Answer:
Negative charge.

Question 11.
How does ethidium bromide cause DNA to fluorescence in electrophoresis?
Answer:
The most commonly used stain for detecting DNA is ethidium bromide.

Question 12.
What is electrophoresis?
Answer:
Electrophoresis is a technique used in laboratories in order to separate micromolecules based on size.

Question 13.
Give the function of circular DNA which is found in bacterial cell.
Answer:
It works as a vector.

Question 14.
Name the technique in which we should isolate DNA segment.
Answer:
Electrophoresis.

Question 15.
Name two antibiotic restriction gene which is found in plamid pBR 322.
Answer:
Ampicillin and Tetracycline.

Question 16.
What is plasmid?
Answer:
A plasmid is a small DNA molecule within a cell that is physically separated from a chromosomal DNA and can replicate independently.

Question 17.
What is DNA ligase?
Answer:
DNA ligase is a specific type of enzyme, a ligase that facilitates the joining of DNA strands together by catalyzing the formation of a phosphodiesterbond.

Question 18.
What is C – DNA?
Answer:
C – DNA is a single stranded RNA. C – DNA is often used to clone eukaryotic genes in prokaryotes.

Question 19.
What is Ti – plasmid?
Answer:
Ti or tumour inducing plasmid is a plasmid that is a part of the genetic equipment that Agrobacterium tumifaciens use to transduce their genetic material to plants.

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From what you have learnt, can you tell whether enzymes are bigger or DNA is bigger in molecular size? How did you know?
Answer:
DNA is bigger in molecular size than enzymes. Because DNA is a long double stranded molecule which can go up to a few meters in length when stretched end to end but enzymes although variable in size, would still be smaller than the DNA.

Question 2.
What would be the molar concentration of human DNA in a human cell? Consult your teacher.
Answer:
The average molecular weight of a nucleotide in human DNA is 130.86. The molecular weight of human DNA will therefore be 6 x 10⁹ nucleotides (based on the human genome project) x 130.86 = 784.56 x 109 gm/mol. The molar concentration of DNA can be calculated accordingly.

The molarity can be calculated as
Molar concentration = \(\frac { No. of molecules}{ Molecular weight }\)

Question 3.
Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, of eukaryotic cells do not have restriction endonucleases. All the restriction endonucleses have been isolated from the various strains oi bacteria arid they arc also named according to the genus and species of prokaryotes. The first letter of the enzyme comes from the genus and the second two letters come from the species of the prokaryotic cell from which they have been isolated.

Question 4.
Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantages do stirred tank bioreactors have over shake flasks ?
Answer:
Shake flask are used for growing microbes and mixing the desired materials on a small scale in the laboratory. However, the large-scale production of a desired biotechnological product requires large stirred tank bioreactors.

Besides better aeration and mixing properties, bioreactors have the following advantages:

1. It has an oxygen delivery system.
2. It has a foam control, temperature and pH control system.
3. Small volumes of culture can be withdrawn periodically.

Question 5.
Name the scientist who discovered artificial DNA synthsizing method.
Answer:
The Nobel prize in physiology 1968 was awarded jointly to Robert W. Holley, Hargobind Khorana and M. Nirenberg for their interpretation of the genetic code.

Question 6.
What is gene manipulation or genetic engineering? Explain it.
Answer:
Genetic engineering, also called genetic modification is the direct manipulation of an organisms genes using biotechnology. It is a set of technologies used to change the genetic makeup of cells, including the transfer of genes and across species boundaries to produce improved organisms. New DNA is obtained by either isolating and copying the genetic material of interest using recombinant DNA methods or by artificially synthesising the DNA.

It may also mean extracting DNA from another organisms genome and combining it with the DNA of that individual. Genetic engineering is used by scientists to enhance or modify the characterstics of an individual organisms genetic engineering can be used to produce plants that have a higher nutritional value or can tolerate exposure to herbicides.

Question 7.
Write application of genetic engineering in crop improvement.
Answer:
Genetic engineering has placed an important role in improvement of plant production. There are following applications of genetics in plant improvement.

1. Production of polyploidy crops.
2. Hybridization : Hybridization is used to produce plants with, desirable traits.
3. Transgenic plants : It helps a lot in improving the yield and quality of crops.
4. Insect and herbicides resistant plants are engineered.

Question 8.
Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is made?
Answer:
A recombinant DNA is made in the pachytene stage of prophase I by crossing over during meosis cell division. Recombination nodules are visible in synaptonemal complex in pachytene sub stage. Crossing over occurs in this time between chromatids than recombinant DNA is formed.

Question 9.
Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker?
Answer:
Reporter enzyme can differentiate recombinants from non – recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce a specific colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of the enzyme β – galactosidase. (MPBoardSolutions.com) This results into inactivation of the enzyme which is referred to as insertional inactivation. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue – coloured colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. The presence of the insert results in insertional inactivation of β – galactosidase and the colonies do not produce any colour. These are identified as recombinant colonies.

Question 10.
Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) showing a restriction enzyme, the substrate DNA on which it acts, the site at which it cuts DNA and the products it produces.
Answer:
The substrate DNA on which a restriction enzyme acts :

Question 11.
Write the uses of animal cloning.
Answer:
Applications (Uses) of Animal cloning :

1. By this technique desired genotypes of any organism can be conserved.
2. It produces organisms with better characters.
3. Endangered plant and animal species can be conserved by this technique.
4. Animals with good quality of milk and protein can be produced.

Question 12.
Write applications of genetic engineering in medical field.
Answer:

1. The hereditary diseases like colour – blindness, haemophilia which are caused by recessive genes therapy.
2. Substances like vitamins, hormones, amino acids and antibiotics can be synthe – sized in bacteria by introducing the genes which code these substances.
3. Production of insulin : It is a medicine used for the treatment of diabetes. It is produced by gene splicing.
4. Hepatitis – B vaccine : Hepatitis – B is a viral disease of liver, today this vaccine is prepared with the help of genetic engineering.

Question 13.
What do you understand by gene bank? What are its significances?
Answer:
Gene bank:
The institution which conserves the genes of the organisms is called as gene bank. The genetic material (DNA) found in the cells of organisms are conserved in gene banks. The best measure of conserving genes is to conserve endangered organisms. The tissues or cells of organisms are also conserved in gene banks.

Significance:
Genes stored in gene bank are used for the production of improved varieties of species and for scientific tests.

Question 14.
What do you understand by gene cloning? What are its significance?
Or
What is gene cloning? Write its importance.
Answer:
Gene cloning:
It is a process in which DNA of an organism is cut into smaller DNA fragments by the use of restriction endonuclease enzymes. Each DNA fragment is introduced into a bacterial, yeast, insect, plant or animal cell. The cells are grown on a suitable medium under suitable conditions. Each cell containing a particular DNA fragment multiplies to give rise a group of cells, all containingthe same foreign DNA.

These groups of cells are known as clone of cells. These copies of DNA resulting from the multiplication or recombinant DNA are called as cloned DNA and the process is known as gene cloning,

Significance:

1. Useful hereditary characters are obtained by this process.
2. Many diseases are cured by this process.
3. Many medicines are synthesized with the help of this process.
4. This process should also be used in eugenics.

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Collect 5 examples of palindromic DNA sequences by consulting your teacher. Better try to create a palindromic sequence by following base – pair rules.
Answer:
Some palindromic DNA sequences and the restriction enzymes which act on them are:

1.  5′ – AGCT – 3 Alul (Arthrobacter lutens)
3′ – TCGA – 5′

2. 5′ – GAATTC – 3’EcoRI (Escherichia coli)
3′-CTTAAG-5′

3.  5′- AAGCTT – 3’HindIII (Haemophilus influenzae)
3′ – TTCGAA – 5′.

4. 5′ – GTCGAC – 3’SalI (Streptomyces albus)
3′ – CAGCTG – 5′

5. 5′ – CTGCAG – 3’PstI (Providencia stuartii)
3′ – GACGTC – 5′.

Question 2.
Describe briefly the followings :

1. Origin of replication
2. Bioreactor
3. Downstream processing.

Answer:
1. Origin of replication:
Origin of replication (ori) is a sequence on the chromosome, form where replication starts and any place of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells. This sequence also controls the copy number of the linked DNA. So, if we want to recover many copies of the target DNA it should be linked to the ‘ori’ site and should be cloned in a vector whose origin supports high copy number.

2. Bioreactor:
Bioreactor is large vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using microbial, plant, animal or human cells. (MPBoardSolutions.com) A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired production levels by providing optimum growth conditions of temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen, etc.

3. Downstream processing:
Downstream processes include separation and purification, formulation with suitable preservatives, etc. which are collectively referred to as downstream processing. Such formulation has to undergo through clinical trials as in case of drugs. Strict quality control testing for each product is also required. The downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.

Question 3.
Explain briefly:

1. PCR
2. Restriction enzymes and DNA
3. Chitinase.

Answer:
1. PCR:
PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction, a method of amplifying fragments of DNA. This method can make multiple copies of even a single DNA fragment or the gene of interest in a test tube. The reaction ntixture requires:

1. Double – stranded DNA fragment (gene of interest).
2. Primers – small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of this DNA.
3. The special thermostable DNA polymerase (isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus), that does not denature and remain active even at high temperature.

Unwinding of two strands of DNA by heating the sample at 92 – 94°C helps primers to get positioned on the exposed nucleotides as per base pairing rules. DNA polymerase recognizes primes as ‘start’ tags and begins to extend the primes using the free nucleotides provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA as template. With each round of reactions, the DNA doubles.

2. Restriction enzymes and DNA:
These enzymes are used in genetic engineering to cut the large DNA molecule into smaller fi agments. When DNA from two different sources are cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of’sticky – ends’ and these can be joined together (end – to – end) using DNA ligases. This new DNA created by joining fragments, from two different sources/genomes together is recombinant DNA.

3. Chitinase:
Chitinase is an enzyme that breaks down chitin, a component of fungal cell wall. It is useful for isolating the fungal cell DNA.

Question 4.
Discuss with your teacher and find out how to distinguish between :

1. Plasmid DNA and Chromosomal DNA
2. DNA and RNA
3. Exonuclease and Endonuclease.

Answer:
1. Distinguish between Plasmid DNA and Chromosomal DNA :

Plasmid DNA:

• Plasmid DNA is the naked double – stranded DNA which forms a circle
• It is associated with few proteins but contains RNA polymerase enzyme.
• They are smaller than the host chromosomes and can be easily sparated.
• It has no free ends.

Chromosomal DNA:

• Chromosomal DNA is a double – stranded linear DNA molecule.
• It is associated with large proteins.
• This DNA exists in relaxed and super – coiled forms and provides a template for replication and transcription.
• It has free ends represented as 3′ – 5′.

2. Distinguish between DNA and RNA :

DNA:

• It is mainly confined to the nucleus. A small quantity occurs in mitochondria and chloroplasts.
• Its quantity is constant in each cell of a species.
• It contains deoxyribos sugar.
• Its pyrimidines are adenine and thymine.
• The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine. Also, the amount of cytosine is equal to the amount of guanine.
• It can replicate itself.

RNA:

• It mainly occurs in the cytoplasm. A small quantity is found in the nucleus.
• Its quantity varies in different cells.
• It contains ribose sugar
• Its pyrimidines are adenine and uracil. Adenine and uracil are not necessarily in equal amounts, nor are cytosine and
• guanine necessarily in equal amounts.
• It cannot replicate itself. It is formed by DNA. Some RNA viruses (paramyxo virus) can produce RNA from an RNA template.

3. Distinguish between Exonuclease and Endonucleases:
Exonucleases are nucleases which cut off the nucleotides from the 5′ or 3′ ends of a DNA molecule, whereas endonucleases are nucleases which cleave the DNA duplex at any point except at the ends.

Question 5.
Describe the useful and harmful effects of genetic engineering.
Or
Give importance and uses of DNA recombinant technique.
Or
Describe the Genetic engineering. Write the importance of it in human life.
Answer:
The branch of molecular genetics in which we can manipulate or transplant the genes or the genetic material or DNA according to our will is called gene manipulation or genetic engineering. The main objective of genetic engineering is to synthesize recombinant DNA (formed of the DNA segments of two different organisms).

The useful and harmful effects of genetic engineering are as follows :

(A) Useful effects or Utility:
1. Industrial uses:
Various types of substances such as vitamins, hormones and antibiotics can be-synthesized in bacteria by introducing genes that code these substances. In this way, bacteria can function as living factories for the synthesis of these substances. Humulin (human insulin) is synthesized by this method.

2. Treatment of diseases:
A new system of medicines, gene therapy may develop to cure several genetic disorders such as haemophilia, colour-blindness, etc. Also many inborn meta¬bolic disorders due to defective genes such as alkaptonuria, phenylketonuria, etc. can be cured.

3. Use in agriculture:
The genes for N₂ fixation found in symbiotic bacteria Rhizo – bium leguminosarum or blue-green algae may be transferred to the major food crops, increases food production without using expensive fertilizers. Thus, we can save millions of rupees spent otherwise on fertilizers and manures to boost food production.

4. Changes in the structure and expression of genes:
We can obtain new plants, animals having traits tailored according to our will.

(B) Harmful effects:

1. Normal harmless bacteria can be transformed into cancer causing forms thus ushering a new era of biological warfare.
2. During experiments, it is quite possible to obtain super viruses for which we might have no defence.
3. By the use of recombinant DNA, the bacteria may be made resistant to antibiotics.

Question 6.
Explain the mechanism of recombinant DNA technology in genetic engineering by using plasmid as carrier of genes.
Answer:
Mechanism of Recombinant DNA Technology : Mechanism of recombinant DNA technology involves the following steps :

1. Isolation of desired gene or functional DNA segment:
From the eukaryotic cell desired DNA segment is isolated with the help of enzyme restriction endonuclease. Now this segment of DNA is known as foreign DNA.

2. Transfer of DNA segment from one organism to other:
Plasmid is an extra chromosomal circular DNA found mostly in bacteria over and above the main genome. When bacteria multiplies the plasmid DNA also multiplies along with the chromosomal DNA. These plasmids can be easily isolated from the bacterial cell with the help of restriction endonucleases. Plasmid serves as a vector for transferring the foreign DNA into a suitable recipient.

Foreign DNA and plasmid sliced with the help of endonucleases has free sticky ends through which they join each other with complementary base pairing with the help of enzyme DNA ligase. Thus, a recombinant DNA is formed,

Such a recombinant DNA when introduced into a recipient bacterium (transformation), it replicates and expresses itself, within the bacterial cell, the recombinant DNA molecule replicates along with the endogenous DNA of the host cell and produces copies of cloned DNA. This process is known as gene cloning. The cloned recombinant DNA produced in large quantities’can be isolated, purified and analysed.

Question 7.
Describe the role of genentic engineering in artificial synthesis of human insulin.
Answer:

1. Aldric and his supporter prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to the A and B chains of human insulin.
2. Sticky ends were produced in the E.coli plasmid and the insulin gene by treating them both with the same restriction endonucleases.
3. These two are then joined together by the enzyme DNA ligase.
4. The bacteria are then grown in sterilised bioreactors in the appropriate growth medium.
5. The chain A and B are produced separately, extracted and purified.

Question 8.
What is clone? Give its preparation, extraction and purification.
Answer:
An organism or cell or group of oiganisms, produced a sexually from an ancestor, to which they are genetical.

1. Gene cloning : Following steps are used by gene cloning :
(i) Preparation of gene:
DNA extracted from an organism, with the gene of interest is cut into gene size pieces with restriction enzyme.

(ii) Insertion into vector:
Bacterial plasmids are cut with the same restriction enzyme. Plasmids are small circles of DNA in bacterial cells that are naturally present in addition to the bacterial other DNA.

(iii) Transformation of host cells:
The recombinant plasmids are then transferred into bacteria using either electroporation. The plasmid are small enough to pass through the holes into the cells. However rather than using electricity to create holes in the bacterium, it is done by alternating the temperature between hot and cold.

The bacteria is grown on a culture dish and allowed to grow into colonies. All the colonies on all the plates are called a gene library.

2. Plant cloning:
Plant tissue culture is a method of propagation that has been sprouting in popularity throught as an altemative.to cloning. Plant can be cloned artificially using tissue culture. (MPBoardSolutions.com) Vegetative propagation works because the end of the cutting forms a mass of non specialized cells called a callus, the callus will grow divide and form various specialized cells eventually forming a new plant.

Question 9.
Can you list 10 recombinant proteins which are used in medical practice? Find out where they are used as therapeutics (use the internet).
Answer:

MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions Chapter 16 Environmental Issues

Environmental Issues Important Questions

Environmental Issues Objective Type Questions 

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Disease caused due to mercury pollution is:
(a) Methenamine
(b) Minimata
(c) Asbestosis
(d) Liver inflammation.
Answer:
(b) Minimata

Question 2.
Plants are natural air purifiers because they exhibit :
(a) Respiration
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Transpiration
(d) Drying.
Answer:
(b) Photosynthesis

Question 3.
Metal found in atmosphere is :
(a) Cadmium
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Zinc.
Answer:
(b) Lead

Question 4.
Burning of fossil fuel results in:
(a) SO₂ pollution
(b) NO₂ pollution
(c) N₂O pollution
(d) NO pollution.
Answer:
(a) SO₂ pollution

Question 5.
Increase of the concentration of which gas results greenhouse effect :
(a) CO₂
(b) CO
(c) O₂
(d) Nitrogen oxide.
Answer:
(a) CO₂

Question 6.
Gas responsible for depletion of O₃ in atmosphere is :
(a) CFC
(b) NO₂
(c) CO₂
(d) SO₂
Answer:
(a) CFC

Question 7.
Carbon monoxide is the chief pollutant of :
(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Noise
(d) Soil.
Answer:
(b) Air

Question 8.
Effect of air pollution is seen in :
(a) Leaves
(b) Flower
(c) Forests
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Flower

Question 9.
Shrinking of leaves occurs by :
(a) SO₂
(b) O₂
(C) H₂S
(d) CO.
Answer:
(a) SO₂

Question 10.
Example of greenhouse gas is :
(a) CO₂
(b) CH₄
(c) CFC
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 11.
Gas produced during combustion of fossil fuels is :
(a) CO₂
(b) CH₄
(c) CFC
(d) N₂O
(a) CO₂

Question 12.
Gas used in refrigeration is :
(a) Freon
(b) N₂O
(c) CH₄
(d) CO₂.
Answer:
(a) Freon

Question 13.
Radiation emitted due to heating of earth is:
(a) UV
(b) Infrared
(c) Gamma
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Infrared

Question 14.
Gas responsible for depletion of atmospheric ozone layer is:
(a) CO₂
(b) CH₄
(c) CFC
(d) O₂
Answer:
(c) CFC

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. ………………….. is a chief green house gas.
2. ………………….. is the measurement unit of water pollution.
3. ………………….. and ………………….. gases are responsible for acid rain.
4. ………………….. gas is essential for life. (MP 2009 Set B)
5. The substances which produce pollution are called ………………….. (MP 2013)
6. Strong, loud, unpleasant or untolerable sound is called ………………….. (MP 2013)
7. We can ………………….. the quantity of CO₂ from forestation.
8. CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, CFCs are………………….. gases.
9. ………………….. is discharged in Bhopal gas disaster.
10. In human DDT is reached by …………………..
11. ………………….. is also known as chemical weeds.
12. Pollution is the …………………. changes which occurs in atmosphere.
13. Deficiency of soil nutrients is called …………………..
14. The percentage of CO₂ of atmosphere can be ………………….. by forestation. (MP 2009 Set D)

Answer:

1. CO₂
2. BOD
3. SO₂ and NO₂
4. O₂
5. Pollutant
6. Noise
7. Lost
8. Green house
9. Methyl isocyanate
10. Food chain
11. Ozone
12. Unwanted
13. Negative pollution
14. Reduced.

Question 3.
Match the followings:
I.

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (f)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (d)
6. (a)
7. (g)
8. (h)

II.

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)

Question 4.
Write the answer in one word/sentences:

1. Write full name of BOD.
2. What is the hearing capacity of man?
3. Name the fish used to control mosquito.
4. What is the concentration of CO₂ in environment?
5. When is World Environment Day celebrated?
6. Write the names of two main gases which pollute air.
7. Write the name of highly polluted river of India.
8. Name the term used, for the increase in atmospheric temperature, due to increase in CO₂ concentration.
9. What is the amount of oxygen taken up by microorganisms, that decompose waste matter?
10. Write full name of CFC.
11. Write the name of a chief greenhouse gas.
12. Write the name of gas responsible for ozone layer depletion.
13. Who is the greatest enemy of nature and organism? (MP 2013)
14. When we celebrated ozone day?

Answer:

1. Biological Oxygen Demand
2. 10 – 12 decibel
3. Gambussia
4. 0 03%
5. 5th June
6. SO₂and CO
7. Ganga
8. Green House effect
9. B. O. D
10. Chlorof – luorocarbon
11. CO₂
12. CFC
13. Global warming
14. 16December.

Environmental Issues Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the definition of pollution?
Answer:
Pollution is defined as an undesirable changes in physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air, land, wafer and soil.

Question 2.
What are the essential components of biodiversity?
Answer:
Essential components of biodiversity are:

1. Genetic diversity.
2. Species diversity.
3. Ecological diversity.

Question 3.
When and how photochemical smog is formed?
Answer:
Photochemical smog is the chemical reaction of sunlight, nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds in the atmosphere, which leaves air borne particles and ground level ozone. Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) is present in the photochemical smog. It causes damage to respiratory system and environment system. (The word smog is derived from smoke and fog.)

Question 4.
Name two plants which uses carbon monoxide (CO).
Answer:
Two plants which uses CO are:

1. Daucus carota,
2. Ficus variegata.

Question 5.
Name the types of water pollution based on source of water.
Answer:
Types of water pollution based on source of water:

1. Underground water pollution
2. Surface water pollution
3. Lake water pollution and
4. River water pollution.

Question 6.
How does fertilizers pollute water?
Answer:
Excess fertilizers used in the field are drained into the pond and river, where they proliferate growth of algae, which spread all over the surface of the water and cut off oxygen supply for lower aquatic organisms. Due which lower aquatic organisms dies. This is known as eutrophication.

Question 7.
Give harmful effects of cutting of forest.
Answer:
Harmful effects of cutting of forest are:

1. It increases landscape.
2. It decreases fertility of the soil.
3. Rainfall reduces and become uncontrolled.

Environmental Issues Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is acid rain? Write any two effects of acid rain on human beings.
Answer:
Acid rain:
SO₂ gas is released into the environment by burning of fossil fuels containing sulphide from industries, example Coal. In presence of moisture, SO₂ reacts with water and forms the droplets of sulphurous and sulphuric acid in the environment. Likewise nitrogen oxides released from motor vehicles, burning materials and chemical industries also react with water to produce the droplets of nitric acid. The droplets of sulphurous, sulphuric acid and nitric acids fall down on the earth with rainwater and thus, it is known as acid rain.

• SO₂ + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) O₂ → SO₃
• H₂O + SO₃ → H₂SO₄
• H₂O + NO₂ → HNO₃

Effects on human beings : Skin diseases, irritation, metabolic diseases.

Question 2.
Write the effect of air pollution on plants.
Answer:
Effect of air pollution on plants:

1. Increase in the concentration of SO₂ causes chlorosis of leaves in plants.
2. The cells and chlorophyll of leaves are degraded and fall down.
3. Vegetative and reproductive growth is inhibited.
4. The development of plant is inhibited.

Question 3.
Write short note on pollution caused due to combustion activities.
Answer:
Combustion of fuel, such as wood, coal, natural gas for cooking and for some other puiposes gives out gases like CO₂, CO, SO₂ and consumes oxygen from the air.

Question 4.
Write preventive measures to control air pollution.
Answer:
Preventive measures to control air pollution:

1. Industrial smokes must be filtered before releasing it into the atmosphere.
2. Tree plantation should be increased and deforestation prevented.
3. Use of automobiles should be minimized which reduce the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere.
4. The use of crude fuels should be avoided and use of high quality fuels should be recommended.
5. Nuclear explosions should be avoided.
6. Legal control of air pollution.
7. Plantation of air purifying plants.
8. Development of parks and gardens in cities.

Question 5.
Write any four measures to control greenhouse effect.
Answer:
Following important measures can be sited as the base steps towards controlling greenhouse effect:

1. The aim is achieved to some extent by reducing the consumption of fossil fuels such as coal and petroleum. This can be achieved by depending more on non – conventional renewable sources of energy such as solar, wind, tidal, biogas and nuclear energies.
2. Disposing of the greenhouse gases as they are formed elsewhere than in the atmosphere.
3. By recovering greenhouse gases present already in the atmosphere and disposing them off elsewhere.
4. Prevention of deforestation and planting of more trees.

Question 6.
Write short note:

1. Bio – magnification.
2. UV rays.
3. Biodegradable pollutants.
4. Non – biodegradable.

Answer:
1. Bio – magnification:
Bio – magnification, also known as bio-amplification or biological magnification is the increasing concentration of a substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain.

2. UV rays:
Sunlight is the chief source of ultraviolet rays. The rays of sunlight having a wavelength range from 200 to 390 nm are called as UV rays.

Effect of UV rays:
They have a direct effect on living cells. DNA and other chemical substances in cells are inactivated due to UV rays. Prevention of replication of the DNA molecule and its distortion cause many ill effects.

3. Biodegradable pollutants:
The pollutants which are degraded by natural factors and decomposed by natural activities are known as biodegradable pollutants, e.g., Domestic sewage, heat. The domestic sewage can be rapidly decomposed by natural processes or in engineered system (sewage treatment plant) that enhance natures great capacity to decompose and recycle.

4. Non – biodegradable:
The pollutants which cannot be purified by natural methods are called non-biodegradable pollutants. Plastic products, many chemicals, DDT, long chain detergents, glass aluminium, mercury salt and other synthetic products manufactured by man come under this category. These non – biodegradable pollutants not only accumulate but often “biologically magnified” as they move in biochemical cycles and along food chains.

Question 7.
What is the effect of SO₂ in the environment?
Answer:

Question 8.
Write only the sources of water and air pollution.
Answer:
1. Sources of water pollution : Following are the chief sources of water pollution:

(a) Human sources:

• Domestic sewage
• Industrial effluents
• Agricultural wastes
• Oil pollution
• Thermal and nuclear power station.

(b) Natural sources:
Water pollution takes place by natural ways like soil erosion, mixing of metallic substances, plant leaves, humus and faecal matter of animals etc.

2. Sources of air pollution : Following are the chief sources of air pollution:

(a) Human sources:

• Combustion activities
• Industrial activities
• Agricultural works
• Use of solvents
• Activities concerned with atomic energy.

(b) Natural sources:
Volcano and its lava, ash, dust, smoke of forest fire, winds, cyclone. Decomposition of matters in the swamp water and liberation of methane gas and different compounds of hydrogen from forests plants, various pollen grains etc.

Question 9.
Write a note on the effect of water pollution on aquatic organisms.
Answer:
Effect of water pollution on aquatic plants:

1. Inorganic nitrates and phosphates in excess amount stimulates excessive plant growth in lakes and reservoirs. These plants deplete the oxygen contents of the water during night. This leads to suffocation of fish and other aquatic life.

2. The rapid algal growth leads to the diminishing of nutrient in the medium causing rapid decay of algal filament. This increases productivity of lake and stream water brought about by nutrient enrichment is called eutrophication.

3. The number of microorganisms increases in polluted water.

4. Siltation occurs in water.

5. Temperature of water increases and O₂ ratio is reduced.

Effect of water pollution on aquatic animals : Animal life depends on aquatic plants. Aquatic animals are affected from water pollution as follows:

1. Decrease in the value of B.O.D. resulting in the number of aquatic animals.
2. Animals found in freshwater and killed.
3. Animal diversity is also decreased and fishes suffer from various types of diseases.
4. Terrestrial animals are also affected by the use of polluted water.

Question 10.
Write the measures for control and prevention of water pollution.
Answer:
Measures for control and prevention of water pollution are:

Preventive measures:

1. Use of harmful pesticides and weedicides must be stopped completely.
2. Discharge of effluents into rivers, lakes and sea should be strictly prohibited without treatment.
3. Oil spill should be prevented.
4. Proper disposal of sewage so, that it does not find its way into water bodies.
5. Preventing bathing, washing cloths, throwing dead bodies and other wastes into water source.

Curative measures:

1. Adequate waste water treatment:
The domestic sewage and the industrial waste should be properly treated before its disposal into water ways.

Waste water treatment involves three steps :

(a) Primary treatment – During this treatment large objects and suspended undissolved solids are removed and converted into the sludge, a valuable fertilizer.

(b) Secondary treatment – Aeration is supplied to promote bacterial decomposition, followed by chlorination to reduce its content of bacteria.

(c) Tertiary treatment – During this phase nitrates and phosphates are removed. The treated water is then released. Sewage treatment is quite expensive and in many developing countries only the first two steps are followed.

2. Treatment of industrial effluents:
Industrial effluents should be properly treated to remove the pollutants. These involve neutralization of acids and alkalies, removal of harmful chemicals, coagulation of colloidal impurities, precipitation of metallic compounds and reducing the temperature of wastes to decrease thermal pollution. Chemical oxidation can be achieved by chlorination through reaction with ozone. However, there are certain chemicals which are difficult to remove.

3. Recycling:
One of the best methods of prevention and control of water pollution is the recycling of the various kinds of pollutants and wastes, example Dung of cow and buffalo can be used for the production of gobar gas a cheap source of fuel and also as manure.

Question 11.
Write short notes on air pollution caused due to industries.
Answer:
Industrial pollution is caused by industrial pollutants which are released by the industries such as SO₂, CO₂, CO, H₂S and hydrocarbons together with dust and smoke. These are produced by the burning of coal and petroleum. The chemical industries releases HC₁, Cl₂, nitrogen oxide, oxides of copper, zinc, lead, arsenic etc. Industrial pollutants causes air pollution and water pollution.

Question 12.
Write the effects of noise pollution.
Answer:
Effects of Noise pollution:

1. The more acute and immediate effect of noise pollution is impairing of hearing leading to auditory fatigue and may finally lead to. deafness.
2. Interference with speech communication.
3. Noise pollution leads to neurosis, anxiety hypertension, cardiovascular disease, hepatic stress, giddiness.
4. Annoyance leading to ill – temper, bickering, mental disorientation and violent behaviour.
5. The high intensity of noise pollution can cause blood vessels to contract, skin becomes pale, muscles to contract and adrenaline to be short into blood stream with consequence rise in blood pressure. This ultimately results in tension and nervousness.
6. Affects different metabolic activities.

Question 13.
What are the various constituents of domestic sewage? Discuss the effects of sewage discharge on a river.
Answer:
Domestic sewage are the waste originating from the kitchen, toilet, laundry and other sources. They contain impurities such as suspended solid (sand, salt, clay), colloidal materials (faecal matters, bacteria, plastic and cloth fiber), dissolved materials (nitrate, phosphate, calcium, sodium, ammonia) and disease – causing microbes.

When organic wastes from the sewage enter the water bodies, they serve as a food source for microorganisms such as algae and bacteria. As a result, the population of these microorganisms in the water body increases. Here, they utilize most of the dissolved oxygen. for their metabolism. This results in an increase in the levels of BOD in river water and results in the death of aquatic organisms. Also, the nutrients in the water lead to the growth of planktonic algal, causing algal bloom. This causes deterioration of water quality and fish mortality.

Question 14.
List all the wastes that you generate at home, school or during your trips to other places, could you very easily reduce. Which would be difficult or rather impossible to reduce?
Answer:
Wastes generated at home include plastic bags, paper napkin, toiletries, kitchen wastes (such as peelings of vegetables and fruits, tea leaves), domestic sewage, glass, etc. Wastes generated at school include waste paper, plastics, vegetable and fruit peels, food wrapping, sewage, etc.

Wastes generated at trips or picnics include plastic, paper, vegetable and fruit peels, disposable cups, plates, spoons etc. Yes, wastes can be easily reduced by the judicious use of the above materials. Wastage of paper can be minimized by writing on both sides of the paper and by using recycled paper.

Plastic and glass waste can also be reduced by recycling and re-using. Also, substituting plastics bags with biodegradable jute bags can reduce wastes generated at home, school or during trips. Domestic sewage can be reduced by optimizing the use of water while bathing, cooking, and other household activities. Non – biodegradable wastes such as plastic, metal, broken glass, etc. are difficult to decompose because microorganisms do not have the ability to decompose them.

Question 15.
Write preventive measures of sound pollution.
Answer:
Preventive measures of noise pollution:

1. Noise pollution can be controlled by designing quieter machines, proper lubrication and better maintenance of machines. Noise producing parts of machines may be covered by suitable insulating materials.
2. Noise producing industries should be installed away from residential areas.
3. Use of public addressing systems should be restricted at a fixed intensity and hours of the day.
4. Stuffing of cotton plugs in the ear or use of earmuffs and minimise the danger of occupational exposure of noise.
5. Trees absorb sound vibrations and thus, reduce the noise pollution. Thus, plantation of trees along highways, establishment of parks help in reducing noise pollution.
6. By use of silencer in all automobiles and engines.

Question 16.
How many types of pollution are there? Explain in brief.
Answer:
Pollution are of following five types:

1. Air pollution
2. Noise pollution
3. Water pollution
4. Radioactive pollution
5. Soil pollution.

1. Air pollution – Pyrotechnics results in the release of harmful gases like CO₂, CO and SO₂ in the environment which produces various types of diseases in living beings.

2. Noise pollution – Pyrotechnics produces the unwanted sound dumped into the atmosphere leading to health hazards.

3. Water pollution – Pyrotechnics produces some waste materials, on reaching water it causes water pollution.

4. Radioactive pollution – Pollution created due to radioactive substance is called radioactive pollution. Atomic energy centres and bombarding also causes radioactive pollution.

5. Soil pollution – Any change in physical and chemical characteristics of soil due to addition of unwanted substances which adversely affects productivity of soil is termed as soil pollution.

Question 17.
Discuss the role of women and communities in protection and conservation of forests.
Answer:
Women and Communities have played a major role in environmental conservation movements. The Bishnoi community in Rajasthan strictly believes in the concept of living peacefully with nature. In 1731, the King of Jodhpur ordered his ministers to arrange wood for the construction of his new palace. For this purpose, the minister and the workers went to bishnoi village. There, a Bishnoi woman called Amrita Devi along with her daughter and hundreds of other Bishnoi’s showed the courage to step forward and stop them from cutting trees.

They embraced the trees and lost their lives at the hands of soldiers of the king. This resistance by the people of the village forced the king to give up the idea of cutting trees. The Chipko movement was started in 1974, in the Garhwal region of the Himalayas. In this movement, the women from the village stopped the contractors from cutting forest trees by embracing them.

Question 18.
What measures, as an individual you would take to reduce environmental pollution?
Answer:
The following initiatives can be taken to prevent environmental pollution:

Measures for preventing air pollution:

• Planting more trees.
• Use of clean and renewable energy sources such as CNG and Bio – fuels.
• Reducing the use of fossil fuels.
• Use of catalytic converters in automobiles.

Measures for preventing water pollution:

• Optimizing the use of water.
• Using kitchen waste water in gardening and other household purposes measures for controlling noise pollution :
  Avoid burning crackers on Diwali , Plantation of more trees.

Measures for decreasing solid waste generation:

• Segregation of waste.
• Recycling and reuse of plastic and paper.
• Composting of biodegrable kitchen waste.
• Reducing the use of plastics.

Question 19.
What are the causes of air pollution?
Answer:
The causes of air pollution:
The main causes of air pollutions are fossil fuels industries, factories and particulate matter are produced due to combustion of petrol, diesel, kerosene etc. in vehicles, houses and factories which pollute air. In thermal power plants, steel and glass industries, paper and sugar mills etc. combustion of coal and furnace oil produce carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, ash, dust particles and some heavy metals which are released into atmosphere. Similarly various types of chemicals released from cloth mills, cement industries, asbesters industries, pesticides industries etc. also causes air pollution.

Environmental Issues Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the causes and effects of global warming. What measures need to be taken to control global warming?
Answer:
Global warming:
Global warming is defined as an increase in the average temperature of the Earth’s surface due to greenhouse effect.

Causes of global warming:
Global warming occurs as a result of the increased concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. Greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour. These gases trap solar radiation released back by the earth. Global warming is a result of industrialization, burning of fossil fuels, and deforestation.

Effects of global warming:
Global warming is defined as an increase in the average temperature of the Earth’s surface. It has been observed that in the past three decades, the average temperature of the Earth has increased by 0-6°C. As a result, the natural water cycle has been disturbed resulting in changes in the pattern of rainfall. It also changes the amount of rainwater. Also, it results in the melting of polar ice caps and mountain glaciers, which has caused a rise in the sea level, leading to the inundation of coastal regions.

Control measures for preventing global wanning:

• Reducing the use of fossil fuels.
• Use of bio – fuels.
• Improving energy efficiency.
• Use of renewable source of energy such as CNG, etc.
• Reforestation.
• Recycling of materials.

Question 2.
Write critical notes on the following:

1. Eutrophication,
2. Biological magnification,
3. Groundwater depletion and ways for its replenishment.

Answer:
1. Eutrophication:
It is the natural ageing process of lake caused due to nutrient enrichment. It is brought down by the runoff of nutrients such as animal wastes, fertilizers, and sewage from land which leads to an increased fertility of the lake. As a result, it causes a tremendous increase in the primary productivity of the ecosystem. This leads to an increased growth of algae, resulting into algal blooms. Later, the decomposition of theses algae depletes the supply of oxygen, leading to the death of other aquatic animal life.

2. Biological magnification:
The increase in concentration of harmful non – biodegradable substances into higher tropic level is called biological magnification. DDT used to protect the crops reach the soil and are absorbed by plants with water and minerals from the soil. Due to rain, these chemicals can also enter water sources and into the body of aquatic plants and animals.

As a result, chemicals enter the food chain. Since, these chemicals cannot be decomposed, they keep on accumulating at each trophic level. The maximum concentration is accumulated at the top carnivore’s level. The producers (phytoplankton) were found to have 0 04 ppm concentration of DDT.

Since many, types of phytoplankton were eaten by zooplankton (consumers), the concentration of DDT in the bodies of zooplankton was found to be 0.23ppm. Small fish that feed on zooplankton accumulate more DDT in their body. Thus, large fish (top carnivore) that feed on several small fish have the have the highest concentration of DDT.

3. Groundwater depletion and ways for its replenishment:
The level of ground water has decreased in the recent years. The source of water supply is rapidly diminishing each year because of an increase in the population and water pollution. To meet the demand of water, water is withdrawn from water bodies such as ponds, rivers, etc. As a result, the source of groundwater is depleting.

This is because the amount or groundwater being drawn for human use is more than the amount replaced by rainfall. Lack of vegetation cover also results in very small amounts of water seeping through the ground. An increase in water pollution is another factor that has reduced the availability of groundwater.

Measures for replenishing groundwater:

• Preventing over-exploitation of groundwater.
• Optimizing water use and reducing water demand.
• Rainwater harvesting.
• Preventing deforestation and plantation of more trees.

Question 3.
Why ozone hole forms over Antarctica? How will enhanced ultraviolet radiations affect us?
Answer:
The ozone hole is more prominent over the region of Antarctica. It is formed due to an increased concentration of chlorine in the atmosphere. Chlorine is mainly released from Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s) widely used as refrigerants. The CFC’s release chlorine atoms by the action of UV rays on them. The release of chlorine atoms causes the conversion of ozone into molecular oxygen. One atom of chlorine can destroy around 10,000 molecules of ozone and causes ozone depletion.

• CF₂Cl₂ → CF₂Cl + Cl
• Cl + O_{3 →} ClO + O₂
• ClO + O → Cl + O₂

The formation of the ozone hole will result in an increased concentration of UV – B radiation on the Earth’s surface. UV – B damages DNA and activates the process of skin ageing. It also causes skin darkening and skin cancer. High levels of UV – B cause corneal cataract in human beings.

Question 4.
Discuss briefly the following:

1. Radioactive wastes,
2. Defunct ships and e-wastes,
3. Municipal solid wastes.

Answer:
1. Radioactive wastes:
Radioactive wastes are generated during the process of ‘ generating nuclear energy from radioactive materials. Nuclear waste is rich in radioactive materials that generate large quantities of ionizing radiation such as gamma rays. These rays cause mutation in organisms which often results in skin cancer. At high dosage, these rays can be lethal. Safe disposal of radioactive wastes is a big challenge. It is recommended that nuclear wastes should be stored after pre-treatment in suitable shielded containers, which should then be buried in rocks.

2. Defunct ships and e – wastes:
Defunct ships are dead ships that are no longer in use. Such ships are broken down for scrap metal in countries such as India and Pakistan. These ships are a source of various toxicants such as asbestos, lead, mercury etc. Thus, they contribute to solid wastes that are hazardous to health.

E – wastes or electronic wastes generally include electronic goods such as computers, etc. Such wastes are rich in metals such as copper, iron, silicon, gold, etc. These metals are highly toxic and pose serious health hazards. People of developing countries are involved in the recycling process of these metals and therefore, get exposed to toxic substances present in these wastes.

3. Municipal solid wastes:
Municipal solid wastes are generated from schools, offices, homes and stores. It is generally rich in glass, metal, paper waste, food, rubber, leather and textiles. The open dumps of municipal wastes serve as a breeding ground for flies, mosquitoes and other disease causing microbes. Hence, it is necessary to dispose municipal solid waste properly to prevent the spreading of diseases. Sanitary landfills and incineration are the methods for the safe disposal of solid wastes.

Question 5.
What initiatives were taken for reducing vehicular air pollution.in Delhi? Has air quality improved in Delhi?
Answer:
Delhi has been categorized as the fourth most polluted city of the world in a list of 41 cities. Burning of fossil fuels has added to the pollution of air in Delhi. Various steps have been taken to improve the qualify of air in Delhi

Introduction of CNG (Compressed Natural Gas):
By the order of the Supreme Court of India, CNG powered vehicles were introduced at the end of year 2006 to reduce the levels of pollution in Delhi. CNG is a clean fuel that produces very little unbumt particles.

1. Phasing out of old vehicles
2. Use of unleaded petrol.
3. Use of low – sulphur petrol and diesel.
4. Use of catalytic converters.
5. Application of stringent pollution-level norms for vehicles.
6. Implementation of Bharat stage I, which is equivalent to euro II norms in vehicles of major Indian cities.

The introduction of CNG – powered vehicles has improved Delhi’s air quality, which has lead to a substantial fall in the level of CO₂ and SO₂. However, the problem of Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) and Respiratory Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM) still persists.

Question 6.
Discuss briefly the following:

1. Greenhouse gases
2. Catalytic converter
3. Ultraviolet – B

Answer:
1. Greenhouse gases:
The greenhouse effect refers to an overall increases in the average temperature of the earth due to the presence of greenhouse gases. Greenhouse gases mainly consist of carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour. When solar radiations reach the Earth, some of these radiations are absorbed.

These absorbed radiations are released back into the atmosphere. These radiations are trapped by the greenhouse gases present in the atmosphere. This helps in keeping our planet warm and thus, helps in human survival. However an increase in the amount of greenhouse gases can lead to an excessive increase in the Earth’s temperature, thereby causing global warming.

2. Catalytic converter:
Catalytic converters are devices fitted in automobiles to reduce vehicular pollution. These devices contain expensive metals such as platinum, palladium and rhodium that act as catalysts. As the vehicular discharge passes through the catalytic converter, the unbumt hydrocarbons present in it get converted into carbon dioxide and water. Carbon monoxide and nitric oxide released by catalytic converters are converted into carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas (respectively).

3. Ultraviolet – B:
Ultraviolet – B is an electromagnetic radiation which has a shorter wavelength than visible light. It is a harmful radiation that comes from sunlight and penetrates through the ozone hole on to the earth’s surface. It induces many health hazards in humAnswer: UV – B damages DNA and activates the process of skin ageing. It also causes skin darkening and skin cancer. High levels of UV – B cause comeal cataract in human beings.

Question 7.
Describe the diseases caused due to radioactive pollution.
Answer:
Following diseases are caused by radioactive pollution:

1. Leukaemia and Bone cancer – In human beings and other animals, radioactive pollution causes blood and bone cancer.
2. Ageing – The reproductive capacity of organisms is decreased due to radioactive pollution and ultimately causes ageing.
3. Epidemic disease – Radioactive pollution causes the decreased rate of antitoxin production which affects the immune system and results in the production of epidemic diseases.
4. Nervous system and sensory cells become irritated.
5. Radioactive pollution results skin cancer.
6. Mutations also take place due to radioactive pollution.
7. Thyroid cancer is also produced due to radioactive iodine.

Question 8.
Burning of crackers spread pollution in the environment. Explain.
Answer:
Explosive substances are used in crackers. Crackers are burned for celebration but it causes many harms to the living organisms. Some of the harm effects of burning of crackers are as follows:

1. Air pollution – It releases harmful gases such as CO₂, CO, SO₂ etc. into the atmosphere which causes respiratory diseases.

2. Noise pollution – Burning of crackers produces noise which causes noise pollution which effects our hearing capacity, causes headache, increases heartbeat and blood pressure.

3. Water pollution – Waste of burning of crackers are drained into the pond, river with rainwater or through drain which caused harm to aquatic organisms.

4. Soil pollution – Burning of crackers not only produces smoke of harmful gases but its harmful chemicals mixes with soil and pollute it, which makes the soil sterile and reduced growth of plants.

Question 9.
Write an essay on air pollution.
Answer:
Air pollution:
Any change in the composition of air is called pollution. The chief reason of air pollution is the releasing of harmful gas in the environment that affect our eyes, lungs, skins, heart and brain and produce various disorders in them.

Sources of air pollution : Following are the chief sources of air pollution:

1. Human sources:

• Combustion activities
• Industrial activities
• Agricultural works
• Use of solvents
• Activities concerned with atomic energy

2. Natural sources:
Volcano and its lava, ash, dust, smoke of forest fire, winds, cyclone. Decomposition of matters in the swamp water and liberation of methane gas and different compounds of hydrogen from forests plants, various pollen grains etc.

Effects of air pollution:

• Air pollutant like SO₂ enter the soft tissues causing drying of the mouth, scratching throat and smarting eyes.
• Hydrocarbons and many other pollutants are responsible for causing cancer.
• Oxides of carbon, sulphur and nitrogen diffuse into the blood stream to combine with haemoglobin causing reduction in its oxygen carrying capacity. CO severely damages cardiovascular system and disturbs psychometry functions.
• RA.N. inhibits Hill reaction and thus, decreases photosynthetic production of an ecosystem.

Control of air pollution:

• Industrial smokes must be filtered before releasing it into the atmosphere.
• Tree plantation should be increased and deforestation prevented.
• Use of automobiles should be minimized which reduce the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere.
• The use of crude fuels should be avoided and use of high quality fuels should be recommended.
• Nuclear explosions should be avoided.
• Legal control of air pollution.
• Plantation of air purifying plants.
• Development of parks and gardens in cities.

Question 10.
Name the major air pollutants and their individual effects.
Answer:
Major air pollutants and their individual effects are as follows:

1. Carbon monoxide:
|It is highly poisonous gas. On entering blood stream, it combines with haemoglobin to block oxygen transport function. It causes laziness, headache, disturbance of psychometry functions, decrease in visual perception, serious effects on cardiovascular system etc.

2. Sulphur dioxide:
The animals and human population when exposed to SO₂, suffer from respiratory diseases. It causes chest constriction, headache, vomiting and death from respiratory ailments.

3. Hydrogen sulphide:
Its rotten egg like smell cause nausea, irritation in eyes and throat.

4. Nitrogen oxide:
It inhibits cilia action so that soot and dust penetrate far into the lungs and finally resulting respiratory diseases in human beings and animals. In plants, it causing chlorosis.

5. Aerosoles:
These are the chemicals affecting ozone layer of the atmosphere due to which UV rays enter in the atmosphere and causing various diseases in plants and animals.

6. Ammonia:
It inflame upper respiratory passage in human beings. In plants, it inhibits seed germination, destruction of chloroplast and inhibition of the growth of roots and shoots.

7. Hydrogen chloride:
It affects the leaves of the plants, eyes, respiratory organs of animals and human beings.

8. Hydrocarbons:
It causes yellowing of plants, drying of buds, whereas in man and other animals, mucous glands of eyes and nose are irritated.

Question 11.
Write down the methods to control soil pollution.
Answer:
Methods to control soil pollution:
By following methods soil pollution can be prevented:

1. Government should make provisions for latrines and people should not be allowed to litter in open fields.
2. Solid wastes such as tin, copper, iron, glass etc., should not be dumped into soil.
3. The solid wastes should be recycled to form new materials.
4. Fertilizers and pesticides should be judiciously used.
5. Instead of pesticides to kill pests, biological control methods should be adopted.
6. The,excretory waste of man and cattle should be used to prepare biogas.
7. Clean and well covered dustbins should be used in villages and cities.
8. Closed hollow pipes should be used to collect and discharge liquid wastes.
9. To prevent soil erosion, grass and small plants should be grown.
10. Soil management should be adopted.

Question 12.
What are the sources of soil pollution?
Answer:
Sources of soil pollution:

1. Acid rainwater and water from mines are main sources of soil pollution.
2. Mixing of debris, waste products with the soil cause soil pollution.
3. By excessive use of pesticides and fertilizers, pollute the soil.
4. When industrial wastes are discharged in the soil, they also pollute the soil.
5. Heavy metals example Cadmium, Zinc, Nickel, Arsenic etc., are mixed with the soil from mines. These metals are harmful for plants as well as primary and secondary consumers, in a food chain.
6. Bones of dead animals, paper putrified flesh and food, iron, copper, mercury etc., pollute the soil.
7. In our villages and rural areas, where there are no latrines, people go in fields for being at ease. From their stool also the soil is polluted.
8. Insecticides like D.D.T. is very dangerous substance. When these enter the body of consumers from producers, their concentration is increased because these are non – degradable substances. Moreover, these can remain in the atmosphere for upto 15 years.

Question 13.
What is visible spectrum? Write short note on spectrum of solar light and also write effect of UV rays on the living organisms.
Answer:
The visible spectrum is the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human eye. Electromagnetic radiation in this range of wavelength is called visible light or simply light. It ranges from 390 nm to 760 nm wavelength.

Different spectrum of sunlight (solar light):
Spectrum of sunlight can be divided into three parts :

1. Ultraviolet spectrum – The UV spectrum covers the wavelength range 100 – 390 nm and is divided into three bands. It is invisible.
2. Visible spectrum – It include light of ranges from 390 to 760 nm wavelength.
3. Infrared spectrum – Light ranges 760 nm above is called as infrared ray. It is also invisible.

Effect of UV rays in the living organisms:

1. It make DNA abnormal thus, protein sythesis in the body get effected.
2. It may cause skin cancer.
3. It supress immune system of the body.
4. It causes sunburn and premature ageing of skin.
5. It causes formation of harmful photochemical smog which causes respiratory diseases.
6. It damage eyes.

Question 14.
Explain non – ionising and ionising radiation.
Answer:
Types of radiations on the basis of their action on cells, radiations are of two types :

1. Non – ionising radiations:
These include ultraviolet rays (UV rays; 100-300 nm), these have low penetration capacity. These affect only ‘those cells which absorb them. The cause are as following :

• Sunburn – It includes rupturing of sub – cutaneous blood capillaries, blisters, reddening of skin and injury to stratum germinativum.
• Snow blindness – It damages eyesight due to damage of corneal cells.
• Inactivation of organic bio-molecules and formation of thymin dimer in DNA.
• However they cause cancer, tumor, skin disease, etc.

2. Ionizing radiations :
These include X – rays, cosmic rays and atomic radiations.

These radiations have low wavelengths but high penetration power. These damage the living cells shifting the electron from one to other bio – molecule. Their harmful effects are as follows:

1. Short range effects : These may appear within few days or a few weeks after exposure. The effects include loss of hair, nails, subcutaneous bleeding, metabolic changes, change in proportion of blood cells, dead tissues or death of the organisms in high dose.

2. Long range effects : These appear in several months or even several years after their exposure. These cause tumours, cancers, mutations, genetic deformities, shorter life span and developmental defects.

Question 15.
What are sources of noise pollution? Write any four effects of noise pollution.
Answer:
Sources of noise pollution:
Noise is either natural such as thunder or man – made. The common sources of noise pollution are :

1. Industries such as textile mills, printing-press, engineering establishments, etc.
2. Defence equipment and vehicles such as tanks, artillery and rocket launching explosions, practise firing, etc.
3. Transport vehicles as trains, trucks, buses, two – wheelers, jet planes, etc. and accessory noise produced by horns, sirens.
4. Other applications as dynamite blasting, use of jack hammers, pile drivers, bulldozer, lawn mowers, etc.

Effects of noise pollution:

1. The more acute and immediate effect of noise pollution is impairing of hearing leading to auditory fatigue and may finally lead to deafness.
2. Interference with speech communication.
3. Noise pollution leads to neurosis, anxiety, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, hepatic stress, giddiness.
4. Annoyance leading to ill – temper, bickering, mental disorientation and violent behaviour.
5. The high intensity of noise pollution can cause blood vessels to contract, skin becomes pale, muscles to contract and adrenaline to be shot into blood stream with consequence rise in blood pressure. This ultimately results in tension and nervousness.
6. Affects different metabolic activities.

Question 16.
What is Greenhouse effect? Write any four impacts of Greenhouse effect
Answer:
Greenhouse effect:
The Greenhouse effect may therefore, be defined as “The progressive warming up of the earth’s surface due to blanketting effect of man – made CO₂ in the atmosphere. It means the excessive presence of those gases blocked in the infrared radiation from earth’s surface to the atmosphere leading to an increase in temperature, which in turn would make life difficult on earth to forthcoming future generations.

Four impacts of Greenhouse effects are :

1. Effect on global climate:
The climate of earth has never been free of change. Its composition, temperature and self – cleansing ability have all varied since, the planet first formed. Yet the pace in the past two countries has been remarkable. The atmosphere’s composition in particular has changed significantly faster than it has at any time in human history.

Increase in Greenhouse gases does not increase the temperature of the earth i. e., it is not uniform. Temperature is normal at poles and is very less at tropics. In Iceland, Greenland, Sweden, Norway, Finland, Alaska, Siberia, temperature is more, thus at poles, ice starts melting.

2. Effect of Greenhouse Effect on forests:
When the atmospheric temperature increases, only those plants can survive which can bear high temperature. Because of this, new species of plant also come into existence, Herbaceous plant can not survive in this high temperature. Plants with high wood will increase in number. According to a survey if the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere is doubled, there will be a great decrease in a green biomass.

3. Effect on crops:
The positive aspect of greenhouse effect will be on agriculture. Because, CO₂ is a natural fertilizer, the plants will grow larger and faster with increasing CO₂ in the atmosphere. At first sight, the abnormal growth of plants might be expected to be beneficial because the yields of major crops might increase, however chances of depletion of characters and productivity of soil are also associated with this.

4. Effect on ozone layer:
During depletion, the chlorine, fluorine, or bromine molecules of CFCs and halogens are converted into reactive free radical form by photochemical reactions from their intial non – reactive sites. Oxides of nitrogen generally inactivate Cl but the lowering of stratospheric temperature changes NO₂ into non – reactive nitric acid. Thus, Cl or F are free to react with ozone, distintegrating it into O₂ + O. The tiny ice particles during winter favours the conversion of chlorine into chlorine monoxide, which behaves as a catalytic compound. The abundance of chloromonoxide rich air in stratosphere continues to rise. Chlorine monoxide react with nascent oxygen and thereby gets converted into chlorine. Thus, the cycle continues destroying the ozone level.

MP Board Class 12th Biology Important Questions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 7th Special English Solutions Chapter 16 The Pied Piper of Hamelin-I PDF download, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

Class 7 English Chapter 16 The Pied Piper of Hamelin-I Questions and Answers

The Pied Piper of Hamelin-I Class 7th Question Answer

Read and learn

Comprehension

A. Answer these questions:

Question 1.
What was Anand doing?
Answer:
Anand was trying to learn by heart some interesting verses about rats. He was reading these verses abroad.

Question 2.
What made Ravi and Ashok smile at Anand?
Answer:
This made Ravi and Ashok smile at him (Anand).

Question 3.
How did the rats make the people uncomfortable?
Answer:
The rats ate all grains, flour, bread and cheese. They got into their shoes, hats and pockets. They lay in beds and cradles of children and bit the babies. They attacked and killed kittens and puppies. They confronted dogs and cats. In this way, the rats made the people uncomfortable.

Question 4.
Where did the people go one day?
Answer:
One day the people went to the Town Hall in a body to meet the Mayor.

Question 5.
Where was the Mayor?
Answer:
The Mayor with his councillors was in the Town Hall.

Question 6.
What were the councillors in constant fear of?
Answer:
The councillors were in constant fear of losing their jobs. They feared that they would be turned out of office if nothing was done about getting the people of Hamelin rid of the wicked rats.

Question 7.
How much time did the Mayor want to settle things?
Answer:
First of all, the Mayor required a month’s time to settle things. But the people shouted. Finally, he requested them to give him a week’s time.

Question 8.
What did the Mayor promise the people?
Answer:
The Mayor promised the people to get them rid of the rats. He asked them for a week’s time for this work.

B. Say True or False.

1. Ashok was reading verses aloud. T / F
2. Anand told the story of the Pied Piper. T / F
3. The pfeople were not afraid of rats. T / F
4. All the grain was eaten up. T / F
5. The rats were afraid of cats and dogs. T / F

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False.

C. Fill in the blank spaces by choosing the correct option
1. All the grain was eaten up by …………
(i) rats
(ii) cats
(in) dogs
Answer:
(i) rats

2. Rats attacked the poor little …………
(i) babies
(ii) kittens and puppies
(iii) goats
Answer:
(ii) kittens and puppies

3. One day ………… went in a body to the twon hall.
(i) the people
(ii) the Mayor
(iii) a lady
Answer:
(i) the people

4. What is …………… doing?
(i) the people
(ii) the Mayor
(iii) Ravi
Answer:
(ii) the Mayor

5. I am not giving you fine words. I am ………… too.
(i) happy
(ii) robbed of
(iii) worried
Answer:
(iii) worried

Word Power

A. Give one word for

1. Father’s father…………
2. Member of the council ………..
3. A place where printing is done ……….
4. The first citizen of India …………
5. A baby cat ………….

Answer:

1. Grandfather
2. Councillor
3. Press
4. President
5. kitten

B. Encircle the odd one.

1. flour, wheat, bread, vegetable.
2. children, kitten, puppies, neighbour
3. the President, the Governor, the Chief Minister, the teacher
4. tree, plant, flower, jug
5. Diwali, Id, Holi, month

Answer:

1. vegetable
2. neighbour
3. the teacher
4. jug
5. month.

Grammar in Use

Fill in the blank spaces with ‘besides’ ‘however’
1. Sita, Geeta, Reeta wanted to go to cinema. Sita ………… could not go because her mother was ill, ……….. she had to complete her homework.
2. Little boy fought bravely. He could not ………… defeat the robber ………. other men came to fight with him.
3. The merchant wanted to get money out of the farmer. The farmer ………. was not so simple, his story was even better than the merchant’s and so the merchant had to pay.
Answer:
1. however, besides
2. however, besides,
3. however.

Let’s Talk

Imagine that you are really troubled by rats in your house. Tell the class what do the rats do.
Answer:
The rats eat up all the food items. They enter the people’s shoes, hats and pockets. They lie in the beds and cradles. They kill kittens and puppies. They even bite the small babies.

Let’s Write

Based on your discussion with your friends write a note on the topic. How rats trouble you in the house.
Use the following clues, nibble, food, wheat, clothes, toys, cat, chasing, them.
How rats trouble you in the house.
Answer:
How Rates Trouble you in the House:
The rats eat up cooked food and grain like wheat, barley, gram, millet and maize. They nibble our clothes and tear holes in them. They nibble the toys and bite babies, kittens and puppies. They chase cats and dogs.

Let’s Do it

Collect stories and poems about rats and share them with your class.
Answer:
Class-room Activity

The Pied Piper of Hamelin-I Word Meaning

MP Board Class 7 Supplementary English Question Answer

• My Land Class 7 Question Answer
• A New Idea of Good Manners Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wheat is Cheaper-I Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wheat is Cheaper-II Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wasp and the Bee Class 7 Question Answer
• The Kings Choice Class 7 Question Answer
• Akbar and Birbal Class 7 Question Answer
• The Arrow and the Song Class 7 Question Answer
• Shravan Kumar Class 7 Question Answer
• Thomas Alva Edison Class 7 Question Answer
• Leisure Class 7 Question Answer
• Ramkrishna Paramhansa Class 7 Question Answer
• Words, Words, Words Class 7 Question Answer
• The Country Faith Class 7 Question Answer
• Uphill Class 7 Question Answer
• The Pied Piper of Hamelin-I Class 7 Question Answer
• The Pied Piper of Hamelin-II Class 7 Question Answer
• The Great Pyramid Class 7 Question Answer
• Song of Radha, the Milkmaid Class 7 Question Answer
• The Story of Writing Class 7 Question Answer
• Tansen Class 7 Question Answer

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 7th Special English Solutions Chapter 15 Uphill PDF download, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

Class 7 English Chapter 15 Uphill Questions and Answers

Uphill Class 7th Question Answer

Listen and Repeat

way   night    weak
may   right    peak
bay    might   leak

Comprehension

Answer the questions given below:

Question 1.
Who has written the poem ‘Uphill’?
Answer:
Christina Georgina Rossetti has written the poem ‘Uphill’.

Question 2.
Does the road wind uphill all the way?
Answer:
Yes, the road winds uphill all the way.

Question 3.
Does the poetess rest in the night? If yes, where?
Answer:
Yes, the poetess rests in the night on reaching the inn in the darkness.

Question 4.
What happens at the end of the journey?
Answer:
The traveller forgets all his miseries and feels relieved at the end of the journey.

Question 5.
Who will not keep the poetess standing at the door?
Answer:
The travellers who have gone ahead will not keep the poetess standing at the door.

Question 6.
Write the central idea of the poem ‘Uphill’?
Answer:
In this poem, the poet compares our life to an uphill journey through a winding road. It is full of hurdles and discomforts; toils and turmoils. At the end of the journey, the tired traveller will get a resting place and a bed. Then he would forget all his troubles. Rest is the reward for one’s hard labour.

Word Power

A. Write at least two words rhyming with ‘ the words given below:

B. Find’words (at least six from the poem) from this word square:

1. ……….
2. ……….
3. ……….
4. ……….
5. ……….
6. ……….
7. ……….
Answer:
1. dark
2. journey
3. seek
4. not
5. door
6. keep
7. labour

Let’s Talk

Pachmari is a famous hill station. The nearest main railway station is Hoshangabad. Discuss in group and plan a visit to Pachmari, where you can see famous waterfall, green hills and ancient caves. Keep the following points in mind while making the plan.

Question 1.
Friends who will go with you.
Answer:
Manoj, Tara, Sunil, Anil, Phool Kumar and yash will go with me.

Question 2.
Things you will take with you.
Answer:
Tea material and woollen clothes.

Question 3.
Money and other things you will need.
Answer:
One thousand rupees each; a guide book.

Question 4.
Guide book and other things.
List all the names and things after dis-cussing with your group.
Answer:
Guide book, Biscuits and Saltish eat-ables.

Let’s Write

A. On the basis of your discussion (Exercise4) write at least two para-graphs on your visit to Pachmari.
A visit to Pachmari :
There are many hill station in India Shimla, Dalhousie, Mussoorrie, Darjeeling and Nainital are very famous of them. The climate of these hill stations in pleasant in summer months. I have seen all these hill stations.

This year, I went with my friends to pachmari. It is a famous hill station. We reached Hoshangabad by train. Then we reached Pachmari by a mini bus. It ran at a very slow speed through high hills. We booked a hotel. We put on warm clothes and carried our rain coats and folding umbrellas. In the afternoon, we went out to see famous waterfall green hills and ancient caves. We got tired. We prepared tea. After taking tea, we rested for an hour and returned to our hotel.

B. Write an application to the principal of your school requesting him to arrange a picnic.
Answer:
Do Yourself.

Let’s Do It

Complete the lines from the poem:
Question 1.
Does the road wind uphill all the way?
Answer:
Yes, to the very end.

Question 2.
Will the day’s journey take the whole long day?
Answer:
From mom to night, my friend.

Question 3.
But is there for the night a resting place?
Answer:
A roof, for when the slow, dark hours begin.

Question 4.
May not the darkness hide it from my face?
Answer:
You cannot miss that inn.

Uphill Word Meaning

Page 92: Wind – coiling – बल खाती हुई, Whole – entire – समूचा, Hide – conceal – छुपाना, Wayfarers – travellers on foot-way – बटोही, Knock – tap – खटखटाना, Comfort – ease – आराम, Sore – in grief – दुःखी, Seek – search for – तलाश करना, Journey – travel – यात्रा, Hide – conceal – छुणना, Miss – lose – खोना।

Uphill Stanzas for Comprehension

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow each:

1. Does the road wind uphill all the way?
Yes, to the very end.
Will the day’s journey take the whole long day?
From morn to night, my friend.

Question 1.
Where does the road go winding?
Answer:
The road goes on winding up the hill.

Question 2.
How long will the day’s journey take?
Answer:
The day’s journey will take the whole day long.

Question 3.
Use the phrase ‘the whole day long’ in a sentence.
Answer:
The farmers work in the fields the whole day long.

Question 4.
Use the word ‘uphill’ in a sentence.
Answer:
To earn a million rupees is an uphill task for me.

2. But is there for the night a resting-place?
A roof, for when the slow, dark hours begin.
May not the darkness hide it from my face?
You cannot miss that inn.
Shall I meet other wayfarers at night?
Those who have gone before.
Then must I knock, or call when just in sight?
They will not keep you standing at that door.

Question 1.
What things does the traveller need for the night?
Answer
The traveller needs a resting place and a bed for the night.

Question 2.
Can you miss that inn?
Answer
No, we cannot miss that inn.

Question 3.
What can hide the inn from the traveller’s face?
Answer
The darkness can hide the inn, from the traveller’s face.

Question 4.
Use the word miss in another form.
Answer
Miss Sheela is a beautiful girl.

Question 5.
Who are the other wayfarers?
Answer
The other wayfarers are the people who have gone before.

Question 6.
Will they keep him standing at the door?
Answer
No, they will not keep him standing at the door.

Question 7.
Use the phrase ‘in sight’ in a sentence.
Answer
There is no farmhouse in sight nearby.

Question 8.
Use the word ‘keep’ in a sentence.
Answer
Keep yourself busy.

3. Shall I find comfort, travel-sore and weak?
Of labour you shall find sum.
Will there be beds for me and all who seek?
Yea, beds for all who come.

Question 1.
Who does ‘I’ refer to here?
Answer:
I here refers to the poet.

Question 2.
What does the travel-sore poet long for?
Answer:
The travel-sore poet longs for comfort.

Question 3.
Will there be beds for all the seekers?
Answer:
Yes, there will be beds for all the seekers.

Question 4.
Use the phrase ‘to find comfort’ in your own sentence.
Answer:
To find comfort is every body’s aim in life.

MP Board Class 7 Supplementary English Question Answer

• My Land Class 7 Question Answer
• A New Idea of Good Manners Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wheat is Cheaper-I Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wheat is Cheaper-II Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wasp and the Bee Class 7 Question Answer
• The Kings Choice Class 7 Question Answer
• Akbar and Birbal Class 7 Question Answer
• The Arrow and the Song Class 7 Question Answer
• Shravan Kumar Class 7 Question Answer
• Thomas Alva Edison Class 7 Question Answer
• Leisure Class 7 Question Answer
• Ramkrishna Paramhansa Class 7 Question Answer
• Words, Words, Words Class 7 Question Answer
• The Country Faith Class 7 Question Answer
• Uphill Class 7 Question Answer
• The Pied Piper of Hamelin-I Class 7 Question Answer
• The Pied Piper of Hamelin-II Class 7 Question Answer
• The Great Pyramid Class 7 Question Answer
• Song of Radha, the Milkmaid Class 7 Question Answer
• The Story of Writing Class 7 Question Answer
• Tansen Class 7 Question Answer

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 6th Special English Solutions Chapter 1 Kassim and Ali PDF download, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

Class 6 English Chapter 1 Kassim and Ali Questions and Answers

Kassim and Ali Class 6th Question Answer

Word Power

Match the Columns

Answer:

Comprehension

(a) Write yes/no in the given boxes.

1. Ali had read a book of riddles.
2. Kassim knew the answer of the riddle asked by Ali.
3. Ali showed Kassim a blue and red pencil.
4. Kassim and Ali bet of money.
5. Kassim said ‘magic’ words over the pencil.

Answer:

1. no
2. no
3. yes
4. no
5. yes.

(b) Answer these questions:

Question 1
Why was Kassim eager to take a bet with Ali?
Answer:
Kassim was eager to take a bet with Ali, because he was very sure of his success. Moreover his mind was full of riddles. He had nothing to do that day.

Question 2
Who won the first bet? How did he win it?
Answer:
Kassim won the first bet. He won it because he knew the two meanings of the word ‘bark’ (the skin of the tree and cry of the dog). It was their agreement.

Question 3
How is NOISE the correct answer to Kassim’s second questions?
Answer:
NOISE is the correct answer of Kassim’s second question because on taking out its ‘I’, from NOISE only NOSE is left.

Question 4.
How is SMILES the correct answer to Kassim’s third question?
Answer:
‘SMILES’ is the correct answer to Kassim’s third question because in between ‘S’ and ‘S’ of the word SMILES there is a mile, (the word MILE).

Question 5.
Why did Kassim think that Ali had cheated him?
Answer:
Kassim thought that Ali had cheated him. Ali had won nine marbles by asking him a riddle to which he himself did not know the answer. Kassim had given ten marbles to Ali and Ali returned one marble and saved nine.

Question 6.
What kind of pencil did Kassim say he had?
Answer:
Kassim said that he had a pencil which could write any colour that he liked.

Question 7.
What kind of pencil did Kassim really have?
Answer:
In reality, Kassim had only an ordinary pencil.

Question 8.
How did Kassim get back his ten marbles from Ali?
Answer:
Kassim said that his pencil could not write any colour. Ali made a bet for ten marbles with him. Kassim took out his pencil. He recited some magic words. He wrote red, blue, yellow, green orange on a piece of paper. Ali lost the bet. In this way, Kassim got back his ten marbles from Ali.

Grammar in Use

(а) Read this sentence
Anand said. “I have posted the letters.”
This is in direct speech. It can be rewritten in indirect speech thus:
Anand said that he had posted the letters.
Note that the verb have posted become had posted in indirect speech, when the . reporting verb (here ‘say’) is in the past tense.
Here is another example:
Direct Speech : Kamla said, “I have already paid my fees.”
Indirect Speech : Kamla said that she had already paid her fees.

Now rewrite the following in indirect speech, as shown above.

1. The teacher said to Anil, “You have not answered the first question correctly.”
2. The typist said, “I have just finished typing the letters.”
3. “All the boys have left,” Rakesh said to the teacher.
4. “Kassim has cheated me,” Ali thought.
5. “I have had my lunch and I am not hungry,” Ravi said to his friend.

Answer:

1. The teacher said to Anil that he had not answered the first-question correctly.
2. The typist said that he had just finished typing the letters.
3. Rakesh said to the teacher that all the boys had left.
4. Ali thought that Kassim had cheated him.
5. Ravi said to his friend that he had his lunch and he was not hungry.

(b) The phrasal verb “Come up with” has been used in this lesson which mean- “to find an answer, money etc.” Some other phrasal verbs with their meanings are given below:
come down : to break or fall on the ground
come off : to be able to be removed.
come out with : to say something surprising or rude.
come across : to be understood.
come apart : to break into pieces.

Now make sentences with the phrasal verbs given above so as to bring out their meanings.
(come down, come off, come out with, come across, come apart)
Answer:
come down : Ramesh came down from the tree.
come off : I came off the task with difficulty.
come out with : My son came out with the news of his result.
come across : Have you came across this breaking news.
come apart : Suddenly my specs came apart.

Let’s talk

Question 1.
Share some more riddles in the class with your friends.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 2.
Write a paragraph on a wise man/woman.
Answer:
A wise man means a man with wisdom Wisdom gives perfection. It means a wise man knows everything. He does everything perfectly. He can teach the world. He can preach well. He lives his life with all bliss. He is above all worldly affairs. Certainly he is an adorable person.

Question 3.
In this lesson a word ‘bet’ had come as a noun and a verb both. Find out some more similar words with the help of dictionary.
Answer:
1.Water – (n) – We should drink clean water.
Water – (v) – The gardener watered the plants.

2. Pen – (n) – I have bought a new pen.
Pen – (v) – I penned down a letter.

3. Fan – (n) – The fan is moving.
Fan – (v) – My mother fanned me.

4. Handle – (n) – The handle has been broken.
Handle (v) – He handled the problem wisely.

5. Plant – (n) – The plant is green.
Plant – (v) – I planted a tulsi plant.

Kassim and Ali Word Meanings

MP Board Class 6 Supplementary English Question Answer

• Kassim and Ali Class 6 Question Answer
• The Town Child Class 6 Question Answer
• A Boy Judge Class 6 Question Answer
• The Country Child Class 6 Question Answer
• Sultan Saladin and The Jewish Merchant Class 6 Question Answer
• The Righteous King Class 6 Question Answer
• Who Has Seen the Wind Class 6 Question Answer
• Robin Hood and the Sheriff Class 6 Question Answer
• The Naughty Boy Class 6 Question Answer
• Birbal Visits Heaven Class 6 Question Answer
• Rain in Summer Class 6 Question Answer
• Columbus Discovers America-I Class 6 Question Answer
• Columbus Discovers America-II Class 6 Question Answer
• My Plan (Poem) Class 6 Question Answer
• A Caravan Chief Class 6 Question Answer

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 6th Special English Solutions Chapter 7 Who Has Seen the Wind PDF download, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

Class 6 English Chapter 7 Who Has Seen the Wind Questions and Answers

Who Has Seen the Wind Class 6th Question Answer

Word Power

1. Match the column ‘A’ with ‘B’.

Answer:
1. → (d)
2. → (a)
3. → (6)
4. → (e)
5. → (c)

Comprehension

Answer these questions:

Question 1.
Has anyone seen the wind?
Answer:
No, no one has seen the wind.

Question 2.
What do the leaves do when the wind is passing through?
Answer:
The leaves hang trembling when the wind is passing through.

Question 3.
How do we know that the wind is passing by?
Answer:
We know that the wind is passing by when the trees bow down their heads.

Let’s Write

Question 1.
Find.out the name of the seasons hidden in this grid and write them in your note books.

Answer:
Winter, Autumn, Spring.

Who Has Seen the Wind Word Meanings

Page 1: Trembling – shaking, कांपना Bow – bend, झुकना!

MP Board Class 6 Supplementary English Question Answer

• Kassim and Ali Class 6 Question Answer
• The Town Child Class 6 Question Answer
• A Boy Judge Class 6 Question Answer
• The Country Child Class 6 Question Answer
• Sultan Saladin and The Jewish Merchant Class 6 Question Answer
• The Righteous King Class 6 Question Answer
• Who Has Seen the Wind Class 6 Question Answer
• Robin Hood and the Sheriff Class 6 Question Answer
• The Naughty Boy Class 6 Question Answer
• Birbal Visits Heaven Class 6 Question Answer
• Rain in Summer Class 6 Question Answer
• Columbus Discovers America-I Class 6 Question Answer
• Columbus Discovers America-II Class 6 Question Answer
• My Plan (Poem) Class 6 Question Answer
• A Caravan Chief Class 6 Question Answer

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 6th Special English Solutions Chapter 8 Robin Hood and the Sheriff PDF download, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

Class 6 English Chapter 8 Robin Hood and the Sheriff Questions and Answers

Robin Hood and the Sheriff Class 6th Question Answer

Word Power

(a) Make new words by using prefixes.
Example:
un – uneasy, unable.

(a, al, en, dis, im, in, un, mis)
Answer:
a    : alike, affix
al   : altogether, already
en  : enforce, encourage
dis  : disqualify, discontentment
in   : impose, impossible
un  : unseen, unknown
mis : misfortune, misconduct

(b) Make adverb as shown in the example.
Example:
near – nearly

second ………..
easy ………..
last ………..
quick ………….
happy ………..
kind ………..
loud ………..
slow ………….
Answer:
secondly
easily
lastly
quickly
happily
kindly
loudly
slowly

Comprehension

(a) Answer these questions

Question 1.
Why were the Sheriffs feared some persons?
Answer:
Some persons were afraid of Sheriffs because they used to hang a person on a little or no offence.

Question 2.
Who were ‘outlaws’?
Answer:
Outlaws were the men who ran away from the cities for the fear of being punished the Sheriffs. There they joined the company of other men like them.

Question 3.
How did the outlaws make their living?
Answer:
The outlaws used to rob the travellers on the highways. They also killed the deer in the forest to earn money and make their living.

Question 4.
Why was Robin Hood a terror to the rich people?
Answer:
The rich people were afraid of Robin Hood, because he often robbed them of their money. He helped the poor with the booty.

Question 5.
How did the Sheriff show that he was very eager to catch Robin Hood?
Answer:
The Sheriff announced to give half of his wealth to the man who helped him to catch Robin Hood. It shows his eagerness to catch Robin Hood.

Question 6.
What was Robin Hood going to the town for?
Answer:
Robin Hood was going to the town with a view to meet and teach Sheriff a good lesson.

Question 7.
How did Robin Hood get into the disguise of a butcher?
Answer:
Robin Hood purchased meat, apron and a horse from a butcher. He wore his clothes and got into the disguise of a butcher.

Question 8.
Why didn’t the Sheriff allow Robin Hood to pay for the food and drinks?
Answer:
The Sheriff was the host. Therefore, he did not let Robin Hood pay for the dinner, for he was the Sheriffs guest.

(b) Answer these questions

Question 1.
‘Mr. Sheriff’ you have forgotten two things, Robin Hood said. When did Robin Hood say this? What two things had the Sheriff ‘forgotten’?
Answer:
The Sheriff had finished his dinner and was about to leave for his town. Then Robin Hood said these words. The things that Sheriff had forgotten were:

1. he had to buy the animals.
2. he had to pay for the dinner, he had enjoyed at the Green Wood Inn.

Question 2.
Why was the Sheriff not able to buy the animals?
Answer:
The Sheriff did not have enough money with him. Therefore, he was not able to purchase those animals.

Question 3.
When did Robin Hood let the Sheriff go?
Answer:
Robin Hood allowed the Sheriff to leave only after snatching all the money he had.

Question 4.
What did Robin Hood do when he and the Sheriff reached the highway?
Answer:
On reaching the highway, Robin Hood stopped and kicked the Sheriffs horse, which set it running as fast as it could.

(c) Tick (✓) for the correct statements and (✗) the incorrect statements.

1. In olden days in England, the law was very cruel.
2. The Sheriff were lawyers.
3. Robin Hood was the leader of rich travellers.
4. Robin Hood put on the butcher’s apron and took the load of meat to the town.
5. The Sheriff was frightened while he rode out to Sherwood forest.

Answer:

1. (✓)
2. (✓)
3. (✗)
4. (✓)
5. (✓)

Grammar in Use

(a) Read these sentences.

1. The Sheriff has been looking for a chance to catch me.
2. I have been living in this house since 1960.

The verb in italics are in the present perfect continuous tense.
They express actions/which took place over a period of time in the past and may possibly be continuing still.
For example the sentence – means;
Some time ago the Sheriff started looking for a chance to catch me.
He is still looking for a chance.
The sentence (2) means;
I started living in this hour in 1960.
I am still living in it.

Now express the meaning of each pair of sentences below in one sentence, using the present perfect continuous tense (has/have + been + verb – ing)

1. These girls started learning French three years ago. They continue to learn French. (Use ‘for three years’).
2. Shyam started doing his homework at 7”o clock. He is still doing it. (Use -‘Since’)
3. It started raining at 5’o clock yesterday morning. It is still raining. (Use ‘Since’)
4. Our English teacher started teaching in this school in 1964. (Use ‘Since’)
5. “The poor Sheriff started waiting for me a long time ago.”
   “He is still waiting for me” (Use ‘for a long time’).

Answer:

1. These girls have been learning French for three years.
2. Shyam has been doing his homework since To clock.
3. It has been raining since 5’o clock yesterday morning.
4. Our English teacher has been teaching in this school since 1964.
5. The poor Sheriff has been waiting for me for a long time.

(b) Fill in the blanks with phrases given.

(as kindly as, as quickly as, as often as, as soon as, as fast as, as much as)

1. Uma goes to pictures …………. her mother allows her.
2. The boys decided to start for the picnic …………. possible.
3. When the police arrived, the thief ran ………….. his legs could carry him.
4. The teacher spoke to the child …………… she could, but the child kept on crying.
5. “Type this letter ………….. you can. But don’t make any mistake.” said the officer to the typist.
6. During the war people freely gave ……………. they could for the National Defence Fund.

Answer:

1. as often as
2. as soon as
3. as fast as
4. as kindly as
5. as quickly as
6. as much as

Let’s Write

Question 1.
Write down 10 sentences about Robin Hood on the basis of qualities listed above.
Answer:

1. Robin Hood was an outlaw.
2. He lived in the forest of Sherwood.
3. He was the enemy of the rich and friend to the poor.
4. He used to rob the cruel landlords to help the poor.
5. He provided shelter to the people who suffered at the hands of the cruel, wicked and foolish Sheriffs.
6. The Sheriff of that city was his bitter enemy and wanted to catch him.
7. On hearing it, Robin Hood decided to teach him a lesson. At the end he renowned successful in his mission.
8. Rich people were afraid of him but the poor loved him to the core of their hearts.
9. He was kind and just.
10. We appreciate him for his heroic deeds and adventurous nature.

Robin Hood and the Sheriff Word Meanings 

MP Board Class 6 Supplementary English Question Answer

• Kassim and Ali Class 6 Question Answer
• The Town Child Class 6 Question Answer
• A Boy Judge Class 6 Question Answer
• The Country Child Class 6 Question Answer
• Sultan Saladin and The Jewish Merchant Class 6 Question Answer
• The Righteous King Class 6 Question Answer
• Who Has Seen the Wind Class 6 Question Answer
• Robin Hood and the Sheriff Class 6 Question Answer
• The Naughty Boy Class 6 Question Answer
• Birbal Visits Heaven Class 6 Question Answer
• Rain in Summer Class 6 Question Answer
• Columbus Discovers America-I Class 6 Question Answer
• Columbus Discovers America-II Class 6 Question Answer
• My Plan (Poem) Class 6 Question Answer
• A Caravan Chief Class 6 Question Answer

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 7th Special English Solutions Chapter 14 The Country FaithPDF download, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

Class 7 English Chapter 14 The Country Faith Questions and Answers

The Country Faith Class 7th Question Answer

Listen and Repeat

Comprehension

A. Answer the questions given below:

Question 1.
What does the poet mean by country’s heart?
Answer:
‘By country’s heart the poet means the green grass in the villages of India. (Rural area)

Question 2.
Is life sweet as it has been earlier?
Answer:
The country life is ever sweet.

Question 3.
When does the bell ring?
Answer:
The bell rings in the morning.

Question 4.
Do the villagers trust in God?
Answer:
Yes, the villagers trust in God.

Question 5.
Whom do the villagers give credit for their prosperity?
Answer:
The villagers give credit to God (who sends rain)

Question 6.
Does the rain in villages begin with the mercy of God?
Answer:
Yes, the rain in villages begins with the mercy of God.

Question 7.
What is the best of all the country- people?
Answer:
The country faith is the best of all for the country-people.

B. Read the following and tick true or false:

1. Life is never the same sweet life. T / F
2. Trust in God starts with the morning bell. T / F
3. The villagers believe the growth of crops is due to God’s mercy. T / F
4. God disappears when the rain starts. T / F

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

Word Power

Find the opposites of the words in column (A) from the words given in Column (B) and match them:

Answer:
1. → (h)
2. → (g)
3. → (d)
4. → (i)
5. → (a)
6. → (b)
7. → (c)
8. → (j)
9. → (e)
10. → (f)

Let’s Talk

Sit in a group and ask your friend to answer the questions:

Let’s Write

Read the following table carefully and write answers to the questions given after it:

Example:
Why is Varanasi Famous?
Answer:
Varanasi is famous for the Viswanath Temple.

Question 1.
What is the name of the famous monument at Agra?
Answer:
The famous monument is called Taj Mahal.

Question 2.
Where is the Victoria Memorial situated?
Answer:
The Victoria Memorial is situated in kolkata.

Question 3.
Which famous gurudwara is in Amritsar?
Answer:
The famous Gurudwara is the Golden Temple.

Question 4.
Which famous fort is in Delhi?
Answer:
Delhi’s famous fort is Red fort.

Let’s Do It

Recite the poem in the class and go to school library to find a poem based on God’s importance.
Answer:
Class-room Activity

The Country Faith Word Meaning

Page 86: Country – rural area – ग्रामीण क्षेत्र, Sweet – pleasant – सुहावना, Ever – always – सदा, Trust – faith, belief – विशवास भरोसा, Still – even now, yet – अभी तक, Floats – swims, waves, – बहाना लहराना, Thought – idea – विचार, Rising – growing – उगती हुई, Corn – grain – अनाज, Faith – belief – विशवास

The Country Faith Stanzas for Comprehension

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow each:

1. Here in the country’s heart
Where the grass is green
Life is the same sweet life
As it e’er hath been.

Question 1.
Where does the country’s heart live?
Answer:
The country’s heart lives in the green grass.

Question 2.
What type of life is there in the country?
Answer:
The life there is sweet.

Question 3.
Use the word ‘some’ and ‘ever’ in your sentences.
Answer:
(i) Rangu is the same man as was beaten yesterday.
(ii) Kamesh has even been a thief.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of the word ‘country’ here?
Answer:
‘Country’ here means the villages or the rural area.

2. Trust in God still lives.
And the bell at mom
Floats with a thought of God
O’er the rising corn.
God comes down in the rain,
And the crop grows tall-
This is the country faith,
And the best of all!

Question 1.
Where does trust in God still live?
Answer:
Trust in God still lives in the rural area.

Question 2.
What is the morning bell full of?
Answer:
The morning bell is full of a thought of God.

Question 3.
What floats over the rising corn?
Answer:
The ringing of the bell floats over the rising corn.

Question 4.
Use the word ‘corn’ in a sentence.
Answer:
The crops produce com.

Question 5.
Who comes down on earth in rain?
Answer:
God comes down on earth in rain.

Question 6.
What causes the growth of com?
Answer:
The rain causes the growth of corn.

Question 7.
Which is the best of all the faiths?
Answer:
The country faith is the best of all.

Question 8.
Use the phrase ‘come down’ in your sentence.
Answer:
Jag Mohan has come down to the position of a beggar.

MP Board Class 7 Supplementary English Question Answer

• My Land Class 7 Question Answer
• A New Idea of Good Manners Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wheat is Cheaper-I Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wheat is Cheaper-II Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wasp and the Bee Class 7 Question Answer
• The Kings Choice Class 7 Question Answer
• Akbar and Birbal Class 7 Question Answer
• The Arrow and the Song Class 7 Question Answer
• Shravan Kumar Class 7 Question Answer
• Thomas Alva Edison Class 7 Question Answer
• Leisure Class 7 Question Answer
• Ramkrishna Paramhansa Class 7 Question Answer
• Words, Words, Words Class 7 Question Answer
• The Country Faith Class 7 Question Answer
• Uphill Class 7 Question Answer
• The Pied Piper of Hamelin-I Class 7 Question Answer
• The Pied Piper of Hamelin-II Class 7 Question Answer
• The Great Pyramid Class 7 Question Answer
• Song of Radha, the Milkmaid Class 7 Question Answer
• The Story of Writing Class 7 Question Answer
• Tansen Class 7 Question Answer

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 6th Special English Solutions Chapter 13 Columbus Discovers America-II PDF download, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

Class 6 English Chapter 13 Columbus Discovers America-II Questions and Answers

Columbus Discovers America-II Class 6th Question Answer

Word Power

(a) Match the words given under A with clues given under B.

Answer:
1. → (f)
2. → (e)
3. → (g)
4. → (b)
5. → (c)
6. → (d)
7. → (a)

(b) Fill in the blanks with the words given.

(came upon, interior, close, affection, admire, shore, carved. )

1. Both Gandhiji and Jawaharlal Nehru had great …………. for children and loved to be in their company.
2. Carrying an electric torch I entered the dark cave and explored its ……………
3. If you go to Mahabalipuram near Chennai, don’t fail to see the five stone chariots called the chariots or the Pandavas. Each of these has ………….. been out of single stone.
4. When a ship comes to port, the sailors go on ……………. for some times.
5. Prof. Das is young, handsome and intelligent. All his students ……………. him greatly.
6. The headmaster of our school lives in a house …………… to the school.
7. The children who were digging the ground for fun ……………… a pot full of gold and silver coins!

Answer:

1. affection
2. interior
3. carved
4. shore
5. admire
6. close
7. came upon.

Comprehension

(a) Fill in the blanks with the words given below.

(Warmth, land, called, admiral, recovered, candle doubt, affection, forgave, explored, came upon, forgiveness, explored, see, carved.)
Columbus was the ……………. of the ships sailing in search of a sea-route of India. They had been sailing for months but they were unable to ………….. any land. On 11th October, the crew …………… from the sea the top of a table and a ………….. stick. At night they could see a light which went up and down like a …………… There was no ………….. that the light was from ………….. Some of the crew had made plans against Columbus. Now when they came to land they asked his ……………. Columbus ………….. them and spoke to them with ……………. and ……………. . For more than two months Columbus …………. the sea around and then he …………… some islands, He …………….. them the ‘Indies’.
Answer:
admiral, see, recovered, carved, candle, doubt, land, forgiveness, forgave, affection, warmth, explored, came upon, called.

(b) Arrange the following events in the sequence they happened in the text to make paragraph.

1. Columbus forgave the crew.
2. Columbus explored the sea around for two months.
3. Rodrigo de Trianna saw the land first.
4. The crew recovered from the sea the top of a table and a carved stick.
5. On 11th October, they saw some clear signs of land.
6. Some members of the crew had made plans against Columbus.
7. Columbus made four voyages across the Atlantic.
8. Columbus discovered the existence of a new continent which he believed to be India.
9. Columbus saw a light towards west in the night.
Answer:
5. On 11th October, they saw some clear signs of land.
4. The crew recovered from the sea the top of a table and a carved stick.
9. Columbus saw a light towards west in the night.
3. Rodrigo de Trianna saw the land first.
6. Some members of the crew had made plans against Columbus.
1. Columbus forgave the crew.
2. Columbus explored the sea around for two months.
7. Columbus made four voyages across the Atlantic.
8. Columbus discovered the existence of a new continent which he believed to be India.

(c) Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What signs of land did Columbus and his men see from their ship?
Answer:
From their ship, Columbus and his sailors caught sight of a table board and a carved stick floating by. The men in one of ships also saw branches of a tree, laden with fruits near the ship. These were the sure signs of land.

Question 2.
What did Rodrigo see?
Answer:
Rodrigo saw land.

Question 3.
What was the reward the king and the queen had promised?
Answer:
The king and queen had promised a pension of ten thousand copper coins to the man who saw land first.

Question 4.
Who got reward in the end?
Answer:
Columbus, being the leader of the part got the reward in the end.

Question 5.
Why was Rodrigo disappointed?
Answer:
Rodrigo got disappointed because he was not given the reward which he was expecting.

Question 6.
How long did Columbus and his men sail before they reached land?
Answer:
Before reaching land, Columbus and his men sailed for seventy days.

Question 7.
Who did Columbus forgive?
Answer:
Columbus pardoned all the sailors who had been planning against him so far.

Question 8.
Why did Columbus call it island he had discovered “The Indies”?
Answer:
Thinking, that he had discovered the island on the east of India Columbus called those islands ‘The Indies’.

Question 9.
Why was Columbus’s discovery specially important?
Answer:
The discovery of Columbus was more significant in the way that he had discovered a new continent i.e., America. He had in reality discovered the New World.

Grammar in Use

Change the following, passage into past tense:
Two boys are riding very fast on a motorcycle. They want to overtake the car before them. Suddenly a boy on a cycle comes by the side of the car. The boys on the motorcycle do not want to hit the boy on the cycle. So they turn to the other side. But a truck coming from that side dashes against them. People carry the two and take them to the near by hospital.
Answer:
Two boys were riding very fast on a motorcycle. They wanted to overtake the car before them. Suddenly a boy on a cycle came by the side of the car. The boys on the motorcycle did not want to hit the boy on the cycle. So they turned to the other side But a truck coming from that side dashed against them People carried the two boys and took them to the nearby hospital.

Let’s Talk

Work in pairs. Imagine that you are in the crew of Columbus. Talk to your partner about the problems you are facing on the ship. Discuss how will you overcome these problems. Make a list of the problems and how you will solve them. Discuss it in the class.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Let’s Write

Question 1.
Describe in a paragraph the events that happened during the last days before Columbus and his men stepped on land.
Answer:
On 11th Oct. the sailors recovered from the sea a table board, a carved stick and a branch of tree having fruit on it, floating by. It was a clear cut indication of the land. At 10 p.m., Columbus saw a dim light in the west. Two other sailors confirmed him. Rodrigo de Triana was the first person to catch sight of land at about 2 a m. on 12th of October, 1942. Columbus stepped on the level shores of the small island, carrying a flag of Spain in his hand. Other captains and crew members followed him.

Columbus Discovers America-II Word Meanings

MP Board Class 6 Supplementary English Question Answer

• Kassim and Ali Class 6 Question Answer
• The Town Child Class 6 Question Answer
• A Boy Judge Class 6 Question Answer
• The Country Child Class 6 Question Answer
• Sultan Saladin and The Jewish Merchant Class 6 Question Answer
• The Righteous King Class 6 Question Answer
• Who Has Seen the Wind Class 6 Question Answer
• Robin Hood and the Sheriff Class 6 Question Answer
• The Naughty Boy Class 6 Question Answer
• Birbal Visits Heaven Class 6 Question Answer
• Rain in Summer Class 6 Question Answer
• Columbus Discovers America-I Class 6 Question Answer
• Columbus Discovers America-II Class 6 Question Answer
• My Plan (Poem) Class 6 Question Answer
• A Caravan Chief Class 6 Question Answer

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 7th Special English Solutions Chapter 1 My Land PDF download, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

Class 7 English Chapter 1 My Land Questions and Answers

My Land Class 7th Question Answer

Listen and Repeat

Fresh and Fair
Dear and Rare
Rich and Rare
Waver Braver

Comprehension

Choose the correct option-
(i) What do you think the poem is about?
(a) country and country-men
(b) village
(c) town
Answer:
(a) country and country-men

(ii) By what name does the poet call his country?
(a) great land
(b) native land
(c) mother land
Answer:
(b) native land

(iii) What does the poet say about the men in the poem?
(a) coward
(b) lazy
(c) brave
Answer:
(c) brave

(iv) List the words which have been used by the poet in the poem for native land
Answer:
dear and rare, true and bold, rare and fair.

Word Power

A. Use the words given below in on complete sentence each:
dear, rare, divine, pine
Answer:
Priya Gupta in Hardik’s dear friend.
Honesty is a rare thing these days.
Truth is a divine virtue.
She pines for her lover.

B. Make new words adding ‘en’ at the beginning of the word as shown in the example:

1. rich – enrich
2. list
3. circle
4. able
5. title
6. sure

Answer:

1. enrich
2. enlist
3. en-circle
4. enable
5. entitle
6. ensure.

C. Find words from this words square:

Answer:

1. Flower
2. Fresh
3. Earl
4. Dear
5. Hat
6. Dry
7. Yes
8. Squirrel
9. Sharp
10. Land
11. Date
12. Too
13. Lay
14. Air

Let’s Talk

‘C’ can be pronounced as:
‘K’ as in cow ‘s’ as in cell
Read aloud and according to their pronunciation separate the following words and write them in proper columns (work in pairs)
attendance Cell, Sentence, Cow, Crane, Correct, Historical Place, Clear, Inspector
Answer:

Let’s Write

A. Match the sentences given at the end with the correct pictures and rearrange the sentences to make a story. Write the complete story in your notebook.
1. Then she found a pup.
2. She brought it home, bandaged its leg and gave it milk and food.
3. Later Sangita had to keep it tied because it chased the hens from the neighbour’s house.
4. It was hurt in one leg. It was crying a lot.
5. Once Sangita went for a walk in the morning. She saw many beautiful flowers and birds on the way.
6. The puppy barked at all the cats in the street.
7. The dog started living with her. It folllowed her every where.
Answer:
The Correct order of sentence is.
5, 1, 4, 2, 3, 6, 7.

Once Sangita went for a walk in the morning she saw many beautiful flowers and birds on the way. Then she found a pup. It was hurt in one leg. It was crying a lot. She brought it home, bandaged its leg and gave it milk and food. Later Sangita had to keep it tied because it chased the hens from the neighbour’s house. The puppy barked at all the cats in the street, The dog started living with her. It followed her everywhere.

Let’s Di It

A. Read different situations of city and village life given in the circle and enlist them accordingly.

Answer:

My Land Word Meanings

Page: Rare – uncommon विरली, Native land – land of birth जन्म भूमि, Braver – bolder अधिक सुरवीर, Waver – shake हिलना, डोलना, Freely – willingly इच्छ से, Dull – tasteless स्वादरहित, Guard – protect रक्षा करना, Virtue – good qualities सदुगुणा, Reward – return for sevice पुरस्कार, Foe – enemy शत्रु, Border – boundary सीमा, Pine – to suffer कष्ट झेलना

My Land Stanzas for Comprehension

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow each :
A. She is rich and rare land:
O, she a fresh and fair land:
She is a dear and rare land,
This native land of mine.

Question.
1. Complete the sentence: She is a rich and ……….
2. Complete the sentence: She is a fresh and ………
3. Complete the sentence: She is a dear and ……….
4. Give the meaning of native land.
Answer:
1. She is a rich and rare land.
2. She is a fresh and fair land.
3. She is a dear and rare land.
4. Native land means the land of one’s birth.

B. No men than hers are braver,
Her women’s hearts ne’er waver;
I’d freely die to save her,
And think my lot divine.

Question.
1. Which country’ people are the bravest?
2. How are the women’s hearts there?
3. What would the poet do to save his land?
4. Use the word ‘lot’ in a sentence.
Answer:
1. The people of the poet’s country are the bravest.
2. There the women’s hearts are not fickle.
3. The Poet would freely die to save his mother land.
4. Nobody knows what is in his lot.

C. She’s not a dull or cold land;
No! she’s a warm and bold land,
Oh! she’s a true and old land;
This native land of mine.

Question.
1. Give the meaning of cold.
2. Give the meaning of warm.
3. Is the poet’t country dull or cold?
4. Complete the sentence: She is a true and ……….
Answer:
1. Cold here means heartless.
2. Warm here means full of kindly feelings.
3. The peot’t country is neither dull nor cold.
4. She is a true and old land.

D. Could beauty ever guard her,
And virtue still reward her,
No foe would cross her border,
No friend within it pine.

Question.
1. which are the two qualities of the poet’s land?
2. Would the foe ever cross her border?
3. Give the antonyms of : beauty, ever, friend, virtue, reward.
4. Use the word ‘within’ in your own sentence.
Answer:
1. Beauty and virtue are the two qualities of the poet’t land.
2. No, the foe would never cross her border.
3. Ugliness, never, foe, vice, punish.
4. I shall return within a week.

MP Board Class 7 Supplementary English Question Answer

• My Land Class 7 Question Answer
• A New Idea of Good Manners Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wheat is Cheaper-I Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wheat is Cheaper-II Class 7 Question Answer
• The Wasp and the Bee Class 7 Question Answer
• The Kings Choice Class 7 Question Answer
• Akbar and Birbal Class 7 Question Answer
• The Arrow and the Song Class 7 Question Answer
• Shravan Kumar Class 7 Question Answer
• Thomas Alva Edison Class 7 Question Answer
• Leisure Class 7 Question Answer
• Ramkrishna Paramhansa Class 7 Question Answer
• Words, Words, Words Class 7 Question Answer
• The Country Faith Class 7 Question Answer
• Uphill Class 7 Question Answer
• The Pied Piper of Hamelin-I Class 7 Question Answer
• The Pied Piper of Hamelin-II Class 7 Question Answer
• The Great Pyramid Class 7 Question Answer
• Song of Radha, the Milkmaid Class 7 Question Answer
• The Story of Writing Class 7 Question Answer
• Tansen Class 7 Question Answer